20/09/2023 C

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,

Ph.011-47623456

MM : 720 REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD Time : 200 Min.

Topics Covered :
SECTION A:
Waves
SECTION B:
Waves
SECTION A:
Thermodynamics
SECTION B:
Thermodynamics
SECTION A:
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
SECTION B:
Morphology of Flowering Plants
Anatomy of Flowering Plants
SECTION A:
Body Fluids and Circulation
SECTION B:
Body Fluids and Circulation

PHYSICS

SECTION A

1. A police car moving at 22 m/s chases a 2. The equation of a stationary wave in a string
motorcyclist. The policeman sounds his horn is given by y = 2A sinkx. cosωt. Maximum
at 176 Hz, while both of them move towards transverse speed of the particle is
a stationary siren of frequency 165 Hz. (1) 2 kA
Calculate the speed of the motorcycle if
(2) 2 ωA
motorcyclist does not observe any beats
[velocity of sound is 330 m/s] (3) ω
k

(4) 2A

3. The phase difference between particles on

(1) 33 m/s the two sides of a node is
(2) 22 m/s (1) 2π
(3) Zero (2) π
(4) 11 m/s (3) 3π
(4) π
2

1
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

4. The displacement of a wave pulse is given 10. A travelling wave on a light string. The
by y =
10
metre. The velocity of equation of the wave is Y = Acos(ωt – kx +
4+(4t−x)
2
60°). It is reflected from a heavy string tied to
wave pulse is an end of the light string at x = 0. If 81% of
(1) 4 m/s the incident energy is reflected, the equation
(2) 2.5 m/s of the reflected wave is
(1) Y = 0.9A cos (ωt + kx + 60° + 180°)
(3) 0.25 m/s
(2) Y = 0.9A cos (ωt – kx + 60° + 180°)
(4) –8 m/s
(3) Y = 0.9A cos (ωt + kx + 60°)
(4) Y = 0.9A cos (ωt + kx – 60°)
5. If a sound wave has a pressure amplitude P
0 , speed v in a medium of density ρ then the
intensity of sound is equal to 11. Two points are located at a distance of 12 m
(1) 2P 2 and 32 m from the source of oscillation. The
period of oscillation is 0.04 second and the
0

ρv
velocity of the wave is 300 m/s. The phase
(2) P
2
0
difference between the oscillation of two
2ρv
points
(3) P
0
2

(1) 3π
ρv 2

(4) 4P
2
0
(2) 10π

3
ρv
(3) 5π

6. If A is the amplitude of the wave coming from (4) 3π

a line source at distance r, then 4

(1) 1

A ∝ r
12. A car while whistling a frequency of f is
2

(2) −1
approaching a stationary wall with velocity v.
A ∝ r 2

The velocity of sound in air is c. The number

(3) A ∝ r
−2
of beats heard by the driver per second is
(4) A ∝ r (1) cf
c–v

(2) 2vf

7. The vibrations of a string of length 60 cm v+c

fixed at both the ends are represented by the (3) cf

4πx v+c
equation y = 2 sin( ) cos(96πt) ,
15
(4) 2vf

where x and y are in cm. The maximum c–v

number of loops that can be formed in it is

(1) 6 13. The phase difference between the particles
(2) 16 A and B for a wave located as shown in
(3) 5 figure is
(4) 15

8. There are three sources of sound of equal

intensity with frequencies 400, 401, 402
vibrations/s. The number of beats heard per
second is
(1) 3π
(1) Zero 4

(2) 1 (2) 7π

4
(3) 2
(3) 3π

(4) 3 2

(4) 5π

4
9. A tuning fork produces 5 beats/s with a
tuning fork of frequency 246 Hz. The fork is
now loaded with wax and then 5 beats/s are
still heard. The frequency of the fork was
(1) 251 Hz
(2) 241 Hz
(3) 246 Hz
(4) 249 Hz

2
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

14. Three consecutive resonant frequencies of 19. The wave propagates on a string in positive
stretched string fixed at both ends are 60 Hz, x direction at a velocity v. The shape of the
90 Hz and 120 Hz, then string at time t = 2 s is given as g(x­, t = 2 s) =
x
(1) The fundamental frequency is 30 Hz Asin ( a ) . The wave equation for general
(2) The given frequencies are 1st, 3rd and time t will be
5th harmonic (1) x−v(t−2)
g(x, t) = A sin [ ]
a

(3) The given frequencies are 1st, 2nd and

(2) x+v(t−2)

3rd overtone g(x, t) = A sin [

a
]

(4) Both (1) and (3) are correct (3) x−v(t+2)

g(x, t) = A sin [ ]
a

15. Two closed organ pipes of length 100 cm (4) x−2tv

g(x, t) = A sin [ ]
and 101 cm produces 8 beats in 10 s. When a

each pipe is sounded in its fundamental

mode. The velocity of the sound will be
20. An open organ pipe of length L vibrates in its
(1) 303 m/s fundamental mode. The pressure variation is
(2) 332 m/s maximum
(3) 323.2 m/s (1) At the middle of pipe
(4) 300 m/s (2) At the two ends
(3) At L from one end
4
16. A stretched wire of length l, free at one end
(4) At distances L
inside the ends
can sustain stationary waves of wavelength 8

λ then the value of λ which is not possible is

(symbols have their usual meaning)
21. The fundamental frequency n of a string will
(1) λ = 4l
3
be given by, if n1 , n2 , n3 ... are fundamental
(2) 4l frequencies of segments of stretched string
λ =
7
(1) n = n1 + n2 + n3
(3) λ =
4l
−−−−− −−−−−− −−
6 (2) n = √n1 × n2 × n3 ⋯

