(1) Statement –I is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct

MILLAT TALENT SEARCH EXAMINATION (MTSE) explanation for Statement-I

2023-24 (2) Statement –I is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-I
Exam Instructions (3) Statement –I is true, Statement-2 is false
1. Time Allotted : 3:00 hrs. (4) Statement – I is false, Statement-2 is true
2. Make sure the hall ticket number entered is same as given during the
registration. 3. If the distance between the point (a,2) and (3,4) be 8 , then a = ?
3. The Question Papers consists of 6 sections. Attempt all the sections. (1) 2  3 15 (2) 2  3 15 (3) 3  2 15 (4) None of these
Section A : Mathematics Section E : English
Section B : Physics Section F : Logical Reasoning 𝑋 1− 𝑋 1
Section C : Chemistry Section G: Social Science 4. If√1−𝑋 + √ 𝑋
= 2 6 , the values of x are
7 9 5 7 4 9
Section D: Biology Section H: Deeniyat (1) , (2) , (3) , (4) None of these
13 13 13 13 13 13
4. Marking scheme:
Correct attempt : +4 marks 5. If sinθ + cosecθ = 2, then the value of sin 2016θ + cosec 2016θ is:
Wrong Attempt : -1 mark (1) 1 (2) 2016 (3) 2 (4) 4032
5. We suggest students to avoid any guess work as every wrong attempt
The discriminant of x  x  1 = 2 is
reduces 1 mark. 2
6.
(1) -3 (2) 13 (3) 11 (4) 12
SECTION – A (MATHEMATICS)
(20 × 4 = 80M) 7. Find the approximate area of the segment AYB of a circle (shaded region in the
𝑥
1. The probability of guessing the correct answer to a certain test questions is . following figure) if the angle of the sector is 1200, and the radius of the circle is 21
12
2
If the probability of not guessing the correct answer of this question is , then cm.
3
x=
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
2. The following question contains (STATEMENT-I Assertion and
STATEMENT-II Reason) and has following four choices (1), (2), (3) and (4),
only one of which is the correct answer. Mark the correct choice. (1) 270 cm2 (2) 400 cm2 (3) 570 cm2 (4) 300 cm2
8. In the given figure, DE // BC. Find the values of x:
Statement- I (Assertion): If α and β are zeros of the quadratic polynomial A
x2 + 7x + 12, then 4x - 3 8x - 3
12 12
+ − 24𝛼𝛽 = 395 D E
𝛼 𝛽
Statement- II (Reason): If α and β are zeros of the quadratic polynomial 3x - 3 5x - 3
ax2 + bx +c, then
𝑏 𝑐 B C
𝛼 + 𝛽 = − and 𝛼𝛽 = 3 1 1 1
𝑎 𝑎 (1) 0, 2
(2) −1, 2
(3) 2 , −3 (4) 1, 2

Page 1 of 8
9. Students of a class are made to stand in rows. If one student is extra in a row, there 16. If a wire is bent into the shape of a square, then the area of the square is 81 cm2.
would be 2 rows less. If one student is less in a row there would be 3 rows more. When the same wire is bent into a semi-circular shape, then find the area of the semi-
Then the number of students in the class is circle:
(1) 96 (2) 60 (3) 64 (4) None of these (1) 22 cm2 (2) 44 cm2 (3) 77 cm2 (4) 154 cm2

10. The first and last terms of an A.P are 1 and 11. If the sum of its terms is 36, then the Directions for Q17 and Q18.
To enhance the reading skills of grade X students, the school nominates you and two of
number of terms will be
your friends to set up a class library. There are two sections – section A and section B of
(1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 8
grade X. There are 32 students in section A and 36 students in section B.
5 sin θ − 2 𝑠𝑒𝑐 3 θ+2 cos θ
11. If 3 cos θ = 5 sin θ, then the value of is
5 sin θ+2 𝑠𝑒𝑐 3 θ − 2 cos θ
271 316 542
(1) 979 (2) 2937 (3) 2937 (4) None of these

