ABK –SSJ Class X

MCQs COMPLETE SYLLABUS

Class 10 Science
ABK -SSJ
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Ch-1 Chemical Reaction & Equations

1.Why is it important to balance a skeletal chemical equation?
(a) To verify law of conservation of energy.
(b) To verify the law of constant proportion.
(c) To verify the law of conservation of mass.
(d) To verify the law of conservation of momentum.
Ans. (c) To verify the law of conservation of mass.
2.One of the following does not happen during a chemical reaction. This is:
(a) breaking of old bonds and formation of new bonds
(b) formation of new substances with entirely different properties
(c) atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products
(d) a rearrangement of atoms takes place to form new products
Ans. (c) atoms of one element change into those of another element to form new products
3.Which of the following is not a physical change?
(a) Boiling of water to give water vapour
(b) Melting of ice to give water
(c) Dissolution of salt in water
(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas
Ans.(d) Combustion of Liquefied Petroleum Gas
4.A student poured 100 mL of water in a bottle and added 40 mL vinegar to it. A balloon was filled with 20 g baking
soda and was fixed at the mouth of the bottle. Slowly the shape of the balloon changed, as shown. The student claims
that a chemical change happened when the two substances were mixed. Is the claim made by the student correct?
(a) Yes, as a new substance was formed in the form of a gas.
(b) Yes, as the mass remains the same throughout the experiment.
(c) No, as the formation of bubbles in the mixture shows a physical change.
(d) No, as the change in the shape and size of the balloon shows a physical change.

Ans.(a) Yes, as a new substance was formed in the form of a gas.

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5.A metal ribbon 'X' burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame forming a white ash 'Y'. The correct description of
X, Y and the type of reaction is:
(a) X= Ca; Y = CaO; Type of reaction = Decomposition
(b) X= Mg; Y= MgO; Type of reaction = Combination
(c) X= Al; Y= Al2O3; Type of reaction = Thermal decomposition
(d) X=Zn; Y = ZnO; Type of reaction = Endothermic
Ans. (b) X= Mg; Y= MgO; Type of reaction = Combination
6.C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → XCO2(aq) + YH2O(l) + energy
In above reaction, the values of X and Y are:
(a) 6, 6
(b) 6, 7
(c) 7, 8
(d) 8, 9
Ans. (a) 6, 6
7.To balance the following chemical equation the values of x and y should respectively be:
2NaOH + 𝑥Al2O3 → yNaAlO2 + H2O
(a) 1,4
(b) 1,2
(c) 2, 4
(d) 2,3
Ans. (b) 1,2
8.Which of the following is (are) an endothermic process(es)?
(1) Dilution of sulphuric acid
(II) Sublimation of dry ice
(III) Condensation of water vapours
(IV) Evaporation of water
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) Only (11)
(c) Only (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
Ans. (d) (II) and (IV)
9.Identify the correct option from the given table which represent the type of reaction occurring in step 1 and step 2.

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Ans.(C)
10.Solid calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium Hydroxide accompanied by liberation of heat.
This process is called slaking of lime. Calcium hydroxide dissolves in water to Form its solution called lime water.
Which among the following is (are) true about slaking of lime and the solution formed?
(i) It is an endothermic reaction
(ii) It is an exothermic reaction
(iii) The pH of the resulting solution will be more than seven
(iv) The pH of the resulting solution will be less than seven
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
11.Reema took 5 ml of lead nitrate solution in a beaker and added approximately 4 ml of potassium iodide solution to
it. What would she observe?
(a) The solution turned red
(b) Yellow precipitate was formed.
(c) White precipitate was formed.
(d) The reaction mixture became hot.
12. Dilute hydrochloric acid is added to granulated zinc taken in a test tube. The following observations are
recorded. Point out the correct observation:
(a) The surface of metal becomes shiny
(b) The reaction mixture turns milky
(c) Odour of a pungent smelling gas is recorded
(d) A colourless and odourless gas is evolved
13.Solutions of copper sulphate, iron sulphate and zinc sulphate are prepared and marked I, II and III respectively.
Few pieces of aluminum are added to each solution. After some time, a change will be observed in
(a)I and II
(b)II and III
(c)III and I
(d)All the three
14. Strong heating of ferrous sulphate leads to the formation of a brown solid and two gases. This reaction can be
categorised as:
(a) displacement and redox reaction
(b) decomposition and redox reaction
(c) displacement and endothermic reaction

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(d) decomposition and exothermic reaction
15.The chemical reaction between copper and oxygen can be categorized as:
(a) displacement reaction
(b) decomposition reaction
(c) combination reaction
(d) double displacement reaction
16.The pair(s) which will show displacement reaction is/are:
(1) NaCl solution and copper metal
(II) AgNO3 solution and copper metal
(III) Al2(SO4)3 solution and magnesium metal
(IV) ZnSO4 solution and iron metal
(a) (II) only
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (III) and (IV)
(d) (I) and (II)
17.A student took sodium sulphate solution in a test tube and added barium chloride solution to it. He observed that
an insoluble substance has formed. The colour and molecular formula of the insoluble substance is
(a) grey, Ba4SO4
(b) yellow, Ba(SO4)2
(c) white, BaSO4
(d) pink, BaSO4
18.Which among the following is (are) double displacement reaction(s)?
(i)Pb + CuCl2 → PbCl2 + Cu
(ii)Na2SO4 + BaCl2 → BaSO4 + NaCl
(iii)C + O2 → CO2
(iv)CH4 + 2O2 →CO2 + 2H2O
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) only
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
19. You are given the solution of lead nitrate. In order to obtain a yellow precipitate, you should mix it with a
solution of:
(a) potassium chloride
(b) potassium nitride
(c) potassium sulphide
(d) potassium iodide
20. Which of the following statements about the reaction given below are correct?
MnO2 + 4HCl MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
(1) HCl is oxidised to Cl₂
(II) MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2

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(III) MnCl2 acts as an oxidizing agent
(IV) HCl acts as on oxidising agent
(a) (II), (III) and (IV)
(b) (I), (II) and (III)
(c) (1) and (II) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
21. Consider the following chemical equation:
X(aq) + Sodium chloride(aq) →Y(white ppt) + Sodium nitrate (aq)

X Y

(a)Silver nitrate Silver Chloride

(b)Potassium Chloride Silver nitrate

(c)Potassium nitrate Silver nitrate

(d)Silver chloride Silver nitrate

22. When copper turnings are added to silver nitrate solution, a blue coloured solution is formed after some time. It
is because copper:
(I) displaces silver from the solution
(II) forms a blue coloured complex with AgNO3
(III) is oxidized to Cu2+
(IV) is reduced to Cu2+
(a) (I) and (II)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
23. In the reaction of iron with copper sulphate by solution:
CuSO4 + Fe→ Cu + FeSO4
Which option in the given table correctly represents the substance oxidised and the reducing agent?

24.Which of the following gases can be used for the storage of fresh sample of an oil for a long time?
(a) Carbon dioxide or oxygen
(b) Nitrogen or oxygen
(c) Carbon dioxide or helium
(d) Helium or nitrogen
25. On heating a blue coloured powder of copper (II) nitrate in a boiling tube, a black substance X, oxygen gas and a
brown gas Y was formed. Select the option which identifies the products correctly:

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 Black Brown Gas (Y)
Substance (X)

(a) Copper Nitrogen dioxide

(b) Copper oxide Nitrogen oxide

(c) Copper oxide Nitrogen dioxide

(d) Copper Nitrogen oxide

26.When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed, an insoluble substance separates out. The
chemical equation for the reaction involved is:
(a) KI+PbNO3 Pbl+ KNO3
(b) 2KI + Pb(NO3)2 Pbl2 + 2KNO3
(c) KI+ Pb(NO3)2 PbI + KNO3
(d) KI + PbNO3 Pbl₂+KNO3
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
27.Assertion (A): Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame.
Reason (R)Magnesium ribbon undergoes physical change on burning and melts.
28.Assertion (A):Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is an endothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Decomposition reaction involves breakdown of a single reactant into simpler products.
29.Assertion (A): While equalizing the number of atoms to balance a chemical equation, We alter the formula of the
compounds or elements involved in the reaction.
Reason (R): Chemical equation is balanced by making the number of atoms of each element equal on both sides of the
arrow.
30.Assertion (A): The reaction of calcium oxide with water to produce slaked lime releasing a large amount of heat is
a combination reaction.
Reason (R): Double displacement reactions are the reactions in which there is exchange of ions between the
reactants.
31.Assertion (A): White washed wall develops a coating of calcium carbonate after a few days.
Reason (R): Calcium oxide on the wall reacts slowly with carbon dioxide in the air.
32.Assertion (A): The decomposition reaction of silver chloride into silver and chlorine is an exothermic process.
Reason (R):Reactions in which energy is absorbed are known as endothermic reactions.
33.Assertion (A): Zinc and lead displace copper from its compounds.
Reason (R):Zinc and lead are more reactive than copper
34.Assertion (A): Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process.
Reason (R):Methane gas combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water

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35.Assertion (A): When copper oxide is added to dilute hydrochloric acid, the colour of the solution becomes blue-
green.
Reason(A): Blue-green colour of the solution is due to the formation of copper (I)chloride.
36.Assertion (A):Following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron.
3Fe(s)+4H2O(g)→Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
Reason (R): The law of conversation of mass holds good for a chemical equation
37.Assertion (A): Reaction of Quicklime with water is an exothermic reaction.
Reason (R): Quicklime reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.

Ch-2 Acid Bases & Salts

1. What happens when a solution of an acid is mixed with a solution of a base in a test tube?
(i) The temperature of the solution increases
(ii) The temperature of the solution decreases
(iii) The temperature of the solution remains the same
(iv) Salt formation takes place
(a) (i) only
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
2.Identify gas A in the following experiment.

(a)Nitrogen
(b)Hydrogen
(c)Oxygen
(d)Carbon dioxide
3.Rama gives test tubes A and test-tube B to Seeta. One contains water and the other contains a dilute solution of
sodium hydroxide .Which test should Seeta use to identify the sodium hydroxide solution ?
(a)Blue litmus solution
(b)Baking soda solution
(c)Dilute soap solution
(d)Red litmus solution

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4.Which one of the following can be used as an acid–base indicator by a visually impaired student?
(a) Blue Litmus
(b) Clove oil
(c) Red cabbage extract
(d)Hibiscus extract
5.The graph given below depicts a neutralization reaction (acid + alkali → salt + water). The pH of a solution
changes as we add excess of acid to an alkali. Which letter denotes the area of the graph where both acid and salt are
present

(a) A
(b)B
(c)C
(d)D
6.Marble statues are Corroded or stained when they repeatedly come into contact with polluted rain water .Identify
the main reason.

(a)Decomposition of calcium carbonate to calcium oxide.

(b)Polluted water is basic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate .
(c)Polluted water is acidic in nature hence it reacts with calcium carbonate .
(d)Calcium carbonate dissolves in water to give calcium hydroxide .
7.Metal oxides generally react with acids, but few oxides of metal also react with bases. Such metallic oxides are:
I. MgO II. ZnO III. Al2O3 IV. CaO
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) III and IV
(d) I and IV
8.What do we observe on pouring acetic acid on red and blue litmus papers?
(a) Red litmus remains red and blue litmus turns red.
(b)Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus remains blue.
(c)Red litmus turns blue and blue litmus turns red.

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(d)Red litmus becomes colorless and blue litmus remains blue.
9.Study the following table and choose the correct option :

Salt Parent Acid Parent Base Nature of Salt

(a)Sodium chloride HCl NaOH Basic

(b)Sodium carbonate H2CO3 NaOH Neutral

(c)Sodium sulphate H2SO4 NaOH Acidic

(d)Sodium Acetate CH3COOH NaOH Basic

10.The image shows the pH values of four solutions on a pH scale.

Which solutions are alkaline in nature?

(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) C and D
(d) A and D
11.Match the chemical substances given in Column (A) with their appropriate application given in Column (B)

Column (A) Column (B)

(A)Bleaching powder (i) Preparation of glass

(B)Baking soda (ii) Production of H2 and Cl2
(C)Washing soda (iii) Decolourisation
(D)Sodium chloride (iv) Antacid

(a) A—(ii),B—(i),C—(iv),D—(iii)
(b) A—(iii),B—(ii),C—(iv),D—(i)
(c) A—(iii),B—(iv),C—(i),D—(ii)
(d) A—(ii),B—(iv),C—(i),D—(iii)
12.A solution of a base with pH 12.1 is given. Which of the following can be done to decrease its pH?
(P) add distilled water to it
(Q) add a solution of a different base with pH 8.7
(R) add few drops of an acid with an unknown pH
A. only P
B. only R
C. only P and Q
D. any of P, Q and R

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13.The change in colour of the moist litmus paper in the given set up is due to

i. presence of acid
ii. presence of base
iii. presence of H⁺(aq) in the solution
iv. presence of Litmus which acts as an indicator
(a) i and ii
(b) Only ii
(c) Only iii
(d) Only iv.
14.Which of the following is(are) true when HCl (g) is passed through water?
(i) It does not ionise in the solution as it is a covalent compound.
(ii) It ionises in the solution
(iii) It gives both hydrogen and hydroxyl ion in the solution
(iv) It forms hydronium ion in the solution due to the combination of hydrogen ion with water molecule
(a)(i) only
(b)(iii) only
(c)(ii) and (iv)
(d)(iii) and (iv)
15. If a few drops of a concentrated acid accidentally spills over the hand of a student, what should be done?
(a) Wash the hand with saline solution
(b) Wash the hand immediately with plenty of water and apply a paste of sodium hydrogencarbonate
(c) After washing with plenty of water apply solution of sodium hydroxide on the hand
(d) Neutralize the acid with a strong alkali
16.The sample of soil from a particular place was tested for its pH value .It came out to be 5 .Which one of the
following should be added to the soil to make it suitable for plant growth ?
(I) Calcium chloride
(II)Calcium Hydroxide
(III)Calcium sulphate
(IV)Calcium oxide
(a) Both (I) and (II) (b)Both (II) and (IV) (c)Both (II) and (III) (d)Only (III)
17.In which year is concentration of hydrogen ion the highest?

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(a)2002
(b)2008
(c)2011
(d)2005
18.Leena was advised by her teacher to wear gloves and use forceps while dipping the pH paper in the liquids. What
was the reason for this advice?
(a) Gloves keep the hands warm.
(b) Forceps provide better grip than bare hands.
(d) Gloves protect hands from corrosive liquids.
(a)Only (I)
(b)Only (II)
(c)Only (III)
(d)Both (I) and (II)
19.The diagram shows the reaction between metal and dil. acid. What is the reason for different behaviour of Mg in
test tube B?
A. Mg is lighter element than dil. HCl
B. Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce H2 gas which helps in floating
C. Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce N2 gas which helps in floating
D. Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce CO2 gas which helps in floating
20.Vinay observed that the stain of curry on a white shirt becomes reddish-brown when soap is scrubbed on it, but it
turns yellow again when the shirt is washed with plenty of water. What might be the reason for his observation?
i. Soap is acidic in nature
ii. Soap is basic in nature
iii. Turmeric is a natural indicator which gives reddish tinge in bases
iv. Turmeric is a natural indicator which gives reddish tinge in acids
A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i and iv D. ii and iv
21.In which of the following setups would the bulb glow?

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A . i and ii
B . i and iv
C . ii, iii and iv
D . i, ii and iv
22.The table given below shows the reaction of a few elements with acids and bases to evolve Hydrogen gas.

Which of these elements form amphoteric oxides?

A. A and D B. B and D C. A and C D. B and D
23.A pH paper changes its colour depending on the pH value of the substance it is dipped in. The picture shows the
different colours of a pH paper.Leena tested the pH value of four liquids using a pH paper. The table shows the
shade of the pH paper after it is dipped separately in the four liquids.

Which liquid has the lowest concentration of hydrogen ions?

(A)Liquid 1 (B)Liquid 2 (C)Liquid 3 (D) Liquid 4
24.Study the Experimental set up shown in given figure and choose the correct option from the following

25.The yellow colour of turmeric changes to red on addition of soap solution. When substance P is added to
turmeric, there is no change in colour. Which of the following is definitely true about substance P?
A. P is an acid.
B. P is not a salt.
C. P is not a base.
D. P is a neutral substance
26.Consider the pH value of the following acidic samples .The decreasing order of their H+ ion concenteration is
A. (III) > (IV)> (I) > (II) B. (II) > (I) > (III)> (IV)
C. (II) > (I) > (IV) >(III) D. (III) > (IV)> (II) > (I)

Sample pH value

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 (I) Lemon Juice 2.2
(II) Gastric Juice 1.2
(III) Vinegar 3.76
(IV) Dil .acetic acid 3.0
27.A student makes an arrangement to test the electrical conductivity of distilled water as shown. The student
observe that the bulb does not glow. What could be the reason the bulb does not glow?
(a)The bulb needs DC source to glow.
(b) The water never conducts electricity
(c) The graphite is bad conductor of electricity .
(d) The distilled water does not have ions present in it .
28.50.0 mL of tap water was taken in a beaker. Hydrochloric acid was added drop by drop to water. The temperature
and pH of the solution wa noted. The following graph was obtained.
(I) The process of dissolving an acid in water is highly endothermic.
(II) The pH of the solution increases rapidly on addition of acid.
(III) The pH of the solution decreases rapidly on addition of acid.
(IV) The pH of tap water was around 7.0 .
Select the incorrect observations:
(a)(I) and (II)
(b)(I) and (III)
(c)(III) and (IV)
(d)(II) and (IV)
29.The equation shows the reaction of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
If the pH of the salt is 7 ,what are the positive and negative radicals in the salt ?
(a) Na _negative radical ; Cl_positive radical (b) Na_positive radical ; Cl_negative radical
(c)Na_Positive radical ; Cl_positive radical (d)Na_negative radical ; Cl_negative radical
30.A student placed 10 ml HCl and NaOH in two separate beakers as shown. In beaker 1,4 mL of NaOH is added
whereas in beaker 2,4 mL of HCl is added. student notes the possible changes in pH in both solutions.
Which change in pH is correct ?
(a)A
(b) B
(c)C
(d) D

31.Sodium hydroxide is termed an alkali while Ferric hydroxide is not because :

(a) Sodium hydroxide is a strong base, while Ferric hydroxide is a weak base.
(b) Sodium hydroxide is a base which is soluble in water while Ferric hydroxide is also a base but it is not soluble in
water.
(c) Sodium hydroxide is a strong base while Ferric hydroxide is a strong acid.
(d) Sodium hydroxide and Ferric hydroxide both are strong base but the
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solubility of Sodium hydroxide in water is comparatively higher than that of Ferric hydroxide.
32.The name of the salt used to remove permanent hardness of water is :
(a) Sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3)
(b) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
(c) Sodium carbonate decahydrate (Na2CO3.10H2O)
1
(d) Calcium sulphate hemihydrate (CaSO4. 2H2O
33. Few drops of aqueous solution of ammonium chloride are put on a universal indicator paper. The paper turns
pink.
Study the following table and choose the correct option:

Nature Ammonium chloride is a salt of.... Range of pH

(a) acidic weak acid and strong base less than 7

(b) basic weak acid and strong base more than 7
(c) Acidic strong acid and weak base. less than 7
(d) basic strong acid and strong base 7

34.The table below has information regarding pH and the nature (acidic/basic) of four different solutions. Which
one of the options in the table is correct?