(4) λ =
4l
(3) 1 1 1 1
= + + …
9 n n1 n2 n3

(4) n =
1
+
1
+
1

n1 n2 n3
17. A : Propagation of sound in air is a adiabatic
process.
R : Exchange of heat between the region of
compression and rarefaction in air is
negligible.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

18. The sound level at a point is increased by 40

dB. By what factor is the pressure amplitude
increased?
(1) 50
(2) 100
(3) 200
(4) 160

3
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

22. Which of the following represents loudness 24. y =

0.4
represents a moving pulse,
(ρ) versus intensity, (I) of sound graph? 2
(2x+3t ) +4

(1) where x and y are in meter and t is in

second. Then distance covered by wave
pulse in 3 s is
(1) 4.5 m
(2) 2.0 m
(3) 3.4 m
(4) 2.5 m

(2) 25. The function of x and t that does not

represent a progressive wave is
(1) y = 1

2
(2x−t ) +2

(2) log(3x + t)
(3) y = (2x – t)2
(4) Both (B) and (C)

(3) 26. In the experiment for the determination of the

speed of sound in air using the resonance
column method, The length of air column
that resonates in the fundamental mode,
with a tuning fork is 0.2 m, when the length is
changed to 0.65 m. The same tuning fork
resonates with the fist overtone. The end
correction is
(1) 0.5 m
(2) 0.025 m
(4)
(3) 0.25 m
(4) 0.050 m

27. A wave propagating in a rod

(1) May be longitudinal
(2) Must be transversal
(3) Must be longitudinal
(4) Must be non-mechanical
23. A metallic wire of length 1 m, mass 100 g
and uniform cross-sectional area 10–4 m2 is 28. A car is moving towards a huge wall with a
fixed at both ends. The temperature of the constant speed of 10 m/s. The driver sounds
wire is increase by 10°C. If transverse waves horn of frequency 100 Hz. The frequency of
are set up by plucking the string in the beat heard by a passenger of the car will be
middle, then the frequency of the [Speed of sound in air = 340 m/s]
fundamental mode of vibration is (1) 3 Hz
[Young's modulus Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2 ,
(2) 6 Hz
coefficient of linear expansion α = 2.42 × 10–
5 (3) 4 Hz
/°C].
(4) 10 Hz
(1) 110 Hz
(2) 220 Hz
(3) 22 Hz
(4) 11 Hz

4
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

29. Two superimposing waves are represented 33. In context of motion of source of sound and
by equations, y = 6 sin(6t − x) cm and observer choose the correct statement.
y' = 3 sin(6t − x +
π
)cm, (Where x and t
a. The apparent frequency changes due to
4
the motion of observer
are measured in meter and second b. The apparent frequency is independent of
respectively) velocity of the medium if source and
Imax
Ratio Imin
after interference will be observer are at rest
c. The apparent wavelength changes due to
(1) 3
the motion of observer
1

(2) 16 (1) a and c true

1
(2) b and c true
(3) 9

1
(3) a and b true
(4) 4 (4) a, b and c true
1

34. N number of tuning forks are arranged in

30. A string of length 20 cm and weighing 5 g is increasing order of frequency in such a way
attached to a spring at one end and to fixed that any two consecutive tuning forks
wall at the other end. The spring has a produces 3 beats per second. The highest
spring constant of 80 N/m and is stretched frequency is first octave higher than the
by 0.5 cm. If a wave pulse is produced on lowest frequency. If highest frequency is 90
the string near the wall, time taken by pulse Hz then N is
to reach the spring is
(1) 10
(1) 0.4 s
(2) 12
(2) 0.5 s
(3) 14
(3) 0.05 s
(4) 16
(4) 0.04 s

35. The differential equation of a plane-

31. A person hums in a well and finds strong d
2
y d
2
y
resonance at frequencies 120 Hz, 200 Hz progressive wave is given as 2
= 25
2
.
dx dt
and 280 Hz consecutively. The fundamental The velocity of wave is (Where x and y are in
frequency of well is metre and t is in second)
(1) 60 Hz (1) 0.2 m/s
(2) 80 Hz (2) 25 m/s
(3) 40 Hz (3) 5 m/s
(4) 20 Hz (4) 10 m/s

32. A : Sound propagating in the water is

reflected by the air. The phase difference
between incident wave and reflected wave
is 90°.
R : Reflection by denser medium produces a
phase difference with respect to incoming
wave by π .
2

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and

the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

SECTION B

5
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

36. For a standing wave given by equation 41. Speed of sound wave in a fluid is
y(x, t) = 2a sin (
2π
x) cos(120πt) . (1) Directly proportional to bulk modulus of
3
medium
The amplitude at x = 0.75 m is
(2) Inversely proportional to density of
(x and y are in meter, t is in seconds)
medium
(1) a
(3) Directly proportional to square root of
(2) 2a product of bulk modulus and density of
(3) Zero medium
(4) a (4) Inversely proportional to square root of
2
density of medium

37. The ratio of 5th harmonic of vibration to 3rd 42. A transverse wave of amplitude 2 m,
harmonic of vibration for an air column in wavelength 4 m and frequency 6 Hz is
glass tube partially filled with water is propagating in a string toward positive y-
(1) 3 direction. The equation of the wave may be
2
(y is in m and t is in s)
(2) 2
(1) x = 2 sin (0.5πy + 12πt) m
(3) 5
3 (2) x = 2 sin (πy – 6πt) m
(4) 9
(3) x = 2 sin (πy + 6πt) m
4
(4) x = 2 sin (0.5πy – 12πt) m

