Mock Exam 3 - Questions
Mock Exam 3 - Questions
Money managers are routinely evaluated using a wide array of performance analysis
tools. Examples of risk-adjusted performance measures include Sharpe's measure,
Treynor's measure, Jensen's alpha, and the information ratio. Which of the following
statements regarding these performance analysis measures is most likely correct?
A) Controls owner.
B) Exposure owner.
C) Metrics owner.
D) Risk owner.
Quantitative Equity Design (QED) is a quantitative equity fund manager. QED forecasts
monthly alphas for stocks in its 3,000 stock universe. The number of independent
forecasts made on a monthly basis is 25. If the model employed by QED has an
information coefficient of 0.15, the information ratio for QED is closest to:
A) 0.75.
B) 2.60.
C) 28.46.
D) 45.00.
Callahan, Inc. (Callahan), has a return on assets of 7%, total assets of $5 million, and
equity financing of $2 million. Its cost of debt is 3%. If Callahan decides to double its
leverage factor, by how much will its return on equity (ROE) increase?
A) 4%.
B) 7%.
C) 10%.
D) 13%.
A U.S. bank decides to obtain a short-term loan from the Federal Reserve (the Fed) at
the discount window. The bank will provide acceptable collateral for the loan and
would like to pay the least amount of interest. Which form of discount window
borrowing from the Fed is most appropriate for the bank?
A) Overnight credit.
B) Primary credit.
C) Seasonal credit.
D) Secondary credit.
The Basel II Accord has been recently revised in an attempt to correct potential flaws
and weaknesses. The improved set of regulations is known as Basel III. Somewhat
similar to the Basel banking regulations is the Solvency II framework, which is a
European Union directive for insurance companies. When compared to Basel II/III,
which of the following statements correctly reflects Solvency II? Solvency II:
considers both solvency capital requirements (SCR) and the minimum capital
A)
requirement (MCR).
focuses on credit, operational, and market risk, which includes illiquidity and
B)
concentration risks, and reputational and strategic risks.
C) acknowledges only Level 1 diversification benefits.
D) computes total and Tier 1 capital ratio on a consolidated basis for subsidiaries.
In 2009, the Supervisory Capital Assessment Program (SCAP) allowed U.S. bank
regulators to assess the capital strength of financial institutions. If there was a gap
between what a bank needed in terms of capital and what it had, regulators had to
find a credible way to fill that gap. When comparing stress tests before and after
SCAP, which of the following statements is incorrect?
A diversified portfolio has a current value of $100,000, a mean of 8%, and a standard
deviation of 15%. What is the approximate difference between the value at risk (VaR)
measures computed using a normal distribution assumption and a lognormal
distribution assumption assuming a 95% confidence level?
produces interest rate risk that is relevant (a matter of concern) for all investors in
A)
mortgage-backed securities.
allows originators of mortgage-backed securities, their conduits, and structured
B)
investment vehicles (SIVs) to take excessive risks due to risk transfer mechanisms.
offers diversification benefits due to positive correlations in the default risks of
C)
various mortgages.
can address a moral hazard problem if the originating institution holds the senior
D)
tranche.
The chief risk officer of an Australian bank is evaluating the bank's overall risk
appetite and is looking to determine which of the bank's activities should be kept in-
house or outsourced to third-party vendors. Within the life cycle stages of third-party
risk management (TPRM), these determinations would most likely fall under:
CE Bank began operations only two years ago. As the bank continues to grow, the CEO
identifies the need for a risk management department and specifically, an enterprise
risk management (ERM) framework. Recognizing that they must balance the pursuit of
objectives and the incurrence of risk, they have hired an outside consulting firm to
help them develop the framework. Each of the following statements is an accurate
representation of framework components except:
A hedge fund manager has asked her risk analyst to incorporate nonparametric
methods into their statistical modeling program. The analyst, used to parametric
methods, is concerned about using nonparametric methods. Which of the following
statements would accurately reflect the analyst's concerns?
Within the realm of supervised learning and the classification approach of creating
subgroups, in estimating the loss given default (LGD) for a group of bondholders,
which approach is most effective?
A) Deep learning.
B) Decision trees.
C) Clustering methods.
D) Support vector machines.
Using the Vasicek model, assume a current short-term rate of 5.2% and an annual
volatility of the interest rate process of 3.5%. Also assume that the long-run mean-
reverting level is 14.2% with a speed of adjustment of 0.4. Within a binomial interest
rate tree, what are the upper and lower node rates after the first month?