12. The points A (0, -2), B (3, 1), C (0, 4) and D (-3, 1) taken in order are the vertices
of a
(1) Rectangle (2) Square (3) Rhombus (4) None of these 17. What is the minimum number of books you will acquire for the class library, so that
they can be distributed equally among students of Section A or Section B?
13. If the angles of elevation of a tower from two points distant a and b (a>b) from its (1) 144 (2) 2 (3) 288 (4) 4
foot and in the same straight line from it are 300 and 600, then the height of the tower
is: 18. If p and q are positive integers such that 𝑝 = 𝑎𝑏 2 and 𝑞 = 𝑎2 𝑏,where a,b are prime
𝑎 numbers, then the LCM (p,q) is
(1) √𝑎 + 𝑏 (2) √𝑎𝑏 (3) √𝑎 − 𝑏 (4) √𝑏
(1) ab (2) 𝑎2 𝑏 2 (3) 𝑎3 𝑏 2 (4) 𝑎3 𝑏 3
14. The algebraic sum of the deviations of a frequency distribution from its mean is
(1) Always positive (2) Always negative 19. PA and PB are the two tangents drawn to the circle. O is the centre of the circle. A
(3) 0 (4) A non- zero number and B are the points of contact of the tangents PA and PB with the circle of
∠𝑂𝑃𝐴 = 35°. Then ∠𝑃𝑂𝐵 =
15. ABCD is a trapezium in which AB ll CD, AB = 5 cm , AD = 7.5 cm , CD = 9 cm. (1) 55o (2) 65o (3) 75o (4) 85o
What is the length of BC?
20. A sphere is inscribed in a cube, then the ratio of the volume of the sphere to the
volume of the cube is
(1) π : 2 (2) π : 3 (3) π : 4 (4) π : 6

SECTION - B (PHYSICS)
(15 × 4 = 60M)
21. If the distance between the earth and the sun increases by 125 % of its present value,
then the duration of one year will be:
(1) 8 cm (2) 8.5 cm (3) 9cm (4) 9.3 cm 25
(1) 365 days (2) 16 × 365 days
27 9
(3) 8
× 365 days (4) 4 × 365 days

Page 2 of 8
22. A gun of mass 1 kg fires 4 bullets per second each of mass 20 g with a velocity 29. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
1
300 m s . The force required to hold the gun is: (1) < 100 Ω (2) < 4 Ω (3) < 1 Ω (4) > 2 Ω
(1) 24 N (2) 28 N (3) 32 N (4) 10 N
30. Unit of electric power may also be expressed as
23. A car and a motorcycle are moving with the same momentum. When equal retarding (1) Volt-ampere (2) Kilowatt-hour (3) Watt second (4) Joule second
forces are applied, the car comes to halt in 𝑡1 seconds and the motorcycle in 𝑡2
seconds. If the mass of the car is five times more than the mass of the motorcycle, 31. Two stretched membranes of area 2𝑐𝑚2 and 3𝑐𝑚2 are placed in a liquid at the same
then depth. The ratio of the pressure on them, is:
1 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 2 (4) 22 : 33
(1) 𝑡1 = 𝑡2 (2) 𝑡1 = 5𝑡2 (3) 𝑡1 = 5 𝑡2 (4) 𝑡1 = 25𝑡2
32. Two magnetic field lines:
24. An object is placed at a distance of 40cm in front of a concave mirror of a focal (1) Intersect at the neutral point
length of 20 cm. The image produced is: (2) Never intersect each other
(1) virtual and inverted (3) Intersect near north-pole or south pole
(2) real and erect (4) Intersect at the midpoint of the magnet
(3) real, inverted and of the opposite size as that of the object
(4) real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object 33. The front face of a circular loop of a wire carrying current behaves like north-pole,
the direction of current in this face of the loop will be:
25. A far sighted person has a near point of 60 cm. What power lens should be used for (1) Clockwise (2) Anticlockwise (3) Towards North (4) Towards South
eye glasses such that the person can read a book at a distance of 25 cm.
(1) −2.33 D (2) + 2.33 D (3) −1.33 D (4) −3.50 D 34. An echo is returned in 3 s. If the speed of sound is 342 𝑚𝑠 −1, then the distance
between the source of sound and the reflecting body is:
26. A 10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5mm long (1) 351 m (2) 513 m (3) 153 m (4) None of these
image of the awl pin is formed at 30cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of
this mirror is: 35. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves, such that the distance between two consecutive
(1) -30 cm (2) -20 cm (3) -40 cm (4) -60 cm crests is 100 m. If the wave velocity is 20𝑚𝑠 −1 the frequency of rocking boat is
(1) 2 Hz (2) 1 Hz (3) 0.5 Hz (4) 0.2 Hz
27. A car weighing 500 kg working against a resistance of 500 N, accelerate from rest
1
to 20 m s in 100 m. What is the work done by the engine? SECTION - C (CHEMISTRY)
(15 × 4 = 60M)
(1) 1.0 10 J 5
(2) 1.5 10 J
5
(3) 1.05 10 J
5
(4) Data is insufficient
36. NH4OH is an example of a base which turns Phenolphthalein colour to
(1) Orange (2) Blue 3) Pink (4) Colourless
28. The figure shows a circuit diagram. What is being measured using the voltmeter?
37. Coal; Coke; Charcoal; Lamp black; graphite, methane, ethyne, Acetic acid, C60 and
Diamond. Out of all, how many are the amorphous form of carbon?
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 7