35.In the given experimental set-up, if the experiment is carried out separately with each of the following solutions
the cases in which the bulb will glow is/are :
(i) Dilute hydrochloric acid
(ii) Dilute sulphuric acid
(iii) Glucose solution
(iv) Alcohol
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
36.Select the correct option(s) in the following table
(a) (i) only (b) (iii) only
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

37.Select the correct option from the following :

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38.After burning a magnesium ribbon a student collected the ash so formed in a watch glass. He then dissolved this
ash in water and tested the nature (acidic or basic) of the solution using pH paper and litmus solution. His correct
observation would be :
(a) Its pH is 10 and it turns blue litmus to red.
(b) Its pH is 4 and it turns blue litmus to red.
(c) Its pH is 4 and it turns red litmus to blue.
(d) Its pH is 10 and it turns red litmus to blue.
39.Neetu’s friend suffered a fracture in her foot while riding her bicycle. She had to be admitted to the Nursing
Home and the doctor plastered her foot. The chemical formula for POP is:
(a) CaSO4 .2H2O
(b) CaSO4 .H2O
(c) CaSO4 .1/2 H2O
(d) 2 CaSO4.H2O
40. During the preparation of hydrogen chloride gas on a humid day, the gas is usually passed through the guard
tube containing calcium chloride. The role of calcium chloride taken in the guard tube is to
(a) absorb the evolved gas
(b) moisten the gas
(c) absorb moisture from the gas
(d) absorb Cl– ions from the evolved gas
41.Sodium hydrogencarbonate when added to acetic acid evolves a gas. Which of the following statements are true
about the gas evolved?
(i) It turns lime water milky
(ii) It extinguishes a burning splinter
(iii) It dissolves in a solution of sodium hydroxide
(iv)It has a pungent odour
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
42.Which of the following statements is correct about an aqueous solution of an acid and of a base?
(i) Higher the pH, stronger the acid
(ii) Higher the pH, weaker the acid
(iii) Lower the pH, stronger the base
(iv) Lower the pH, weaker the base
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
43.Equal volumes of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solutions of same concentration are mixed and the pH
of the resulting solution is checked with a pH paper. What would be the colour obtained? (You may use colour guide
given in Figure 2.2

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(a) Red
(b) Yellow
(c) Yellowish green
(d) Blue
44.A student makes an arrangement to test the electrical conductivity of distilled water as shown. The student
observe that the bulb does not glow. What could be the reason the bulb does not glow?
(a)The bulb needs DC source to glow.
(b) The water never conducts electricity
(c) The graphite is bad conductor of electricity
(d) The distilled water does not have ions present in it

45.Identify the correct representation of reaction occurring during chloralkali process

(a) 2NaCl(l) + 2H2 O(l) → 2NaOH(l) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
(b) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2 O(aq) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
(c) 2NaCl(aq) + 2H2 O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + Cl2 (aq) + H2 (aq)
(d) 2NaCl (aq) + 2H2 O (l) → 2NaOH (aq) + Cl2 (g) + H2 (g)
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
46.Assertion (A): It is advised that while diluting an acid one should add water to acid and not acid to water keeping
the solution continuously stirred.
Reason (R): The process of dissolving an acid into water is highly exothermic.
47.Assertion (A):Sodium hydrogen carbonate is used as an ingredient in antacids.
Reason (R):NaHCO3 is a mild non –corrosive basic salt.
48. Assertion (A):Fresh milk in which baking soda is added ,takes a longer time to set as curd.
Reason (R):Baking soda decreases the pH value of fresh milk to below 6.
49. Assertion (A):Sodium hydrogencarbonate is used in fire extinguishers.
Reason (R):Sodium hydrogen carbonate is a weak base.
Ch-3 Metals & Non-Metals
1.The ratio (x:y) of reactants Fe and H2O in the given balanced chemical equation is .
xFe(s) + yH2O(g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H2 (g)
(a) x:y = 2:3
(b) x:y = 3:4
(c) x:y = 1:4
(d) x:y = 4:1
2.Among the following, the metal with lowest density is :
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(a) Lithium
(b) Lead
(c) Magnesium
(d) Aluminium
3.The metals which have very low melting points are:
(a) gallium and caesium
(b) gallium and sodium
(c) caesium and potassium
(d) sodium and potassium
4.A students performs some activities on two substances M and N and record the observations in a table as shown
below:

Activity Substance M Substance M

Cut with a knife Forms small pieces Forms small pieces

Beaten with hammer Shape changes Changes into powder

Stricken with a metal rod Makes a sound Changes into power

Which option classifies the substances into metals and non-metals?

(a) Both the substances are metals
(b) Both the substances are non-metals
(c) Substance M is metal while substance N is non-metal
(d) Substance M is non-metal while substance N is metal
5.The metal X does not react with cold water but floats on hot water with formation of colourless bubbles. Which of
the following represents metal X.
(a) Aluminium
(b) Copper
(c) Magnesium
(d) Lead
6.A student makes an electric circuit using an LED, a battery and connecting wires, as shown.
Battery

Bulb

Beaker Distilled water

The student notices that the LED does not glow. He replaces the distilled water with a salt solution of NaCl, MgCl2
and CCl4 one by one. He observes that the bulb glowed with salt solutions of NaCl and MgCl2 but LED bulb did not
glow when CCl4 solution was taken. Which of the solutions contains only covalent bond?
(a) NaCl (b) CCl4 (c) Distilled water (d) Both (b) & (c)

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7.An aluminium strip is kept immersed in freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution taken in a test tube, the change
observed is that:
(a) green solution slowly turns colourless
(b) lower end of test tube becomes slightly warm)
(c) a colourless gas with the smell of burning sulphur is observed
(d) light green solution changes to blue
8.Which among the following statements is incorrect for magnesium metal?
(a) It burns in oxygen with a dazzling white flame.
(b) It reacts with cold water to form magnesium oxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(c) It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.
(d) It reacts with steam to form magnesium( hydroxide and evolves hydrogen gas.

9.Which of the following two combinations are correct?

Metal Gas Evolved

(I) Copper Yes
(II) Iron Yes
(III) Magnesium No
(IV) Zinc Yes
(a) (I) and (III)
(b) (I) and (IV)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
10.Sandhya took three beakers A, B and C containing zinc sulphate, silver sulphate and iron(II) sulphate solutions
respectively. Copper pieces were added to each beaker.
The solution will appear blue in the case of:
(a) Beaker A
(b) Beaker B
(c) Beaker C
(d) Beakers B and C
11.Which option gives the process of extraction of mercury from its ore cinnabar?
(a) Cooling cinnabar in the presence of excess air.
(b) Cooling cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then heating it.
(c) Cinnabar to convert it into mercuric oxide and then heating it again.
(d) Cinnabar in the presence of limited air to and then adding a small amount of water.
12.The table shows four different materials and their electronic configuration:

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 Magnesium (Mg) Sulphur (S)

Number of electrons in the 2, 8, 2 2, 8, 6

shells of the atom

How many atoms of sulphur will react with one atom of magnesium to form a compound?
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
13.The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X: 2, 8; Y: 2, 8, 7 and Z: 2, 8, 2. Which of the
following is correct?
(a) X is a metal
(b) Y is a metal
(c) Z is a non-metal
(d) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal
14.Which one of the following structures correctly depicts the compound CaCl2?

15.A student drop pieces of potassium and silver in beakers containing water. The image shows the reaction.

What are the products formed in each beaker?

(a) Beaker 1: K2O and H2O; Beaker 2: AgO and H2O

(b) Beaker 1: KOH and H2O; Beaker 2: Ag2O and H₂O

(c) Beaker 1: K2O and H2O; Beaker 2: No reaction takes place
(d) Beaker 1: KOH and H2; Beaker 2: No reaction takes place
16.The diagram shows the reaction between metal and dil. acid

What is the reason for different behaviour of Mg in test tube B?

(a) Mg is lighter element than dil. HCl.

(b) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce H₂ gas which helps in floating.

(c) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce N₂ gas which helps in floating.
(d) Mg reacts with dil. HCl to produce CO2 gas which helps in floating

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17.Have you ever imagined what would happen if all the electrical wires used in our homes, offices and other places
were without any covering? Well, people handling them would die of electrical shock and there would be short
circuiting leading to electrical fires all around us.
Electrical wires have a coating of an insulating material. The material, generally used is:
(a) Sulphur (b) Graphite (c) PVC (d) All can be used
18.On placing a copper coin in a test tube containing green ferrous sulphate solution, it will be observed that the
ferrous sulphate solution
(a) turns blue, and a grey substance is deposited on the copper coin.
(b) turns colourless and a grey substance is deposited on the copper coin.
(c) turns colourless and a reddish-brown substance is deposited on the copper coin.
(d) remains green with no change in the copper coin.

19.Following table gives information about four substances: A, B, C and D.

Substance Melting Point (K) Electrical Conductivity

Solid Liquid/Aqueous

A 295 Good Good

B 1210 Poor Good

C 1890 Poor Good

D 1160 Poor Poor

Identify ionic compounds from the given substances.

(a) A, B (b) B, C (c) A, B, D (d) A, C, D
20.Although metals form basic oxides, which of the following metals form an amphoteric oxide?
(a)Na (b)Ca (c)Al (d)Cu
21. A researcher conducts an experiment to obtain zinc from its ore. Which option gives the process that the
researcher must perform?
(a) Converting metal sulphides into metallic oxides and then using carbon to reduce it to obtain pure metal.
(b) Metal oxides into metallic sulphides and then using carbon to reduce it to obtain pure metal.
(c) Converting metal oxides into metallic carbonates and then using carbon to(reduce it to obtain pure metal.
(d) Metallic sulphides into metallic carbonates and then heating to reduce it to obtain pure metal.
22. Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of a metal with a metal or non-metal. Which among the following alloy
contains non-metal as one of its constituents?
(a) Brass (b) Bronze (c) Amalgam (d) Steel
23. The cations and anions present in aluminium oxide are:

Cation Anion

(a) Al+ O-

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 (b) Al3+ O2-

(c) Al3+ O-

(d) Al2+ O2-

24.Aluminium is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following properties of aluminium are responsible
for the same?
(i)Good thermal conductivity (ii)Good electrical conductivity (iii)Ductility (iv)High melting point
(a)(i) and (ii)
(b)(i) and (iii)
(c)(ii) and (iii)
(d)(i) and (iv)
25.Which of the following oxide(s) of iron would be obtained on prolonged reaction of iron with steam?
(a) FeO
(b) Fe2O3
(c) Fe3O4
(d) Fe2O3 and Fe3O4
26. What happens when calcium is treated with water?
(i)It does not react with water (ii)It reacts violently with water
(iii)It reacts less violently with water (iv)Bubbles of hydrogen gas formed stick to the surface of calcium
(a)(i) and (iv) (b)(ii) and (iii)
(c)(i) and (ii) (d)(iii) and (iv)
27.Generally metals react with acids to give salt and hydrogen gas. Which of the following acids does not give
hydrogen gas on reacting with metals (except Mn and Mg)?
(a)H2SO4
(b)HCl
(c)HNO3
(d)All of these
28.The composition of aqua-regia is
(a) Dil.HCl : Conc. HNO3
3 : 1
(b) Conc.HCl : Dil. HNO3
3 : 1
(c) Conc.HCl : Conc.HNO3
3 : 1
(d) Dil.HCl : Dil.HNO3
3 : 1
29.Which of the following are not ionic compounds?
(i) KCl (ii) HCl (iii) CCl4 (iv) NaCl
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)

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(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
30.Which of the following metals exist in their native state in nature?
(i)Cu (ii)Au (iii)Zn (iv)Ag
(a)(i) and (ii) (b)(ii) and (iii) (c)(ii) and (iv) (d)(iii) and (iv)
31.Silver articles become black on prolonged exposure to air. This is due to the formation of
(a) Ag3N
(b) Ag2O
(c) Ag2S
(d) Ag2S and Ag3N

32.Which of the following metals are obtained by electrolysis of their chlorides in molten state ?
(i) Na (ii) Ca (iii) Fe (iv) Cu
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (ii)
33.On placing a silver coin in a test tube containing blue solution of CuSO4, a student would observe after some
time, say 20 minutes, that the CuSO4 solution
(a) turns green and a grey substance is deposited on the coin.
(b) turns colourless and a grey substance is deposited on the coin.
(c) remains blue with no change in the silver coin.
(d) turns colourless and reddish brown substance is deposited on the coin.
34.Which among the following alloys contain mercury as one of its constituents?
(a)Stainless steel
(b)Alnico
(c)Solder
(d)Zinc amalgam
35.Reaction between X and Y, forms compound Z. X loses electron and Y gains electron. Which of the following
properties is not shown by Z?
(a)Has high melting point
(b)Has low melting point
(c)Conducts electricity in molten state
(d)Occurs as solid
36. Which one of the following figures correctly describes the process of electrolytic refining?

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37.Copper is used for making cooking utensils. Which of the following physical properties of copper is NOT
responsible for the same?
(a) Malleability (b) High melting point (c) Thermal conductivity (d) High reactivity
38.An electrolytic cell consists of
(i)positively charged cathode (ii)negatively charged anode
(iii)positively charged anode (iv)negatively charged cathode
(a)(i) and (ii) (b)(iii) and (iv) (c)(i) and (iii) (d)(ii) ad (iv)
39.During electrolytic refining of zinc, it gets
(a)deposited on cathode
(b)deposited on anode
(c)deposited on cathode as well as anode
(d)remains in the solution
40.The following diagram shows the electrolytic refining of copper:

Which of the following statements is incorrect description of the process ?

(a) The impure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte.
(b) The pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.
(c) Insoluble impurities settle down at the bottom of the anode.
(d) On passing the current through the electrolyte, the pure metal from the anode dissolves into the electrolyte.
41.The number of electrons in the outermost shell of the atom of a non-metal
can be :
(a) 1, 2 or 3
(b) 3, 4 or 5
(c) 5, 6 or 7
(d) 5, 6 or 8
42. Galvanisation is a method of protecting iron from rusting by coating it with a thin layer of:

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(a) Gallium
(b) Aluminium
(c) Zinc
(c) Silver
43. Stainless steel is a very useful material in our life. In stainless steel, iron is mixed with
(a) Ni and Cr (b) Cu and Cr (c) Ni and Cu (c) Cu and Au
44.If copper is kept open in air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the
formation of
(a)CuSO4 (b)CuCO3 (c)Cu(NO3)2 (d)CuO
45.Lists the process which explains how pure metals are obtained from impure samples by electrolytic refining.
(I) Keep impure metal at anode and pure metal at cathode
(II) Pass current in the electrolytic solution
(III) Insoluble impurities settle in the bottom of the anode as anode mud
(IV) Pure metal from anode dissolves in the solution and pure metal from solution deposits on the cathode
You can also refer to the figure for arranging the steps

Which option arrange the steps in the appropriate order?

(a) (I), (III), (IV), (II)
(b) (I), (11), (III), (IV)
(c) (I), (II), (IV), (III)
(d) (I), (IV), (III), (11)
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
46.Assertion (A): Copper ions migrate from the anode to the cathode during electro refining of copper.
Reason (R): In the electro refining process, metal ions accept electrons at the anode and are deposited as pure metal
47.Which of the following oxide(s) is/are soluble in water to form alkali/alkalies ?
(i) SO2 (ii) Na2O (iii) NO2 (iv) K2O
(a) (ii) and (iv)
(b) Only (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) Only (iv)
48.Assertion (A) : Sodium, calcium and magnesium are obtained by the
electrolysis of their molten oxides.
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Reason (R) : These metals have more affinity for oxygen than carbon.
49.Assertion (A):The Metals and alloys are good conductors of electricity.
Reason (R): Bronze is an alloy of copper and tin. It is not good conductor of electricity.
Ch-4 Carbon & it’s compounds
1.Carbon forms four covalent bonds by sharing its four valence electrons with four univalent atoms, e.g. hydrogen.
After the formation of four bonds, carbon attains the electronic configuration of
(a)helium
(b)neon
(c)argon
(d)krypton
2. Carbon exists in the atmosphere in the form of
(a) carbon monoxide only
(b) carbon monoxide in traces and carbon dioxide
(c) carbon dioxide only
(d) coal
3.The correct electron dot structure of a water molecule is

4. A molecule of ammonia (NH3) has

(a) only single bonds
(b) only double bonds
(c) only triple bonds
(d) two double bonds and one single bond
5. Buckminsterfullerene is an allotropic form of
(a) phosphorus
(b) sulphur
(c) carbon
(d) tin
6. Four combustion reactions of carbon compounds are shown below.
CH4+ O2→ CO2 + H2O + heat
CH3CHO+O→ CO2 + H2O + heat
CH3CH2CH2OH + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat
C6H6 + O2 → CO2 + H2O + heat
What can be concluded from the four reactions?
(I) All carbon compounds release oxygen on combustion.
(II) All carbon compounds release water on reacting with oxygen.
(III) All carbon compounds produce carbon dioxide on reacting with oxygen.
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(a) Only (I) (b) (I) and (II) (c) (II) and (III) (d) (I) (II) and (III)
7. Anita added a drop each of diluted acetic acid and diluted hydrochloric acid on pH paper and compared the colors.
Which of the following is the correct conclusion?
(a) pH of acetic acid is more than that of hydrochloric acid.
(b) pH of acetic acid is less than that of hydrochloric acid.
(c) Acetic acid dissociates completely in aqueous solution.
(d) Acetic acid is a strong acid
8. Which of these functional groups can combine with carbon to produce alcohol?