B) 6.51% 6.79%
C) 8.81% 6.79%
D) 8.81% 4.49%
Kimco is a bank holding company (BHC) whose capital resource management and
allocation process is currently being assessed by the Federal Reserve. Which of the
following statements does not accurately describe one of the seven principles that will
be applied to this assessment?
A bank's risk manager is examining the impact on the term structure of available
assets (TSAA) and term structure of the liquidity generation capacity (TSLGC) of
various financial transactions. If the bank were to pay cash equal to the asset price
less the haircut in exchange for receiving the asset, what would be the impacts on
TSAA and TSLGC, assuming the asset is not repoed?
TSAA TSLGC
A) Increase Increase
B) Increase No impact
C) No impact Increase
D) No impact No impact
Question #17 of 80 Question ID: 1291966
A risk analyst uses a decision tree framework to estimate the price of zero-coupon
bonds. This decision tree framework helps him illustrate how interest rate
expectations determine the shape of the yield curve. The analyst assumes that
investors are risk averse and require a risk premium of 50 basis points for each year
of interest rate risk. What is the price that he should calculate for a 2-year zero-
coupon bond with a face value of $100 using expected 1-year returns in 1-year of 10%
in the up node and 6% in the down node of the decision tree? Assume the 1-year spot
rate is equal to 8%.
A) $85.37.
B) $92.59.
C) $92.17.
D) $85.76.
A risk management consultant with Bank ABC uses profit/loss information from the
previous 1,000 trading days to compute a daily portfolio VaR at the 99th percentile of
$10 million. She is interested in examining the loss data beyond the 99th percentile in
order to estimate the portfolio's expected shortfall. If the losses beyond the VaR
threshold (in millions) were $12, $15, $17, $18, $21, $22, $24, $27, and $51, what is
the expected shortfall for this portfolio?
A) $12 million.
B) $21 million.
C) $23 million.
D) $51 million.
A financial institution has stress tested its current exposure using a 40% decline in
equity markets, and it reports to management which counterparties are most
vulnerable to such a large-scale equity market decline. A shortcoming of this stress
test is that it does not:
A) incorporate counterparties’ mark-to-market values.
B) provide information on wrong-way risk.
C) indicate how much the counterparties would owe the financial institution.
D) incorporate the value of collateral.
An investor has recently purchased several over-the-counter (OTC) puts on the S&P
500 exchange-traded fund (ETF). He uses options to hedge risk and to overweight or
underweight asset classes in an efficient and risk conscious fashion. Which of the
following statements best describe the use of long OTC puts in the context of wrong-
way risk (WWR) and right-way risk (RWR)?
A) Out-of-the-money put options have less WWR than in-the-money put options.
B) Out-of-the-money put options have more WWR than in-the-money put options.
In-the-money put options do not have any more or less WWR or RWR than out-of-
C)
the-money put options.
A long put option is subject to WWR if both risk exposure and counterparty default
D)
probability decrease.
A fixed income analyst working for the Bridgeland Fund would like to recommend that
TRL be added to its fund's overall debt portfolio. In providing key ratios to her fund
manager, which of the following statements is most accurate?
A risk analyst uses the past 600 months of correlation data from the Standard &
Poor's 500 (S&P 500) to estimate the long-run mean correlation of common stocks
and the mean reversion rate. Based on this historical data, the long-run mean
correlation of S&P 500 stocks was 44%, and the regression output estimates the
following regression relationship: Y = 0.334 − 0.79X. Suppose that in July 2017, the
average monthly correlation for all S&P stocks was 37%. What is the estimated one-
period autocorrelation for this time period based on the mean reversion rate
estimated in the regression analysis?
A) 21%.
B) 37%.
C) 56%.
D) 66%.
A bank is proposing the use of very short-term repo transactions to earn additional
investment income. Collateral is provided by the borrower, and the haircut is 5%. To
which of the following risks is the bank exposed in the proposed transaction?
A) Counterparty risk.
B) Liquidity risk.
C) Both counterparty risk and liquidity risk.
D) Neither counterparty risk nor liquidity risk.
Mark to Market
Trade 1 Trade 2
Scenario 1 18 4
Scenario 2 12 −3
Scenario 3 8 −5
Scenario 4 −4 7
The netting benefit associated with these trades that will be shown at the bottom of
the exhibit should be closest to:
A) 3.00.