(1) Current in the circuit (2) Voltage in the circuit 38. The products of combustion are
(3) The voltage across the resistor (4) The resistance offered by the resistor (1) CO and H2 (2) CO2 and H2 (3) CO and H2O (4) CO2 and H2O

Page 3 of 8
39. An element becomes after losing one electron. The element is 46. Identify the Thermite reaction from the following

(1) 𝑇𝑖𝐶𝑙4 + 2𝑀𝑔   𝑇𝑖 + 2𝑀𝑔𝐶𝑙2
(1) Aluminium (2) Sodium (3) Lithium (4) Potassium (2) 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 3𝐶𝑂 2𝐹𝑒 + 3𝐶𝑂2
(3) 𝐹𝑒2 𝑂3 + 2 𝐴𝑙 𝐴𝑙2 𝑂3 + 2𝐹𝑒
40. Rashid under the guidance of his science teacher had set up an apparatus as shown (4) Both 2 & 3
below.
47. What are the coefficients a, b, c, and d respectively for the following equation?
aBaCl2 + bH2SO4 → cBaSO4 + dHCl
(1) 1, 1, 1, 2 (2) 1, 1, 2, 2 (3) 1, 2, 2, 1 (4) 2, 2, 1, 2
This arrangement is the simulation of 48. Zainab is diluting acid by adding acid to water. Why can’t she add water to acid?
(1) Thomson model (2) Bohr’s model (1) Because adding of water to acid releases heat which causes burn to skin
(3) Rutherford’s model (4) Planck’s model (2) Adding water to acid or acid to water are acceptable ways of dilution
(3) Diluting by adding water to acid requires heat
41. II A group is called as __________ family and they have ________ number of (4) None of the reasons are right
electrons in the outermost shell and have _______ valency.
(1) Alkali metals, 2 and 2 respectively 49. Among metallic nature (X), non-metallic nature (Y), Atomic size (A) and
(2) Alkaline earth metals, 1 and 1 respectively Electronegativity (B), the properties which decreases down the group are/is:
(3) Alkaline earth metals, 2 and 2 respectively (1) Only Y (2) Both X and Y (3) Both A and Y (4) Both B and Y
(4) none of these
50. Which one of the element never exists in free-state?
42. The method of enrichment of ore used for sulphide ores is
(1) Al (2) Au (3) Zn (4) Cu
(1) Washing (2) Froth flotation
(3) Magnetic separation (4) Hand picking
SECTION - D (BIOLOGY)
43. If a metal (M) forms MSO4, then its nitrate formula would be (10 × 4 = 40M)
(1) MNO2 (2) MNO3 (3) M2NO3 (4) M(NO3)2 51. Chemotropism means response towards
(1) Water (2) Chemicals (3) Gravity (4) Light
44. How many no. of moles are present in 64 g of O2 gas?
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 5 52. Gums are used as -
45. The IUPAC name of
(1) Adhesives (2) Binding agents
(3) Medicines (4) All of the above

53. Study of fossils is called --------

(1) Ornithology (2) Archaeology (3) Histology (4) Paleontology

54. Gaseous exchange takes place within the lungs from the alveoli to blood
(1) Butan-1-ol (2) Butanol (3) Butan-3-ol (4) Butan-2-ol
capillaries and vice versa due to the process of __________
(1) Osmosis (2) Peristalsis (3) Diffusion (4) Transportation