38. In Doppler's effect in sound, the apparent

wavelength is 43. The phase difference between elements of a
stationary wave between two successive
(1) Less than real wavelength when
nodes is
source goes away
(1) π
(2) Same as real wavelength when listener
goes away (2) π
2

(3) More than real wavelength when (3) Zero

source comes closer (4) π
3
(4) More than real wavelength when
listener goes away
44. A : The Doppler's effect is not observed for
light wave.
39. 56 tuning forks are arranged in a series such R : The frequency of light waves are much
that each fork gives 6 beats per second with smaller than sound waves.
the previous one. If frequency of the last fork
is double of the first fork, then the frequency (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
of first fork is the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(1) 440 Hz
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(2) 660 Hz
the reason is not the correct
(3) 330 Hz explanation of the assertion
(4) 220 Hz (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
40. Three waves of equal frequency having (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
amplitudes 12, 4 and 8 unit meet at a point statements
with successive phase difference of π2 .
Amplitude of resulting wave will be 45. A : All points on a wavefront vibrate in same
(1) 24 unit phase with same frequency.
(2) 12√– R : Two sources are said to be coherent if
2 unit
they produce waves of same frequency with
–
(3) 4√2 unit a constant phase difference.
(4) 20 unit (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements

6
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

46. A : Interference of waves is based on energy 49. A stretched string, fixed at both ends,
conservation. vibrates at frequency of 12 Hz with standing
R : For observing interference between two wave pattern as shown in figure. Choose the
waves, the frequency of two waves must be correct option.
different.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (1) The fundamental frequency is 3 Hz
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (2) The frequency of first overtone is 9 Hz
the reason is not the correct
(3) The frequency of third overtone is 16
explanation of the assertion
Hz
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (4) The fundamental frequency is 6 Hz
is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements 50. A wave travels on a string. The equation of
the wave is y = Asin(ωt – kx). It is reflected
from a heavier string tied to an end of the
47. A mechanical wave propagates in a medium lighter string at x = 0. If 36% of the incident
along the x-axis. The particles of the medium energy is reflected back, then the equation
(1) Must move along x-axis of the reflected wave is
(2) Must move along y-axis (1) 8
y = A sin(ωt + kx)
10
(3) Must move along z-axis
(2) 6
(4) Can move along either x, y, and z-axis y = − A sin(ωt + kx)
10

(3) 6
y = A sin(kx + ωt)
48. Which of the following properties of sound 10

will not affected by change in the

(4) 8
temperature of air? y = −
10
A sin(kx + ωt)

(1) Amplitude
(2) Frequency
(3) Wavelength
(4) Speed

CHEMISTRY

SECTION A

51. 2 moles of an ideal gas at 400 K are 52. A process is performed from A to B through
expanded isothermally from an initial different paths 1, 2, 3 and 4 as shown in
volume of 5 L to 10 L. The change in internal figure. The maximum work is involve in
energy, ΔU for this process will be
(1) –4.6 kJ
(2) +4.6 kJ
(3) –4.6 atm
(4) Zero

(1) Path 1
(2) Path 2
(3) Path 4
(4) Path 3

7
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

53. In which process, entropy increases? 60. In which of the following entropy increases?
(1) Sublimation (1) A liquid crystallizes into a solid
(2) Condensation (2) Temperature of gas decreases from
(3) Polymerisation 500K to 400 K
(4) Crystallisation (3) Polymerisation of ethylene molecules
(4) 2NaHCO3 (s)→ Na2 CO3 (s) + CO2 (g) +
H2 O(g)
54. Extensive property among the following is
(1) Volume
(2) Temperature 61. Extensive property among the following is
(3) Pressure (1) Volume
(4) Density (2) Temperature
(3) Pressure
55. In the given reaction (4) Density
2O3 (g) → 3O2 (g); ΔS, ΔHand ΔG
respectively are 62. 100 ml 0.2 M NaOH solution is mixed with
(1) –ve, +ve, +ve 75 ml 0.4 M HCl solution. The heat evolved
in the neutralization process is
(2) +ve, +ve, –ve
(1) 325 cal
(3) +ve, –ve, –ve
(2) 125 cal
(4) –ve, –ve, –ve
(3) 274 cal
(4) 13.7 kcal
56. Which of the following is not a state
function?
(1) Pressure 63. For which of the following reactions, ΔH =
ΔU?
(2) Heat
(1) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) → CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(l)
(3) Temperature
(2) N2 (g) + O2 (g) → 2NO(g)
(4) Internal energy
(3) N2 O4 (g) → 2NO2 (g)

57. Necessary condition for a process to be (4) PCl5 (g) → PCl3 (g) + Cl2 (g)
isochoric is
(1) ΔU = 0 64. Which among the following is a path
(2) ΔH = 0 function?
(3) ΔV = 0 (1) U
(4) ΔT = 0 (2) U+PV
(3) H – TS
58. For the combustion of solid benzoic acid at (4) W
27°C, ΔH and ΔE are related as (ΔE and ΔE
are in kcal/mol) 65. A reaction is spontaneous at all
(1) ΔE = ΔH + 0.3 temperatures when
(2) ΔH = ΔE + 0.3 (1) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS < 0
(3) ΔE = ΔH – 0.6 (2) ΔrH < 0 and ΔrS > 0
(4) ΔH = ΔE + 0.6 (3) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS < 0
(4) ΔrH > 0 and ΔrS > 0
59. Reaction for which ΔH is equal to ΔU, is
(1) CH4 (g) + 2O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g) + 2H2 O(l)
66. For reversible adiabatic process, which is
(2) C(s) + O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g) always correct?
(3) C H (l) + 15
O2 (g) ⟶ 6CO2 (g) + (1) Q = 0
6 6 2