B) 4.25.
C) 7.50.
D) 9.25.
Question #25 of 80 Question ID: 1530900
A derivatives trader for QuickTrade Brokerage is pricing a swap and estimates a credit
value adjustment (CVA) as a running spread at 28 basis points. If the counterparty's
credit spread is equal to 320 basis points per year, the average expected exposure
(EPE) from the present until the maturity that is implied by the running spread value is
closest to:
A) 3.50%.
B) 4.00%.
C) 8.75%.
D) 11.50%.
A well-known actively managed mutual fund uses the information ratio (IR) to screen
all investment opportunities. They target an IR of at least 0.60. Two of the junior
analysts have asked for their manager's opinion on how many investment bets the
fund should be placing every year. Analyst 1 thinks that it should be at least 250, but
Analyst 2 thinks that they could achieve their IR goal with less than 25. Their manager
explains to them that the missing puzzle piece is the information coefficient (or
correlation) between the firm's predictions for stocks and the stocks' actual outcomes.
The manager also explains that in order for Analyst 1 to be correct, the information
coefficient could be __________ or lower, while it would need to be at least __________ in
order for Analyst 2 to be right. The manager tells ___________ that their theory is more
conservative.
A) 0.0541; 0.18; Analyst 2.
B) 0.0379; 0.12; Analyst 1.
C) 0.0541; 0.18; Analyst 1.
D) 0.0379; 0.12; Analyst 2.
The fund manager of TopTier Funds (TTF) is looking to expand the fund's holdings into
investments that have low exposure to climate risks. As part of his due diligence
process, the manager makes the following risk categorizations:
Heatwaves are part of acute physical risks since they relate to extreme weather
events.
Liquidity risk relates to changes in value of financial assets due to economic factors,
which is a key risk classification within microeconomic transmission channels.
The chief risk officer of a bank is in the initial stages of developing a climate-related
financial risk analysis model. He has been studying methodologies used currently by
peer entities and is planning to incorporate a risk management approach that
specifically assesses the impact of climate change on the bank's balance sheet. The
approach he will most likely select is:
A) scenario analysis.
B) natural capital analysis.
C) climate value at risk (VaR).
D) climate risk ratings/scores.
An investor purchases a correlation swap with a fixed correlation rate of 0.3 and a
notional value of $750,000 for one year for a portfolio of four assets. The pairwise
correlations of the daily log returns at maturity for the four assets are shown in the
following table.
A) $7,500.
B) $217,500.
C) $225,000.
D) $232,500.
A) Introduce a leverage ratio buffer for global systemically important banks (G-SIBs).
Create an output floor that is more robust and risk sensitive than the current Basel
B)
II floor.
Expand the use of internal model approaches for credit risk, credit valuation
C)
adjustment (CVA) risk, and operational risk.
Expand the robustness and sensitivity of the standardized approaches (SA) for
D)
measuring credit risk, CVA risk, and operational risk.
Implied volatility is used to price both call and put options. Which of the following
statements best describes the put-call parity in no-arbitrage equilibrium?
A) c + S = p + PV(X).
B) c + p = S − PV(X).
C) c − PV(X) = S + p.
D) c − p = S − PV(X).
A) $69,900.
B) $92,400.
C) $105,800.
D) $184,800.
Question #35 of 80 Question ID: 1291974
A trader is pricing a derivatives contract with Lakeland Brothers, Inc., and has set a
benchmark return of 4.75%, which equates to the credit value adjustment (CVA). In
deriving the CVA for this contract, the trader has likely accounted for all of the
following components except:
Which of the following types of data inputs in the credit granting process is least likely
to result in disparate impact discrimination in the credit granting process?
A) Digital footprint.
B) Credit bureau score.
C) Rental payment history.
D) Utility payment history.
An investor's portfolio comprises of only two assets. Asset 1 has losses when the
markets perform poorly. Asset 2 has a low beta. Holding the capital asset pricing
model's (CAPM) assumptions true, which of the following statements is most
accurate?
A) 1.5 million.
B) 3.0 million.
C) 4.5 million.
D) 9.0 million.
In the context of waiting for a company to default, the rate parameter, λ, in the
exponential distribution function is known as the hazard rate. This parameter
indicates the rate at which company defaults will arrive. Given a hazard rate of 0.12,
what is the conditional default probability given survival until time 2?
