Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. A nurse is practicing Swanson’s Theory of Caring with a patient who has just
received a diagnosis of a chronic illness. Which action by the nurse best exemplifies
the "Knowing" process?
o A) Assisting the patient with daily hygiene needs.
o B) Explaining the diagnosis and treatment options clearly.
o C) Spending time listening to the patient’s fears and concerns without making
assumptions.
o D) Providing comfort by adjusting the patient’s position in bed.

Answer: C
Rationale: The "Knowing" process involves striving to understand the event as it has
meaning in the life of the patient, which includes listening without assumptions.

2. Which of the following actions by a nurse demonstrates the "Being With" process in
Swanson’s Theory of Caring?
o A) Administering medications on time.
o B) Sitting quietly with the patient during a difficult moment, offering a hand to
hold.
o C) Educating the patient about their treatment plan.
o D) Anticipating the patient’s needs for the day.

Answer: B
Rationale: "Being With" refers to the emotional presence of the nurse, such as sitting
quietly with the patient and offering physical and emotional support.

3. A nurse is helping a patient who is recovering from surgery. According to

Swanson’s Theory of Caring, which nursing action exemplifies the "Doing For"
process?
o A) Listening to the patient’s concerns about recovery.
o B) Encouraging the patient to express their feelings about the surgery.
o C) Assisting the patient in getting out of bed for the first time.
o D) Discussing the patient’s upcoming physical therapy sessions.

Answer: C
Rationale: "Doing For" involves doing for the patient what they would do for themselves
if they could, such as assisting with mobility.

4. In the context of Swanson's Theory of Caring, how can a nurse best demonstrate the
"Maintaining Belief" process when caring for a patient facing a terminal illness?
o A) Offering to stay late to assist with additional care needs.
o B) Providing the patient with realistic hope and supporting their ability to cope.
o C) Teaching the patient’s family about end-of-life care.
o D) Administering pain medication promptly.
 Answer: B
Rationale: "Maintaining Belief" involves sustaining faith in the patient’s capacity to face
their situation and supporting their emotional and spiritual well-being.

5. Which nursing intervention best illustrates the "Enabling" process in Swanson’s

Theory of Caring?
o A) Helping a patient understand their discharge instructions and encouraging
them to ask questions.
o B) Providing emotional support by staying with a patient during a difficult
procedure.
o C) Administering medications according to the prescribed schedule.
o D) Encouraging a patient to rest after a long day of treatments.

Answer: A
Rationale: "Enabling" involves facilitating the patient’s ability to manage their care, such
as helping them understand and act on their discharge instructions.

Select All That Apply (SATA) Question

6. A nurse is implementing Swanson’s Theory of Caring in her practice. Which of the

following actions reflect the "Knowing" process? (Select all that apply.)
o A) Gathering comprehensive patient history and understanding their cultural
background.
o B) Assisting the patient with activities of daily living.
o C) Recognizing non-verbal cues that indicate the patient’s discomfort.
o D) Assuming the patient’s needs based on previous experiences with similar
cases.
o E) Engaging in active listening to understand the patient’s perspective.

Answers: A, C, E
Rationale: The "Knowing" process involves understanding the patient’s unique situation
by gathering information, recognizing cues, and actively listening, while avoiding
assumptions

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is primarily responsible for executing the Nurse Practice
Acts (NPAs) in each state?

A) The State Legislature

B) The State Board of Nursing
C) The Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN)
D) The National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)

Answer: B) The State Board of Nursing

 2. What is the primary function of the Nurse Practice Acts (NPAs) in relation to
nursing practice?

A) To establish national standards for nursing education

B) To determine the curriculum of nursing programs
C) To regulate nursing practice and define the scope of practice within each state
D) To accredit nursing schools and programs

Answer: C) To regulate nursing practice and define the scope of practice within each
state

3. Which organization is responsible for accrediting nursing education programs

based on criteria established by the Nurse Practice Acts?

