PT Chandigarh Centre

SCO 290-291,
Sector 32D
Chandigarh
Ph. 0172-5089202

INSTRUCTIONS

1. DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL THE SIGNAL TO START IS

GIVEN.

2. Use only HB pencils to fill the answers provided in the answer sheet.
3. Do not keep with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators
(including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other
device or loose paper.

4. Enter your REGISTRATION NUMBER, NAME and CONTACT NUMBER in the

ANSWER SHEET IN INK.
5. This test has 4 sections. In all there are 60 questions, in Section II 10 questions out of
20 given are to be done. The total maximum marks are 500. The marking scheme is
mentioned clearly at the start of each section.

6. You will be given 2 hours to complete the test. Please bear in mind that you have to
maximize your score.
7. Wrong answers will fetch negative marks as mentioned in each section at the
beginning.

8. Carefully read the directions given before each group of questions otherwise you may
miss the main idea of the question.

9. Do your rough work only on the test booklet and NOT on the answer sheet.
10. Follow the instructions of the test invigilators. Candidates found violating the
instructions will be disqualified.

11. Your scores and ranks will be available after 5 PM on the event website
(www.pecfest.org/apt).

Organized by:
Atul +91-9988003881
Ujjwal +91-9988002136

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 SECTION I
Note: Questions 1 to 20 carry five marks each. One mark will be deducted for wrong answer. For each of the
following questions, five options are given having only one option correct. Choose the correct option.

Directions: for question 1 to 2: Each sentence has two blanks, each blank indicating a missing word or set of words
follow each sentence. Choose the option best fits each blank in the context of the whole sentence.

1. Although the stock market has experienced strong…… in the past two years, there have been short periods in
which the market has…… precipitously.
A. expansion, boomed B. rise, flourished
C. augmentation, steadied D. growth, fallen E. extension, stabilized

2. Although prices…… during the fuel shortage, the suppliers actually saw…… in profits.
A. increased, a loss B. shot up, an expansion
C. stabilized, a boon D. fluctuated, deprivation E. surged, a rise

Directions: for questions 3 to 7: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Archaeology as a profession faces two major problems. First, it is the poorest of the poor. Only paltry sums are
available for excavating and even less is available for publishing the results and preserving the sites once excavated.
Yet archaeologists deal with priceless objects every day. Second, there is the problem of illegal excavation, resulting
in museum-quality pieces being sold to the highest bidder.

I would like to make an outrageous suggestion that would at one stroke to white funds for archaeology and reduce
the amount of illegal digging. I would propose that scientific archaeological expeditions and governmental
authorities sell excavated artifacts on the open market. Such sales would provide substantial funds for the
excavation and preservation of archaeological sites and the publication of results. At the same time, they would
break the illegal excavator’s grip on the market, thereby decreasing the inducement to engage in illegal activities.

You might object that professionals excavate to acquire knowledge, not money. Moreover, ancient artifacts are part
of our global cultural heritage, which should be available for all to appreciate, not sold to the highest bidder. I agree.
Sell nothing that has unique artistic merit or scientific value. But, you might reply, everything that comes out of the
ground has scientific value. Here we part company. Theoretically, you may be correct in claiming that every
artifact has potential scientific value. Practically, you are wrong.

I refer to thousands of pottery vessels and ancient lamps that are essentially duplicates of one another. In one small
excavation in Cyprus, archaeologists recently uncovered 2000 virtually indistinguishable small jugs in a single
courtyard, even precious royal seal impressions known as melekh handles have been found in abundance-more than
4000 examples so far.

The basements of museums are simply not large enough to store the artifacts that are likely to be discovered in the
future. There is not enough money even to catalogue the finds; as a result, they cannot be found again and become
as inaccessible as if they had never been discovered. Indeed, with the help of a computer, sold artifacts could be
more accessible than are the pieces stored in bulging museum basements. Prior to sale, each could be photographed
and the list of the purchasers could be maintained on the computer. A purchaser could even be required to agree to
return the piece if it should become needed for scientific purposes. It would be unrealistic to suggest that illegal
digging would stop if artifacts were sold on the open market. But the demand for the clandestine product would be
substantially reduced. Who would want an unmarked pot when another was available whose provenance was
known, and that was dated stratigraphically by the professional archaeologist who excavated it?