A) 0.2134.
B) 0.8869.
C) 0.1131.
D) 0.1003.
Bank XYZ has a credit portfolio with 1,000 credit positions that has a total value of $1
million. The default probability for each position is 0.5%, the estimated recovery rate
is zero, and the default correlation is zero. The 99th percentile of the number of
defaults is 11. Using a confidence level of 99%, the credit value at risk (VaR) of this
portfolio is approximately:
A) $1,000.
B) $5,000.
C) $6,000.
D) $11,000.
Question #41 of 80 Question ID: 1433270
A) 2.27.
B) 3.27.
C) 4.58.
D) 5.58.
Suppose mean reversion exists for a variable with a value of 100 at time period t − 1.
Assume that the long-run mean value for this variable is 120, and ignore the
stochastic term included in most regressions of financial data. What is the expected
change in value of the variable for the next period if the mean reversion rate is 0.6?
A) 2.
B) 6.
C) 12.
D) 20.
A) 8 13
B) 8 21
C) 13 8
D) 21 13
A portfolio strategist is training a junior analyst recently hired by her fund. The
strategist would like the analyst's help with applying copulas, but she realizes this is
not a concept that the analyst has worked with in the past. To educate the analyst on
both correlation copulas and Gaussian copulas, the strategist is least likely to use
which of the following descriptions?
Fixed income arbitrage funds attempt to obtain profits by exploiting inefficiencies and
price anomalies between related fixed-income securities. The fund managers try to
limit volatility by hedging exposure to interest rate risk. Which of the following types
of fixed-income trades bets that the fixed side of a spread will stay higher than the
floating side of a spread?
A) Swap spread trade.
B) Credit arbitrage trades.
C) Mortgage spread trades.
D) Fixed-income volatility trades.
A bank liquidity manager is attempting to allocate funds for the bank's various
activities, including collateralization. Which category of funding liquidity is most likely
impacted by collateralization?
A) Contingent.
B) Operational.
C) Restricted.
D) Strategic.
A) 19.
B) 28.
C) 36.
D) 58.
Using a confidence level of 99.9% over a 1-year time horizon, under the IRB
framework, a bank has an estimated VaR equal to $230 million. If the expected loss is
$130 million, what is the total dollar value of economic capital?
A) $100 million.
B) $130 million.
C) $230 million.
D) $360 million.
Which of the following is true regarding the special purpose vehicle (SPV) corporate
structure and the SPV trust structure?
When the SPV is set up as a trust, the claims are issued directly against the master
A)
trust.
When the SPV is set up as a corporation, the claims are issued directly against the
B)
assets of the SPV.
For both the corporation and trust structure, claims are issued directly against the
C)
assets of the SPV.
For both the corporation and trust, claims are issued indirectly against the assets of
D)
the SPV.
Question #53 of 80 Question ID: 1291976
Assume that counterparty A would like to net five different exposures with
counterparty B. Netting this set of exposures will minimize the risk of default by either
party. Assuming that the average correlation among these five exposures is equal to
40%, what is the netting factor used to quantify the benefit of netting?
A) 28%.
B) 40%.
C) 53%.
D) 72%.
If a combination of two portfolios (A and B) has a VaR of $600 million, and Portfolio A,
on a stand-alone basis, has a VaR of $400 million, the VaR of Portfolio B, on a stand-
alone basis:
Consider a two-asset portfolio. The portfolio weight of X is 0.35 and Y is 0.65. The total
value of the portfolio is $3.4M and the standard deviation of returns is 9.8%. The
betas of assets X and Y are 0.65 and 1.35, respectively. What is the marginal VaR of
Asset X and the component VaR of Asset Y at a 99% confidence level?
A) $0.22834 $504,631
B) $0.14842 $504,631
C) $0.22834 $681,252
D) $0.14842 $681,252
A bank's liquidity risk manager is already familiar with the general aspects of early
warning indicators (EWIs) and wants to perform a more microanalysis of EWIs by
focusing on intraday liquidity indicators. Which of the following EWI supervisory
guidelines would be most relevant for the risk manager?
A) BCBS (2008).
B) BCBS (2012).
C) Federal Reserve (SR 10-6).
D) OCC (2012).
A) Risk concentrations.
B) Risk exposures.