9. A student conducts an activity, where he took a naphthalene ball and burnt. He observed that it gives a yellow
flame with lots of black smoke and sooty deposits around it. What type of hydrocarbon does naphthalene contain?
(a) Unsaturated, as black smoke represents complete combustion.
(b) Unsaturated, as sooty deposit represents unburnt hydrocarbons.
(c) Saturated, as it gives a yellow flame which represents complete combustion.
(d) Saturated, as the burning of any substance represents a complete combustion.
10. In the below given reaction, alkaline KMnO4 acts as

(a)reducing agent
(b)oxidising agent
(c)catalyst
(d)dehydrating agent
11. The formulae of four organic compounds are shown below. Choose the correct option.
(a) (I) and (II) are saturated hydrocarbons
(b) (II) and (IV) are unsaturated hydrocarbons
(c) Addition of hydrogen in presence of catalyst changes (I) to (III)
(d) Addition of potassium permanganate changes (II) to (IV

12. Identify the unsaturated compounds from the following

(i)Propane
(ii)Propene
(iii) Propyne
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(iv) Chloropropane
(a)(i) and (ii) (b)(ii) and (iv) (c)(iii) and (iv) (d)(ii) and (iii)
13. In the soap micelles
(a)the ionic end of soap is on the surface of the cluster while the carbon chain is in the interior of the cluster.
(b)ionic end of soap is in the interior of the cluster and the carbon chain is out of the cluster.
(c)both ionic end and carbon chain are in the interior of the cluster
(d)both ionic end and carbon chain are on the exterior of the cluster
14. Given below are the structure of a few hydrocarbon compounds. Which of these is/ are alkyne?

(a) Only (I) (b) Only (II)

(c) Both (I) & (IV) (d) Both (II) & (IV)
15. The structural formula of benzene is:

16.Ethanol reacts with sodium and forms two products. These are
(a)sodium ethanoate and hydrogen
(b)sodium ethanoate and oxygen
(c)sodium ethoxide and hydrogen
(d)sodium ethoxide and oxygen
17. Which of these carbon compounds represents an alkene?

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18. A student conducts an activity where he burns methane in the presence of oxygen. What is likely to form?
(a) Water
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Carbon dioxide and water
(d) Carbon dioxide and oxygen
19.Which of the following is not a straight chain hydrocarbon?

20. The name of the compound CH3 — CH2 — CHO is

(a) Propanal
(b) Propanone
(c) Ethanol
(d) Ethanal
21. A student studies that acetic acid is a saturated compound. The structure of the compound is shown

(CH3COOH Acetic Acid)

Why is acetic acid classified as a saturated compound?

(a) Because there is a single bond between the carbon atoms.
(b) Because there is a double bond between the carbon and oxygen atoms.
(c) Because there is a single bond between the carbon and hydrogen atoms.
(d) Because there is a single bond between the carbon and hydroxide diatom
22. We all know that soaps and detergents are used in every household for cleaning purposes. Ali had just studied
about the cleansing properties of soaps and also how a micelle is formed when soap is dissolved in water.
The soap molecule has a:
(a)hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail
(b) hydrophobic head and a hydrophilic tail
(c) hydrophobic head and a hydrophobic tail
(d) hydrophilic head and a hydrophilic tail
23. A student took four test tubes P, Q, R and S and filled about 8 mL of distilled water in each. After that he
dissolved an equal amount of Na2SO4 in P, K2SO4 in Q, CaSO4 in R and MgSO4 in S. On adding an equal amount of
soap solution and shaking each test tube well, a good amount of lather will be obtained in the test tubes:
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(a) P and Q
(b) P and R
(c) P, Q and S
(d) Q, R and S
24. If you take some distilled water in a test- tube, add an equal amount of acetic acid to it, shake the test-tube well
and leave it undisturbed on the test-tube stand, then after about 5 minutes, what would you observe?
(a) There is a layer of water over the layer of acetic acid.
(b) A precipitate is settling at the bottom of the test-tube.
(c) Bubbles of colourless gas are coming out of the test-tube.
(d) There is a clear, colourless transparent solution in the test-tube.
25. A student is given equal amount of three samples of water with temporary hardness labelled as 'A', 'B' and 'C'. He
keeps the three samples at different temperatures A at room temperature, B at 50 °C and C at 95 °C. Which sample
will give maximum amount of lather when 10 mL of soap solution is added to each sample and shaken for equal
time?
(a) A only
(b) Both A & B
(c) Both B & C
(d) C only
26. An organic compound of molecular formula C2H4O2 gives brisk effervescence with sodium hydrogencarbonate.
The name and formula of the organic compound is: Select the correct option:

Name of Formula of Organic

Organic Compound
Compound

(a) Ethanol C2H5OH

(b) Ethanoic acid CH3COOH

(c) Ethanal CH3CHO

(d) Propanone CH3COCH3

27. The substance used for oxidation of ethanol and the compound formed on oxidation of ethanol is: select the
option:
Substance used for Compound formed on
Oxidation of Oxidation of Ethanol
Ethanol

(a) Alkaline KMnO4 CH3COOH

(b) Acidified KMnO4 CH3COOH

(c) Alkaline KMnO4 CH3CHO

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 (d) Alkaline K2Cr2O7 CH3COOH

28. The structure of a hydrocarbon is given below:

Study the structure above and select the correct statements:

(I) The molecular formula of the compound is C5H12
(II) The next homologue of C5H12 is C4H8
(III) It is an isomer of pentane
(IV) It has 14 single covalent bonds
(a) Both (I) & (II)
(b) Both (I) & (III)
(c) (I), (II) & (III)
(d) (I), (III) & (IV)

29.Structural formula of ethyne is

30. Some students studied the physical buy properties of acetic acid and noted down their observations. Which of the
following observations is correct?
(a) Smells like rose and soluble in water
(b) Smells like burning plastic and insoluble in water
(c) Smells like vinegar and soluble in water
(d) Smells like rotten egg and soluble in water
31. One mole of which of the following compounds requires 2 moles of hydrogen to form a saturated hydrocarbon by
catalytic hydrogenation?

(a) Only (I) and (II) (b) Only (III) and (IV)
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(c) Only (1) and (IV) (d) Only (I), (II) and (IV)
32. Which among the following are unsaturated hydrocarbons?

33. The formulae of four organic compounds are shown below. Choose the correct option

(a) A and B are unsaturated hydrocarbons

(b) C and D are saturated hydrocarbons
(c) Addition of hydrogen in presence of catalyst changes A to C
(d) Addition of potassium permanganate changes B to D
34.Which of the following are correct structural isomers of butane?

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
35.Oils on treating with hydrogen in the presence of palladium or nickel catalyst form fats. This is an example of
(a)Addition reaction
(b)Substitution reaction
(c)Displacement reaction
(d)Oxidation reaction
36.In which of the following compounds, — OH is the functional group?
(a) Butanone (b) Butanol (c) Butanoic acid (d) Butanal
37. Which of the following statements are usually correct for carbon compounds? These
(i) are good conductors of electricity
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(ii) are poor conductors of electricity
(iii) have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(iv) do not have strong forces of attraction between their molecules
(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
38.Which of the following is the correct representation of electron dot structure of nitrogen?

39.Chlorine reacts with saturated hydrocarbons at room temperature in the

(a)absence of sunlight
(b)presence of sunlight
(c)presence of water
(d)presence of hydrochloric acid
40.Pentane has the molecular formula C5H12 . It has
(a)5 covalent bonds
(b)12 covalent bonds
(c)16 covalent bonds
(d)17 covalent bonds
41.The correct structural formula of butanoic acid is

42.Vinegar is a solution of
(a)50% – 60% acetic acid in alcohol
(b)5% – 8% acetic acid in alcohol
(c)5% – 8% acetic acid in water
(d)50% – 60% acetic acid in water
43.Mineral acids are stronger acids than carboxylic acids because
(i)mineral acids are completely ionised
(ii)carboxylic acids are completely ionised
(iii)mineral acids are partially ionised
(iv)carboxylic acids are partially ionised
(a)(i) and (iv) (b)(ii) and (iii) (c)(i) and (ii) (d)(iii) and (iv)
44. Which of the following does not belong to the same homologous series?

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(a) CH4
(b) C2 H6
(c) C3 H8
(d) C4 H8
45. The heteroatoms present in
CH3 — CH2 — O — CH2— CH2Cl are
(i) oxygen (ii) carbon (iii) hydrogen (iv) chlorine
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)
46. Which of the following represents saponification reaction?

47. The first member of alkyne homologous series is

(a) ethyne
(b) ethene
(c) propyne
(d) methane
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
48. Assertion (A):Carbon has a strong tendency to either loser or gain electrons to attain noble gas configuration.
Reason (R): Carbon has four electrons in its outermost shell and has the tendency to share electrons with carbon or
other elements.
49. Assertion (A):Esterification is a process in which a sweet smelling substance is produced.
Reason (R): When esters react with sodium hydroxide an alcohol and sodium salt of carboxylic acid are obtained.
50. Assertion (A):Following are the members of a homologous series:
CH3OH, CH3CH3OH, CH3CH2CH2OH
Reason (R): A series of compounds with same functional group but differing by -CH2 unit is called a homologous
series
CH-5 Life Processes
1.Identify the option that indicates the correct enzyme that is secreted in location A, B and C.
A. (i)-lipase, (ii)-trypsin, (iii)-pepsin
B. (i)-amylase, (ii)-pepsin, (iii)-trypsin

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C. (i)-trypsin, (ii)-amylase, (iii)-carboxylase
D. (i)-permease, (ii)-carboxylase, (iii)-oxidase

2.In the following diagram, identify the cells through which massive amounts of gaseous exchange takes place for
photosynthesis :
(a) I
(b) IV
(c) III
(d) II
3.The figure given below shows a schematic plan of blood circulation in humans with labels (i) to (iv). Identify the
correct label with its functions?
A. (i) Pulmonary vein - takes impure blood from body part.
B. (ii) Pulmonary artery - takes blood from lung to heart.
C. (iii) Aorta - takes blood from heart to body parts.
D. (iv) Vena cava takes - blood from body parts to right auricle.

4.In the given transverse section of the leaf identify the layer of cells where maximum photosynthesis occurs.

(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) III, IV
(d) I, IV

5.Carefully study the diagram of the human respiratory system with labels (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv). Select the option
which gives correct identification and main function and /or characteristic
A. (i) Trachea: It is supported by bony rings for conducting inspired air.
B. (ii) Ribs: When we breathe out, ribs are lifted.
C. (iii) Alveoli: Thin-walled sac like structures for exchange of gases.
D. (iv) Diaphragm: It is pulled up when we breathe in.
6.Sphincter muscles are present at the exit of :
(a) Stomach and small intestine
(b) Stomach and anus
(c) Small intestine and large intestine
(d) Oesophagus and stomach
7.During vigorous exercise, the occurrence of cramps in the outer muscles of an athlete is due to the conversion of
pyruvate to :
(a) Glucose
(b) Ethanol
(c) Lactic acid
(d) Lactose
8.Observe the following diagram and identify the process and its significance from the following options :
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(a) Evaporation : maintains water contents in leaf cells.
(b) Transpiration : creates a suction force which pulls water inside the plant.
(c) Excretion : helps in excreting out waste water from the plant.
(d) Translocation : helps in transporting materials from one cell to another.
9.Observe the experimental setup shown below. Name the chemical indicated as ‘X’ that can absorb the gas which is
evolved as a byproduct of respiration.
(a) NaOH
(b) KOH
(c) Ca (OH)2
(d) K2CO3

10. Which is the correct sequence of parts in human alimentary canal?

(a) Mouth → stomach → small intestine → oesophagus → large intestine

(b) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → large intestine → small intestine

(c) Mouth → stomach → oesophagus → small intestine → large intestine

(d) Mouth → oesophagus → stomach → small intestine → large intestine

11. If salivary amylase is lacking in the saliva, which of the following events in the mouth cavity will be affected?
(a) Proteins breaking down into amino acids
(b) Starch breaking down into sugars
(c) Fats breaking down into fatty acids and glycerol
(d) Absorption of vitamins
12. The inner lining of stomach is protected by one of the following from hydrochloric acid. Choose the correct one
(a) Pepsin (b) Mucus (c) Salivary amylase (d) Bile
13.The image shows the transport of gases in body through heart and lungs
Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → venacava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ venacava → body cells
14.The image shows the process of making food by a plant.
Which statement can be concluded from the image?
(a) plants absorbCO2 from air and H2O from the soil as raw materials and convert them into glucose
(b) plants absorb CO2 from the soil and H2O from air as raw materials and convert them into glucose

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(c) plants absorb O2 from air and glucose from the soil as raw materials and convert them into light energy
(d) plants absorb O2 from air and minerals from the soil as raw materials and convert them into heat energy

15.Which of the equation show correct conversion of CO2 and H2O into carbohydrates in plants?

16.A student sets up an experiment to study the photosynthesis in plants. The student destarched a potted plant by
keeping it in a dark room for 3 days. Half of the portion of destarched leaf was placed in a bottle containing caustic
potash (absorbs CO2) as shown.

The student then places the plant in light and tests the leaf after 5 hours for the presence of starch. The portions
inside the bottle shows negative starch test by reflecting no change in colour when react with iodine, however, other
upper portions of the leaf gave positive starch test showing blue-black colour with iodine. What can be evaluated
from this experiment?
(a) carbon dioxide is directly linked with the colour of leaf
(b) carbon dioxide is necessary for preparing carbohydrate
(c) lack of carbon dioxide increases amount of starch in plant
(d) lack of carbon dioxide slows the process of photosynthesis
17.The image shows the bread moulds on a bread.

How these fungi obtain nutrition?

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(a) by eating the bread on which it is growing
(b) by using nutrients from the bread to prepare their own food
(c) by breaking down the nutrients of bread and then absorbing them
(d) by allowing other organisms to grow on the bread and then consuming them
18.The image shows how Amoeba obtains nutrition.How this process is advantageous for Amoeba?
(a) capturing of food takes less time
(b) complex food can be digested easily
(c) more amount of food can be consumed
(d) fast distribution of nutrition within the body
19.The image shows the human digestive system.Digestion of food starts from which organ of the digestive system?
(a) mouth due to the presence of saliva
(b) oesophagus that moves the food in gut
(c) that releases juices for fat breakdown
(d) which helps in mixing food with digestive juices

20.The image shows a cross section of small intestine.

What will be the likely happen if the number of villi increases in the intestine?
(a) increase in the absorption of food
(b) fast elimination of waste from the body
(c) increase in flow of blood in the small intestine
(d) fast breakdown of larger food particles into smaller ones
21.An incomplete equation for the digestion of starch using saliva is shown as:
Saliva + Starch (in test tube) →
What will be the likely outcome of this?
(a) Saliva will convert starch into complex fat molecules.
(b) Saliva will convert starch into complex sugar molecules.
(c) Saliva will breakdown starch into simple sugar molecules.
(d) Saliva will breakdown starch into simple protein molecules.
22.A student sets up an experiment to study the role of enzymes in digestion of food.

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In which test tube, the digestion of protein will occur?
(a) Test tube A as pepsin will breakdown into simple molecules.
(b) Test tube B as HCl will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
(c) Test tubes A as pepsin will breakdown protein into simple molecules.
(d) Test tube B as HCl will activate pepsin for breakdown of protein into simple molecules.
23.The image shows the flow diagram for the breakdown of glucose in yeast.
Under which condition these types of products are obtained?
(a) in the presence of oxygen
(b) in the absence of oxygen
(c) the presence of carbon dioxide
(d) in the absence of carbon dioxide

24.A student setup an experiment to study the human respiratory system. In the experiment, the student places
candle and a living cockroach in the flask A, while a candle and a dead cockroach in flask B. The burning of candle
needs oxygen.After 10 minutes, the student observes that the candle in flask A extinguish faster while candle in flask
B keeps burning for a longer time. What can be evaluated from this experiment?
(a) candle produces high amount of carbon dioxide
(b) living beings consumes oxygen during respiration
(c) burning of candle decreases the life span of cockroach
(d) water vapours produced by living beings prevents burning of candle

25.A student sets up an experiment to study human respiration using lime water, test tube and a straw. Lime water
is colourless in the absence of CO2 and is milky in its presence. The student fills a freshly prepared limewater in a
test tube and blows air through straw into the limewater. It was observed that the solution turns cloudy as shown.

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What can be evaluated from this observation?
(a) oxygen is exhaled during respiration
(b) glucose is produced during respiration
(c) carbondioxide is exhaled during respiration
(d) water vapours are produced during respiration
26.The image shows the transport of gases in body through heart and lungs.
Which option correctly shows the transport of oxygen to the cell?
(a) Lungs →pulmonary vein →left atrium →left ventricle →aorta → body cells
(b) Lungs →pulmonary vein →right atrium →right ventricle → aorta → body cells
(c) Lungs →pulmonary artery →left atrium → left ventricle → venacava → body cells
(d) Lungs →pulmonary artery →right atrium → right ventricle→ venacava → body cells
27.The image shows oxygenated and de-oxygenated blood in the human heart.
What is the direction of deoxygenated blood from right atrium of the heart?
(a) towards the lungs
(b) towards the lower body
(c) towards the upper body
(d) towards the left atrium of heart

28. The image shows the circulation of blood in fishes.

Which option correctly traces the pathway of blood flow in fish body?
(a) Gill capillaries→ oxygenated blood→heart → body cells→ deoxygenated blood→gills
(b) Gill capillaries→ oxygenated blood→ body cells→ deoxygenated blood→ heart→gills
(c) capillaries→ heart →oxygenated blood→ body cells→ deoxygenated blood→heart→gills
(d) Gill capillaries→ oxygenated blood→heart → body cells→ deoxygenated blood→heart→gills
29.The image shows the circulation of blood in fishes and humans.

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How is the circulations of blood in fish different from that in humans?
(a) The heart in fish is bigger in size.
(b) The flow of blood in fish is unidirectional.
(c) The blood goes through heart only once in fishes.
(d) The heart of fish has more chambers compared to that of a human.
30.The image shows the structure of an artery.

Which statement supports the likely reason for thick walls in arteries?
(a) to carry large amount of blood
(b) to allow easy exchange of gases with cells
(c) to ensure blood flows in only one direction
(d) to sustain the high-pressure blood from the heart
31.The image shows the healing of a wound.

Based on the image, what explains the process?

