Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MODEL TEST - 26

REASONING AND COMPUTER APTITUDE

Direction(1-5): Study the given information carefully and answer the given
questions:

r’s
A Certain number of people are sitting in a line facing north direction. As
many people sit to the right of Z as left of S. S sits third to the left of Z. U is an
immediate neighbor of either S or Z. Only two people sit between U and R. R is
not an immediate neighbor of Z. R does not sit left of S and sits second to the left
of X. As many people sit between S and U as between S and Y. T sits immediate
right of X and no other people sit right to him. As many people sit between W and

1.
ha
Y as between V and Y. W is an immediate neighbor of S. More than fifteen people
are sitting in the line.
How many people sitting in the line?
1) Twenty 2) Sixteen 3) Seventeen 4) Eighteen 5) Nineteen
2.

3.

E
What is the position of U with respect to W?
1) 2nd right 2) 3rd right 3) 4th right
Who is sitting at extreme ends of the line?
4) 5th right 5) 6th right
d
1) TY 2) VY 3) VT 4) XV 5) XY
4. How many people are sitting between Y and R?
1) Two 2) Four 3) Six 4) Eight 5) Ten
ee

5. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) RT 2) VY 3) UR 4) SZ 5) YW
6. Read me given information to answer the given question:
C
As per a survey report published three days ago. The sale of the Xiola 2SW
smartphone launched six months ago, has increased by four times as compared
Sr

to Nhefia 3MG smartphone which was launched at the same time as Xiola 2SW
and is priced at Rs. 1500/- less than Xiola 2SW. All the features of Nhelia 3MG
are similar to Xiola 2SW.
(A) Over the past ten years Nhefla has been a more trusted brand in the mobile
industry than Xiola.
(B) Xiola phones are available in a wide range of colors while Nhefia phones are
available only in basic three-four colors.
(C) The Xiola phones were made easily available in all the city stores and Nhefia
C
phones are available only in the tier 1 and tier 2 cities.
(D) Nhelia priced its smartphone Nhelia 3MG in order to penetrate and capture
the market whereas Xiola prices its product economically.
(E) The customer reviews and feedback about the quality of the product and service
provided with Xiaia 2SW was superior to Nhefia 3MG.
(F) After-sales services of Xiola have always been better than Nhelia.
Which of the following cannot be a reason for higher sales of the Xiola 2SW
smartphone as compared to that of the Nhefia 3MG smartphone ?
1) Only A, B & D 2) Only F 3) Only A, D & F
4) Only B 5) Only A & D
Direction(7-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the given
questions:
785 926 863 452 639 248
7. If all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, then what
is the sum of the digits of the number, which is third from the right-end?
1) 19 2) 18 3) 20 4) 17 5) 16
8. If all the digits are arranged in ascending order within the number, then find the
product of the third highest number?
1) 174 2) 124 3) 164 4) 144 5) 114

1
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

9. Interchange the first and third digits in each number, and then find the difference
between the highest numbers of before and after arrangements?
1) 10 2) 15 3) 20 4) 9 5) 11
10. In each number, interchange the first and second digits, and then find the
difference between the highest and least numbers?
1) 479 2) 579 3) 469 4) 569 5) 489
11. How many such pairs of letters are there in the word “TENTATIVE” which has
as many letters between them in the words as in the English alphabetical series
from both forward and backward?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) More than four
12. How many meaningful words can be formed from the first, the third, the fourth,
the seventh letters of the word “REMEMBER”, one letter uses only once in a

r’s
word, what is the second letter of the word, if more than one word can be formed
then give answer “X”, if no such word can be formed then your answer is “Y”.
1) M 2) E 3) R 4) X 5) Y
Direction (13-17): A number arrangement machine when given an input line of
numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following
is an illustration of input and rearrangement.
Input: 248537
572183
ha 946375
348364
674852
947868
493857
439287
728536
648789
Step 1: 425873 493657 768425 948375 275863

Step 2:
751238
321415
141508

E 433846
244521
321218
498786
281240
287248
342978
272840
272816
467898
164215
325456
d
Step 3: 11334 20131 67124 55644 52214
33458 11117 61524 55675 13111
Step 4: 43311 32110 76421 65544 54221
85433 71111 65421 76555 31111
ee

Step 5: 534 313 848 159 626

248 812 747 352 412
Step 6: 12 7 20 15 14
C
14 11 18 10 7
Step 6 is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate
Sr

steps for the given input.