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 3. The primary talk was of the passages to propose
A. an alternative to museum display of artifacts.
B. a way to curb illegal digging while benefiting the archaeological profession.
C. a way to distinguish artifacts with scientific value from those that have no such value.
D. the governmental regulation of archaeological sites.
E. the use of computers in cataloguing archaeological artifacts.

4. Which of the following is mentioned in the passage as a disadvantage of storing artifacts in Museum basements?
A. Space that could be better used for display is taken up for storage.
B. Artifacts discovered in one excavation often become separated from each other.
C. Such artifacts are often damaged by variations in temperature and humidity.
D. Such artifacts’ often remain un-catalogued, and thus cannot be located once they are put in storage.
E. None of these.

5. The author mentions the excavation in Cyprus (lines 31-34) to emphasize which of the following points?
A. Artifacts that are very similar to each other present cataloguing difficulties to archaeologists.
B. Artifacts that are not uniquely valuable, and therefore could be sold, are available in large quantities.
C. Cyprus is the most important location for unearthing large quantities of saleable artifacts.
D. Illegal sales of duplicate artifacts are widespread, particularly on the island of Cyprus.
E. Artifacts found in Cyprus are of high quality.

6. The author’s argument concerning the effect of the official sale of duplicate artifacts on illegal excavation is based
on which of the following assumptions?
A. Prospective purchasers would prefer to buy authenticated artifacts.
B. The price of illegally excavated artifacts would rise.
C. Computers could be used to trace sold artifacts.
D. Money gained from selling authenticated artifacts could be used to investigate and prosecute illegal excavators.
E. None of these.

7. The author anticipates which of the following initial objections to the adoption of this proposal?
A. Museum officials they become unwilling to store artifacts.
B. An oversupply of saleable artifacts will result and demand for them will fall.
C. Artifacts that would have been displayed in public places will be sold to private collectors.
D. Illegal excavators will have an even larger supply all of artifacts for resale.
E. The government will object to initial input cost of the computer infrastructure

Directions: for questions 8 to 14: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

8. Two circles and a square are drawn in a plane. Find the maximum number of points of intersection of the circles
with the square
A. 8 B. 12
C. 14 D. 16 E. 20

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 9. The sum of the fourth powers of the first 100 natural numbers will have a…… in its unit’s digit.
A. 0 B. 1
C. 3 D. 6 E. 9

10. Let x, y, z and w be positive real numbers which satisfy the two conditions that
(i) if x > y then z > w; and
(ii) if x > z then y < w
Then one of the statements given below is a valid conclusion. Which one is it?
A. If x < y then x < w B. If x < z then y > w
C. If x > y + z then z < y D. If x > y + z then z > y E. If y > x then y > w

11. If f(x) = x3 – 4x + p, and f(0) and f(1) are of opposite signs, then which of the following is necessarily true?
A. 1 < p < 2 B. 0 < p < 3
C. -1 < p < 2 D. -2 < p < 1 E. -3 < p < 0

12. Suppose n is an integer such that the sum of the digits of n is 2, and 1010 < n < 1011. The number of different
values of n is
A. 10 B. 11
C. 20 D. 22 E. 19

13. If three positive real numbers x, y, z satisfy y – x = z – y and xyz = 4, then what is the minimum value of y?
1/3 2/3
A. 2 B. 2
C. 21/4 D. 23/4 E. Cannot be determined

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14. If both a and b belong to the set {1, 2, 3, 4}, then the number of equations of the form ax + bx + 1 = 0 having
real roots is
A. 10 B. 12
C. 9 D. 7 E. 6

Directions: for questions 15 to 18: Each question is followed by two statements, (X) and (Y). Answer each question
using the following instructions.