C) Risk mitigants.
D) Emerging risks.
A hedge fund manager is looking for an arbitrage opportunity for the following
binomial tree. The binomial tree is for a 2-year, 5% annual coupon paying bond with a
current market price of $99.791. The probability for each upper and lower branch is
50%.
Bank XYZ has calculated a market risk VaR for the previous day equal to $25 million.
The average VaR over the last 60 days is $6 million. The bank has calculated a stressed
VaR for the previous day equal to $28 million and an average stressed VaR equal to
$31 million. What is the total market risk capital charge, assuming the multiplicative
factor is set to 3?
A) $43 million.
B) $75 million.
C) $109 million.
D) $118 million.
Question #65 of 80 Question ID: 1530906
The chief audit and risk officer of Lidge Bank is preparing for a presentation to the
president, CFO, and risk committee of Lidge's board of directors. While this committee
meets on a quarterly basis to review recent trends, strategic plan initiatives, and key
risk indicators, this specific meeting serves as the annual discussion and finalization of
next year's risk management strategic plan. In a "reporting cake" model, the
information that the risk officer will share is best categorized as:
A) Tier 1.
B) Tier 2.
C) Tier 3.
D) Tier 4.
Titan Bank is planning to move to the standardized approach for operational risk
capital and wants to incorporate the loss component into its calculation for the
coming fiscal year. The bank opened 8 years ago and only has reliable loss data for
the last 6 years. Will they be able to still use the loss component and the standardized
approach?
No, as the bank must have at least a 10-year observation period overall and
A)
specifically for loss data.
No, as the bank must be in existence for at least 10 years, with reliable loss data for
B)
the last 5 years.
Yes, as reliable loss data is not required as long as the bank has been in existence
C)
for at least 5 years.
Yes, as the bank will be eligible as long as the loss data covering at least the last 5
D)
years is deemed good quality and reliable.
A) Amber.
B) Green.
C) Red.
D) Yellow.
The time-weighted rate of return measures compound growth over a specified time
horizon. Which of the following actions would not be required to compute the annual
time-weighted return for an investment?
Value the portfolio at the end of each month to include significant additions or
A)
withdrawals.
Compute the product of (1 + holding period return) for each subperiod t to obtain a
B)
total return for the entire measurement period.
Form subperiods over the evaluation periods that correspond to the dates of
C)
deposits and withdrawals.
D) Compute the holding period return of the portfolio for each subperiod.
An individual investor would like to invest $500,000 for nine months. He wants
absolute safety for his entire investment, does not want to earn the lowest possible
yield, and wants to have the potential to earn moderate capital gains during his
investment horizon. Based solely on his objectives, which investment vehicle is most
suitable for the investor's needs?
Assume a relative value trade is established whereby a trader sells a U.S. Treasury
bond and buys a U.S. TIPS to hedge the T-bond. Suppose the DV01 of the T-bond is
0.055 and the DV01 of the TIPS is 0.078. If the trader is selling 50 million of the T-bond,
and the hedge adjustment factor (beta) is equal to 1.02, what is the approximate face
amount of TIPS to purchase in order to hedge the short position?
A) $25 million.
B) $36 million.
C) $49 million.
D) $71 million.
A) Plan.
B) Do.
C) Study.
D) Act.
The credit spread on a 1-year B-rated corporate bond relative to the maturity-
matched T-bill is 2.2%. The portion of this spread related to noncredit factors, such as
liquidity risk, is forecasted to be 0.6%. Given a recovery rate in the event of default of
75%, what is the hazard rate (i.e., default intensity) for this corporate bond?
A) 2.2%.
B) 2.1%.
C) 2.9%.
D) 6.4%.
Question #76 of 80 Question ID: 1530931
A) 5 days.
B) 50 days.
C) 60 days.
D) 83 days.
A bank manager is reviewing the pricing of the bank's deposit accounts for retail
customers. He proposes to introduce a new deposit product that has no service fee
for average monthly balances above $5,000 and a $10 monthly service fee for average
monthly balances of $5,000 or less. No interest is paid on any deposits, but checks
may be written at no charge. The pricing of the proposed deposit product is best
described as:
A) conditional pricing.
B) cost-plus pricing.
C) marginal cost pricing.
D) a combination of two of the pricing methods.
A) Risk assessment.
B) Risk identification.
C) Risk mitigation.
D) Risk monitoring.