3H2 O(l) (2) W = 0

(4) CO(g) + 1 (3) ΔU = 0
O2 (g) ⟶ CO2 (g)
2
(4) ΔH = 0

8
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

67. At 298 K, which of the following reactions 74. Which among the following is an extensive
represent(s) enthalpy of formation? property?
(1) CO(g) + 2 H2 (g) → CH3 OH(l) (1) pH
(2) 2 C(graphite) + 3 H2 (g) + 1
O2 (g) → (2) Surface tension
2

C2 H5 OH(l) (3) Density

(4) Entropy
(3) C H (g) + 5
O2 (g) → 2 CO(g) +
2 2 2

H2 O(l)
75. The sublimation energy of X is 57.3 kJ mol–1
(4) Both (1) and (3) and the enthalpy of vaporisation of X is 41.8
kJ mol–1 . The enthalpy of fusion of X is (in kJ
68. The heat evolved by the combustion of 1.6 g mol–1 )
o
methane gas is (ΔHC of methane is –x kJ (1) 10.2
mol–1 ) (2) 99.1
(1) 10 x kJ (3) 15.5
(2) x kJ (4) 41.4
100

(3) x
kJ
10
76. What is the molar heat capacities of
(4) 100 x kJ isothermal and adiabatic process
respectively?
69. Which of the following is incorrect for a cyclic (1) ∞, 0
process? (2) 0, 0
(1) ΔH = 0 (3) ∞,1
(2) ΔS = 0 (4) 0, ∞
(3) ΔU = 0
(4) W = 0 77. Bomb calorimeter is used to calculate
(1) ΔU
70. The dissociation energy of CH4 (g) is 360 (2) ΔH
kcal mol–1 and that of C2 H6 (g) is 620 (3) ΔS
kcal/mol. The C–C bond energy is (4) ΔV
(1) 260 kcal/mol
(2) 180 kcal/mol 78. Which of the following has non-zero
(3) 130 kcal/mol enthalpy of formation?
(4) 80 kcal/mol (1) Graphite
(2) White phosphorus
71. Which of the following is an intensive (3) Br2 (l)
property?
(4) Ozone
(1) Molar heat capacity
(2) Heat capacity
79. The necessary condition for the spontaneity
(3) Enthalpy of any process in non-isolated system is
(4) Volume (1) ΔSsystem > 0
(2) ΔSsurrounding > 0
72. For which of the following, standard enthalpy
(3) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrounding > 0
of formation is zero?
(1) Br2 (l) (4) ΔSsystem + ΔSsurrounding = 0

(2) Br2 (g)

(3) C(Diamond) 80. Out of the following, the intensive property is
(1) Mass
(4) C(g)
(2) Internal energy
(3) Molar heat capacity
73. ΔcH° for butane is –2658 kJ mol–1 . The (4) Enthalpy
amount of heat released by complete
combustion of 5.8 g of butane is
(1) 265.8 kJ 81. In an adiabatic free expansion
(2) –458.2 kJ (1) Q = 0

(3) –1329 kJ (2) W = 0

(4) 2652.2 kJ (3) ΔU = 0
(4) All of these

9
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

82. In which of the following reactions, standard 84. What is the order of γ(=CP/CV) for the
reaction entropy change (ΔS°) is positive following gases He, N2 , O3 ?
and standard Gibb's energy change (ΔG°)
(1) He > N2 > O3
decreases sharply with increasing
temperature? (2) N2 > O3 > He
(1) CO(g) + 1 O2 ( g) ⟶ CO2 ( g) (3) He < N2 < O3
2

(2) Mg(s) +
1
O2 ( g) ⟶ MgO(s)
(4) He = N2 = O3
2

(3) C(graphite) + O2 ( g) ⟶ CO2 ( g)

85. If 100 ml of 0.2 M H2 SO4 is mixed with 200
(4) C graphite +
1
O2 ( g) ⟶ CO( g) ml 0.1 M NaOH then amount of heat
2
released in above process is
(1) 27.4 cal
83. Amount of heat released when 0.7 mol of
(2) 274 cal
HNO3 is mixed with 0.3 mol of NaOH is
(3) 13.7 cal
(1) 57.1 kJ
(4) 137 cal
(2) 28.55 kJ
(3) 17.13 kJ
(4) 5.7 kJ

SECTION B

86. The reaction which is exothermic is 89. The heat of formation of AB is – 50 kJ mol–1 .
(1) NH4 Cl(s) → NH4 Cl(g) If the bond dissociation energy of A2 and B2
(2) O– (g) → O2– (g) are 10 and 20 kJ mol–1 respectively then the
bond dissociation enthalpy of AB is (in kJ
(3) 2HCl → H2 + CI2
mol–1 ) is
(4) CH2 = CH2 + H2 → CH3 CH3 (1) 50
(2) 20
87. The enthalpies of solution for copper (3) 80
sulphate pentahydrate and anhydrous
(4) 65
copper sulphate are respectively –x and –y
kJ mol–1 . The hydration enthalpy of
anhydrous copper sulphate (in kJ mol–1 ) is 90. If enthalpies of formation of CO2 (g) and
(1) (x–y) H2 O(l) at 25°C and 1 atm pressure,
respectively are –x kJ/mol and –y kJ/mol
(2) (y–x)
then enthalpy of formation (in kJ/mol) of
(3) –x–y C2 H4 (g) will be [Given : Enthalpy of
(4) (x + y) combustion of C2 H4 (g) is –z kJ/mol]
(1) z – 2x – 2y
88. For n mole of an ideal gas, when its volume (2) z + 2x – 2y
is changed reversibly and isothermally from (3) z – 2x + 2y
Vi to Vf, the entropy change is given by
(4) z + 3x – y
(1) Vf
nR ln
Vi