Choose (A) if the question can be answered by using statement X alone but not using Y alone.
Choose (B) if the question can be answered by using statement Y alone but not using X alone.
Choose (C) if the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (D) if the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement
alone.
Choose (E) if the question cannot be answered even by using both the statements together.

15. What is Mr. Mohan’s income in 1990?

X. His total income for 1988, 1989 and 1990 was Rs 3,00,000
Y. He earned 20% more in 1990 than he earned in 1989.

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 16. If A and B are not negative, then what is the value of A?
X. 2A + 2B ≤40. Y. A – B ≥20.

17. A square originally had sides with length ‘s’. The length of the side is increased by x%. Did the area of the
square increased by more than 10%?
X. x is greater than 5. Y. x is less than 10.

18. Is x2 – y2 a even number?

X. (x – y) is a odd number. Y. (x + y) is a even number.

Directions: for questions 19 to 20: Each question is followed by three statements, (X), (Y) and (Z). Identify the
redundant statement(s).

19. Who is the tallest among M, P, Q and R?

X. P is taller than Q but not as tall as R.
Y. R is taller than M.
Z. M is taller than P but not as tall as R.
A. Z only B. Y only
C. Y or Z only D. X or Y only E. X or Z only

20. A boat will take how much time (minimum) to cross the river across its banks.
X. In still water the speed of the boat is 15miles/hour.
Y. The width of the river is 8km.
Z. The speed of the stream is 2km/hr.
A. only X B. only Y
C. only Z D. None (All are required) E. More information required

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 SECTION II
Note: Questions 21 to 40 carry ten marks each. Three marks will be deducted for wrong answer. For each of the
following questions, five options are given having only one option correct. Choose the correct option.

You are required not to attempt more than 10 questions from this section, if you attempt more than 10
question in this section than worst 10 will be chosen.

Directions: for questions 21 to 22: Read the following short passage and answer the question that follows.

21. Because of the recent draught in Maharastra during the orange-growing season, the price of oranges in this
season will be three times the usual price. This will drive up the cost of producing orange juice and thus push up the
price of orange juice for the consumer.
Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?
A. The recent draught was not as severe as scientists predicted.
B. States other than Maharastra also supply oranges to orange juice manufacturers.
C. Other ingredients are used in the production of orange juice.
D. Last year the price of oranges was actually lower than the average price over the past ten years.
E. Total cost of imports of oranges is slightly higher to normal prices.

22. In the past year, there has been large drop in the number of new cars sold, due to harsh economic conditions in
the marketplace and high taxes. At the same time, the average price paid for a new car has risen dramatically.
Which of the following, if true, best explains the increase in the average price of a new car?
A. The price of used cars has climbed steadily over the past ten years.
B. There will be a tax reduction in the year which is expected to aid moderate and low income families.
C. The market for expensive cars has been unaffected by current economic conditions.
D. Oil prices are fluctuating significantly.
E. Economic conditions are expected to get significantly worse before the end of the year.

Directions: for questions 23: From the choices, select the best one that can come in place of the underline part.

23. Cynicism has eaten into the administration in the state leaving it unable for action.
A. leaving it unable for action B. making it benefit through action
C. leaving it without the will to act D. incapacitating the will to act
E. leaving it incapable of action

Directions: for questions 24: Arrange the sentence A, B, C and D to form a logical sequence between sentences 1
and 6.

24. 1. The unexpected success is an opportunity.

A. But it also makes demands.
B. It demands to be taken seriously.
C. It demands seriousness and support on the part of management equal to the size of the opportunity.
D. It demands that the management be staffed by the ablest people available.
6. And the opportunity is considerable.
A. ADCB B. ADBC
C. ABDC D. ACDB E. ABCD

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 Directions: for questions 25: Arrange the sentence A, B, C and D to form a logical coherent paragraph.