A) State Boards of Nursing

B) Accreditation Commission for Education in Nursing (ACEN)
C) Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE)
D) National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN)

Answer: A) State Boards of Nursing

4. In the two-step process of defining the scope of nursing practice, what role does the
state legislature play?

A) Enforcing nursing regulations and rules

B) Accrediting nursing schools
C) Passing the Nurse Practice Acts to regulate nursing practice
D) Developing the nursing curriculum

Answer: C) Passing the Nurse Practice Acts to regulate nursing practice

5. Which title is correctly defined as a nurse with advanced education and training,
including a master's or doctoral degree, according to NPAs?

A) Registered Nurse (RN)

B) Licensed Practical Nurse (LPN)
C) Advanced Practice Nurse (APN)
D) Licensed Vocational Nurse (LVN)

Answer: C) Advanced Practice Nurse (APN)

SATA Question

Select all that apply regarding the role of the Nurse Practice Acts (NPAs):
 A) NPAs identify the specific requirements for nursing licensure.
B) NPAs provide accreditation for nursing education programs.
C) NPAs define the scope and standards of nursing practice within each state.
D) NPAs determine the titles and definitions of various nursing roles.
E) NPAs are enforced by national nursing organizations
Answers: A, C, D

Multiple Choice Questions

1. What is the primary purpose of The Joint Commission (TJC)?

o A) To set national healthcare policies.
o B) To provide financial aid to healthcare facilities.
o C) To accredit hospitals and other healthcare facilities based on their safety
performance, policies, and outcomes.
o D) To establish international healthcare guidelines.

Answer: C) To accredit hospitals and other healthcare facilities based on their safety
performance, policies, and outcomes.

Rationale: The Joint Commission (TJC) is a national organization established to accredit

healthcare institutions based on their safety performance, policies, procedures, and
outcomes. Its primary goal is to ensure high standards of healthcare across the nation.

2. How often are TJC facility evaluation performance scores tracked and submitted to
an independent vendor?
o A) Monthly
o B) Annually
o C) Biannually
o D) Quarterly

Answer: D) Quarterly

Rationale: TJC requires healthcare facilities to submit their safety and quality
performance outcomes monthly, which are then quantified and tracked quarterly by an
independent vendor. This helps identify safety trends and allows facilities to develop
specific action plans.

3. What was the purpose of initiating the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG) by
TJC in 2002?
o A) To reduce healthcare costs.
o B) To identify and implement relevant safety practices in healthcare institutions.
o C) To increase patient admission rates.
o D) To create a universal healthcare system.

Answer: B) To identify and implement relevant safety practices in healthcare

institutions.
 Rationale: The National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG) were initiated by TJC in 2002 to
identify and implement relevant safety practices that healthcare institutions should
accomplish to improve patient safety.

4. What is required of healthcare organizations regarding the National Patient Safety

Goals (NPSG) and Standards of Compliance?
o A) To adopt and consistently meet over 250 standards.
o B) To report all sentinel events within 24 hours.
o C) To implement only the new standards each year.
o D) To focus on financial performance over safety practices.

Answer: A) To adopt and consistently meet over 250 standards.

Rationale: Healthcare organizations are required to adopt and consistently meet the over
250 Standards of Compliance that are part of the National Patient Safety Goals (NPSG)
established by TJC.

5. What triggers the endorsement of new National Patient Safety Goals by TJC?
o A) Changes in healthcare laws.
o B) New technologies in healthcare.
o C) Adverse and sentinel events that have trended nationally.
o D) Requests from healthcare institutions.

Answer: C) Adverse and sentinel events that have trended nationally.

Rationale: The Joint Commission endorses new National Patient Safety Goals each year
based on the analysis of adverse and sentinel events that have trended nationally in
healthcare facilities.

Select All That Apply (SATA)

6. Which of the following statements about The Joint Commission (TJC) are true?
(Select all that apply)
o A) TJC accredits more than 22,000 healthcare institutions and programs.
o B) TJC was established in 1951.
o C) TJC focuses only on financial outcomes in healthcare.
o D) TJC's Standards of Compliance are updated every decade.
o E) TJC's National Patient Safety Goals were initiated in 2002.