(2) Vf 91. If the enthalpy of hydrogenation of

ln
Vi cyclohexene is – x kJmol–1 and resonance
(3) nRT ln
Vi energy of benzene is – y kJmol–1 then
V
f enthalpy of hydrogenation of benzene in
(4) nR ln
Vi kJmol–1 will be
V
f
(1) (– x – y)
(2) (– 3x – y)
(3) (– 3x + y)
(4) (x + y)

10
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

92. A : Enthalpy of solution = Enthalpy of 97. Relation between ΔG° and K is

hydration + lattice enthalpy (1) ΔG° = 2.303 RT logK
R : Enthalpy of ionisation of weak acid =
(2) ΔG° = –2.303 RT logK
enthalpy of neutralization.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) RT
ΔG° = −
2.303
logK
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (4) ΔG° =
2.303
logK
RT
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion 98. If the enthalpy of formation of N2 O(g),
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason N2 O4 (g), CO(g) and CO2 (g) is 800, 15, –
is false 100, and –400 kJ/mol respectively, then ΔrH
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false for the given reaction is
statements N2 O4 (g) + 3 CO(g) → N2 O(g) + 3 CO2 (g)

(1) +90 kJ/mol

93. For a given reaction, ΔH = –46.5 kJ mol –1 (2) –115 kJ/mol
and ΔS = 15.5 J K–1 mol–1 . If ΔH and ΔS do (3) +115 kJ/mol
not vary with temperature then the reaction (4) –500 kJ/mol
is spontaneous at
(1) T = 3000 K 99. A : For a non-spontaneous process ΔG > O
(2) T = 4000 K R : For spontaneous process ΔS > O is
(3) T = 300 K possible
(4) All of these (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
94. The heat liberated when 1.5 g benzoic acid
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
is burnt in bomb calorimeter at 25°C
the reason is not the correct
increases the temperature of 17.27 kg of explanation of the assertion
water by 0.55°C. The heat of combustion of
benzoic acid is (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
(Specific heat of water at 25°C is 0.998 cal is false
g–1 deg–1 ) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(1) 670 kcal/mol statements
(2) 981 kcal/mol
(3) 840 kcal/mol 100. A : Entropy decreases when egg is hard
boiled.
(4) 771 kcal/mol R : Enthalpy is a measure of disorder or
randomness
95. A reaction is spontaneous at all temperature (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
when the reason is the correct explanation of
(1) ΔH > 0 and ΔS > 0 the assertion
(2) ΔH > 0 and ΔS < 0 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
(3) ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0 explanation of the assertion
(4) ΔH < 0 and ΔS > 0 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
96. If enthalpies of combustion of glucose, C(s) (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
and H2 (g) are –x kJ, –y kJ and –z kJ statements
respectively then enthalpy of formation of
glucose is
(1) x – 6y – 6z
(2) –6z – 6y – x
(3) x + 6y – 6z
(4) x + 6y + 6z

BOTANY

SECTION A

11
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

101. Keel is the characteristic feature of the flower 108. A : Phloem parenchyma is made up of
of elongated tapering cylindrical cells with
(1) Colchicum autumnale dense cytoplasm and nucleus.
R : Phloem parenchyma helps in storage
(2) Petunia
and lateral conduction of food in monocots.
(3) Indigofera (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) Nicotiana tabacum the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
102. Thorns differ from spines as the former (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
(1) Protect the plants from browsing the reason is not the correct
animals explanation of the assertion
(2) Are modification of axillary buds (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(3) Are pointed, prickly structures.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(4) Promote water loss by transpiration statements

103. In Neem, a number of leaflets are present on 109. Symbol of epitepalous stamens is
a common axis called
(1) 
(1) Midrib C A

(2) Veinlet (2) K(n)

(3) Rachis
(3) C(n)
(4) Lamina
(4) 
P A

104. If the margins of sepals or petals overlap

one another but not in any particular
direction, the aestivation is called 110. Diadelphous condition in pea shows that
(1) Out of total stamens, only two stamens
(1) Valvate
are fused together
(2) Imbricate
(2) Total two stamens are present
(3) Twisted
(3) Stamens are united into two bundles
(4) Vexillary
(4) Both types of sex organs are present

105. Collenchyma differs from parenchyma in

111. Lateral meristems are represented by
(1) Being storage in function (a) Cork cambium
(2) Not having chloroplast (b) Interfascicular cambium
(3) Having deposition of pectin on cell wall (c) Fascicular vascular cambium
(4) Being dead (1) Only (b) is correct
(2) Only (a) and (c) are correct
106. Simple permanent tissue does not include (3) Only (c) is incorrect
(1) Parenchyma (4) All (a), (b) and (c) are correct
(2) Xylem vessels
(3) Chlorenchyma 112. The tap roots of carrot are modified for the
purpose of
(4) Sclerenchyma
(1) Mechanical support
(2) Storage of food
107. Stem is reduced and disc shaped and
leaves of store food in (3) Respiration
(1) Turmeric (4) Vegetative propagation
(2) Garlic
(3) Zaminkand 113. Cymose inflorescence is a feature of
(4) Colocasia (1) Radish
(2) Lupin
(3) Solanum
(4) Mustard

114. A tendril in cucumber is

(1) A modified leaf
(2) A modified axillary bud
(3) Present at internodes
(4) Woody and pointed