(a) platelets form clot by plugging the site of injury
(b) platelets uses component of broken vessel to form clot
(c) red blood cells divide and replace the broken vessel at the site of injury
(d) red blood cells and platelets migrate to site of injury and secrete substance that forms new vessel
32.How water is taken up from soil to the xylem tissue of the plant roots?
(a) xylem attracts water molecules
(b) roots act as a suction pump for taking water
(c) soil expels the water with pressure to the xylem
(d) difference in the ion concentration creates a gradient for water movement
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33.A student performs an experiment using a balsam plant with intact stem, leaves, roots and flowers. The plant was
kept in a test tube containing eosin solution (a pink colour dye). The test tube mouth was covered using cotton plug
as shown.The student kept the plant undisturbed in the lab. After 2-3 hours, a transverse section of stem was
obtained using sharp scissors and studied under microscope. The studies reveal the presence of pink colour in the
vessels of xylem. What does this observation explain?
(a) eosin solution gets stored in the xylem
(b) water moves through xylem in the plant
(c) xylem reacts with eosin and gives colour
(d) most portion of the plant stem is occupied by xylem
34.The loss of water from the leaves of the plant is transpiration. How this process is advantageous for the plant?
The loss of water from the leaves of the plant is transpiration. How this process is advantageous for the plant?
(a) It helps in the downward movement of the water.
(b) It helps the plant to maintain temperature in hot sunny days.
(c) It acts as a driving force for distribution of food in plant’s body.
(d) helps maintain a constant level of water in the soil around the plant.
35.A student setup an experiment using a well-watered plant. The plant’s roots and soil were covered with a rubber
sheet. The plant was then kept in a glass bell jar and sealed with Vaseline at the bottom part to prevent the flow of
air. The student keeps the apparatus in the light and observes water drops inside the jar after 2 hours as shown in
the image.
What can be evaluated about transpiration from this experiment?
(a) Plant leaves give off water in form of vapours.
(b) Heat from the outside warms the jar which melts the vaseline into vapours.
(c) Plant absorbs water from environment thus extra water appears on the inside of jar.
(d) Covered roots and stem of the plant decreases the temperature of jar resulting in condensation of moisture into
vapours.

36.The image shows the transport of food material inside plant body with the help of phloem.
How is food transported from phloem to the tissues according to plants need?
(a) food is transported along with the water in plant’s body.
(b) food is transported in only direction like water in the plant body through xylem.
(c) food is transported from a region with low concentration to higher concentration.
(d) Food is transported from a region where it is produced to other parts of the plants.
37.The image shows the movement of sucrose into phloem against the concentration gradient which also leads to
the movement of water due to osmotic difference. This osmotic pressure allows movement of material in plant body.
How the movement of sucrose into phloem takes place initially?
(a) with the help of transpiration
(b) with the help of water gradient
(c) with the help of ATP molecules
(d) with the help of ADP molecules
38.The image shows the excretory system in humans.

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What is the importance of the labelled part in excretory system?
(a) It produces urine.
(b) It filters waste from the blood.
(c) It stores the urine till urination.
(d) It carries urine from kidney to outside.
39.The image shows the structure of a nephron.Nephron is a unit of filtration in kidneys that filters waste material.
It selectively reabsorbs or excretes water with the help of capillaries that surround it. What is the likely benefit of
this?
(a) It makes the process of filtration at Bowman’s capsule easier.
(b) It helps keep the output of urine constant throughout the day.
(c) It helps to uptake and store excess amount of water in the body for later use.
(d) It maintains the concentration of urine based on the amount of water present in the body.
40.The image shows the process of photosynthesis in plantsBased on the image, which component is excreted by
plants during photosynthesis?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Glucose
(c) Light energy
(d) Oxygen
41.A plant gets rid of excess water through transpiration. Which is a method used by plants to get rid of solid waste
products?
(a) shortening of stem
(b) dropping down of fruits

(c) shedding of yellow leaves

(d) expansion of roots into the soil
42.Given below is a diagram of a nephron. Which row of the following table correctly shows where filtration and
selective reabsorption occur ?

43.Which row in the table below shows the correct products of anaerobic respiration in humans and in yeast ?

44.Which one of the following statements is correct about the human circulatory system?
(a) Blood transports only oxygen and not carbon dioxide.
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(b) Human heart has five chambers.
(c) Valves ensure that the blood does not flow backwards.
(d) Both oxygen-rich and oxygen-deficient blood gets mixed in the heart.
45.Observe the diagram of an activity .What does it help to conclude, when the person exhales into the test-tube?
(a) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in inhaled air.
(b) Fermentation occurs in the presence of oxygen.
(c) Percentage of carbon dioxide is more in the exhaled air.
(d) Fermentation occurs in the presence of carbon dioxide

46.Respiratory structures of two different animals- a fish and a human being are as shown.

Observe (a) and (b) and select one characteristic that holds true for both of them.
(a) Both are placed internally in the body of animal.
(b) Both have thin and moist surface for gaseous exchange.
(c) Both are poorly supplied with blood vessels to conserve energy.
(d) In both, the blood returns to the heart after being oxygenated.
47.Which part of alimentary canal receives bile from the liver?
(a) Stomach
(b) Small intestine
(c) Large intestine
(d) Oesophagus

48.Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following

(a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates
(b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins
(c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats
(d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats
49.The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is

50.Which of the following is most appropriate for aerobic respiration?

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51.Which of the following statement(s) is (are) true about respiration?
(i) During inhalation, ribs move inward and diaphragm is raised
(ii) In the alveoli, exchange of gases takes place i.e., oxygen from alveolar air diffuses into blood and carbon dioxide
from blood into alveolar air
(iii) Hemoglobin has greater affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen
(iv) Alveoli increase surface area for exchange of gases
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
52.Which is the correct sequence of air passage during inhalation?
(a) Nostrils → larynx → pharynx → trachea → lungs
(b) Nasal passage → trachea → pharynx → larynx → alveoli
(c) Larynx → nostrils → pharynx → lungs
(d) Nostrils → pharynx → larynx → trachea → alveoli
53.During respiration exchange of gases take place in
(a) Trachea and larynx
(b) Alveoli of lungs
(c) Alveoli and throat
(d) Throat and larynx
54.Which of the following statement (s) is (are) true about heart?
(i) Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from different parts of body while right atrium receives deoxygenated
blood from lungs.

(ii) Left ventricle pumps oxygenated blood to different body parts while right ventricle pumps deoxygenated blood
to lungs
(iii) Left atrium transfers oxygenated blood to right ventricle which sends it to different body parts
(iv) Right atrium receives deoxygenated blood from different parts of the body while left ventricle pumps
oxygenated blood to different parts of the body
(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iii)
55.What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart during contraction?
(a) Valves in heart
(b) Thick muscular walls of ventricles
(c) Thin walls of atria
(d) All of the above
56.Single circulation i.e., blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of passage through the body, is
exhibited by
(a) Labeo, Chameleon, Salamander
(b) Hippocampus, Exocoetus, Anabas
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(c) Hyla, Rana, Draco
(d) Whale, Dolphin, Turtle
57.In which of the following vertebrate group/groups, heart does not pump oxygenated blood to different parts of
the body?
(a) Pisces and amphibians
(b) Amphibians and reptiles
(c) Amphibians only
(d) Pisces only
58.Choose the correct statement that describes arteries.
(a) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under high pressure; collect blood from different organs and bring it
back to the heart
(b) They have thin walls with valves inside, blood flows under low pressure and carry blood away from the heart to
various organs of the body
(c) They have thick elastic walls, blood flows under low pressure; carry blood from the heart to various organs of the
body
(d) They have thick elastic walls without valves inside, blood flows under high pressure and carry blood away from
the heart to different parts of the body.
59.Choose the forms in which most plants absorb nitrogen
(i) Proteins (ii) Nitrates and Nitrites (iii) Urea (iv) Atmospheric nitrogen
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)
60.Which is the first enzyme to mix with food in the digestive tract?
(a) Pepsin
(b) Cellulose
(c) Amylase
(d) Trypsin

61.Which one of the following conditions is true for the state of stomata of a green leaf shown in the given diagram?
(a) Large amount of water flows into the guard cells.
(b) Gaseous exchange is occurring in large amount.
(c) Large amount of water flows out from the guard cells.
(d) Large amount of sugar collects in the guard cells
62.Identify the phase of circulation which is represented in the diagram of heart given below. Arrows indicate
contraction of the chambers shown.
(a) Blood transferred to the right ventricle and left ventricle simultaneously.
(b) Blood is transferred to lungs for oxygenation and is pumped into various organs simultaneously.
(c) Blood transferred to the right auricle and left auricle simultaneously.
(d) Blood is received from lungs after oxygenation and is received from various organs of the body.
63.The length of small intestine in the deer is more as compared to the length of small intestine of a tiger. The
reason for this is:
(a) mode of intake of food
(b) type of food consumed
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(c) presence or absence of villi in intestines
(d) presence or absence of digestive enzymes
64.In which of the following groups of organisms, blood flows through the heart only once during one cycle of
passage through the body?
(a) Rabbit, Parrot, Turtle (b) Frog, Crocodile, Pigeon
(c) Whale, Labeo, Penguin (d) Shark, Dog fish, Sting ray
65.What is common between extensive network of blood vessels around walls of alveoli and in glomerulus of
nephron?
(a) Thick walled arteries richly supplied with blood
(b) Thin walled veins poorly supplied with blood
(c) Thick walled capillaries poorly supplied with blood
(d) Thin walled capillaries richly supplied with blood
66.If the structure marked X in the diagram is blocked, then which of the processes will not occur?
(a) Transpiration and respiration
(b) Transpiration, photosynthesis and respiration
(c) Respiration, transpiration and transportation
(d) Respiration and photosynthesis
67.Look at the diagram below carefullyIdentify the process taking place at Z.
(a) Reproduction
(b) Transpiration
(c) Photosynthesisas
(d) Translocation
68.Plants use completely different process for excretion as compared to animals. Which one of the following
processes is NOT followed by plants for excretion?
(a) They can get rid of excess water by transpiration.

(b) They selectively filter toxic substances through their leaves.

(c) Waste products are stored as resins and gums in old xylem.
(d) They excrete waste substances into the soil around them.
69.Consider the following statements about small intestine and select the one which is NOT correct:
(a) The length of the small intestine in animals differs as it depends on the type of food they eat.
(b) The small intestine is the site of complete digestion of food.
(c) The small intestine receives secretions from liver and pancreas.
(d) The villi of the small intestine absorb water from the unabsorbed food before it gets removed from the body via
the anus.
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
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70.(A):Resins and gums are stored in old xylem tissue in plants.
Reason (R): Resins and gums facilitate transport of water molecules.
71.Assertion (A):Amphibians can tolerate mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood.
Reason (R): Amphibians are animals with two chambered heart.
72.Assertion (A):Hydrochloric acid helps in the digestion of food in the stomach.
Reason (R): Hydrochloric acid creates an acidic medium to activate protein digesting enzyme.
73.Assertion (A):The inner lining of the small intestine does not have numerous finger-like projections called villi.
Reason (R): The villi increase the surface area for absorption.
74.Assertion (A):Glucose is absorbed in the small intestine and reabsorbed by the kidney tubules.
Reason (R): Maximum absorption of glucose takes place in large intestine.
75.Assertion (A): Blood clotting prevents excessive loss of blood.
Reason (R): Blood clotting is due to blood plasma and white blood cells present in the blood.
76.Assertion (A): The anaerobic respiration which takes place in yeast, has one of the end products as an acid.
(R): During anaerobic respiration, there is incomplete breakdown of glucose
77.Assertion (A): Left atrium receives oxygenated blood from pulmonary vein.
(R): Right atrium transfers deoxygenated blood to the right ventricle, which pumps it to the lungs for oxygenation.
78.Assertion (A) : The inner walls of the small intestine have finger like projections called villi which are rich in
blood.
Reason (R) : These villi have a large surface area to help the small intestine in completing the digestion of food.

Ch-6 Control and coordination

1.Which of the following statements is correct about receptors?
(a) Gustatory receptors detect taste while olfactory receptors detect smell
(b) Both gustatory and olfactory receptors detect smell
(c) Auditory receptors detect smell and olfactory receptors detect taste
(d) Olfactory receptors detect taste and gustatory receptors smell
2.Electrical impulse travels in a neuron from

(a) Dendrite →axon →axonal end →cell body

(b) Cell body →dendrite →axon →axonal end

(c) Dendrite →cell body →axon →axonal end

(d) Axonal end →axon →cell body →dendrite

3.Which option correctly shows the sequence of events that occur when we touch a hot utensil?

4.Which option correctly shows the order of events when a bright light is focused on our eyes?
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5.Observe the three figures given below. Which of the following depicts tropic movements appropriately?

(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) B only
(d) C only
6.Receptors are usually located in sense organs. Gustatory receptors are present in
(a) Tongue (b) nose (c) eye (d) ear
7.Select from the following the correct statement about tropic movement in plants
(a) It is due to stimulus of touch and temperature.
(b) It does not depend upon the direction of stimulus received.
(c) It is observed only in roots and not in stems.
(d) It is a growth related movement.

8.In plants the role of cytokinin is :

(a) Promote cell division.
(b) Wilting of leaves.
(c) Promote the opening of stomatal pore.
(d) Help in the growth of stem.
9.Which of the following statements are correct ?
(I) Hormones are released directly into the bloodstream.
(II)Endocrine glands use electrical impulses.
(III)Sex hormones regulate changes associated with puberty.
Options :
(a)(I) and (II) (b)(I) and (III) (c)(II) and (III) (d)(I) ,(II) and (III)
10.Person X suffers from a condition that affects the normal functioning of the pituitary gland .Which of the
following is most likely a direct effect of person X’s condition ?
(a)Insufficiency of iodine (b)irregular heartbeat
(c)insufficient growth of the body (d)inability to regulate blood sugar .
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11.Organisms depend on hormones as well as electric impulses for the transmission of signals from the brain to the
rest of the body. What can be a likely advantage of hormones over electric impulses?
(a) It is secreted by all types of cells present in the body.
(b) It is secreted by stimulated cells and reaches all cells of the body.
(c) It is relayed to the target organ at a faster rate than electric impulses.
(d) It does not depend on an external stimulus to be generated in the cells.
12.The figure shows a reflex arc formed in response to heat :

What is labelled as X in the figure ?

(a)Cerebrum
(b)Spinal cord
(c)Pituitary gland
(d)Hypothalamus
13.Which one of the following is not a tropic movement ?
(a) Movement of shoot towards light.
(b) Movement of roots towards water.
(c)Movement of roots towards gravity
(d)Drooping of leaves of Mimosa pudica ,on touching
14.Which of the following hormone is not found in human beings ?
(a)Thyroxin
(b)Insulin
(c)Oestrogen
(d)Cytokinin
15.Which of these health conditions is caused by a hormonal imbalance in the body .
(a)Scurvy
(b)Typhoid
(c)Diabetes
(d)Common cold
16.The cerebellum in the brain controls voluntary actions of the body .Which of these actions is controlled by the
cerebellum ?
(a)Beating of the heart
(b)Blinking of the eyes
(c)Watering of the mouth
(d)Jumping from a height
17.Given below are four statements regarding endocrine glands and hormones. Select the correct statements:
(I)Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands.
(II)Some endocrine glands secrete hormones in response to other hormones.
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(III)Hormones are required in large quantities .
(IV)Many hormones are controlled by some form of a feedback mechanism.
(a)Both (I) and (II)
(b)Both (I) and (III)
(c)(I) ,(II) and (III)
(d)(I) ,(II) and (IV)
18.The image shows the labelled structure of a brain.

Which parts of the brain controls the blood pressure?

(a) spinal cord, skull, hypothalamus
(b) cord, skull, cerebrum
(c) Pons, medulla, cerebellum
(d) pons, medulla, pituitary
19.Given alongside are four statements regarding movements in plants .
(I)Movement in plants happens at a point of touch .
(II)The plants use electrical –chemical means to convey information from cell to cell .
(III)There are specialized tissues in plants for the conduction of information.
(IV)Plants cells change shape by changing the amount of water in them.
Select the incorrect statements :
(a)Both (I) and (III)
(b)Both (I) and (IV)
(c)Both (II) and (III)
(d)Both (II) and (IV)
20.Which row of the label describes a hormone ?

Mechanism Source

(a) Chemical messenger Brain

(b) Nerve signal Brain

(c) Chemical messenger Gland

(d) Nerve signal gland

21.Which option illustrates the location of centre that controls the feelings associated with hunger (M) and the
centre that allows a person to walk in a straight line (N)?

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22.Akshay potted some germinated seeds in a pot. He put the pot in a cardboard box that was open from one side.
He keeps the box in a way that the open side of box faces sunlight near his window. After 2-3 days he observes the
shoot bends towards light as shown in image.
Which type of tropism he observes?
(a)Geotropism (b) Phototropism (c) chemotropism (d) hydrotropism
23.What is a likely limitation of electric impulses?
(a) The electric impulses travel slowly between the neurons.
(b) The electric impulses allow signal transmission in multiple directions.
(c) The electric impulses are transmitted to only those body parts that are connected to neurons.
(d) The electric impulses once generated needs to be transmitted quickly within the body.
24.Organisms depend on hormones as well as electric impulses for the transmission of signals from brain to rest of
the body. What can be a likely advantage of hormones over electric impulses?
(a) It is secreted by all types of cells present in the body.
(b) It is secreted by stimulated cells and reaches all cells of the body.
(c) It is relayed to the target organ at a faster rate than electric impulses.
(d) It does not depend on an external stimulus to be generated in the cells

25.What is the function of pituitary gland?

(a) to develop sex organs in males
(b) to stimulate growth in all organs
(c) to regulate sugar and salt level in the body
(d) to initiate metabolism in the body
26.Look at the figure given below and identify the structure labelled incorrectly

(a) A Neuromuscular junction

(b) B Axon

(c) C Muscle fibre

(d) D Dendrite

27.Which is the correct sequence of the components of a reflex arc?

(a) Receptors → Muscles → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Spinal cord
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(b) Receptors → Motor neuron → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Muscle
(c) Receptors → Spinal cord → Sensory neuron → Motor neuron → Muscle
(d) Receptors → Sensory neuron → Spinal cord → Motor neuron → Muscle
28.The secretion of which hormone leads to physical changes in the body when you are 10-12 years of age?
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovar.
(b) Estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland.
(c) Testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary.
(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland.
28.In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from
(a) Dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron
(b) Axon to cell body of the same neuron
(c) Cell body to axonal end of the same neuron
(d) Axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron
29.Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Sudden action in response to something in the environment is called reflex action
(ii) Sensory neurons carry signals from spinal cord to muscles
(iii) Motor neurons carry signals from receptors to spinal cord
(iv) The path through which signals are transmitted from a receptor to a muscle or a gland is called reflex arc
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (i) , (ii) and (iii)
30.Which of the following statements are true about the brain?
(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain

(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight etc are located in fore brain.
(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the hind brain
(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
31.The main function of abscisic acid in plants is to
(a) Increase the length of cells
(b) Promote cell division
(c) Inhibit growth
(d) Promote growth of stem
32.Which of the following is not associated with growth of plant?
(a) Auxin
(b) Gibberellins
(c) Cytokinins
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(d) Abscisic acid
33.Which of the following statements about transmission of nerve impulse is incorrect?
(a) Nerve impulse travels from dendritic end towards axonal end
(b) At the dendritic end electrical impulses bring about the release of some chemicals which generate an electrical
impulse at the axonal end of another neuron
(c) The chemicals released from the axonal end of one neuron cross the synapse and generate a similar electrical
impulse in a dendrite of another neuron
(d) A neuron transmits electrical impulses not only to another neuron but also to muscle and gland cells
34.Choose the incorrect statement about insulin
(a) It is produced from pancreas
(b) It regulates growth and development of the body
(c) It regulates blood sugar level
(d) Insufficient secretion of insulin will cause diabetes
35.Select the mismatched pair
(a) Adrenaline: Pituitary gland
(b) Testosterone: Testes
(c) Estrogen: Ovary
(d) Thyroxin: Thyroid gland
36.The shape of guard cells changes due to change in the
(a) Protein composition of cells
(b) Temperature of cells
(c) Amount of water in cells
(d) Position of nucleus in the cells
37.The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to

(a) Effect of light

(b) Effect of gravity
(c) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away from the support
(d) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells in contact with the support
38.Involuntary actions in the body are controlled by
(a) Medulla in fore brain
(b) Medulla in mid brain
(c) Medulla in hind brain
(d) Medulla in spinal cord
39.When a person is suffering from severe cold, he or she cannot
(a) Differentiate the taste of an apple from that of an ice cream
(b) Differentiate the smell of a perfume from that of an agarbatti
(c) Differentiate red light from green light
(d) Differentiate a hot object from a cold object
40.What is the correct direction of flow of electrical impulses?