Page 4 of 8
55. Arteries are ____________ when compared to veins Saina, you have made all of us proud, you have the ability to go all the way. In this format
(1) Strong and elastic (2) Weak and non-elastic it will not be possible to win every tournament you enter. What is critical is choosing
(3) Weak and elastic (4) Short and narrow your tournaments carefully and resting enough between them to make sure that you
remain in peak condition all the time and injury-free. This is just the beginning. Do not
56. Which plant hormone helps in cell elongation & differentiation? worry about the odd loss here and there. Keep it up. The entire country is with you.
61. What is the main advice given to Saina in the passage?
(1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberellins (3) Ethylene (4) Auxins (1) Focus on winning every tournament
(2) Avoid media attention
57. In the process of inspiration ______ mechanism/s takes place. (3) Stay grounded and focused on a long career
(1) Diaphragm flattens (4) Stop playing in tournaments
(2) volume of chest cavity increased
(3) Air from outside rushes into lungs 62. Who is credited in the passage for Saina's progress and success?
(4) All of the above (1) Saina's family
(2) The media
58. The alleles of two or more different genes get sorted into gametes (3) Saina herself
independently of one another. This is known as ______________ (4) Coach Pullela Gopichand and the support team
(1) Law of Independent Assortment
63. What message does the author convey about Saina's future in the passage?
(2) Law of Dominance (1) She should retire after her current achievements
(3) Law of Segregation (2) Her success is a fluke
(4) None of the above (3) This is just the beginning of her career
(4) She will never achieve anything significant
59. Haemophilia is ___________ chromosome linked disorder.
(1) X (2) Y (3) Z (4) Autosomal 64. Which sentence in the passage contains a direct address to the person being spoken
to?
60. Function of the cerebro-spinal fluid is __________ (1) "Saina Nehwal is already a big star at such a young age."
(1) To protect brain (2) Serves as shock absorbing medium (2) "You have made all of us proud."
(3) Both 1 and 2 (4) To maintain shape of spinal cord (3) "It is equally important to realize that she has a long career ahead of her."
(4) "From whatever little I know of Saina, I am sure she will stay focused."
SECTION - E (ENGLISH)
(5 × 4 = 20M) 65. Select the term which is not the synonym of the word ‘critical’ according to the
Saina Nehwal is already a big star at such a young age. It will bring a lot of media context.
attention. What is important is not to get carried away. It is equally important to realize (1) Analytical (2) Evaluative (3) Interpretive (4) Serious
that she has a long career ahead of her and a lot more tournaments to win. From whatever
little I know of Saina, I am sure, she will stay focused and it is only a matter of time SECTION - F (LOGICAL REASONING)
before she becomes World No.1. Full credit goes to her coach Pullela Gopichand for the (15 × 4 = 60M)
way he has planned and executed her progress as well as the support team of the 66. If P is a brother of Q, M is a sister of Q and T is a brother of P, then how Q is related
physiotherapist and physical trainer who, as always work quietly behind the scenes. to T?
(1) Sister (2) Brother (3) Brother or Sister (4) None of these