12
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

115. A : Micropyle is a small pore above the hilum 120. Outermost layer of monocot root is
of developing dicot seed. (1) Cuticularized and called epidermis
R : Coleorhiza encloses the plumule in the (2) Non-cuticularized and called
monocot seed. endodermis
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) Non-cuticularized and called epiblema
the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion (4) Non-cuticularized and called pericycle
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct 121. How many of the following have perigynous
explanation of the assertion flower?
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason a. Plum
is false b. Rose
c. China rose
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
d. Peach
statements
e. Brinjal
(1) Two
116. Underground stems of some plants such as (2) Three
grass and strawberry
(3) Four
(1) Are modified to store food
(4) Five
(2) Lack internodes but have nodes
(3) Spread to new niches
122. A fruit with a stony endocarp surrounded by
(4) Do not help in vegetative propagation
a fibrous mesocarp is
(1) Coconut
117. How many of the given plants show the (2) Mango
phyllotaxy, where single leaf arises at each
node? (3) Wheat
Alstonia, Calotropis, Chilli, China rose, (4) Maize
Guava, Datura, Sunflower
(1) Three 123. Metaphloem
(2) Four (1) Is a secondary phloem
(3) Five (2) Has bigger sieve tubes than
(4) Six protophloem
(3) Lacks phloem fibres
(4) Both (2) & (3)
118. How many functions are common in
modified stem of ginger, potato, turmeric and
Colocasia? 124. In racemose inflorescence
i. Food storage (1) Peduncle terminates into a flower
ii. Mechanical support
iii. Food synthesis (2) Main axis continues to grow
iv. Perennation (3) Flowers are borne in basipetal order
v. Vegetative propagation (4) Younger flowers are present towards
(1) iii, iv & v the base
(2) i, iv & v
(3) ii, iii & v 125. The xylary element which helps in radial
(4) i, iii & iv conduction of water
(1) Is the living xylary element
119. Find the odd one out w.r.t. intercalary (2) Has lignin deposited walls
meristem. (3) Has elongated cells with tapering ends
(1) It is intercalated between meristematic (4) Has obliterated lumen
tissues
(2) They are separated from the apex of 126. Region of maturation in a tap root
organ by mature tissues
(1) Is situated distal to elongation zone
(3) They add to the length of plants or its
organs (2) Undergoes rapid cells elongation and
enlargement
(4) They are also found in grasses to
regenerate the parts removed by (3) Gives rise to unicellular root hairs from
grazing herbivores some of its epidermal cells
(4) Is the only water absorption region

13
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

127. A parthenocarpic fruit 132. The thick & hanging structures that support a
(1) Is always triploid banyan tree are called:
(2) Does not have pericarp (1) Stilt roots
(3) Have seeds (2) Prop roots
(4) Is ripened unfertilised ovary (3) Pneumatophores
(4) Respiratory roots
128. A meristematic tissue is/has
(1) Group of differentiated cells 133. All of the following have reticulate venation,
except
(2) Cells in continuous state of division
(1) Luffa
(3) Found only at growing apices
(2) Banana
(4) Responsible for the formation of
primary plant body only (3) Peepal
(4) Hibiscus
129. Axile placentation is found in all, except
(1) Tomato 134. A : Generally monocotyledonous seeds are
endospermic
(2) China rose
R : Seeds of the orchids are endospermic.
(3) Lemon
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) Dianthus the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
130. The mode or pattern of arrangement of (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
leaves on an axis, branch or stem, in such a the reason is not the correct
way that there is maximum exposure of explanation of the assertion
leaves to sunlight with minimum overlapping (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is called is false
(1) Inflorescence (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
(2) Phyllotaxy statements
(3) Phylum
(4) Venation 135. There may be variation in length of filaments
of stamens within a flower, as in
(1) Pea
131. Parallel venation is seen in the leaves of
(1) Peepal (2) China rose
(2) Mango (3) Salvia

(3) Hibiscus (4) Petunia

(4) Banana

SECTION B

136. The eyes of the potato tuber are axillary 138. Stamens are united into two bundles in
buds, it indicates that potato is (1) China rose
(1) Homologous to radish (2) Pea
(2) A modified underground tap root (3) Citrus
(3) A modified underground stem (4) Solanum
(4) A modified underground adventitious
root
139. The edible part of mango is
(1) Endosperm
137. Stem of rice has
(2) Endocarp
(1) Scattered vascular bundles
(3) Mesocarp
(2) Collenchymatous hypodermis
(4) Epicarp
(3) Parenchymatous pericycle
(4) Single layered endodermis

14
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

140. In venus-fly-trap, the leaf is modified into 145. Seed coat is thin and membranous in
special structure to (1) Gram
(1) Store food (2) Maize
(2) Trap insects (3) Bean
(3) Provide support to the plant in climbing (4) Pea
(4) Be defensive in nature
146. Root hairs are present in the region of
141. Lateral roots arise from (1) Root cap
(1) Epidermis (2) Meristematic activity
(2) Pericycle (3) Elongation
(3) Hypodermis (4) Maturation
(4) Pith
147. Imbricate aestivation of petals is seen in
142. Radial and bilateral symmetry is found (1) Pea
respectively in flowers of
(2) Cotton
(1) Pea and tomato
(3) Tomato
(2) Sem and chilli
(4) Cassia
(3) Chilli and pea
(4) Bean and Pea
148. `Margins of petals overlap each other, but
not in a fix pattern' is true for
143. Scutellum is (1) China rose
(1) Coleoptile of grass (2) Mustard
(2) Coleorhiza of monocots (3) Cassia
(3) Single cotyledon of maize grain (4) Bean
(4) Remnant of second cotyledon in
monocots
149. Choose odd one w.r.t. ploidy in maize seed
(1) Coleorhiza
144. In some plants growing in swampy areas
(2) Scutellum
such as Rhizophora, many roots come out of
ground and grow vertically upwards and (3) Aleurone layer
helps it to get oxygen for respiration are (4) Coleoptile
called
(1) Storage root
150. Swollen leaf base, pulvinus is found in
(2) Pneumatophores
(1) Leguminous plants
(3) Prop roots (2) Rice
(4) Stilt roots (3) Maize
(4) Oat