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41.Which statement is not true about thyroxin?
(a) Iron is essential for the synthesis of thyroxin
(b) It regulates carbohydrates, protein and fat metabolism in the body
(c) Thyroid gland requires iodine to synthesise thyroxin
(d) Thyroxin is also called thyroid hormone
42.Dwarfism results due to
(a) Excess secretion of thyroxin
(b) Less secretion of growth hormone
(c) Less secretion of adrenaline
(d) Excess secretion of growth hormone
43.Dramatic changes of body features associated with puberty are mainly because of secretion of
(a) Oestrogen from testes and testosterone from ovary
(b) Estrogen from adrenal gland and testosterone from pituitary gland

(c) Testosterone from testes and estrogen from ovary

(d) Testosterone from thyroid gland and estrogen from pituitary gland
45.A doctor advised a person to take an injection of insulin because
(a) His blood pressure was low
(b) His heart was beating slowly
(c) He was suffering from goiter
(d) His sugar level in blood was high
46. Walking in a straight line and riding a bicycle are the activities which are possible due to a part of the brain.
Choose the correct location and name of this part from the given table:

Part of the Brain Name

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 (a) Fore-brain Cerebrum

(b) Mid-brain Hypothalamus

(c) Hind-brain Cerebellum

(d) Hind-brain Medulla

47. Sensory nerve of a reflex arc carries information from the receptor cells to the:
(a) spinal cord
(b) brain
(c) muscles of the effector organ
(d) bones of the receptor organ
48.When we touch the leaves of “touch-me-not” plant, they began to fold up and droop. How does the plant
communicate the information of touch?
(a)The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from external environment to cells.
(b) The plant uses electrical- chemical signals to transfer information from cell to cell.
(c) The plant uses electrical- chemical signals to transfer information from tissue to specialized cells.
(d) The plant uses electrical signals to transfer information from cell to specialized tissues.
These consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
49.Assertion (A) : Pancreas produces a hormone called insulin.
Reason (R) : Insulin increases the blood sugar level in the human body.
50.Assertion (A) : Cytokinins are present, in greater concentration in areas of rapid cell division such as fruits and
seeds.
Reason (R) : Cytokinins promote cell division.

51.Assertion (A) :In animals ,the brain is the main controlling centre for responding to changes in their
environment.
Reason (R) :The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough in animals .
52.ssertion (A) :The timing and amount of hormone released is regulated by feedback mechanisms.
Reason (R) :Over secretion and under-secretion of hormones is harmful for the body.
53.Assertion (A) :Blinking of eyes when a foreign particle gets in them is a reflex action .
Reason (R) :It is a spontaneous and involuntary response to a stimulus .
54.Assertion (A): Reflex arcs have evolved in animals.
Reason (R): The thinking process of the brain is not fast enough
55.Assertion (A): Auxin helps the cells of stem grow longer.
Reason (R): Auxin is a growth inhibitor

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CH-7 How do Organisms Reproduce?

1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in

(a) Vegetative reproduction (b) Asexual reproduction (c) Sexual reproduction (d) Budding
2. In a flower, the parts that produce male and female gametes (germ cells) are
(a) Stamen and anther
(b) Filament and stigma
(c) Anther and ovary
(d) Stamen and style
3. Which of the following is the correct sequence of events of sexual reproduction in a flower?
(a) Pollination, fertilization, seedling, embryo
(b) Seedling, embryo, fertilization, pollination
(c) Pollination, fertilization, embryo, seedling
(d) Embryo, seedling, pollination, fertilization
4. Offspring formed by asexual method of reproduction have greater similarity among themselves because
(i) Asexual reproduction involves only one parent
(ii) Asexual reproduction does not involve gametes
(iii) Asexual reproduction occurs before sexual reproduction
(iv) Asexual reproduction occurs after sexual reproduction
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)
5. Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in
(a) Cytoplasm (b) Ribosome (c) Golgi bodies (d) Genes
6.Study the diagram given below of male - reproductive system and select the row containing incorrect information

Name of part Function

a P is vas deferens Transport sperms
b Q is seminal vesicle Provide fluid medium to sperms
c R is Ureter Passage for sperms
d S is testis Formation of sperms
7.Study the given figure and identify the row containing incorrect information

Name of part Function

A A is Cotyledon It is the future plant
b B is Plumule It is the future shoot
c C is Seed coat it is the outer covering of the ovule
d D is Radicle It is the future root

8.Study the figure showing parts of a flower and identify the correct statements
(I) Part labelled 1 is the pollen grain and contains the male germ cell.
(II) Part labelled 3 is the stigma on which the pollen grains land.
(III) The male germ cell travels through the pollen tube (part labelled 2) after fertilization.
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(IV) Part labelled 4 is the ovary which contains the female germ cells
(a) Both (I) and (III) (b) Both (II) and (IV) (c) Both (I) and (III) (d) Both (I) and (IV)
9.A student observes the process of regeneration in PlanariaThe student claimed that the newly formed Planarians
have identical genome. Which statement support the claim?
(a) It is a single celled organism.
(b) All Planarians share the same genome.
(c) Division in Planaria involves a single parent.
(d) Planaria divides only under unfavorable condition.
10.The image shows a surgical method in females to prevent pregnancy
Which event will be likely prevented from this method?
(a) Maturation of eggs
(b) Production of eggs
(c) Entry of eggs into the uterus
(d) Entry of sperm into the uterus

Q11. The number of chromosomes in parents and offspring’s of a particular species remains constant due to
(a) Doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation
(b) Halving of chromosomes during gamete formation
(c) Doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation
(d) Halving of chromosomes after gamete formation
Q12. In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing sporangia at their tips are called
(a) Filaments (b) Hyphae (c) Rhizoids (d) Roots
Q13. Which among the following is not the function of testes at puberty?
(i) Formation of germ cells
(ii) Secretion of testosterone
(iii) Development of placenta
(iv) Secretion of estrogen
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv)

14.Why should an individual organism waste energy on a process like reproduction which it does not need to stay
alive?
(a) To release excess energy stored by it
(b) To have genetic improvement
(c) To extend its own kind
(d) To provide variation
15.Choose the correct statement(s) on budding In yeast from the following:
(I) A parent cell divides into two or more daughter cells and here the parent Identity is lost.
(II) In this, the elongated nucleus divides to form two or more daughter nuclel. (III) A bud arises from a particular
region on a parent body.
(IV) After detaching from the parent body, the bud grows into a new independent Individual
(a) (I) only
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(b) (III) only
(c) (II) and (III) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
16.The image shows the process of division in plasmodium

What can be concluded about the division in Plasmodium?

(a) The cyst divides repeatedly to form many daughter cells. X
(b) The cell divides multiple times giving rise to many daughter cells.
(c) The nucleus divides repeatedly inside the cell to form new daughter cells.
(d) Thy cyst enlarges in size and then bursts producing many new daughter cells”
17.The diagram shown below depicts pollination. Choose the options that will show a maximum variation in the
offspring.

(a) A, B and C
(b) B and D
(c) B, C and D
(d) A and C
18.The table lists some changes that occur inside the female body after fertilization of egg with sperm
A. Rhythmic contractions of uterus muscle for child birth.
B. Formation of placenta.

C. Implantation of embryo.
D. Development of organs in foetus.
E. Cell division of zygote.
Which option correctly sequences these events?
(a) C→B→E→A→D
(b) E→C→D→B→A
(c) E→C→B→D→A
(d) C→E→A→B→D
19.What is the life span of an unfertilized egg in human females is:
(a) One week
(b) One month
(c) One day
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(d) 2-8 days
20.Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(I) Flowers are always bisexual
(II) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(III) They are produced in all group of plants
(IV) After fertilization, they give rise to fruits
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (II) and (IV)
21.The table shows the changes that occur in girls during puberty
A. Increase in the size of the breasts
B. Beginning of menstruation
C. Darkening of skin around the nipples
What is the likely significance of these change?
(a) aging of the body
(b) sexual maturation
(c) production of germ cells
(d) abnormal division of the cells
22.The Image shows the process of binary fission in Amoeba.

Which option correctly predicts about the daughter cells?

(a) Parent cell will lead to the formation of four daughter cells of equal sizes.

(b) Parent cell will lead to the formation of two daughter cells of equal sizes.
(c) Parent cell will lead to the formation of four daughter cells of different sizes.
(d)Parent cell will lead to the formation of two daughter cells of different sizes.
23.The table below lists the organs/parts of human reproductive system and their functions. Identify the row
containing incorrect information.

Part/Organ of Reproductive system Function

a Prostrate gland and seminal vesicles Production of fluid to provide a medium for
sperms.
b Testis Secretes the hormone that regulates formation of
sperms
c Uterus Provides nutrition from mother's blood to embryo
d Fallopian tube Carries egg from ovaries to the womb
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24.The image shows the production of a new sugarcane from an existing sugarcane plant. The method is called
vegetative propagation.

Which option supports the name of this process?

(a) It is a sexual method of producing new plants.
(b) It is an asexual method of producing new plants
(c) It does not require a parent plant for reproduction.
(d) It involves fusion of two parts of a single parent for reproduction
25.Semen which contain millions of sperms also contains secretions of seminal vesicle and prostrate gland (accessory
glands). It makes the transport of sperms easier and provide nutrition to sperms
Correct sequence of organs in the male reproductive system for transport of sperms is:
(a) Testis → vas deferens → urethra
(b)Testis → ureter → urethra
(c) Testis → urethra → ureter
(d) Testis → vas deferens → ureter
26.The image shows the division in Spirogyra

What can be concluded about the Spirogyra from this division?

(a) It is a multicellular organism that gives rise to two new equal sized individuals.
(b) It is a unicellular organism that gives rise to two new equal sized individuals.
(c) It is a unicellular organism that breaks into pieces which then grows into new individuals.
(d) It is a multicellular organism that breaks into pieces which then grows into new individuals.
27.The diagram shows the female reproductive system
Which row depicts the correct sites of egg fertilisation and zygote implantation in normal conditions?

Egg Fertilisation Zygote Implantation

a P S
b Q R
c S Q

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 d R Q
28.Factors responsible for the rapid spread of bread mould on slices of bread are
(i) Large number of spores
(ii) Availability of moisture and nutrients in bread
(iii) Presence of tubular branched hyphae
(iv) Formation of round shaped sporangia
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and iv)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
29.Length of pollen tube depends on the distance between
(a) Pollen grain and upper surface of stigma
(b) Pollen grain on upper surface of stigma and ovule
(c) Pollen grain in anther and upper surface of stigma
(d) Upper surface of stigma and lower part of style
30.Which of the following statements are true for flowers?
(i) Flowers are always bisexual
(ii) They are the sexual reproductive organs
(iii) They are produced in all groups of plants
(iv) After fertilization they give rise to fruits
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (ii) and (iv)
31.Which among the following statements are true for sexual reproduction in flowering plants?
(i) It requires two types of gametes
(ii) Fertilization is a compulsory event
(iii) It always results in formation of zygote
(iv) Offspring formed are clones
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (i), (ii) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iv)

32.Offspring formed as a result of sexual reproduction exhibit more variations because

(a) Sexual reproduction is a lengthy process
(b) Genetic material comes from two parents of the same species
(c) Genetic material comes from two parents of different species
(d) Genetic material comes from many parents
33.During adolescence, several changes occur in the human body. Mark one change associated with sexual
maturation in boys
(a) Loss of milk teeth
(b) Increase in height
(c) Cracking of voice
(d) Weight gain
34.In human females, an event that reflects onset of reproductive phase is
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(a) Growth of body
(b) Changes in hair pattern
(c) Change in voice
(d) Menstruation
35.The image shows the female reproductive system.Which event will be likely affected, if a female's uterus is
implanted with intrauterine device?

(a) release of eggs

(b) entering of sperms
(c) maturation of eggs X
(d) implantation of embryo
36.The image shows the male reproductive system.What will likely happen if testes are located inside the abdominal
cavity?
(a) Delayed puberty
(b) Sperm formation
(c) Increase in body temperature
(d) Change in genetic composition of sperms
37.Select the statements that are incorrect about reproduction in human beings.
(I) When a girl is born, the ovaries already contain thousands of mature eggs.
(II) One egg is produced every month by one of the ovaries.
(III) The egg is carried from the ovary to the womb through oviduct.
(IV) The two oviducts unite into an elastic bag-like structure known as the cervix.
Options:
(a) Both (1) and (III) (b) Both (1) and (IV) (c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Both (II) and (IV)

38.Some methods of birth control are listed

(I) Abstinence (II) Condom (III) Inter-Ulerine Device (IV) Oral pill
Which methods limit the spread of sexually transmitted diseases?
(a) (1) and (II) only
(b) (II) and (III) only
(c) (II) and (IV) only
(d) (III) and (IV) only
39.What is the relationship between DNA, a gene, and a chromosome?
(a) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of DNA.
(b) A chromosome contains hundreds of genes, which are composed of protein.
(c) A gene contains hundreds of chromosomes, which are composed of protein
(d) A gene is composed of DNA, but there is no relationship to a chromosome
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40.The Image shows the structure of a flower
Which process will likely be disturbed or not occur, if labelled part is removed from the flower?
(a) Formation of seed
(b) Transport of pollen
(c) Formation of fruit
(d) Development of pollen tube
42.The image shows the process of vegetative propagation in a plant

The shoot of the parent plant is pushed below the soil that results in growth of a new plant
(a) This results in plant of different flowers
(b) This helps grow plants without adding extra manure.
(c) This eliminates the need of producing plant using seeds
(d) This allows growth of plants with new genetic composition
43.Identify the correct statement:
(a) The development of child inside mother's body takes approximately nine months
(b) The ovary releases two eggs per month
(c) The placenta contains villi on mother's side of the tissue
(d) The fertilized egg is called embryo and it divides to form zygote
44.Characters that are transmitted from parents to offspring during reproduction show
(a) Only similarities with parents
(b) Only variations with parents
(c) Both similarities and variations with parents
(d) Neither similarities nor variations
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
45.Assertion (A):Pollen grains are produced by all flowers
Reason (R): Stamen is the male reproductive part of a flower and produces pollen grains.
46.Assertion (A):Testes in human males are located outside the abdominal cavity in scrotum
Reason (R): Testes secrete the male sex hormone, testosterone
47.Assertion (A):The human embryo gets implanted in the fallopian tube.
Reason (R): Embryo gets nutrition from the mother's blood with the help of special tissue called the Placenta.
48.Assertion (A): A basic event in reproduction is the creation of a DNA copy
Reason (R): The DNA in the cell nucleus is the information source for making proteins.

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49.Assertion (A): Variation is useful for the survival of species over time.
Reason (R): Populations of organisms fill well-defined places in the ecosystem, using their ability to reproduce.
50.Assertion (A): Budding, fragmentation and regeneration are considered as asexual types of reproduction.
Reason (R): These involve only single parent for reproduction..
51.Assertion (A): Vegetative propagation makes possible propagation of plants that have lost the capacity to produce
seeds.
Reason (R): New plants are developed from seeds in vegetative propagation.
52.Assertion (A): The lining of uterus thickens and prepares itself every month to receive a fertilised egg
Reason (R): The unfertilized egg implants its self to uterus wall for nutrition.
53.Assertion (A): Conventionally, the motile germ cell is male gamete.
Reason (R): The germ cell has stored food, is female gamete.
54.Assertion (A): The human population size is a causes for concern.
Reason (R): An expanding population makes it easier to improve living conditions.
55.Assertion (A): Offsprings produced by sexual reproduction show variation.
Reason (R): Each offspring produced by sexual reproduction inherits all the genes from each parent
Ch-8 Heredity
1. Exchange of genetic material takes place in
(a) vegetative reproduction
(b) asexual reproduction
(c) sexual reproduction
(d) budding
2. Two pink coloured flowers on crossing resulted in 1 red, 2 pink and 1 white flower progeny. The nature of the
cross will be
(a) double fertilisation
(b) self pollination
(c) cross fertilization
(d) no fertilisation
3. A cross between a tall plant (TT) and short pea plant (tt) resulted in progeny that were all tall plants because

(a) tallness is the dominant trait

(b) shortness is the dominant trait
(c) tallness is the recessive trait
(d) height of pea plant is not governed by gene ‘T’ or ‘t’
4. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) For every hormone there is a gene.
(b) For every protein there is a gene.
(c) For production of every enzyme there is a gene.
(d) For every molecule of fat there is a gene.
5.If a round, green seeded pea plant (RR yy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant, (rr YY) the seeds
produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and yellow
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(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow
6.In human males all the chromosomes are paired perfectly except one. This/these unpaired chromosome is/are
(i) large chromosome
(ii) small chromosome
(iii) Y-chromosome
(iv) X-chromosome
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) only (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)
7. The maleness of a child is determined by
(a) the X chromosome in the zygote
(b) the Y chromosome in zygote
(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
(d) sex is determined by chance
8. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) boy
(b) girl
(c) X- chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d) either boy or girl
9.Two pea plants one with round green seeds (RRyy) and another with wrinkled yellow (rrYY) seeds produce F1
progeny that have round, yellow (RrYy) seeds. When F1 plants are selfed, the F2 progeny will have new
combination of characters. Choose the new combination from the following
(i) Round, yellow
(ii) Round, green
(iii) Wrinkled, yellow
(iv) Wrinkled, green
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (iii)
10. A trait in an organism is influenced by
(a) paternal DNA only
(b) maternal DNA only
(c) both maternal and paternal DNA
(d) neither by paternal nor by maternal DNA
11.The two versions of a trait (character) which are brought in by the male and female gametes are situated on
(a) copies of the same chromosome
(b) two different chromosomes
(c) sex chromosomes
(d) any chromosome
12.In peas, a pure tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). The ratio of pure tall plants to short plants in F2
is
(a) 1 : 3