Input: 734258 648274 573498 672943 284568
534827 943875 587364 963584 644875
13. How many numbers are divisible by ‘3’ in step 5?
1) Three 2) Two 3) Four 4) One 5) More than Four
14. What is the sum of the digits of highest number in Step-2?
1) 22 2) 16 3) 15 4) 21 5) 19
C
15. How many numbers get a digit more than once in step 3?
1) Six 2) Three 3) Five 4) Four 5) More than six
16. What is the total of the numbers second from left in step-4 and fourth from right
in final step?
1) 43336 2) 33215 3) 75347 4) 43343 5) 75338
17. What is the sum of the digits of fourth from the left-end in penultimate step?
1) 11 2) 12 3) 5 4) 13 5) 17
Direction (18-21): In the question below there are four statements followed by
two/three conclusions I, II and III. You have to take the given statements to be
true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then
decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements
disregarding commonly known facts.
18. Statement: Some Books are Pads Only a few Pads are Papers
No Paper is Pencil All Pencils are Pens
Conclusions: I: Some Pens are not Papers II: Some Pads are not Papers
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion II follows
3) Either Conclusion I or II follows 4) Neither Conclusion I nor II follows
5) Both Conclusion I and II follows

2
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

19. Statements: No country is State Only a few States are Cities

All Cities are Towns Some Towns are not villages
Conclusions: I: Some Cities are not Villages
II: All States are Cities is a possibility
III: Some States are not Towns is a possibility
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion I and III follows
3) Only Conclusion I and II follows 4) Only Conclusion II and III follows
5) Only Conclusion III follows
20. Statement: Only a few White is Black Some Black is not Brown
No Brown is Yellow Only a few Yellow is Green
Conclusions: I: All Green is Yellow is a possibility
II: Some Black is not White III: Some Brown is not Green

r’s
1) Only Conclusion I follows 2) Only Conclusion I and II follows
3) Only Conclusion I and III follows 4) Only Conclusion II follows
5) Only Conclusion III follows
21. Statement: All Telugu is Hindi Only a few Hindi is Science
Only a few Science is Math No Math is Social
Conclusion: I: All Math is Hindi is a possibility
ha
II: Some Science is not Social III: All Hindi is Telugu is a possibility
1) Only Conclusion I follows
3) Only Conclusion I and III follows
2) Only Conclusion I and II follows
4) All Conclusion I, II and III follows
5) All Conclusion I, II and III not follows
22.

E
If 1 is added to the every odd digit and 1 is subtracted from every even digit from
the number “58643271”, then arrange all the digits in ascending order from left
to right, then find how many digits remains at same place as compared with given
d
number?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
23. Study the given information carefully to answer the given question:
ee

Isabelle Engineering College of a small City- Kanhapur has declined the

proposal of starting a fashion design department. The College believes that. Keeping
the approach of the city people in mind, the outputs of such an expansion will be
much lower than the inputs.
C
Which of the following can be concluded from the given statement?
(A) Kanhapur does not have enough spare land to start a whole new department.
(B) Fashion design is not too much in demand in Kanhapur.
Sr

(C) Such a venture, if made in big cities, promises a huge profit and fame even
with little input.
(D) Be it faculty-hunt or providing placements, engineering colleges are easy to
start, especially in small cities.
1) Only(C) 2) None of the given options 3) Both (B) and (D)
4) Only(B) 5) Both (A) and (B)
Direction: (24-28) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
Ten people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I and J are sitting around a circular
table some of them facing towards the center and some of them facing away from
the center. At-least four people are facing away from the center. People who are
facing away from the center are not sitting each-other. H is sitting second to the
left of J and both are not facing same direction. Only two people are sitting
between J and E and both are not facing same direction and H is not an immediate
neighbor of E. B and F are sitting with each other and facing same direction but
both are not sitting immediate to E and H. G and I are immediate neighbors of E
and both are facing same direction but not as E. D is sitting second to the right of
A as well as C and among these three people one of them facing away from the
center. A is not an immediate neighbor of J and B. At-least three people are
sitting between D and I.
24. What is the position of B with respect to G?
1) 2nd right 2) 3rd right 3) 2nd left 4) 3rd left 5) 4th right
25. How many people sitting between E and A (from right of A)?
1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Two 5) Six
26. Whose immediate neighbors are facing away from the center?
1) C 2) H 3) F 4) E 5) Both C and E