25. A. Women will work out their own destinies- much better, too, than men can ever do for them.
B. Each one is independent.
C. What bondage there may be is only that of love.
D. No man shall dictate to a woman; nor a woman to a man.
A. ABCD B. DBCA
C. ADBC D. DCBA E. ADCB

Directions: for questions 26 to 30: Read the following passage and answer the questions.

Marwaris have never got the respect from Indian society that they have always yearned for. The average Indian
thinks of the Marwari as either a small-time shopkeeper who is also a moneylender or a ruthless tycoon. Yet theirs
is a fascinating story of how a tiny community from the desert sands of Rajasthan spread out to every corner of
north, east, and central India, settling in thousands of villages and towns in the 19 th century. With their enormous
appetite for risk, Marwaris seized control of India’s inland trade. Gradually they turned to industry, after the First
World War, and today they control roughly half the nation’s private industrial assets. What made them so
successful?

Indian industry originated with the old merchant castes and they continue to dominate till today. Fifteen of the
twenty largest industrial houses in 1997 were of Vaishya or bania trading castes. Eight were Marwaris. In the later
th
Half of the 19 century, the trading communities started the first cotton textile mills in Bombay and Ahmedabad.
There were Parsees, Khojas, and Bhatia traders in Bombay and Jain banias in Ahmedabad. Although the Marwaris
came late, after the First World War, they became the most successful. The Marwaris came from Marwar, the old
Jodhpur state in Rajasthan. The most successful families come from the small Shekhawati region in the old Bikaneer
and Jaipur states. They are all bania by caste and either Jains or Vaishnav Hindus by religious persuasion.

For centuries, Marwaris had been bankers and helped finance the land between the East and the West, as the great
trade route passed through northern Rajasthan. During the Mughal days, they were financiers to many princes,
th
including the emperor’s family. As the British created a national market during the 19 century, there was a huge
migration of Marwari traders into the smallest and remotest villages of India. The migrants began as petty
shopkeepers (often with capital advanced from a wholesaler from their own community) and slowly graduated to
moneylending, then moved up to finance farmers for their commercial crops, such as opium and cotton. The
railways accelerated the process.

The Marwaris achieve their biggest successes in the British trading Post of Calcutta. They smelled the chance for big
money and they flocked there to become brokers and agents to the British (who called them “banians”). The arrival
of the Delhi-Calcutta railway in the 1860s quickened the migration to Calcutta, and by the turn-of-the-century,
Marwaris had become dominant in the jute and cotton trade. During the First World War, they made fabulous profits
speculating in cotton, jute, and hessian, and these profits laid the foundation for many industrial careers after the
war.

Why the Marwaris turned out to be so spectacularly successful had a lot to do with their wonderful support system,
explains Tom Timberg in ‘The Marwaris’. When a Marwari travelled on business, his wife and children were cared
for in a joint family at home. Wherever he went in search of trade, he found shelter and good Rajasthani food in a
‘basa’, a sort of collective hostel run on a cooperative basis or as a philanthropy by local Marwari merchants. When
the Marwari needed money, he borrowed from another Marwari trader on the understanding that the loan was
payable on demand, “even at midnight”, and that he would reciprocate with a similar loan. At the end of the year,
they tallied and settled the interest. He could count on community banks to insure his goods in transit and collect his
dues when the goods arrived. His sons and nephews were apprenticed to other Marwari traders, where they earned
their salary through profit sharing, learned business skills, and accumulated capital to start their own business when
they were ready.

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 Why some groups in society become entrepreneurs and others do not is an old question. I am not sure that there is a
satisfactory answer, but I find that merchants everywhere seem to become the first industrialists. This is not
surprising. They possess capital and access to credit; they have business skills; they are used to taking risks; and
they are close to the market and understand the nature of the demand. The Marwaris, in addition, have always had a
powerful support system within the community. To a lesser degree, this applies to other Indian trading castes. But
the Marwaris score over the others because they appear to have a stronger stomach for risk. Many Marwaris made
their fortunes during the First World War in extremely speculative trading in futures. Their abilities as businessmen
make their competitors fear (and admire) them.