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(b) 3 : 1
(c) 1 : 1
(d) 2 : 1
13.The number of pair (s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is
(a) one
(b) two
(c) three
(d) four
14.The inheritance of colour trait in flower is shown below:

R and r denote two different genes for color. Which law of Mendel can be explained using the image?
(a) Only law of segregation
(b) Only Law of independent assortment
(c) Law of segregation and Law of dominance
(d) Law of segregation and Law of independent assortment
15. The image shows the traits present across generations of a family

Based on the image, what can be inferred about the eye color trait?
(a) Acquired trait because both male and females have it.
(b) Acquired trait because it is expressed in all the generations.
(c) Inherited trait because it is expressed in two different colors.
(d) Inherited trait because it depends on the traits of preceding generation.
16.Which one is a possible progeny in F2 generation of pure bred tall plant with round seeds and dwarf plant with
wrinkled seeds?
(a) Tall plant with round seeds
(b) Tall plant with wrinkled seeds
(c) Dwarf plant with round seeds
(d) All of the above
17. If a round, green-seeded pea plant (RRyy) is crossed with wrinkled, yellow seeded pea plant (rrYY), the seeds
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produced in F₁ generation are:
(a) round and yellow
(b) round and green
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow.
18. A zygote which has an ✗ chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a:
(a)boy
(b)girl
(c)X chromosome does not determine the sex of a child
(d)either boy or girl
19. Dominant and recessive allele for position of flowers in pea plant is respectively:
(a) axillary and terminal
(b) terminal and axillary
(c) on branches and on stem
(d) cluster and solitary.
20. Which of the following statements is not true with respect to variation?
(a) All variations in a species have equal chances of survival.
(b) Change in genetic composition results in variation.
(c) Selection of variants by environmental factors forms the basis of evolutionary processes.
(d) Variation is minimum in asexual reproduction.
21.If a tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf pea plant then, what percentage of F1 and F₂ generation
respectively will be tall?
(a) 25%, 25%
(b) 50%, 50%
(c) 75%,100%
(d) 100%, 75%
22.A white flowered plant is denoted as pp and a purple flowered plant is denoted as PP. If the two plants are cross
bred with each other, then what will be the likely flower colour of the plants of F₁ generation?
(a) White
(b) Purple
(c) Both white & purple
(d) Light purple
23. What will be the genotypic and phenotypic ratio of the cross between Rr and rr respectively (R is dominant
allele, and r is recessive allele)?
(a) (a) 1:2:1 and 3:1
(b) 1:2:1 and 1:1
(c) 1:1 and 3:1
(d) 1:1 and 1:1
24. Two individuals are as shown using geometric shapes. Their sex chromosomes are respectively denoted by
XfXm, and Y.
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What are the possible combinations of sex chromosomes for their male and female offspring respectively?
(a) XfXm and XmXm
(b) XmY and XmXm
(c) Xf Y and XmY
(d) XmY and XmXf
25. Which of the following cannot be an outcome of Mendel's experiment on crossing a tall pea plant with a short
pea plant?
(a) 3 tall and 1 short plant
(b) 4 tall plants and 1 medium height plant.
(c) 24 tall and 8 short plants
(d) 9 tall and 3 short plants
26. A homozygous dominant guinea pig with black fur is crossed with a homozygous guinea pig with white fur. The
F₁ generation is crossed with itself. What percentage of F2 generation is expected to show white fur coat?
(a) 25%
(b) 50%
(c) 75%
(d) 100%
27.Select the statements that describe the characteristics of genes:
(I) Genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule.
(II) A gene does not code for proteins.
(III) In individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome.
(IV) Each chromosome has only one gene.
(a) (1) and (II)
(b) (I) and (III)

(c) (I) and (IV)

(d) (III) and (IV)
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
28.Assertion (A): A geneticist crossed a pea plant having violet flowers with a pea plant with white flowers, he got
all violet flowers in first generation.
Reason (R): white colour gene is not passed on to next generation.
29.Assertion (A): Offspring produced by sexual reproduction show variation. Reason (R): Each offspring produced

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by sexual reproduction inherits all the genes from each parent.
30. Assertion (A): The sex of a child in human beings will be determined by the type of chromosome he/ she
inherits from the father
Reason (R): A child who inherits 'X' chromosome from his father would be a girl (XX), while a child who inherits a
'Y' chromosome from the father would be a boy (XY).
31. Assertion (A): Mendel chose a pea plant for his experiments.
Reason (R): Pea is easy to grow and had distinctly easily detectable contrasting variants of features.
32. Assertion (A): Height in pea plants is controlled by efficiency of enzymes and is thus genetically controlled.
Reason (R): Cellular DNA is the information source for making proteins in the cell.
33.Assertion (A): Recessive trait can only be expressed in homozygous condition
Reason (R): Dominant trait cannot be expressed in heterozygous condition.
CH-9 Light – Reflection and Refraction
1.The laws of reflection hold good for
(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape
2.For the diagram shown, according to the new Cartesian sign convention the magnification of the image formed
will have the following specifications:

(a) Sign-Positive, Value - Less than 1

(b) Sign-Positive, Value - More than 1
(c) Sign-Negative, Value - Less than 1
(d) Sign - Negative, Value - More than1
3.Which image represents the path of incident and reflected ray from a convex mirror when an object is placed at
infinity?

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

4.A spherical mirror and a thin spherical lens have each a focal length of –15 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely

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to be
(a) both concave.
(b) both convex.
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex.
(d) the mirror is convex, but the lens is concave.
5.An object is placed in front of a convex mirror at infinity. According to the New Cartesian Sign Convention, the
sign of the focal length and the sign of the image distance in this case are respectively :
(a) + , -
(b) -, +
(c) -,-
(d) + , +

6.Which of the following can make a parallel beam of light when light from a point source is incident on it?
(a) Concave mirror as well as convex lens (b) Convex mirror as well as concave lens
(c) Two plane mirrors placed at 90° to each other (d) Concave mirror as well as concave lens
7.Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D
respectively as shown in the Figure.Which of the following could be inside the box?
(a) A rectangular glass slab
(b) A convex lens
(c) A concave lens
(d) A prism
8.No matter how far you stand from a mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror is likely to be
(a) only plane. (b) only concave. (c) only convex. (d) either plane or convex.
9.A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the holes on the other face of the box as
shown in the Figure 10.4. Which of the following could be inside the box?

(a) Concave lens (b) Rectangular glass slab (c) Prism (d) Convex lens

10.Which of the following statements is true?

(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has –4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
11.Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
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(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it
12.In which of the following diagrams has the protractor (D) been correctly placed to measure the angle of incidence
and the angle of emergence?

(a) I, II
(b) I, IV
(c) II, III
(d) II, IV
13.Rays from Sun converge at a point 15 cm in front of a concave mirror. Where should an object be placed so that
size of its image is equal to the size of the object?
(a) 15 cm in front of the mirror
(b) 30 cm in front of the mirror
(c) between 15 cm and 30 cm in front of the mirror
(d) more than 30 cm in front of the mirror
14.The angle of incidence from air to glass at the point O on the hemispherical glass slab is:

(a) 45° (b) 0° (c) 90° (d) 180°

15.The image represents the rays of light travelling through a concave lens.

Where is the image most likely to form?

(a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S

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16.The image shows reflection of light on a mirror. Based on the image, what can be inferred?
(a) The incident ray, reflected ray, and normal at the point of reflection lie on a common plane.
(b) The angle of incidence, angle of reflection, and normal at the point of reflection lie on a common plane.
(c) The angle between incident ray and normal is greater than the angle between normal and the reflected ray.
(d) The angle between incident ray and normal is smaller than the angle between normal and the reflected ray.

17.Which one of the following materials cannot be used to make a lens?

(a) Water (b) Glass (c) Plastic (d) Clay
18.The image formed by a concave mirror is observed to be virtual, erect and larger than the object. Where should
be the position of the object?
(a) Between the principal focus and the centre of curvature
(b) At the centre of curvature
(c) Beyond the centre of curvature
(d) Between the pole of the mirror and its principal focus.
19.A student wants to obtain magnified image of an object AB as on a screen. Which one of the following
arrangements shows the correct position of AB for him/her to be successful?

20.A student used a device (X) to obtain/focus the image of a well illuminated distant building on a screen (S) as
shown below in the diagram. Select the correct statement about the device (X).
(A) This device is a concave lens of focal length 8 cm.
(B) This device is a convex mirror of focal length 8 cm.
(C) This device is a convex lens of focal length 4 cm.
(D) This device is a convex lens of focal length 8 cm.
21.Where should an object be placed in front of a convex lens to get a real image of the size of the object?
(a) At the principal focus of the lens

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(b) At twice the focal length
(c) At infinity
(d) Between the optical centre of the lens and its principal focus.
22.Consider these indices of refraction: glass-1.52, air- 1.0003, water- 1.333. Based on the refractive indices of three
materials, arrange the speed of light through them in decreasing order.
(a) The speed of light in water > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in glass.
(b) The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in air.
(c) The speed of light in air > the speed of light in water > the speed of light in glass.
(d) The speed of light in glass > the speed of light in air > the speed of light in water.
23.A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror

(d) both concave as well as plane mirror

24.In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector
25.The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students are
shown as A, B, C and D in Figure 10.5. Which one of them is correct?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

26.Which of the following lenses would you prefer to use while reading small letters found in a dictionary?
(a) A convex lens of focal length 50 cm.
(b) A concave lens of focal length 50 cm.
(c) A convex lens of focal length 5 cm.
(d) A concave lens of focal length 5 cm.
27.You are given water, mustard oil, glycerine and kerosene. In which of these media a ray of light incident
obliquely at same angle would bend the most? The refractive indices of water=1.33, kerosene1.44, mustard oil 1.46
and glycerine are 1.473
(a) Kerosene
(b) Water
(c) Mustard oil
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(d) Glycerine
28.Which of the following ray diagrams is correct for the ray of light incident on a lens shown in Fig. 10.7?

(a) Fig. A.
(b) Fig. B.
(c) Fig. C.
(d) Fig. D.

29.In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and point sized?
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) Convex lens only
(d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens
30.A small electric lamp is placed at the focus of a convex lens. When the lamp is switched on, the lens will produce:
(a) converging beam of light.
(b) parallel beam of light.
(c) diverging beam of light
(d) diffused beam of light
31.In the diagram shown n1, n₂ and nз are refractive indices of the media 1, 2, and 3 respectively

Which one of the following is true in this case?

(a) n1=n2 (b) n1>n2 (c) n2>n3 (d) n3>n1
32.In the given diagram light is travelling through different media. It is noted by a scientist that ∠1 = ∠ 3 = ∠ 4 but
∠ 2 < ∠ 1.
Which of the following statement would be correct?
(a) Medium 1 is the denser than medium 3 but it's density is equal to medium 2.
(b) Medium 2 is the rarest medium.
(c) Medium 3 is denser than medium 1.
(d) Medium 1 and 3 are essentially the same medium, but medium 2 is denser than 1 and 3.

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33.You are provided with four convex lenses of focal length 10 cm, 20 cm, 30 cm and 40 cm. Which out of the four
lenses will converge light the most and the least? Select the row containing the correct answer and reason:

Convex Lens that Convex Lens that Reason

will Converge will Converge
Light the Most Light the Least
(a) f=10 cm f=40 cm A convex lens of shorter focal length bends the
light rays through large angles
(b) f=40 cm f=20 cm A convex lens of longer focal length bends the
light rays through larger angles
(c) f=40 cm f=30 cm Converging power is same for all convex lenses

(d) f=10 cm f=20 cm A convex lens of shorter focal length bends the
light rays through smaller angles

34.Select the correct statements from the statements given below regarding refraction of light when light is incident
from a medium A having refractive index 1.85 on a glass slab having refractive index 1.50.
(I) Light will bend towards the normal in the glass slab.
(II) Emergent ray will be parallel to the refracted ray.
(III) Speed of light will be more in glass slab as compared to medium A.
(IV) Angle of refraction will be more than angle of incidence.
(a) Both (1) and (II) (b) Both (II) and (III)
(c) Both (II) and (IV) (d) Both (III) and (IV)
35.If the real image of a candle flame formed by a lens is three times the size of the flame and the distance between
lens and image is 80 cm, at what distance should the candle be placed from the lens?
40 80
(a) -80 cm (b) -40 cm (c) − cm (d) − cm
3 3
36.A small bulb is placed at the focal point of a converging lens. When the bulb is switched on, the lens produces:
(a) a convergent beam of light
(b) a divergent beam of light
(c) a parallel beam of light
(d) a patch of coloured light

37.Which option explains the law of refraction of light through the glass slab?

(a) light always bends towards the normal in a glass slab

(b) ray of light always travels in a straight path irrespective of change in medium
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(c) the incident ray, the refracted ray, and the normal to the interface always lie on the same plane
(d) ray of light travelling in the air is always considered as the incident ray, and the one in the glass is the refracted
ray
38.The lens has a focal length of 10 cm. The object of height 2 mm is placed at a distance of 5 cm from the pole.
Find the height of the image.
(a) 4 cm
(b) 6.67 mm
(c) 4 mm
(d) 3.33 mm
39.A converging lens forms three timesmagnified image of an object, which can be take on a screen. If the focal
length of the lens is 30 cm, then the distance of the object from the lens is:
(a) -55 cm (b) -50 cm (c) -45 cm (d) -40 cm

40.While looking at the diagram

Nalini concluded the following:
(I) The image of the object will be a virtual one.
(II) The reflected ray will travel along the same path as the incident ray but in opposite direction.
(III) The image of the object will be inverted.
(IV) This is a concave mirror and hence the(focal length will be negative. Which one of the above statements are
correct?
(a) (I) and (II) (b) (I) and (III) (c) (II), (III) and (IV) (d) (I), (II), (III) and (IV
41.A student focussed the image of a candle flame on a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down the position
of the candle screen and the lens as under:
Position of candle = 26.0 cm
Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm
Position of the screen = 90.0 cm
Students noted down the values of object distance (u), image distance (v) and also calculated lens used. the focal
length (f) of the convex lens used.
Select the row containing the correct values as per the sign convention:

Object Distance (u)cm Image Distance (v)cm Focal Length (f)cm

(a) -26 cm -50 cm +30 cm

(b) -26 cm -40 cm -15 cm

(c) -24 cm -40 cm +15 cm

(d) -24 cm +40 cm +15 cm

42.An object of height 4 cm is kept at a distance of 30 cm from the pole of a diverging mirror. If the focal length of
the mirror is 10 cm, the height of the image formed is:
(a) +3.0 cm (b) +2.5 cm (c) +1.0 cm (d) +0.75 cm
43.The speed of light in air is 3×108 m s–1, whereas that of the speed of light in water is 2.26×108 m s–1. What is the
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refractive index of water with respect to air?
(a) 1 (b) 0.75 (c) 1.32 (d) 2.64
44.A concave lens has a focal length of 20 cm. What is the power of the lens?
(a) -5 dioptre
(b) -0.05 dioptre
(c) 0.05 dioptre
(d) 5 dioptre
45.The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
(a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in transparent medium
(b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in transparent medium
(c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in transparent medium
(d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium
46.A student determines the focal length of a device ‘X’ by focusing the image of a distant object on a screen placed
20 cm from the device on the same side as the object. The device ‘X’ is
(a) Concave lens of focal length 10 cm
(b) Convex lens of focal length 20 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 10 cm
(d) Concave mirror of focal length 20 cm
47.In an experiment to trace the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab, the correct
measurement of angles of incidence (i), refraction (r) and emergence (e) is shown in diagram

48.Two big mirrors A and B are fitted side by side on a wall. A man is standing at such a distance from the wall that
he can see the erect image of his face in both the mirrors. When the man starts walking towards the mirrors, he
finds that the size of his face in mirror A goes on increasing but that in mirror B remains the same:
(a) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is convex
(b) Mirror A is plane and mirror B is concave
(c) Mirror A is concave and mirror B is plane
(d) Mirror A is convex and mirror B is concave
49.Which diagram shows image formation of an object on a screen by a converging lens?

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50.A student carries out the experiment of tracing the path of a ray of light through a rectangular glass slab for two
different values of angle of incidence ∠i=30° and ∠ i=45° In the two cases the student is likely to observe the set of
values of angle of refraction and angle of emergence as:
(a) ∠r=30°, ∠e=20°, and ∠r=45°, ∠e=28°
(b) ∠r=30°, ∠e=30°, and ∠r=45°, ∠e=45°
(c) ∠r=20°, ∠e=30°, and ∠r=28°, ∠e=45°
(d) ∠r=20°, ∠e=20°, and ∠r=28°, ∠e=28°

51.A student conducts an activity using a flask of height 15 cm and a concave mirror. He finds that the image formed
is 45 cm in height. What is the magnification of the image?
(a) -3 times
(b) -1/ 3 times
(c) 1/ 3 times
(d) 3 times
52.A student wants to obtain an erect image of an object using a concave mirror of 10 cm focal length. What will be
the distance of the object from mirror.
(a) Less than 10 cm
(b) 10 cm
(c) between 10 cm and 20 cm
(d) more than 20 cm
53.To obtain a magnification of +2 with a concave mirror of radius of curvature 60 cm the object distance must be
(a) -90 cm (b) -45 cm (c) -30 cm (d) -15 cm
54.The pictures show the ray diagrams of images formed by convex mirrors. P is the pole or centre of the reflecting
surface of the mirror. C is the centre of curvature of the mirror. F is the focus of the mirror. AB is the object and A'B'
is the image of the object

Which statements are supported by the two diagrams?

(I) Convex mirrors produce virtual images
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(II) Convex mirrors produce erect images
(III) Convex mirrors have their focus behind the mirror
(a) Only (1) (b) (I) and (II) (c) (II) and (III) (d) (I), (II) and (III)
55.Figure 10.1 shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B
relative to medium A is
(a) √3/√2
(b) √2/√3
(c) 1/√2
(d) √2

56.An optical device has been given to a student and he determines its focal length Yen by focusing the image of the
sun on a screen placed 24 cm from the device on the same side as the sun. Select the correct statement about the
device.
(a) Convex mirror of focal length 12 cm
(b) Convex lens of focal length 24 cm
(c) Concave mirror of focal length 24 cm
(d) Convex lens of focal length 12 cm
57.Solar cookers contain a concave mirror. How does the concave mirror help in heating the food?
How does the concave mirror heat the food?
(I) Sun's rays are absorbed by the mirror.
(II) Sun's rays reflected by the mirror converge at a point.
(III) Sun's rays diverge out when reflected by the mirror.
(a) Only (I)
(b) Only (II)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (I) and (II)
58.A student studies that speed of light in air is 300000 kms/ sec where that of speed in a glass stab is about 197000
kms/ sec. What causes the difference in speed of light in these two media?
(a) difference in density
(b) difference in temperature
(c) difference in amount of light
(d) difference in direction of wind flow
59.Study the following four experimental setups by four students A, B, C and D showing the incident ray to trace
the path of a ray of light through a glass slab. Which one of these will get the best result?