Answer:

o A) TJC accredits more than 22,000 healthcare institutions and programs.

o B) TJC was established in 1951.
o E) TJC's National Patient Safety Goals were initiated in 2002.

Rationale:
 o TJC accredits over 22,000 healthcare institutions and programs, was established
in 1951, and initiated the National Patient Safety Goals in 2002. The statements
about TJC focusing only on financial outcomes and updating Standards of
Compliance every decade are incorrect.

Multiple Choice Questions

Question 1
A nurse is planning a teaching session for a patient about managing diabetes at home. Which
cognitive learning outcome is the nurse aiming to achieve if the patient is able to explain how to
monitor blood glucose levels?
a) Remembering
b) Understanding
c) Applying
d) Evaluating

Answer: b) Understanding
Rationale: The patient’s ability to explain how to monitor blood glucose levels demonstrates
understanding, which is the ability to comprehend the material and explain it in their own words.

Question 2
During a health education class, a nurse asks the students to create a care plan for a patient with
hypertension. Which level of Bloom’s Taxonomy does this activity fall under?
a) Remembering
b) Understanding
c) Applying
d) Creating

Answer: d) Creating
Rationale: The task of creating a care plan requires students to synthesize information and
produce an original work, which corresponds to the highest level of Bloom’s Taxonomy—
Creating.

Question 3
Which teaching strategy is most appropriate for promoting cognitive learning in a group of
nursing students learning about medication administration?
a) Demonstration
b) Lecture
c) Role-playing
d) Physical practice
Answer: b) Lecture
Rationale: Lecture is a common strategy for promoting cognitive learning, as it involves the
presentation of information and concepts that students can then understand, remember, and
apply.

Question 4
A nurse evaluates a patient’s ability to interpret dietary labels to manage their chronic kidney
disease. This evaluation assesses which cognitive learning level?
a) Applying
b) Analyzing
c) Understanding
d) Remembering

Answer: b) Analyzing
Rationale: The ability to interpret and draw connections between the dietary information and the
management of a health condition falls under the Analyzing level of Bloom’s Taxonomy.

Question 5
A nursing instructor asks a student to justify the choice of a specific nursing intervention for a
patient with congestive heart failure. Which cognitive learning process is the student being
assessed on?
a) Creating
b) Applying
c) Evaluating
d) Understanding

Answer: c) Evaluating
Rationale: Justifying a decision involves the Evaluating level of cognitive learning, where the
student must assess the validity of different options and provide rationale for their choice.

Select All That Apply (SATA) Question

Question 6
A nurse is designing a teaching plan to enhance cognitive learning for a group of new graduate
nurses. Which of the following strategies should the nurse include? (Select all that apply)
a) Case studies
b) Practice drills
c) Group discussions
d) Flashcards
e) Simulations
Answers: a) Case studies, c) Group discussions, e) Simulations
Rationale: Case studies, group discussions, and simulations are effective strategies for cognitive
learning as they involve critical thinking, analysis, and applying knowledge in practical
scenarios. Flashcards and practice drills are more aligned with memorization and psychomotor
skills, respectively.

Here are five ATI-style multiple-choice questions and one SATA question on sentinel events:

Question 1

A nurse is caring for a patient who underwent surgery. Which of the following situations would
be considered a sentinel event?

A. The patient experiences moderate pain postoperatively.

B. The patient develops a mild infection at the surgical site.

C. The patient experiences a fall resulting in a fractured hip.

D. The patient refuses to take prescribed medication.

Answer: C
Rationale: A fall resulting in a fractured hip is a sentinel event because it involves serious
physical injury. Sentinel events are unexpected occurrences involving death, serious injury, or
the risk thereof.

Question 2

A nurse is preparing to participate in a root cause analysis (RCA) after a sentinel event. What is
the primary focus of the RCA?