3
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

27. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belong to that group?
1) D 2) A 3) I 4) J 5) G
28. Which of the following statement is not correct in given below options?
1) G and A are facing away from the center
2) Four persons sitting between E and H
3) H and A are Facing same direction 4) C and F are facing each other
5) Immediate neighbors of C are facing away from the center
Direction: (29-31) Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
People namely, B, D, F, K, L, M, P, Q, S, X and Y in a family and no other

r’s
person is in this family. X is the mother-in-law of F, who is brother-in-law of Y. K
is the sister of S and mother of D. B is the nephew of S, who is the only son of X.
M is the only grand-daughter of P, who is Maternal grand-father of B. F has no
Daughter. L is the Son of Q, who is wife of Y.
29. Who is the Aunt of M?
1) Q 2) K 3) X 4) F 5) L
30. How is L related to B?
1) Brother
ha
2) Sister 3) Cousin 4) Daughter 5) Son
31. If M is the daughter of “R”, then how is R related to “P”?
1) Son-in-law 2) Son
law

E 3) Daughter 4) Daughter-in-law 5) Father-in-

Direction: (32-34) Study the following information carefully and answer the
d
questions given below.
Every Honest Human Behave - RS JK BY ND
Brave Intend Well Courage - SG KV WL LT
ee

Honest Courage Every Where - JK QC BY KV

Human Intend Courage Every - LT KV RS JK
(Note: All the codes are two letter codes only)
C
32. What is the code for the word “BRAVE” from the above code language?
1) WL 2) SG 3) ND 4) QC 5) Either WL or SG
Sr

33. Which of the following word coded for “QC”?

1) Every 2) Where 3) Intend 4) Behave 5) Brave
34. If “Brave Knowledge” is coded as “SG PE”, then how is “Well graduated” be coded
in that language?
1) SG WL 2) SG BV 3) WL KT 4) BV KT 5) EX OU
35. Read the given information and answer the question:
Many hawkers have been spotted in park ABC - A popular recreational park -
C
trying to sell their products to people who visit the park ,“The park is open for all
and there is no entry fee due to which we cannot force the hawkers to leave. It is
a nuisance because they keep trying hard to sell their goods every time we pass
them by”, a statement by a local who visits the park regularly. Which of the
following can be a course of action by the park authorities to deal with this
problem ?
1) The hawkers should be handed over to the police for disturbing people who visit
the park.
2) All the hawkers, who were regularly spotted in the park should be identified
and penalized by the park authorities.
3) The park authorities should put a signboard in front of the park stating that
hawkers are not allowed inside the park and ask the guards to be vigilant.
4) The park authorities should start charging money for permitting hawkers to
sell their goods and allow only those hawkers in the park, who are willing to pay
the charges levied by the authorities.
5) The park authorities should start charging a huge entry fee to all those who
enter the park.

4
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

36. The principal of school A has blamed the school’s poor performance in standard
XII board exams on the fact that most of the children prepared for the Joint
Entrance Exam (JEE) held for engineering colleges XYZ rather than the board
exams.
(A) There had been many incidents of strikes and termination of teachers due to
conflicts with the management in school A last year.
(B) Cut-off percentage in XII standard should be stipulated to be eligible for the
JEE in order to discourage this practice.
(C) For entry into colleges XYZ, XII standard examination scores are not reckoned.
(D) JEE for engineering colleges is more sought after by the students than the
JEE for medical colleges.
(E) Such students who cleared the JEE had also scored well in board exams

r’s
owing to the fact that syllabi for both are the same.
(F) Those students who did not prepare for the JEE scored better in Board exams
than those who did.
Which of the given statements is implicit from the principal’s statement ?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) E 5) D

questions given below.

ha
Direction: (37-41) Study the following information carefully and answer the

Seven people- T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are living in a seven floor building and

each one belongs to different cities DELHI, PUNE, KOLKATA, MYSORE, BHOPAL,

E
MUMBAI, RANCHI but not necessarily in the same order. V is living in one of the
even numbered floors and is living immediately above the floor of the one who
belongs to Delhi. W is living two floors below the one who belongs to Delhi. Three
d
floors are between W and the one who belongs to Mysore. As many people are living
above the one who belongs to Ranchi as below the one who belongs to Kolkata. V
doesn’t belong to Ranchi. U belongs to Mumbai but not living in odd numbered floor.
ee

Z and X are living in immediate floors. The number of people living above Z is one
less than below T. W is living above X and doesn’t belong to Bhopal.
37. How many people living between Z and the one who belongs to Delhi?
1) One 2) Two 3) Three 4) Four 5) Five
C
38. Who belongs to Pune?
1) T 2) V 3) W 4) X 5) Y
39. How many people living above the one who belongs to Bhopal?
Sr