26. According to the author, of various groups in Indian society, Marwaris, had generally become successful
businessman because
A. of their joint family system, which lends support to family members.
B. they are more open to taking risks in business.
C. they have easy access to all resources necessary for business.
D. they shrewd and cunning.
E. they were close to market and understood the nature of the demand.

27. The flocking of Marwari traders to the interiors of India was triggered by
A. the establishment of railway lines that carried migrants in large numbers to various destinations.
B. the colonization of the country by the British.
C. their expertise in inland trading.
D. the creation of a national market by the British.
E. their vision to seek future markets.

28. The author, through the passage,

A. seeks to give Marwaris the respect that is due to them.
B. explains how Marwaris became successful by exploiting business opportunities.
C. tracks the origin, the spread and the growth of the Marwari community in British rural India.
D. talks about the merchants in Marwar.
E. wants to show the superiority of Marwaris over other merchants.

th
29. The trading community that started textile mills in Ahmedabad during the late 19 century was
A. Parsees.
B. Khojas
C. Jain banias.
D. Bhatias.
E. Marwaris.

30. Identify the statement that is not true as per passage.

A. The Marwaris who came from the old Jodhpur state in Rajasthan are the most successful of all Marwaris.
B. The Marwaris made big money in Calcutta, which was a British trading Post.
C. ‘Basa’ is an example is of the wonderful support system of Marwaris.
D. It was during the First World War that the Marwaris made huge profits in India.
E. Merchants everywhere have become the first industrialists.

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 Directions: for questions 31 to 36: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

29
31. What is the remainder when 17 is divided by 29?
A. 0 B. 1
C. 17 D. 28 E. None of these

32. What is the 258th term of the following series:

a,b,b,c,c,c,d,d,d,d,e,e,e,e,e,f,f,f,f,f,f,……
A. u B. v
C. w D. x E. y

33. A number when successively divided by 8, 6 and 5 leaves a remainder of 1, 1 and 2 respectively. The number is
a multiple of
A. 3 and not 5 B. 5 and not 3
C. both 3 and 5 D. neither 3 nor 5 E. 2 and 3 but not 5

34. If a man cycles at 10 km/hr, then he arrives at a certain place at 1 p.m. If he cycles at 15 km/hr, he will arrive at
same place at 11 a.m. At what speed must he cycle to get there at noon?
A. 11 km/hr B. 12 km/hr
C. 13 km/hr D. 14 km/hr E. Cannot be determined

35. A sprinter starts running on a circular path of radius r meters. Her average speed (in meters/minute) is pr during
the first 30 seconds, pr/2 during the next one minute, pr/4 during next 2 minutes, pr/8 during next 4 minutes, and so
on. What is the ratio of time for the nth round to that for the previous round? (p is П)
A. 4 B. 8
C. 16 D. 32 E. Cannot be determined

36. A rectangular sheet of paper, when halved by folding it at the mid point of its longer side, results in a rectangle,
whose longer and shorter sides are in the same proportion as the longer and shorter sides of the original rectangle. If
the shorter side of the original rectangle is 2, what is the area of the smaller rectangle?
A. 4√2 B. 4
C. √2 D. 2 E. None of these

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 Directions: for questions 37 to 40: Study the information given below and answer the questions.

The year is 2089. Beijing, London, New York and Paris are in contention to host the 2096 Olympics. The eventual
winner is determined through several rounds of voting by members of the IOC with each member representing a
different city. All the four cities in contention are also represented in IOC.

 In any round of voting, the city receiving the lowest number of votes in total gets eliminated. The survivor
after the last round of voting gets to host the event.
 A member is allowed to cast votes for at most two different cities in all rounds of voting combined. (Hence,
a member becomes ineligible to cast a vote in a round if both the cities he voted for in earlier rounds are out
of contention in that round of voting.)
 A member is also ineligible to cast a vote in a round if the city he represents is in contention in that round
of voting.
 As long as the member is eligible, he must vote and vote for only one candidate city in any round of voting.