ZOOLOGY

SECTION A

151. Under normal physiological conditions, the 152. A special fibrous cord that prevents the
volume of blood pumped out by each prolapse of AV valves into atria is called
ventricle of human heart per five minute is (1) Chordae tendinae
(1) 40 ml (2) Papillary muscles
(2) 5 L (3) Ligamentum arteriosum
(3) 60 ml (4) Fossa ovalis
(4) 25 L

15
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

153. Thoracic duct discharges lymph into _____. 160. Choose the incorrect match w.r.t.
Select the option which fills the blank electrocardiogram.
correctly. (1) P wave – Excitation of atria
(1) Inferior vena cava (2) End of T wave – Marks the end of
(2) Right lymphatic duct systole
(3) Right sub-clavian vein (3) T wave – Ventricular repolarisation
(4) Left sub-clavian vein (4) QRS complex – Repolarisation of
ventricles
154. Choose the odd one w.r.t heart sound dub.
(1) High pitched 161. A mass of nodal tissue present in the lower
left corner of the right atrium is responsible
(2) Short duration
for the contraction of
(3) Closure of AV valves during ventricular (1) Both atria
systole
(2) Left atrium and right ventricle
(4) Closure of semilunar valves at the
beginning of ventricular diastole (3) Both ventricles
(4) Right atrium and left ventricle
155. Which one of the following is not a heart
disease or symptom? 162. The hepatic portal vein carries blood from
(1) Angina (1) Liver to intestines
(2) Myocardial infarction (2) Intestines to liver
(3) Cardiac arrest (3) Liver to kidney
(4) Glomerulonephritis (4) Kidney to liver

156. Atherosclerosis is another name for 163. A double walled membranous bag that
(1) Angina protects human heart is called
(2) Coronary artery disease (1) Perimysium
(3) Heart failure (2) Pericardium
(4) Hypertension (3) Perimetrium
(4) Peritoneum
157. Histamine is not
(1) Secreted by mast cells 164. Which of the following is mismatched with
its duration?
(2) A vasodilator
(1) Auricular systole – 0.1 sec
(3) Responsible for allergy and
inflammation (2) Ventricular systole – 0.3 sec
(4) Released by neutrophils (3) Auricular cycle – 0.6 sec
(4) Joint diastole – 0.4 sec
158. Mark the valves mentioned below which are
in contact with deoxygenated blood only. 165. A : Human heart is myogenic
(1) Tricuspid valve R : Normal activities of heart are regulated
by autoexcitable specialised musculature of
(2) Thebasian valve
nodal tissue.
(3) Eustachian valve (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(4) All of these the reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion
159. Cardiac disorder which is characterized by (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
sudden damage to heart muscles due to the reason is not the correct
inadequate blood supply is explanation of the assertion
(1) Heart attack (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
is false
(2) Heart failure
(3) Cardiac arrest (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
statements
(4) Heart block

166. Which of the following stage would appear

just after the heart sound `Lubb'?
(1) Isovolumetric contraction
(2) Isovolumetric relaxation
(3) Third heart sound
(4) Joint diastole

16
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

167. Condition when blood pressure is higher 174. Read the given statements
than 140/90 mm Hg in a person is called I. Heart rate is equal to the number of QRS
(1) Hypertension complexes that occur in a given time period.
II. End of T wave marks the end of atrial
(2) Bradycardia
systole.
(3) Hypotension III. Myocardial infarction can result in
(4) Tachycardia patients with chronic angina.
IV. Frequency of QRS complexes reduces in
case of heart block.
168. A muscular two chambered heart that Choose the correct option
always pumps out deoxygenated blood
(1) Only I & II are correct
belongs to
(2) II, III & IV are incorrect
(1) Crocodile
(2) Fishes (3) Only II is incorrect
(3) Annelids (4) Only IV is correct
(4) Amphibians
175. Blood is a specialized connective tissue
devoid of
169. Choose the odd one w.r.t. plasma proteins.
(1) Matrix
(1) Fibrinogen
(2) Fibres
(2) Globulin
(3) Proteins
(3) Albumin
(4) Formed elements
(4) Elastin

176. The component of blood completely absent

170. The condition in which the heart stops in lymph is
beating completely is known as
(1) WBCs
(1) Heart failure
(2) Clotting factors
(2) Myocardial infarction
(3) Plasma proteins
(3) Cardiac arrest
(4) RBCs
(4) Atherosclerosis

177. The blood clotting disorder leading to

171. The blood flows freely into the ventricles excessive loss of blood from the body is due
during all the following events except to decrease or reduction in the number of
(1) Atrial systole (1) Platelets
(2) Ventricular systole (2) Erythrocytes
(3) Ventricular diastole (3) Thrombocytes
(4) Joint diastole (4) Both (1) & (3)

172. Which of the following blood vessel has 178. Identify the WBCs, that are responsible for
maximum blood pressure? phagocytosis
(1) Pulmonary artery (1) Basophils
(2) Vena cava (2) Neutrophils
(3) Pulmonary vein (3) Eosinophils
(4) Venules (4) T-lymphocytes