A. Identifying the individual responsible for the event.

B. Determining the financial cost of the event.

C. Investigating system processes that contributed to the event.

D. Ensuring the patient’s family is compensated for the event.

Answer: C
Rationale: The primary focus of an RCA is to investigate system processes that contributed to
the sentinel event. The goal is to identify underlying causes and implement corrective actions to
prevent future occurrences.

Question 3

The Joint Commission recommends that healthcare organizations take which of the following
actions after identifying a sentinel event?

A. Notify the patient’s family after the investigation is complete.

B. Report the event to The Joint Commission within 60 days.

C. Submit a comprehensive Root Cause Analysis (RCA) within 45 days.

D. Assign blame to the healthcare provider involved.

Answer: C
Rationale: The Joint Commission recommends that organizations submit a comprehensive RCA
within 45 days of a sentinel event. The RCA should focus on systems and processes, not on
assigning blame.

Question 4

Which of the following is the best example of a sentinel event?

A. A patient with diabetes develops hyperglycemia.

B. A patient experiences a medication error that results in a severe allergic reaction.

C. A patient complains of mild discomfort after surgery.

D. A patient is transferred to another unit without a proper handoff.

Answer: B
Rationale: A medication error resulting in a severe allergic reaction is a sentinel event because it
involves serious physical harm. Sentinel events are defined by their severity and unexpected
nature.

Question 5
A nurse is reviewing policies on sentinel events. Which of the following statements should the
nurse recognize as true?

A. Sentinel events are only reported if the patient dies.

B. Sentinel events require immediate investigation and corrective action.

C. Reporting sentinel events to The Joint Commission is mandatory.

D. Sentinel events are only related to surgical procedures.

Answer: B
Rationale: Sentinel events require immediate investigation and corrective action to prevent
recurrence. Reporting these events to The Joint Commission is encouraged but not mandatory,
and sentinel events can occur in various situations, not just surgical procedures.

SATA Question

Question 6 A nurse is educating a new graduate nurse about sentinel events. Which of the
following should the nurse include as characteristics of a sentinel event? (Select all that apply.)

A. They involve minor injuries.

B. They require a root cause analysis (RCA).

C. They signal a need for immediate investigation.

D. They always involve a patient’s death.

E. They may result in permanent loss of function.

Answers: B, C, E
Rationale:

 B: Sentinel events require a root cause analysis (RCA) to identify underlying causes and
implement corrective actions.
 C: They signal a need for immediate investigation to understand the event and prevent
future occurrences.
 E: Sentinel events may result in permanent loss of function, making them serious and
necessitating prompt attention.
 A is incorrect because sentinel events involve serious injuries, not minor ones.
 D is incorrect because sentinel events do not always involve death; they can also involve
serious injury or the risk thereof.
Question 1:

A nurse receives a medication order that reads: "Administer 2 tablets of Acetaminophen 500 mg
PO q4h PRN for pain." Which component of the medication order is missing?

A. Patient's full name

B. Dosage
C. Frequency
D. Route of administration

Answer: A. Patient's full name

Rationale: The order includes the dosage ("2 tablets of Acetaminophen 500 mg"), route of
administration ("PO"), frequency ("q4h PRN"), but it is missing the patient's full name, which is
a crucial component of a complete medication order.

Question 2:

A nurse is transcribing a medication order and notices that the order is written as "furosemide 20
mg PO daily." What should the nurse do next?

A. Administer the medication as ordered.

B. Clarify the time of administration with the prescriber.
C. Transcribe the order into the MAR as is.
D. Contact the pharmacy for verification.

Answer: B. Clarify the time of administration with the prescriber.

Rationale: The order specifies "daily" but does not include a specific time for administration.
The nurse should clarify the exact time with the prescriber to ensure the medication is
administered correctly.

Question 3:

Which type of medication order should a nurse prioritize for immediate administration?

A. Routine order
B. PRN order
C. STAT order
D. Now order

Answer: C. STAT order

Rationale: A STAT order indicates that the medication must be given immediately, making it a
priority over routine, PRN, or now orders.