Page 5 of 8
67. Q is the brother of R; 76. Some students are standing in a straight line. Nidhi is 19th from the right end of the
P is the sister of Q; line and Palak is at 15th position from the left end of the line. Both Nidhi and Palak
T is the brother of S; exchange their positions after which Kanika who was 24th from the left end is now
S if the daughter of R. Who are the cousins of Q? at the 5th position. How many people are standing in total?
(1) R and P (2) P and T (3) Q and T (4) S and T (1) 47 (2) 48 (3) 49 (4) 50
68. If A means (+), and B means (−), C means (÷) and D means ‘×’, find the value of 77. Choose the correct mirror image of the question figure, from the given answer
the following expression: 4A9D5C15 figures.
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 4 (4) 7
69. In a group of buffaloes and ducks the number of legs are 24 more than twice the
number of heads. What is the number of buffaloes in the group?
(1) 6 (2) 18 (3) 12 (4) 24
70. 100, 50, 52, 26, 28, ?, 16, 8
(1) 30 (2) 36 (3) 14 (4) 12
71. 1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 13, 21, 34, ? (1) (2) (3) (4)
(1) 31 (2) 44 (3) 55 (4) 54
78. What will be the digit on the opposite face of the particular face having digit 4 in
72. Anuja goes 5Km towards east from a fixed point N, and then 35 Km after turning to the dice given below?
her left. Again she goes 10Km after turning to her right. After this she goes 35Km
after turning to her right. How far is she from N?
(1) 10 km (2) 20 km (3) 15 km (4) 5 km
73. Ranjith walked 40m facing towards north. From there he walked 50m after turning (1) 3 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 6
to his left. After this he walked 40m after turning to his left. How far and in what
direction is he now from his starting point? 79. Find the missing number?
(1) 40m East (2) 35m West (3) 50m West (4) 50m East 4 3 8
9 7 2
74. Six people – P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting in a same row at equal distance. All are 8 6 4
facing north. Only one person is sitting between Q and R. S is sitting third to the left 44 27 ?
of R. Two persons are sitting between T and U. T is sitting 2nd to the right of R. How (1) 84 (2) 14 (3) 20 (4) 64
many people are sitting between P and S?
(1) Two (2) Four (3) Three (4) Five 80. Find the number in the place of (?)
75. Seven students who got university positions are sitting in a straight line facing north.
Mahi is sitting second to the right of Mukesh who is sitting at extreme left end. 1 1 1
Maahir is sitting to the immediate left of Ramesh. Ramesh is also sitting at one of
the extreme end. Vansh is sitting exactly in the middle of the row. Vanshika is sitting 35 14 ?
3 5 2 3 4 2
to the immediate right of Vansh. The one who is second to the left of Vansh is
Varinda.
Who is sitting fifth to the left of Maahir? (1) 21 (2) 22 (3) 29 (4) 20
(1) Mukesh (2) Vansh (3) Varinda (4) Mahi
Page 6 of 8
 SECTION - G (SOCIAL SCIENCE) 87. What is the primary drawback of the barter system?
(10 × 4 = 40M) (1) Lack of double coincidence of wants
81. In the context of the Indian economy, which sector is primarily engaged in (2) Simplicity and efficiency
agriculture, forestry, and fishing? (3) Stable value of goods
(1) Primary sector (4) Government regulation
(2) Secondary sector
(3) Tertiary sector 88. Which sector contributes the most to the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of India?
(4) Quaternary sector (1) Primary sector
(2) Secondary sector
82. Who was the chairman of the drafting committee of the Indian Constitution? (3) Tertiary sector
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru (4) Quaternary sector
(2) Sardar Patel
(3) B.R. Ambedkar 89. What is the role of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in the context of financial inclusion?
(4) Mahatma Gandhi (1) Promoting tax evasion
(2) Encouraging consumerism
83. How do Multinational Corporations (MNCs) contribute to globalization? (3) Providing banking services to marginalized communities
(1) By promoting economic isolation (4) Regulating stock markets
(2) By restricting international trade
(3) By investing and operating in multiple countries 90. What is the primary role of the International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
(4) By advocating for protectionist policies (1) Promoting international trade agreements
(2) Stabilizing exchange rates and providing financial assistance
84. What is the main responsibility of the Chief Election Commissioner? (3) Regulating multinational corporations
(1) Formulating economic policies (4) Facilitating cultural exchanges
(2) Conducting elections in a free and fair manner
(3) Enforcing law and order SECTION - H (DEENIYAT)
(4) Appointing judges to the Supreme Court (10 × 4 = 40M)
91. The age of Prophet (PBUH) when his mother Hazrat Aamina (R.A) died was __.
85. What is the primary function of Self Help Groups (SHGs) in India? (1) 4 years (2) 6 years (3) 9 years (4) 12 years
(1) Providing higher education 92. Mandatory act before performing Salah is ________.
(2) Promoting large-scale industries (1) Ablution (2) Forgiveness (3) Charity (4) All of these
(3) Poverty alleviation and empowerment
(4) Agricultural research 93. Which book belongs to Hazrat Moosa (A.S)?
(1) Quran (2) Injeel (3) Torah (4) Zaboor
86. What is the fundamental principle of a democratic government? 94. What is the duty of Hazrat Jibraeil (A.S)?
(1) Rule by the military (1) To convey Allah’s message to prophets
(2) Rule by the people (2) To capture soul
(3) Rule by a single leader (3) To manage rains and food for creature
(4) Rule by the aristocracy (4) All of the above

Page 7 of 8
95. Which is the most important worship in Islam?
(1) Hajj (2) Fasting (3) Salah (4) Charity
96. Which act is not the sunnah of drinking water?
(1) To say Bismillah before drinking (2) To do ablution before drinking
(3) To sit and drink (4) To drink with right hand

97. The questions asked in the grave will be related to __________.

(1) God, Religion and Prophet (2) Religion, Prayers and Charity
(3) Salah, Fasting and Hajj (4) All of these
98. Who was the first Muazzin in Islam?
(1) Ammar Ibn Yasser (2) Abdullah Ibn Masood
(3) Bilal Ibn Rabah (4) None of these
99. What do Muslims recite throughout the Hajj?
(1) Al-Fatiha (2) Talbiya
(3) Declaration of Hajj (4) There is no specific recitation
100. During which month is the Hajj performed?
(1) Dhul-Hijjah (2) Ramadhan
(3) Muharram (4) Rajjab

Page 8 of 8