1) Three 2) Four 3) Five 4) Six 5) Seven

40. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group, which
one doesn’t belong to that group?
1) T-U 2) Z-U 3) X-W 4) Y-W 5) V-U
41. Who among the following people are living in even numbered floors?
1) VUX 2) TVY 3) ZUY 4) UZV 5) TYW
Direction(42-44): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
C
Four people viz. P, Q, R and S sitting in a line of 36 meters and the distance
between the persons is same. People are sitting in alphabetical order from left to
right. P moves 8m towards South direction and then taken left turn. Q walks 6m
North direction and taken left turn and stops at a point, which is North to P’s
starting point. R walks 6m west direction and taken right-turn and his final
position is East to Q’s final position. S walks 12m North direction and taken left
turn and his final point is North to both R’s and P’s final points.
42. What is the distance between final points of S and P?
1) 18m 2) 20m 3) 16m 4) 14m 5) 22m
43. Q’s final position is which direction with respect to P’s final position?
1) South-west 2) North-west 3) South-east 4) North-east 5) South
44. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way hence form a group which one
doesn’t belong to that group (According to their final positions)?
1) PR 2) SP 3) RS 4) QS 5) QR
45. How many such pairs of digits are there in the given number ‘7482536’ each of
which has as many digits between them in the number (in both forward and
backward directions) as they have between them in the numerical series?
1) Two 2) Four 3) One 4) Three 5) More than four

5
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

GENERAL/ECONOMY/BANKING AWARENESS
46. Which bank introduced DigiPassBook, a new function that lets consumers combine
all of their investments into one place using the SmartWealth app?
1) YES Bank 2) RBL Bank 3) HDFC Bank
4) ICICI Bank 5) State Bank of India
47. New Zealand Women wins the 2024 T20 World Cup title, who was named the
player of the tournament?
1) Sophie Devine 2) Georgia Plimmer 3) Brooke Halliday
4) Melie Kerr 5) Suzannah Wilson Bates
48. How many digits are present in the Demat Account?
1) 11 2) 10 3) 15 4) 9 5) 16
49. Which among the following provides coverage for financial losses due to delays in

r’s
construction and infrastructure projects?
1) Advance Loss of Profit 2) Combined Additional Coverage
3) Basic Premium Factor
4) Additional Premium 5) Capital Asset Pricing Model
50. India has emerged as the ______largest supplier of restricted critical technologies
to Russia, which includes essential components like microchips, circuits, and
machine tools.
1) Third
ha
2) Second 3) Fourth 4) Fifth 5) Sixth
51. Rubber Research Institute signs MoU with which oil and gas company for research
on using Rubber Process Oils marketed by IOCL in different tyre and non-tyre
rubber products?
1) Hindustan Petroleum
4) Bharat Petroleum

E 2) GAIL Limited 3) Indian Oil Corporation

5) Oil India Limited
d
52. Consider the following statements regarding the E-Upahaar Portal.
I) It was developed by the National Informatics Centre (NIC), Ministry of Electronics
and Information Technology.
ee

II) It helps in the auctioning of gift items presented to the Hon'ble President and
former Presidents of India.
III) The aim of this initiative is not only to increase citizen engagement but also to
support a noble cause. All proceeds from the auction will be donated to help
C
children in need.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Sr

1) Only (I) and (II) 2) Only (II) and (III) 3) Only (I)
4) Only (III) 5) All (I), (II), and (III)
53. Which country was named a partner nation for the Space Exploration and Research
Agency's human spaceflight program?
1) Japan 2) Russia 3) India 4) China 5) USA
54. In August 2024, which bank has entered into a co-lending partnership with Newtap
Finance Private Limited to provide personalised financing solutions for creditworthy
individuals on payments platform CRED?
C
1) ICICI Bank 2) Kotak Mahindra Bank 3) HDFC Bank
4) Yes Bank 5) Axis Bank
55. India’s Tanya Hemanth beat Tung Ciou-Tong of which country to win the women’s
singles title at the Bendigo International Challenge badminton tournament?
1) China 2) South Korea3) Taiwan 4) Indonesia 5) Japan
56. Who is responsible for issuing various accounting standards to be followed by the
companies working in India?
1) Ministry of Finance 2) Indian Bureau of Standards
3) Registrar of the company
4) Reserve Bank of India 5) Accounting Standards Board
57. A class of derivative whose value is at least partly derived from one or more
underlying stock exchange securities?
1) Bond Derivative 2) Stock Derivative 3) Future Derivative
4) Equity Derivative 5) Money Derivative
58. Ministry of External Affairs and ISRO''s commercial arm NewSpace India Limited
(NSIL) has signed an MoU to grant assist for the launch of which country’s (built)
Munal satellite in August 2024?
1) Nepal 2) Sri Lanka 3) Singapore 4) Bhutan 5) Maldives