The following incomplete table shows the information on cities that received maximum and minimum votes in
different rounds, the number of votes cast in their favour, and the total votes that were cast in those rounds.

Maximum votes cast Eliminated

Rounds Total votes cast
City No. of votes City No. of votes
1. London 30 New York 12
2. 83 Paris 32 Beijing 21
3. 75

37. What percentage of members from among those who voted for New York in round 1, voted for Beijing in
round2?
A. 25 B. 33.33
C. 50 D. 66.67 E. 75

38. What is the number of votes cast for Paris in round 1?

A. 16 B. 18
C. 22 D. 24 E. 26

39. What percentage of members from among those who voted for Beijing in round 2 and were eligible to vote in
round 3, voted for London?
A. 25 B. 33.33
C. 50 D. 66.67 E. 38.10

40. Which of the following statements must be true?

a. IOC member from New York must have voted for Paris in round 2.
b. IOC member from Beijing must have voted for London in round 3.
A. only a B. only b
C. both a & b D. neither a nor b E. both can be or can’t be

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 SECTION III
Note: Questions 41 to 50 carry variable marks. For each of the following questions, five options are given having
only one option correct. Choose the correct option.

Here you will choose the marks for questions.

You can assign a question 5 mark by filling FIRST box with the option you wish.
You can assign a question 10 mark by filling SECOND box with the option you wish.
You can assign a question 15 mark by filling THIRD box with the option you wish.

If you attempt question incorrectly then you will fetch negative marks corresponding to marks you allotted:
For 5 mark question, you will loose 1 mark
For 10 mark question, you will loose 5 marks
For 15 mark question, you will loose 15 marks

Directions: for questions 41 to 45: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

2
41. Let f(x) = ax – bx, where a and b are constants. Then at x = 0, f(x) is:
A. maximized whenever a > 0, b > 0 B. maximized whenever a > 0, b < 0
C. minimized whenever a > 0, b > 0 D. minimized whenever a > 0, b < 0
E. normalized whenever a = b = 1

42. A 3 digit number N is such that, it is divisible by 11. Also, N/11 is equal to the sum of the squares of the digits
of N. N can take…… value(s).
A. 0 B. 1
C. 2 D. 3 E. 4

43. In ΔABC, side AB = 40, AC = 22, and BC = 26. The diameter of the semicircle inscribed in ABC, whose
diameter lies on AB, and that is tangent to AC and BC is
A. 22 units B. 26 units
C. 34 units D. 38 units E. Cannot be determined

44. Tlap, Tlep, Tlip and Tlop are related to each other, but not incestuously. Among the four are Tlap’s mother,
Tlep’s brother, Tlip’s father and Tlop’s daughter. Also, the oldest and youngest are of opposite sex. One is a
different sex from other three, who is he/she?
A. Tlep B. Tlip
C. Tlap D. Tlop E. Cannot be determined

45. Mr. Timepiece lived in the town of Timeland and prided himself on having all his clocks accurate. However one
morning after a storm which caused a blackout he noticed all three of his electric clocks were electric clocks were
slow on an average of 1 hour 30 minutes. The clocks were showing the time 6:40, 5:30 and 4:20. What is the time
now?
A. 6:45 B. 6:55
C. 7:00 D. 6:30 E. cannot be determined

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 Directions: for questions 46 to 47: Read the information given below and answer the questions.

In the game of Letter Dice, a different letter of the alphabet is on each face of each of the 4 cubes, so that 24 of the
26 letters of the alphabet occur. Words are formed by rearranging and turning the dice so that the upward-facing
letters spell a 4-letter word. The 12 words below have been anagrammed using today’s cubes.

1. AXIS
2. BOUT
3. CLOY
4. FANG
5. GORE
6. HYMN
7. JERK
8. KITH
9. MILD
10. PAVE
11. SPUN
12. WAIF

46. Which Of the three letter combination when filled will give the correct letters on any one of the four dice in the
blank E _ _ _ W L?
A. AIM B. URK
C. GIB D. FOK E. NXT

47. If A = 1, B = 2 and so on, then what is the sum of the numerical value of alphabets on the dice having ‘A’ on one
of its faces?
A. 32 B. 38
C. 55 D. 62 E. None of these

Directions: for questions 48 to 50: Read the information given below and answer the questions.