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(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D

60.The focal length of the concave mirror in the following experimental set up is

(a) 12.4 cm (b) 6.2 cm (c) 6.0 cm (d) 6.6 cm

61.A ray of light starting from air passes through medium A of refractive index 1.50, enters medium B of refractive
index 1.33 and finally enters medium C of refractive index 2.42. If this ray emerges out in air from C, then for which
of the following pairs of media the bending of light is least

(a) air-A (b) A-B (c) B-C (d) C-air

62.What is the focal length of a glass slab?
(a) 0 (b) Infinity (c) 1 (d) Vary from 0 to 1
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
63.Assertion (A): The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror image as
AMBULANCE in inverted form.
Reason (R): The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the object
64.Assertion (A): Light travels faster in glass than in air.
Reason (R): Glass is denser than air.
65.Assertion (A): A convex lens has a real focus
Reason (R): All light rays pass through the focus of a convex lens after refraction.
66.Assertion (A): A ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror is reflected back along
the same path
Reason (R): The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence lie on the same plane
67.Assertion (A): Power of a concave lens is negative
Reason (R): A concave lens has a virtual focus.
68.Assertion (A): Refractive index has no units.
Reason (R): The refractive index is ratio of two similar quantities.
69.Assertion (A) : A convex mirror is used as a rear view driver’s mirror.
Reasoning (R) : Convex mirrors have a wider field of view as they are curved outwards. They also give an erect,
although diminished image.
70.Assertion : An object is placed at a distance of f from a convex mirror of focal length f, its image will form at
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infinity.
Reason : The distance of image in convex mirror can never be infinity.

CH-10 The Human Eye and the Colourful World

1.When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the
(a) crystalline lens
(b) outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil

2.The human eye forms the image of an object at its

(a) cornea.
(b) iris.
(c) pupil.
(d) retina.
3. The least distance of distinct vision for a young adult with normal vision is about
(a) 25 m.
(b) 2.5 cm.
(c) 25 cm.
(d) 2.5 m.
4.What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect
5.The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at varying distances on the
retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye
6.The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens becomes thinner
7.Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly
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8.A person is seeing an object closer to his eyes. What changes in his eyes will take place?
(a) The pupil size will expand
(b) The ciliary muscles will contract
(c) The focal length of eye lens will increase
(d) The light entering in the eye will be more
9.A person gets out in the sunlight from a dark room. How does his pupil regulate and controls the light entering in
the eye?
(a) The size of pupil will decrease, and less light will enter the eye
(b) The size of pupil will decrease, and more light will enter the eye
(c) The size of pupil will remain same, but more light will enter the eye
(d) The size of pupil will remain same, but less light will enter the eye
10.A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) +0.5 D (b) -0.5 D (c) +0.2 D (d) -0.2 D
11.A student is observing the diagram showing the path of a ray of light passing through a glass prism. He would
find that for all angles of incidence the ray of light bends:
(а) towards the normal while entering into the prism and away from the normal while emerging out of the prism
(b) away from the normal while entering into the prism and towards the normal while emerging out of the prism.
(c) away from the normal while entering as well as while emerging out of the prism.
(d) towards the normal while entering as well as while emerging out of the prism.
12.After tracing the path of a ray of light through a glass prism a student marked the angle of incidence (∠i), angle
of refraction (∠r), angle of emergence (∠e) and the angle of deviation (∠D) as shown in the diagram. The correctly
marked angles are:

(a) ∠i and ∠r
(b) ∠i and ∠e
(c) ∠i, ∠e and ∠D
(d) ∠i, ∠r and ∠e
13.A student traces the path of a ray through a glass prism for four different values of angle of incidence. On
analyzing the diagrams he is likely to conclude that the emergent ray
(a) is always parallel to the incident ray.
(b) is always perpendicular to the incident ray.
(c) is always parallel to the refracted ray.
(d) always bends at an angle to the direction of incident ray.
14. A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on
the prism as shown in Figure 11.1. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top
corresponds to the colour of the sky?
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(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
15.Which of the following phenomena of light are involved in the formation of a rainbow?
(a) Reflection, refraction and dispersion
(b) Refraction, dispersion and total internal reflection
(c) Refraction, dispersion and internal reflection
(d) Dispersion, scattering and total internal reflection
16.Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds
17. The clear sky appears blue because
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere
18. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the propagation of light of different colours of white light
in air?
(a) Red light moves fastest
(b) Blue light moves faster than green light
(c) All the colours of the white light move with the same speed
(d) Yellow light moves with the mean speed as that of the red and the violet light
19. In the following diagram showing dispersion of white light by a glass prism, the colours 'P' and 'Q' respectively
are-

(a) Red and Violet (b) Violet and Red (c) Red and Blue (d) Orange and Green
20.The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance
because among all other colours, the red light
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(c) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(d) moves fastest in air
21.The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
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(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea
22.Which of the following statement is correct?
(a) A person with myopia can see distant objects clearly
(b) A person with hypermetropia can see nearby objects clearly
(c) A person with myopia can see nearby objects clearly
(d) A person with hypermetropia cannot see distant objects clearly

23.The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred
vision is called
(a) Myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) Presbyopia
(d) cataract
24.The sky appears dark to passengers flying at very high altitudes mainly because
(a) Scattering of light is not enough at such heights.
(b) There is no atmosphere at great heights.
(c) The size of molecules is smaller than the wavelength of visible light.
(d) The light gets scattered towards the earth
25.The change in the focal length of an eye lens in human beings is caused by the action of
(a) optic nerves
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) retina
(d) cornea
26.A student traces the path of a ray of light through a glass prism for different angles of incidence. He analyses each
diagram and draws the following conclusion:
(I) On entering prism, the light ray bends towards its base.
(II) Light ray suffers refraction at the point of incidence and point of emergence while passing through the prism.
(III) Emergent ray bends at certain angle to the direction of the incident ray.
(IV)While emerging from the prism, the light ray bends towards the vertex of the prism.
Out of the above inferences, the correct ones are:
(a) (I), (II) and (III) (b) (1), (III) and (IV)
(c) (II), (III) and (IV) (d) (1) and (IV)
27.If a beam of red light and a beam of violet light are incident at the same angle on the inclined surface of a prism
from air medium and produce angles of refraction rand v respectively, which of the following is correct?
1
(a) r = v (b) r> v (c) r =𝑣 (d) r< v
28.Which of the following statements is not true for scattering of light?
(a) Colour of the scattered light depends on the size of particles of the atmosphere.
(b) Red light is least scattered in the atmosphere.

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(c) Scattering of light takes place as various colours of white light travel with different speed in air.
(d) The fine particles in the atmospheric air scatter the blue light more strongly than red. So the scattered blue light
enters our eyes.
29.A person cannot see distinctly the objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power:
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

30.A student sitting on the last bench can read the letters written on the blackboard but is not able to read the
letters written in his text book. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) The near point of his eyes has receded away.
(b) The near point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(c) The far point of his eyes has come closer to him.
(d) The far point of his eyes has receded away.
31.A ray of light passes through a glass prism.

When do the light rays get refracted?

(I) As the light ray enters the prism from the air.
(II) As the light rays travel inside the prism.
(III) As the light rays move from the prism into the air.
(a) Only (I) (b) Only (II) (c) (II) and (III) (d) (I) and (III)
32.A ray of light is incident on the face of the prism as shown.

(b)

(c) (d)
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33.Which natural phenomenon is being shown here?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Rainbow formation
(c) Reddish appearance of the sun early in the morning
(d) blue colour of sky
34.Parth noticed that his father had two sets of spectacles. So he asked him the reason for the same. His father
explained that one spectacle is for viewing distant objects while the other is for reading books. It means that his
father had both the defects of vision- far- sightedness as well as near sightedness.
The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina is:
(a) near-sightedness
(b) cataract
(c) far-sightedness
(d) presbyopia
35.Which eye is likely to be in the brightest light?

36.The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and far point 75 cm. The table below lists the type of
corrective lens and its power required for reading purpose and for seeing distant objects. Select the row containing
the correct information:

For Reading Purpose For seeing Distance Objects

(a) Concave lens of power -0.5 D Convex lens of power +0.75 D

(b) Convex lens of power +0.5 D Concave lens of power -0.75 D

(c) Convex lens of power +0.5 D Concave lens of power -1.33 D

(d) Convex lens of power +2.0 D Concave lens of power-1.33 D

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37.A beam of white light falling on a glass prism gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7 as shown in the
diagram ?
Select the incorrect statements regarding the colours
marked from 1 to 7:
(I) The colour at position marked 7 and 5 are similar
to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal respectively.
(II) The colour at position marked 1 and 3 are similar to the colour of the blood and colour of gold metal
respectively.
(iii) The colour at position marked 3 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants
respectively.
(iv) The colour at position marked 5 and 4 are similar to the colour of the sky and colour of leaves in plants
respectively.
Options:(a) Both (I) and (II) (b) Both (1) and (III) (c) Both (II) and (III) (b) Both (II) and (IV)
38.A person standing at point Y is watching a car coming from a point X to O as shown.

The variation in the parts of eye while seeing the car at X and O.
(I) at X the focal length is higher than at O
(II) at O the focal length is higher than at X
(III) at X the cilliary muscle is thicker than at O
(IV) at O the cilliary muscle is thicker than at X
Which changes in the person's eye would likely to occur while watching the car?
(a) (I) and (III) (b) (I) and (IV) (c) (II) and (III) (d) (II) and (IV)
39.Given below are some common observations related to optics. Select the row containing incorrect observations
and its reason:

Observation Reason

(a) Colour of water in deep sea Scattering of light

(b) Apparent position of stars Atmospheric refraction

(c) Fishes appear higher than their actual Diffraction of light

depth

(d) Spectrum seen on soap bubbles Dispersion of light

40.A student learns that the scattering of sunlight depends on the wavelength of light and size of particles present in
the atmosphere. The student collects the data about the wavelength of the visible lights and size of the particle as
shown.Which particles scatter light of shorter wavelength?
(a) P and R
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(b) R and S
(c) P and Q
(d) Q and S

Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
41.Assertion (A):When objects are observed through hot air, they appear to be moving slightly.
Reason (R): Hotter air is optically denser and the cooler air is optically rarer.
42.Assertion (A):Sky appears blue in colour.
Reason (R): Blue colour in sunlight travelling through atmosphere undergoes maximum scattering.
43.Assertion (A):Sky appears blue in the day time.
Reason (R): White light is composed of seven colours
44.Assertion (A): The sky appear dark instead of blue to an astronaut.
Reason (R): There is no atmosphere containing air in space to scatter sunlight
45.Assertion (A): A Hypermetropic eye is corrected by using a convex lens of suitable focal length.
Reason (R): It is caused by shortening of the eyeball size.
46.Assertion (A): The splitting up of white light into seven colours on passing through a transparent medium like a
glass prism is called scattering of light.
Reason (R): The angle of refraction (or angle of bending) of lights of different colours is different when passing
through the glass prism because different colours travel at different speeds.
47.Assertion (A): Rainbow is caused by dispersion of sunlight by tiny water droplets present in the atmosphere.
Reason (R): A rainbow is always formed in the direction opposite to that of the Sun.
48.Assertion (A): The change in focal length of an eye lens is caused by the action of the ciliary muscles.
Reason (R): The power of accommodation of the eye increases with ageing
49.Assertion (A): The scattering of longer wavelengths of light increases as the size of the particles increases.
Reason (R): Large particle scatter lights of all wavelengths equally well.
50.Assertion (A): The twinkling of stars is due to the fact that refractive index of the earth's atmosphere fluctuates.
Reason (R): When light propagates from one medium to another its direction of propagation changes.
51.Assertion (A):A rainbow is always formed in the sky after a rain shower and in the same direction as sun.
Reason (R): Water droplets act like tiny prisms.
CH-11 Electricity
1.What does the symbol mean in an electric circuit?

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(a) Switch (b) Wire joint (c) Electric bulb (d) Variable resistance
2.The values of mA and µA are:
(a) 10-6 and 10-9 A respectively
(b) 10-3 and 10-6 A respectively
(c) 10-3 and 10-9 A respectively
(d) 10-6 and 10-3 A respectively

3.SI unit of electrical resistivity is :

(a) ohm metre (b) ohm per metre (c) ohm / metre2 (d) ohm / metre3
4. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a cross section of
the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly
(a) 1020
(b) 1016
(c) 1018
(d) 1023
6. The proper representation of series combination of cells (Figure 12.4) obtaining maximum potential is

(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
7.Which of the following terms does not represent electrical power in a circuit?
(a) I 2R (b) IR 2 (c) VI (d) V 2/R
8.A cell, a resistor, a key and ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams of Figure12.1. The current
recorded in the ammeter will be

(a) Maximum in (i) (b) Maximum in (ii) (c) Maximum in (iii) (d) The same in all the cases
9.Electrical resistivity of a given metallic wire depends upon
(a) Its length
(b) Its thickness
(c) Its shape

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(d) Nature of the material
10.Which plot shows the change in voltage when the current is gradually decreased across a resistor?

11.Identify the circuit (Figure 12.3) in which the electrical components have been properly connected.

(a) (i)
(b) (ii)
(c) (iii)
(d) (iv)
12.Which of the following represents voltage?
Work done
(a)
𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑋 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
(b) Work done × Charge
Work done x time
(c) 𝐶𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡
(d) Work done × Charge × Time
13.What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω (b) 10 Ω (c) 5 Ω (d) 1 Ω
14.A student plots V-I graphs for three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R₁, R₂ and R,. Choose from the
following the statement that holds true for this graph.

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(a) R₁ = R2 = R3 (b) R₁ > R₂ > R3 (c) R3 > R₂ > R1 (d) R2 > R1 > R1
15.What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 Ω?
(a) 1/5 Ω (b) 1/25 Ω (c) 1/10 Ω (d) 25 Ω
16.Two conducting wires of the same material and of equal lengths and equal diameters are first connected in series
and then parallel in a circuit across the same potential difference. The ratio of heat produced in series and parallel
combinations would be –
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 4:1
17.A cylindrical conductor of length 'l' and uniform area of cross-section 'A' has resistance 'R'. Another conductor of
length 2.5 l and resistance 0.5 R of the same material has area of cross-section
(a) 5A
(b) 2.5 A
(c) 0.5A
1
(d) A
5
18.If four identical resistors, of resistance 8 ohm, are first connected in series so as to give an effective resistance Rs,
𝑅
and then connected in parallel so as to give an effective resistance Rp, then the ratio 𝑅 𝑠 is
𝑃

(a) 32
(b) 2
(c) 0.5
(d) 16
19. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances
R1,R2 and R3 respectively (Figure.12.5). Which of the following is true?
(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R3 > R1

20.For verifying Ohm's law, we design an electric circuit diagram in which we show the arrangement of different
circuit components. We find that with respect to the resistor, the:
(a) ammeter is connected in parallel and the voltmeter in series.
(b) ammeter is connected in series and the voltmeter in parallel.
(c) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in series.
(d) ammeter and voltmeter are both connected in parallel.

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21.If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100% (assume that temperature remains unchanged), the
increase in power dissipated will be
(a) 100 %
(b) 200 %
(c) 300 %
(d) 400 %
22.In the following circuits (Figure 12.2), heat produced in the resistor or combination of resistors connected to a 12
V battery will be

(a) same in all the cases (b) minimum in case (i) (c) maximum in case (ii) (d) maximum in case (iii)

23.Unit of electric power may also be expressed as

(a) Volt ampere
(b) Kilowatt hour
(c) Watt second
(d) Joule second
24.The resistivity does not change if
(a) The material is changed
(b) The temperature is changed
(c) The shape of the resistor is changed
(d) Both material and temperature are changed
25.In an electrical circuit three incandescent bulbs A, B and C of rating 40 W, 60 W and 100 W respectively are
connected in parallel to anelectric source. Which of the following is likely to happen regarding their brightness?
(a) Brightness of all the bulbs will be the same
(b) Brightness of bulb A will be the maximum
(c) Brightness of bulb B will be more than that of A
(d) Brightness of bulb C will be less than that of B
26.Given below are four statements on resistance of a conductor.
(I) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is doubled the voltage also gets doubled.
(II) If in an electric circuit, the resistance is halved the current gets doubled.
(III) Variable resistance is a component used to regulate voltage without changing the current.
(IV) In an electric circuit, a device called rheostat is used to change resistance in the circuit the Select the incorrect
statements:
(a) Both (1) and (II) (b) Both (I) and (III) (c) Both (II) and (IV) (d) (I), (III) and (IV)
27.Select the correct statements from the statements given below:
(I) In a parallel circuit the current is X constant throughout the electric circuit.
(II) In a parallel circuit the other components keep working even if one component fails.
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(III) In a series circuit when one component fails, the circuit is broken and the other components stop working.
(IV) In a series circuit the current is divided among the electrical gadgets depending upon their resistance.
(a) Both (I) and (II) (b) Both (II) and (III) (c) Both (III) and (IV) (d) (I), (III) and (IV)
28.In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The heat
dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be
(a) 5 J (b) 10 J (c) 20 J (d) 30 J
29.An electric kettle consumes 1 kW of electric power when operated at 220 V. A fuse wire of what rating must be
used for it?
(a) 1 A (b) 2 A (c) 4 A (d) 5 A
30.The image shows a combination of 4 resistors. What is the net resistance between the two points in the circuit?
(a) 0.5 Ω
(b) 1.0 Ω
(c) 1.5 Ω
(d) 2.0 Ω
31.A piece of wire of resistance R is cut into five equal parts. These parts are then connected in parallel. If the
equivalent resistance of this combination is R”, then the ratio R/R” is –
(a) 1/25
(b) 1/5
(c) 5
(d) 25
32.An electric bulb is rated 220 V and 100 W. When it is operated on 110 V, the power consumed will be –
(a) 100 W
(b) 75 W
(c) 50 W
(d) 25 W
33.The diagram shows a network of four resistors which is connected to an electric source. Identify the resistors
which are connected in series in this network

(a) B, A and D
(b) B, C and D
(c) A, B and D
(d) A ,B and C
1
34.What is the minimum resistance which can be made using five resistors, each of 5 Ω?