Question 4:

A physician orders a medication to be administered "IM." The nurse recognizes that this refers to
which route of administration?

A. Intravenous
B. Intramuscular
C. Intradermal
D. Subcutaneous

Answer: B. Intramuscular

Rationale: "IM" stands for intramuscular, indicating that the medication should be administered
into the muscle.

Question 5:

A nurse is reviewing a new medication order for a patient. Which of the following actions should
the nurse take first?

A. Verify the order with another nurse.

B. Check the patient's allergies.
C. Prepare the medication.
D. Administer the medication.

Answer: B. Check the patient's allergies.

Rationale: The first action a nurse should take is to check the patient's allergies to ensure that
the prescribed medication will not cause an adverse reaction.

SATA Question:

Which of the following are required components of a complete medication order? (Select all that
apply.)

A. Medication name
B. Patient's age
C. Dosage
D. Route of administration
E. Frequency of administration
F. Physician's DEA number

Answer: A. Medication name; C. Dosage; D. Route of administration; E. Frequency of

administration

Rationale: A complete medication order must include the medication name, dosage, route of
administration, and frequency of administration. The patient's age and the physician's DEA
number are not required components of a medication order, though the patient's full name and
the prescriber's signature are required.

Multiple-Choice Questions

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate example of factual charting?

 A) "The patient seems to be feeling better today."

 B) "The patient states, 'I feel less pain in my chest today.'"
 C) "The patient is likely improving based on their demeanor."
 D) "The patient appears to be happy and comfortable."

Answer: B) "The patient states, 'I feel less pain in my chest today.'"

Rationale: Factual charting requires documenting objective information or direct quotes from
the patient. Option B is a direct quote and reflects the patient’s own words, which is factual and
objective.

2. A nurse is documenting a patient's vital signs. Which entry best reflects factual charting?

 A) "Vital signs are within normal limits."

 B) "Patient's temperature is slightly elevated."
 C) "Temperature: 101.2°F, Pulse: 88 bpm, Respiration: 18/min, BP: 130/80 mmHg."
 D) "The patient's vital signs seem stable."

Answer: C) "Temperature: 101.2°F, Pulse: 88 bpm, Respiration: 18/min, BP: 130/80 mmHg."

Rationale: Option C provides exact measurements and specific data, which is essential for
factual charting. Other options are subjective or vague.

3. When documenting patient care, what should the nurse do if a mistake is made in the
charting?
  A) Erase the mistake and write the correct information.
 B) Use correction fluid to cover the mistake and rewrite the entry.
 C) Draw a single line through the mistake, write "error," and initial it.
 D) Leave the mistake as is and start a new entry with the correct information.

Answer: C) Draw a single line through the mistake, write "error," and initial it.

Rationale: To maintain the integrity of the chart, errors should be corrected by drawing a single
line through the mistake, labeling it as an error, and initialing it. This method ensures
transparency and accuracy.

4. The nurse is documenting a patient's response to medication. Which statement is most

appropriate for factual charting?

 A) "The patient tolerated the medication well."

 B) "The patient did not experience any side effects."
 C) "The patient reported no nausea or dizziness after taking the medication."
 D) "The medication seems to be working effectively."

Answer: C) "The patient reported no nausea or dizziness after taking the medication."

Rationale: Option C reflects factual charting by documenting the patient’s specific report. Other
options are vague or subjective.

5. Which of the following is a violation of confidentiality in patient charting?

 A) Documenting patient care in the electronic health record.

 B) Discussing patient information with an unauthorized individual.
 C) Providing a shift report to the incoming nurse.
 D) Reviewing a patient’s chart as part of the assigned duties.

Answer: B) Discussing patient information with an unauthorized individual.

Rationale: Confidentiality must be maintained in all aspects of patient care. Discussing patient
information with someone not involved in the care of the patient is a violation of confidentiality.

SATA Question
6. A nurse is reviewing documentation principles with a group of new nurses. Which of the
following actions should the nurse include as part of factual charting? (Select all that
apply)

 A) Documenting care immediately after it is provided.