173. Serum is
(1) Blood-plasma
(2) Plasma-Clotting factors
(3) Blood-platelets
(4) Lymph - R.B.Cs

17
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

179. Assertion : Persons with blood group AB+ 183. Pulmonary veins from lungs are known for
are called universal donors. carrying A blood to the B of heart.
Reason : Blood group AB+ has RBCs which Choose ¯¯ ¯¯¯¯
the ¯¯¯¯¯¯
option that fills A and B
lack A, B and Rh antigens. correctly.
In the light of above statements, select the A B
correct answer from the options given below.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are false (1) Oxygenated Right atrium
statements (2) Deoxygenated Right ventricle
(2) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) Oxygenated Left atrium
is false
(4) Deoxygenated Left ventricle
(3) Both Assertion and Reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of (1) (1)
assertion (2) (2)
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true (3) (3)
and the reason is the correct
(4) (4)
explanation of assertion

184. If cardiac output of a person is about 6.3

180. Complete the analogy
litres/minute and his stroke volume is 70 mL
Stroke volume : 70 ml : : Cardiac output :
then heart rate of person will be
____
(1) 100/minute
(1) 120 ml
(2) 90/minute
(2) 50 ml
(3) 80/minute
(3) 5000 ml
(4) 70/minute
(4) 500 ml

185. Read the given statements:

181. Open circulatory system is absent in which
(A) Human heart is myogenic.
group of animals?
(B) AV node can generate maximum number
(1) Hemichordata of action potentials (70-75/minute) in human
(2) Urochordata heart.
(3) Arthropoda For the above statements which one of the
following option is correct?
(4) Cephalochordata
(1) A is incorrect but B is correct
(2) A is correct but B is incorrect
182. Nucleated blood cells in humans are all,
except (3) A and B, both are correct
(1) Thrombocytes (4) A and B, both are incorrect
(2) Lymphocytes
(3) Eosinophils
(4) Basophils

SECTION B

186. If a victim of a road traffic accident with 187. Choose the incorrect statement regarding
unknown blood group requires immediate blood pressure
blood transfusion, the best option is to use (1) Diastolic pressure is always greater
blood group than systolic pressure
(1) AB+ve (2) Blood pressure is greater in aorta than
(2) AB–ve the inferior vena cava
(3) O+ve (3) Normal blood pressure is registered as
Systolic/Diastolic mmHg
(4) O–ve (4) 200/100 mmHg pressure can cause
damage to the vital organs

18
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

188. Which of the following combination 193. A : Plasma forms nearly 55% of total blood in
represents a possibility of Erythroblastosis humans.
foetalis? R : 90-92% of plasma is water and proteins
(1) Rh– mother and Rh– foetus constitute 6-8% of it.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
(2) Rh– mother and Rh+ foetus
the reason is the correct explanation of
(3) Rh+ mother and Rh+ foetus the assertion
(4) Rh+ mother and Rh– foetus (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but
the reason is not the correct
explanation of the assertion
189. A : Portal system consists of portal vein (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason
which forms a network of capillaries in is false
another or intermediate organ before
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false
reaching the heart.
statements
R : Renal portal system is present in all
vertebrates.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are false 194. The conduction system of human heart does
statements not include
(2) Assertion is true statement but Reason (1) SA node
is false (2) AV node
(3) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) Mitral valve
reason is not the correct explanation of (4) Purkinje fibres
assertion
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of 195. Which of the following statements is not
assertion correct?
(1) Vagus nerve can decrease the rate of
heart beat.
190. Out of calcium, thrombokinase, prothrombin,
fibrinogen, which of these corresponds to (2) End of T-wave in ECG marks the end of
factor IV? ventricular systole.
(1) Thrombokinase (3) 'P' wave represents the depolarisation
of the atria.
(2) Prothrombin
(4) Hormones from medullary region of
(3) Fibrinogen adrenal gland can also decrease the
(4) Calcium cardiac output.

191. Artificial pacemaker is required in 196. Which of the following is mismatched w.r.t.
(1) Angina pectoris human heart?
(2) Atherosclerosis (1) Cardiac cycle - 72 cycles in 60 seconds
(3) Irregularity in heart rhythm (2) Chordae tendinae - Prevent collapse of
(4) Heart attack AV valves into the atria
(3) Second heart sound - Due to opening
of semilunar valves
192. Which of the following is demonstrated by P-
(4) SA node - Generates maximum
R interval on electrocardiogram?
number of action potentials
(1) Atrioventricular conduction
(2) Ventricular repolarisation
197. The amount of blood ejected per minute by
(3) Ventricular action potential the left ventricle into the aorta is calculated
(4) Atrial depolarisation as
(1) Cardiac output x heart rate
(2) Stroke volume x heart rate
(3) Stroke volume x cardiac output
(4) Stroke volume x breathing rate

198. Arteries differ from veins as former have

(1) No valves
(2) Slower flow of blood under low
pressure
(3) Thin and collapsible walls
(4) Fewer muscle fibres

19
REVISION TEST 5 CFOYM FBD

199. Blood cells which primarily increase in

number during helminthic and allergic
conditions are
(1) Neutrophils
(2) Eosinophils
(3) Erythrocytes
(4) Lymphocytes

200. Erythroblastosis foetalis can be prevented

by administering anti-Rh antibodies to
(1) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh +ve
baby
(2) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh +ve
baby
(3) Rh –ve mother post partum Rh –ve
baby
(4) Rh +ve mother post partum Rh –ve
baby

20