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 1
(a) 5 Ω
1
(b) 25 Ω
1
(c) 10 Ω

(d) 25 Ω
35.The resistance of a resistor is reduced to half of its initial value. In doing so, if other parameters of the circuit
remain unchanged, the heating effects in the resistor will become:
(a) two times
(b) half
(c) one-fourth
(d) four times
36.At the time of short circuit, the electric current in the circuit:
(a) vary continuously (b) does not change (c) Reduces substantially (d) increases heavily
37.Two bulbs of 100 Ω and 40 Ω are connected in series. The current through the 100 bulb is 1 A. The current
through the 40 Ω bulb will be
(a) 0.4 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.8 A
(d) 1 A
38.When a 4 V battery is connected across an unknown resistor there is a current of 100 mA in the circuit. The
value of the resistance of the resistor is:
(a) 4 Ω
(b) 40 Ω
(c) 400 Ω
(d) 0.4 Ω
39.The equivalent resistance of a series combination of two resistances is X Ohm. If the resistances are of 10 Ohm
and 40 Ohm respectively, the value of X will be:
(a) 10 Ohm
(b) 20 Ohm
(c) 50 Ohm
(d) 40 Ohm
40.Which one among a bar of an alloy of mass 2kg and a 3 kg iron bar of same dimension has greater resistivity?
(a) Iron bar because it has higher mass
(b) Alloy bar because it has lower mass
(c) Iron bar because it has same types of atoms
(d) Alloy bar because it has different types of atoms
1
41.The maximum resistance which can be made using four resistors each of resistance Ω
2
(a) 2 Ω (b) 1 Ω (c) 2.5 Ω (d) 8 Ω
42.Though silver is a good conductor, why it is not an ideal choice for transmission of electricity?
(I) It is expensive
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(II) It oxidizes and tarnishes when it comes in contact with air
(III) Its resistivity decreases with increase in temperature
(a) Only (1) (b) Only (II) (c) Both (I) and (II) (d) Only (III)
43.The resistivity of four wires A, B, C and D are of the order of 1012, 10-6, 10-8 and 1014 respectively. If the wires are
of equal lengths and equal areas of cross section, then select the row containing the correct information

Resistance Nature

(a) Resistance of C will be the least Cis the best conductor of electricity

(b) Resistance of A will be the largest A is a good conductor of electricity

(c) Resistance of B will be the largest B is a poor conductor of electricity

(d) Resistance of D will be the least D is the best conductor of electricity

44.Which of these decides the resistance of a wire ?

(I) Length of the wire
(II) Thickness of the wire
(III) Material of the cover on the wire
(a) Only (I)
(b) (1) and (II)
(c) (II) and (III)
(d) (I) and (III)
45.Plastic insulation surrounds a wire having diameter d and length l as shown above. A decrease in the resistance of
the wire would be produced by an increase in the:
(a) length I of the wire
(b) diameter d of the wire
(c) temperature of the wire
(d) thickness of the plastic insulation
46.In domestic electric circuits the wiring with 15 A current rating is for the electric devices which have
(a) higher power ratings such as geyser.
(b) lower power ratings such as fan.
(c) metallic bodies and low power ratings.
(d) non-metallic bodies and low power ratings.
47.In the following diagram, the position of the needle is shown on the scale of a voltmeter. The least count of the
voltmeter and the reading shown by it respectively are
(a) 0.15 V and 1.6 V
(b) 0.05 V and 1.6 V
(c) 0.15 V and 1.8 V
(d) 0.05 V and 1.8 V

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48.An electric iron of 1500 W, 200 V and a flash light of 500 W, 200 V are used in homes. The rating of fuse to be
used should be
(a) 5 A (b) 10 A (c) 15 A (d) 20 A
Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
49.Assertion (A):A fuse wire is always connected in parallel with the mainline
Reason (R): If a current larger than the specified value flows through the circuit, fuse wire melts.
50.Assertion (A):Electric appliances with metallic body have three pin connection, whereas an electric bulb has a two
pin connection.
Reason (R): Three pin connection reduces heating of connecting wires.
51.Assertion (A):In a purely resistive circuit, the source energy is dissipated in the form of heat.
Reason (R): The potential difference across the ends of a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing
through it
52.Assertion (A):Alloys are commonly used in electrical heating devices like electric iron and heater
Reason (R): Resistivity of an alloy is generally higher than that of its constituent metals but the alloys have low
melting points than their constituent metals.
53.Assertion (A):At high temperatures, metal wires have a greater chance of short circuiting.
Reason (R): Both resistance and resistivity of a material vary with temperature.
CH-12 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current
1.Which of these magnets has the strongest magnetic field?

2.Identify the poles marked P and Q as north pole or south pole, in the figure given below:

(a) P is north pole, Q is south pole

(b) P is south pole, Q is north pole
(c) P is south pole, Q is south pole
(d) P is north pole, Q is north pole

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3.A student learns that magnetic field strength around a bar magnet is different at every point. Which diagram
shows the correct magnetic field lines around a bar magnet?

4.Which of the following pattern correctly describes the magnetic field around a long straight wire carrying
current?
(a) Straight lines perpendicular to the wire.
(b) Straight lines parallel to the wire.
(c) Radial lines originating from the wire.
(d) Concentric circles centred around the wire.
5.A bar magnet is broken into two parts as shown in the given figure.

Which of the following option shows the right polarity of two ends of the broken pieces of the magnet?

6.For a current in a long straight solenoid and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following statements,
the incorrect statement is:
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines, which indicates that the magnetic field is the
same at all points inside the solenoid.

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(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like
soft iron, when placed inside the coil.
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field
around a bar magnet.
(d) The N and S-poles exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed.
7.Which diagram, A, B or C shows the shape of the Magnetic field around a current-carrying conductor?

(a) only (A) (b) only (C) (c) (A) and (C) (d) (B) and (C)

8.A soft iron bar is placed inside a current carrying solenoid.

How will this affect the strength and direction of the magnetic field around the solenoid?
(a) It will change direction and decrease in strength.
(b) It will change direction and increase in strength.
(c) It will increase in strength only.
(d) It will decrease in strength only.
9.Sonia creates four electromagnets by placing iron bars in four different solenoids. She brings a bunch of steel pins
near each electromagnet.

Which electromagnet will attract the maximum number of pins?

(a) Electromagnet 1
(b) Electromagnet 2
(c) Electromagnet 3
(d) Electromagnet 4
10.Which of these statements is true for the lines of a magnetic field?
(I) Lines of a magnetic field can sometimes cross each other.
(II) Lines of a magnetic field emerge from the north pole and meet at the south pole
(III) Lines of a magnetic field can sometimes change direction.
Options:
(a) Only (1) (b) Both (1) and (II)
(c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Both (1) and (III)

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11.The magnetic field lines of solenoid are similar to the magnetic field lines of bar X magnet. Which image
correctly shows the solenoid as a bar magnet.?

12.A current carrying conductor is held in vertical direction. In order to produce a clockwise magnetic field around
the conductor, the current should be passed in the conductor:
(a) from top to bottom
(b) from left to right
(c) from bottom to top
(d) from right to left
13.Choose the incorrect statement from the following regarding magnetic lines of field
(a) The direction of magnetic field at a point is taken to be the direction in which the north pole of a magnetic
compass needle points.
(b) Magnetic field lines are closed curves.
(c) If magnetic field lines are parallel and equidistant, they represent zero field strength
(d) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by the degree of closeness of the field lines.
14.Paras was keenly observing the electrician connecting the new electric cooler at his home. He observed that apart
from the two wires, there was a third wire which he connected at the plug, which was a three pin plug. He came to
know the third wire is the earth wire.
The earth wire is used as a safety measure to:
(a) prevent overloading
(b) prevent short-circuiting
(c) prevent electric shock
(d) voltage fluctuations
15.A circular loop placed in a plane perpendicular to the plane of paper carries a current when the key is ON. The
current as seen from points A and B (in the plane of paper and on the axis of the coil) is anti clockwise and clockwise
respectively. The magnetic field lines point from B to A. The N-pole of the resultant magnet is on the face close to
(a) A
(b) B
(c) A if the current is small, and B if the current is large
(d) B if the current is small and A if the current is large

16.For a current in a long straight solenoid N- and S-poles are created at the two ends. Among the following
statements, the incorrect statement is
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(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that the magnetic field is the
same at all points inside the solenoid
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like
soft iron, when placed inside the coil
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid
is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(d) The N- and S-poles exchange position when the direction of
current through the solenoid is reversed.
17.The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of fuse
(c) use of stabilizers
(d) use of electric meter
18.The strength of magnetic field inside a long current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other
19.The correct pattern of magnetic field lines of the field produced by a current carrying circular loop is :

20.An electric iron of 1500 W, 200 V and a flash light of 500 W, 200 V are used in homes. The rating of fuse to be
used should be
(a) 5 A
(b) 10 A
(c) 15 A
(d) 20 A
21.A positron enters a uniform magnetic field at right angles to it as shown. The direction of force experienced by
the positron will be :
(a) to the right
(b) to the left
(c) into the page
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(d) out of the page

22.An electron enters a magnetic field at right angle to it, as shown in figure.
The direction of force acting on the electron will be:
(a) to the right (b) to the left
(c) out of the page (d) into the page
23.A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in the figure.
In the field, an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience:
(a) forces both pointing into the plane of paper
(b) forces both pointing out of the plane of paper
(c) forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper, respectively
(d) forces pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively
24.An alpha particle enters a uniform magnetic field as shown. The direction of force experienced by the alpha
particle is :
(a) towards right
(b) towards left
(c) into the page
(d) out of the page

25.Which of the following property of a proton can change while it moves freely in a magnetic field? (There may be
more than one correct answer.)
(a) Mass
(b) speed
(c) velocity
(d) momentum
26.The factors on which magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are-
(a) Magnitude of current
(b) Number of loops
(c) Nature of core material
(d) All of the above
27.In domestic electric circuits the wiring with 15 A current rating is for the electric devices which have
(a) higher power ratings such as geyser.
(b) lower power ratings such as fan.

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(c) metallic bodies and low power ratings.
(d) non-metallic bodies and low power ratings.
These consist of two statements - Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Answer these questions selecting the appropriate
option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true
28.Assertion (A): The strength of the magnetic field produced at the centre of a current carrying circular coil
increases on increasing the number of turns in it. Reason (R): The current in each circular turn has the same
direction and the magnetic field due to each turn then just adds up.
29.Assertion (A) : A current carrying straight conductor experiences a force when placed perpendicular to the
direction of magnetic field.
Reason (R) : The net charge on a current carrying conductor is alwayszero.
30.Assertion (A):The energy of charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field does not change.
Reason (R): Work done by magnetic field on the charge is zero.
31.Assertion (A):The compass placed near the current-carrying wire remains stationary.
Reason (R): The current flowing through a wire gives rise to a magnetic field.
32.Assertion (A): On freely suspending a current - carrying solenoid, it comes to rest in Geographical N-S direction.
Reason (R): One end of current carrying straight solenoid behaves as a North pole and the other end as a South pole,
just like a bar magnet.
33.Assertion (A): When two long parallel wires, hanging freely are connected in series to a battery, they come closer
to each other.
Reason (R): Wires carrying current in opposite directions repel each other.
CH-13 Our Environment
1.An ecosystem includes
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living objects
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes non-living objects
2.Which statement shows interaction of anabiotic component with a biotic component in an ecosystem?
(a) A grasshopper feeding on a leaf.
(b) Rainwater running down into the lake.
(c) An earthworm making a burrow in the soil.
(d) A mouse fighting with another mouse for food.
3.Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Pond
(b) Crop field
(c) Lake
(d) Forest

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4.In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) carnivores
(b) herbivores
(c) decomposers
(d) producers
5.In the given food chain, suppose the amount of energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be the energy
available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake → Hawk
(a) 5 k J
(b) 50 k J
(c) 500 k J
(d) 5000 k J
6.Consider a terrestrial food chain given below:
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake→ Eagle
The energy transfer in the above food chain will be from:
(I) Producer to decomposer
(II) Producer to primary consumer
(III) Primary consumer to secondary consumer
(IV) Tertiary consumer to secondary consumer
Options:
(a) Both (I) and (III) (b) Both (I) and (IV)
(c) Both (II) and (III) (d) Both (III) and (IV)
7.In the given Figure 15.1 the various trophic levels are shown in a pyramid. At which trophic level is maximum
energy available?
(a) T4 (b) T2 (c) T1 (d) T3

8.The picture shows the different trophic levels of an ecosystem

Which level consists of herbivores?

(a) Level 1 (b) Level 2
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(c) Level 3 (d) Level 4

9.Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is
known as
(a) eutrophication
(b) pollution
(c) bio magnification
(d) accumulation
10.Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain?
(i) Grass, lion, rabbit, wolf
(ii) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(iii) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(iv) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper
(a) (i) and (iii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (i) and (iv)
11.Depletion of ozone is mainly due to
(a) chlorofluorocarbon compounds
(b) carbon monoxide
(c) methane
(d) pesticides
12.Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called
(a) decomposers
(b) producers
(c) herbivores
(d) carnivores
13.In an ecosystem, the 10% of energy available for transfer from one trophic level to the next is in the form of
(a) heat energy
(b) light energy
(c) chemical energy
(d) mechanical energy
14.Organisms of a higher trophic level which feed on several types of organisms belonging to a lower trophic level
constitute the
(a) food web
(b) ecological pyramid
(c) ecosystem
(d) food chain
15.Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always
(a) unidirectional

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(b) bidirectional
(c) multi directional
(d) no specific direction
16.Excessive exposure of humans to U V-rays results in
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcers
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
17.In the following groups of materials, which group (s) contains only non-biodegradable items?
(i) Wood, paper, leather
(ii) Polythene, detergent, PVC
(iii) Plastic, detergent, grass
(iv) Plastic, bakelite, DDT
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
18.Which of the following limits the number of trophic levels in a food chain?
(a) Decrease in energy at higher trophic levels
(b) Dufficient food supply
(c) Polluted air
(d) Water
19.Which of the statement is incorrect?
(a) All green plants and blue green algae are producers
(b) Green plants get their food from organic compounds
(c) Producers prepare their own food from inorganic compounds
(d) Plants convert solar energy into chemical energy
20.The percentage of solar radiation absorbed by all the green plants for the process of photosynthesis is about
(a) 1 %
(b) 5 %
(c) 8 %
(d) 10 %
21.What will happen if deer is missing in the food chain given below?
Grass → Deer → Tiger
(a) The population of tiger increases
(b) The population of grass decreases

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(c) Tiger will start eating grass
(d) The population of tiger decreases and the population of grass increases
22.The decomposers in an ecosystem
(a) convert inorganic material, to simpler forms
(b) convert organic material to inorganic forms
(c) convert inorganic materials into organic compounds
(d) do not breakdown organic compounds
23. If a grass hopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer
24. Disposable plastic plates should not be used because
(a) they are made of materials with light weight
(b) they are made of toxic materials
(c) they are made of biodegradable materials
(d) they are made of non-biodegradable materials
25. Select the mis-matched pair in the following and correct it.
(a) Bio magnification — Accumulation of chemicals at the successive trophic levels of a food chain
(b) Ecosystem — Biotic components of environment
(c) Aquarium — A man-made ecosystem
(d) Parasites — Organisms which obtain food from other living organisms
26.According to the image showing a food web:

(a) Fox feeds on hawk to obtain energy.

(b) Hawk feeds on oak acorn to obtain energy.
(c) Squirrel feeds on pine borer to obtain energy.
(d) Salamander feeds on pine borer to obtain energy.
27.The table lists some components of an ecosystem
Rain, Water, Butterfly, Air, Grass, Bacteria, Fungi, Sunlight
A student wants to classify these into abiotic components and biotic components separately. Which option correctly
shows the classification done by the student?

Biotic Components Abiotic Components

(a) Rain, grass, bacteria, fungi Water, fungi, sunlight, air

(b) Air, grass, butterfly, fungi Water, fungi, sunlight, rain

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 (c) Grass, bacteria, fungi, butterfly Water, rain, sunlight, air

(d) Rain, grass, bacteria, air Water, butterfly, sunlight, fungi

28.What percentage of sun's energy falling on the leaves of green plants is utilised by the plants in the process of
photosynthesis and stored as chemical energy of food?
(a) 99% (b) 10% (c) 1% (d) 20%
29.The table shows some organisms including plants, animals and how they get energy.

Organism How the Organism gets Energy

Tree Sunlight

Lion Giraffe, Rhino

Rhino Tree

Giraffe Tree

The table shows some organisms including plants, animals and how they get energy.

30.Consider the chemical reactions taking place at upper atmosphere:

A O + O ; O+A C
Select the row containing the correct naming of A, B and C.

A B C

(a) Molecular oxygen Ultraviolet radiations Ozone molecule

(b) Molecular oxygen Infrared radiations Ozone molecule

(c) Free oxygen Infrared radiations Molecule oxygen

(d) Ozone Infrared radiations Molecule oxygen

31.Which organism shown in the food chain would contain the greatest concentration of chemical pollutants?
Phytoplankton → krill → small fish → tuna → shark
(a) Phytoplankton
(b) Krill
(c) Tuna
(d) Shark
32.Composting is the process where organic wastes are degraded into compost. The diagram shows the details of the
process
What can be concluded from the diagram?

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(a) Composting helps in recycling plastic scraps.
(b) Composting absorbs heat from the environment.
(c) Composting takes place only in the presence of oxygen.
(d) Composting takes place in the presence of either oxygen or carbon dioxide

Assertion-Reasoning based questions. These consist of two statements Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Answer these
questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of
(A).(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
33.Assertion (A):The maximum concentration of chemicals and pesticides occurs at the first trophic level.
Reason (R): The chemicals and pesticides are not biodegradable.
34.Assertion (A): Ozone shields the surface of the Earth from ultraviolet radiations from the sun.
Reason (R): Ozone at the higher levels of the atmosphere is a product of UV radiations acting on oxygen molecule.
35.Assertion (A): Improvements in our lifestyle have resulted in lesser amounts of waste material generation.
Reason (R): Changes in packaging have resulted in much of the waste generated to be non- biodegradable.
36.Assertion (A): Frogs mostly occupy the second trophic level in food chains. Reason (R): Frogs mostly feed on
insects which depend on plants.
37.Assertion (A): The amount of ozone in the atmosphere began to increase sharply in the 1980s.
Reason (R): The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze
CFC production in 1987.
38.Assertion (A): Each step of level of the food chain forms a trophic level.
Reason (R): The organisms occupying the first trophic levels are called autotrophs.
39.Assertion (A): Polythene bags are non- biodegradable substances.
Reason (R): These bags cannot be broken down by microorganisms to simpler substances.
40.Assertion (A): The food chains generally consist of only three to four steps.
Reason (R): Our food grains such as wheat and rice, vegetables and fruits and even meat contain varying amounts of
pesticides.
41.Assertion (A): Green plants of the ecosystem are the producer.
Reason (R): Producers trap the radiant energy of the sun and change it into chemical energy.

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