 B) Using vague terms like "appears to be" or "seems."
 C) Including personal opinions when charting.
 D) Writing a late entry with the correct date and time.
 E) Documenting exact measurements and observations.

Answers: A) Documenting care immediately after it is provided. D) Writing a late entry with the
correct date and time. E) Documenting exact measurements and observations.

Rationale:

 A) Timely documentation ensures accuracy and helps in maintaining a continuous record

of care.
 D) Late entries should be correctly documented with the date and time of the actual event
and when the entry was made.
 E) Exact measurements and observations are crucial for factual charting, as they provide
objective data.
 B) and C) are incorrect because vague terms and personal opinions are not part of factual
charting.

Multiple Choice Questions

1. A nurse is conducting a health assessment for a 50-year-old male patient. Which of the
following is considered a non-modifiable risk factor for developing cardiovascular disease?

 A. Smoking
 B. Sedentary lifestyle
 C. High-fat diet
 D. Family history of heart disease

Answer: D. Family history of heart disease

Rationale: Family history of heart disease is a non-modifiable risk factor because it cannot be
changed. The other options (smoking, sedentary lifestyle, and high-fat diet) are modifiable risk
factors.

2. Which patient should be most concerned about the non-modifiable risk factors for developing
osteoporosis?

 A. A 45-year-old African American male

 B. A 55-year-old Asian female
  C. A 30-year-old Caucasian male
 D. A 25-year-old Hispanic female

Answer: B. A 55-year-old Asian female

Rationale: Age, gender, and ethnicity are non-modifiable risk factors for osteoporosis. Older
age, female gender, and Asian ethnicity all increase the risk of osteoporosis.

3. When educating a patient about the risk factors for stroke, which of the following would the
nurse identify as a non-modifiable risk factor?

 A. Hypertension
 B. Diabetes
 C. Age
 D. Obesity

Answer: C. Age
Rationale: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor for stroke. The other options (hypertension,
diabetes, and obesity) are modifiable risk factors that can be managed to reduce the risk of
stroke.

4. A nurse is assessing a 65-year-old patient who is concerned about her risk for developing
breast cancer. Which of the following non-modifiable risk factors should the nurse identify?

 A. Alcohol consumption
 B. Early menarche
 C. Lack of physical activity
 D. High-fat diet

Answer: B. Early menarche

Rationale: Early menarche (beginning of menstruation) is a non-modifiable risk factor for breast
cancer. The other options are modifiable lifestyle factors.

5. Which statement made by a patient indicates an understanding of non-modifiable risk factors

for Alzheimer’s disease?

 A. "I can reduce my risk by exercising regularly."

 B. "There’s nothing I can do about my age increasing my risk."
 C. "Eating a healthy diet will lower my genetic risk."
 D. "Managing my stress will decrease my non-modifiable risk."
Answer: B. "There’s nothing I can do about my age increasing my risk."
Rationale: Age is a non-modifiable risk factor for Alzheimer’s disease, and the patient correctly
understands that it cannot be changed. The other options relate to modifiable factors.

Select All That Apply (SATA)

6. A nurse is planning care for a 70-year-old female patient with multiple non-modifiable risk
factors for coronary artery disease (CAD). Which of the following are non-modifiable risk
factors? (Select all that apply.)

 A. Family history of CAD

 B. Obesity
 C. Gender
 D. Hypertension
 E. Age

Answers: A. Family history of CAD, C. Gender, E. Age

Rationale: Family history, gender, and age are non-modifiable risk factors for coronary artery
disease. Obesity and hypertension are modifiable risk factors that can be managed or changed.

Multiple-Choice Questions

1. A nurse is educating a group of adults on ways to prevent cardiovascular disease. Which

of the following is an example of primary prevention?

 A) Blood pressure screening at a community health fair.

 B) Providing a low-sodium diet plan to a patient with hypertension.
 C) Teaching a group of people about the benefits of regular exercise and a healthy diet.
 D) Administering antihypertensive medications to a patient with high blood pressure.