F: Fact: If it relates to a known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true.
J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.
I: Inference: If it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something, based on the knowledge of facts.

48. I. If India has embarked on the liberalization route, she cannot afford to go back.
II. Under these circumstances, being an active supporter of WTO policies would be a good idea.
III. The WTO is a truly global organization aiming at freer trade.
IV. Many member countries have already drafted plans to simplify tariff structures.
A. FJFI B. IFJF
C. IJFF D. IFIF E. IIFF

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 49. I. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism.
II. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries.
III. The protected environment in our country is helping local manufacturers.
IV. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this.
A. IJFJ B. JFJI
C. IJJF D. IFJJ E. JFJJ

50. I. Unless the banks agree to a deferment of the interest, we cannot show profits this year.
II. This would not have happened had we adopted a stricter credit scheme.
III. The revenue so far covers only the cost and salaries.
IV. Let us learn a lesson: we cannot make profits without complete control over credit.
A. IIJF B. IJFI
C. FJIF D. FJFI E. JJFI

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 SECTION IV
Note: Questions 51 to 60 carry 15 marks each. For each of the following questions, five options are given having
two correct options. You have to mark both correct options. If question is attempted and both correct options are
not marked than 5 marks will be deducted.

51. In a firm, number of employees is prime. The ratio of the number of employees who are graduates and above, to
that of employees who are not, can possibly be:
A. 103 : 78 B. 87 : 100
C. 110 : 111 D. 85 : 98 E. 97 : 84

52. The area of an isosceles triangle is 12 sq. cm. If one of the equal sides is 5 cm long, what can be the length of
base?
A. 3 B. 4
C. 6 D. 8 E. 9

53. If the angles of a triangle are in the ratio of 4 : 1 : 1, then the ratio of the longest side to the perimeter is
A. √3 : 2 + √3 B. 1 : √3
C. 1 : 2 + √3 D. 2 : 3 E. 2√3 – 3 : 1

54. A, B and C are defined as follows (Only one option correct)

2
A = (2.000004) ÷ [(2.000004) + (4.000008)]
2
B = (3.000003) ÷ [(3.000003) + (9.000009)]
C = (4.000002) ÷ [(4.000002)2 + (8.000004)]
Which of the following is true about the value of the above three expressions?
A. All of them lie between 0.18 and 0.20. B. A is twice C.
C. A is equal to C. D. B is the smallest E. C is the smallest

Directions: for questions 55 to 56: Mark the correct sentences. Check grammar, usage, mechanics, redundancy,
punctuation, spelling and style elements.

55.
A. Anand has given great trouble to my father and I
B. One of the greatest judges that has ever lived laid this down as law.
C. Now better known for their racetracks, Saratoga Springs first gained attention for the therapeutic qualities
of its famous “healing waters.”
D. The quality of the mangoes were not good.
E. Each of the movies was great and the choice for the best one among all three was very difficult indeed.

56.
A. Soon after it was given forth, and believed by many, that the King was dead.
B. Abhinav was very fond of her; he thought for marrying her more than once.
C. Each invoice must have “PAID” stamped over their number.
D. Beware, lest thou be led into temptation
E. In many coastal New Srilankan towns, the fishermen still operate as they had for generations, displaying
and selling their catch dockside at the end of each day.

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 Directions: for questions 57 to 58: Given below is a condition or a set of conditions. From the answer options,
choose those that logically compliments the conditions put up

57. If I do not read Hardy, I will not read Mann. If I read Dickens, I will not read Hardy. If I read Eliot, I will read
Dickens. Therefore if I read Hardy…
A. I will not read Dickens. B. I will not read Eliot.
C. I will not read Mann. D. I will read Dickens. E. I will read Eliot.