Answer: C) Teaching a group of people about the benefits of regular exercise and a healthy diet.

Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent disease before it occurs by promoting healthy
behaviors. Teaching about exercise and diet falls under this category. Blood pressure screening
(A) and antihypertensive medication (D) are examples of secondary prevention, while providing
a diet plan to a hypertensive patient (B) could be part of tertiary prevention.

2. Which of the following interventions is considered secondary prevention?

 A) Encouraging a patient to get the annual influenza vaccine.

 B) Teaching a diabetic patient about foot care to prevent complications.
 C) Providing routine mammography screening for early detection of breast cancer.
  D) Implementing a community exercise program to reduce obesity rates.

Answer: C) Providing routine mammography screening for early detection of breast cancer.

Rationale: Secondary prevention focuses on early detection and prompt treatment of disease.
Routine mammography is a screening tool that helps in the early detection of breast cancer. The
flu vaccine (A) is primary prevention, while foot care for a diabetic patient (B) is tertiary
prevention, and an exercise program (D) is also primary prevention.

3. A nurse is conducting a smoking cessation program for a group of patients. This

intervention is an example of:

 A) Primary prevention.
 B) Secondary prevention.
 C) Tertiary prevention.
 D) Quaternary prevention.

Answer: A) Primary prevention.

Rationale: Smoking cessation programs aim to prevent disease before it starts, making them an
example of primary prevention. Secondary prevention involves early detection, while tertiary
prevention focuses on managing established disease. Quaternary prevention is a concept focused
on preventing over-medicalization.

4. A nurse is working with a patient who has been newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes.
Which of the following actions is an example of tertiary prevention?

 A) Educating the patient about the importance of regular blood glucose monitoring.
 B) Screening high-risk individuals for type 2 diabetes.
 C) Promoting a healthy diet to prevent the onset of diabetes.
 D) Administering an HbA1c test during an annual physical.

Answer: A) Educating the patient about the importance of regular blood glucose monitoring.

Rationale: Tertiary prevention involves managing established diseases to prevent complications

and improve quality of life. Educating a diabetic patient on blood glucose monitoring is an
example of this. Screening for diabetes (B) is secondary prevention, while promoting a healthy
diet (C) is primary prevention, and the HbA1c test (D) could be both secondary or part of
ongoing tertiary care.
5. The nurse is planning a health promotion workshop focused on cancer prevention.
Which of the following topics should the nurse emphasize as primary prevention?

 A) Breast self-examination techniques.

 B) Regular colonoscopy screenings.
 C) Smoking cessation and sun protection strategies.
 D) Chemotherapy treatment options.

Answer: C) Smoking cessation and sun protection strategies.

Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of cancer by reducing risk factors, such
as smoking and sun exposure. Breast self-examination (A) and colonoscopy (B) are secondary
prevention methods, and chemotherapy (D) is tertiary prevention.

SATA Question

6. A nurse is educating a group of community members on illness prevention. Which of the

following are examples of secondary prevention? (Select all that apply)

 A) Administering the HPV vaccine to a group of teenagers.

 B) Performing annual blood pressure checks during health fairs.
 C) Conducting routine vision screenings for children in schools.
 D) Providing a weight loss program for individuals with obesity.
 E) Encouraging older adults to undergo bone density testing.

Answers: B) Performing annual blood pressure checks during health fairs. C) Conducting
routine vision screenings for children in schools. E) Encouraging older adults to undergo bone
density testing.

Rationale:

 B) Blood pressure checks help in the early detection of hypertension, a form of secondary
prevention.
 C) Vision screenings are aimed at detecting vision problems early, making them a
secondary prevention strategy.
 E) Bone density testing is used to detect osteoporosis early, fitting the secondary
prevention category.
 A) Administering the HPV vaccine is primary prevention, as it aims to prevent the
disease.
 D) A weight loss program could be considered either primary or tertiary prevention,
depending on the context, but it does not fit the classic definition of secondary
prevention.