58. Either A is AA or A is AAA. Either A is AAA or A is B. Either B is not BB or it is AA. Therefore if A is not
AA….
A. it is BB. B. it is AAA.
C. it is B. D. it is not B. E. it is A.

Directions: for questions 59 to 60: Each question has a set of statements and each statement has three segments.
Choose the alternatives where the third segment in the statement can be logically deduced from the preceding two.

59.
A. All T’s are square; All square are rectangular; All T’s are rectangular.
B. Some fat are elongated; Some elongated things are huge; some fat are huge.
C. Idiots are bumblers; Bumblers fumble; Idiots fumble.
D. No German can fire; All Americans bombard; Both Germans and Americans can fight.
E. Water is good for health; Health foods are rare; Water is rare.

60.
A. No sun is not white; All moon is sun; All moon is white.
B. Some apples are sour; This fruit is an apple; This fruit is sour.
C. Sita is nurse; All nurse are tall women; Gita is a tall woman.
D. Army officers are smart; Airforce officers are smart; Military officers are smart.
E. No animal likes fire; Aardvarks are animals; Aardvarks do not like fire.

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 ANSWER SHEET

REGISTRATION NO. N AME CONTACT

INSTRUCTIONS
1. 21. 41. 5 10 15

 Fill your Registration number, Name,

2. 22. 42. 5 10 15
and contact number in INK in the
3. 23. 43. 5 10 15 box above.

4. 24. 44. 5 10 15  Leave the last box empty

5. 25. 45. 5 10 15

 Fill the answer box with the

6. 26. 46. 5 10 15
option as shown A
7. 27. 47. 5 10 15
 You are required to do only 10 out
8. 28. 48. 5 10 15 of 20 questions in Section II, i.e.
from 21 to 40, do only 10 questions.
9. 29. 49. 5 10 15

 Mark only one box for 41 to 50, if

10. 30. 50. 5 10 15
more boxes are filled, question will
11. 31. 51. not be evaluated.

12. 32. 52.  For 41 to 50 questions, you choose

the marks for the question, read the
13. 33. 53.
instructions at the start of Section III
14. 34. 54.
 For questions 51 to 60, mark
15. 35. 55. different options in the boxes, else
question will not be evaluated.
16. 36. 56.
 Wrong questions carry negative
17. 37. 57.
marks, read instructions at the
18. 38. 58. beginning of each Section.
19. 39. 59.

20. 40. 60.

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 Complete ANSWER SHEET

REGISTRATION NO. N AME CONTACT

GM2070-000 BRAIN HACKER 998800-3881/2136

INSTRUCTIONS
1. D 21. B 41. 5 10 D 15

 Fill your Registration number, Name,

2. A 22. C 42. 5 10 C 15
and contact number in INK in the
3. B 23. C 43. 5 10 A 15 box above.

4. D 24. C 44. 5 10 D 15  Leave the last box empty

5. B 25. B 45. 5 10 C 15

 Fill the answer box with the

6. A 26. C 46. 5 10 E 15
option as shown A
7. C 27. D 47. 5 10 C 15
 You are required to do only 10 out
8. D 28. B 48. 5 10 C 15 of 20 questions in Section II, i.e.
from 21 to 40, do only 10 questions.
9. A 29. C 49. 5 10 B 15

 Mark only one box for 41 to 50, if

10. D 30. A 50. 5 10 B 15
more boxes are filled, question will
11. B 31. C 51. A E not be evaluated.

12. B 32. C 52. C D  For 41 to 50 questions, you choose

the marks for the question, read the
13. B 33. C 53. A E
instructions at the start of Section III
14. E 34. B 54. D X
 For questions 51 to 60, mark
15. E 35. C 55. C E different options in the boxes, else
question will not be evaluated.
16. D 36. E 56. A D
 Wrong questions carry negative
17. A 37. E 57. A B
marks, read instructions at the
18. C 38. D 58. B D beginning of each Section.
19. C 39. D 59. A C

20. C 40. A 60. A E

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