6
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

59. If a cheque is presented for payment after three months the date mentioned in
the cheque, this type of cheque is known as_______.
1) Anti-dated cheque 2) Post-dated cheque 3) Stale Cheque
4) Bearer Cheque 5) Crossed Cheque
60. Jamshedpur City lies on the banks of which one of the following rivers?
1) Mahanadi River 2) Tapti River 3) River Musi River
4) Gangas River 5) Subarnarekha River
61. Under which of the following schemes, solar pump sets and rural electrification
would be provided?
1) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
2) PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana
3) Pradhan Mantri Janjati Adivasi Nyaya Maha Abhiyan

r’s
4) Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyaan Scheme
5) Solar Energy Subsidy
62. How many Indian Insurance companies were merged to form United India
Insurance Company Limited?
1) 10 2) 15 3) 08 4) 06 5) 12
63. Which company has entered into a partnership with the University of Auckland to
ha
foster innovation in artificial intelligence (AI), machine learning, and quantum
computing?
1) Infosys 2) Tech Mahindra 3) Wipro 4) TCS 5) HCL
64.

65.

E
World Thyroid Day is observed annually on which date?
1) 22nd June 2) 23rd March 3) 24th July 4) 25th May
Union Ministry of Women and Child Development recently launched the new
5) 26th August
d
SHe-Box portal. Consider the following statements regarding the SHe-Box Portal,
recently seen in the news. Which of the statements given below is/are incorrect?
1) It is a centralized platform for registering and monitoring complaints of sexual
ee

harassment of women in the workplace.

2) It serves as a centralized repository of information related to Internal Committees
(ICs) and Local Committees (LCs) formed across the country, encompassing both
the government and private sectors. T
C
3) The portal will also enable real-time monitoring of complaints through a
designated nodal officer.
4) The portal will ensure that complaints can be safely registered without personal
Sr

information being publicly accessible.

5) All the given statements are correct
66. Which ministry has recently (in August’ 24) granted approval for Port Blair Seaport
in Andaman and Nicobar Islands as an authorised Integrated Check Posts (ICP)
for entry of foreign nationals holding e-visa?
1) Ministry of Tourism 2) Ministry of Civil Aviation
3) Ministry of Earth Science
C
4) Ministry of Home Affairs
5) Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways
67. When was the Cooperative Credit Societies Act of 1904 amended to allow non-
credit societies to be formed under the McLagan Committee to access their
performance?
1) 1905 2) 1909 3) 1921 4) 1912 5) 1936
68. Recently, the Reserve bank of India expanded the scope of remittances to
International Financial Services Centres (IFSCs) under which scheme?
1) Money Transfer Service Scheme
2) Rupee Drawing agreement
3) Liberalised Remittance Scheme
4) One Time Settlement Scheme 5) All of the above
69. Cyclone Dana was named by which country according to the tropical cyclone
naming system devised by the World Meteorological Organization.
1) Thailand 2) Maldives 3) Oman 4) Sri Lanka 5) Qatar
70. In which country did scientists launch the Rhisotope Project by injecting radioactive
material into rhinoceros horns to curb poaching?
1) India 2) Brazil 3) Australia 4) South Africa 5) Nepal

7
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

71. Recently, the Mankidia Community has become the sixth Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Group (PVTG) to receive housing rights over forests in which state?
1) Andhra Pradesh 2) Kerala 3) Sikkim
4) Jharkhand 5) Odisha
72. Which non-member state has secured a significant diplomatic victory by being
seated among member states at the 79th UN General Assembly session?
1) Palestine 2) Vatican City 3) Taiwan
4) Kosovo 5) San Marino
73. According to data from the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), the listed private non-
financial enterprises’ annual sales growth rate decreased to what percentage in
FY 2023–24 from 19.8% in FY 2023?
1) 4.2% 2) 5.2% 3) 5.9% 4) 4.7% 5) 4.1%

r’s
74. The Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) has increased its stake in which
bank from 4.05% to 7.10% by allotting 25.96 crore equity shares at ?57.36 each
through a Qualified Institutional Placement (QIP).
1) Indian Bank 2) Bank of Maharashtra 3) State Bank of India
4) Punjab National Bank 5) Bank of Baroda
75. Which bank announced “SmartLock,” a novel safety feature that lets users lock
via phone or email?
1) Canara Bank
ha
and unlock several banking services at once without contacting customer support

2) Punjab National Bank 3) Bank of Baroda

4) Union Bank of India 5) ICICI Bank
76.

E
________ is the time period between the commencement of the policy and the
time when benefits are paid out.
1) Accumulation period 2) Grace period 3) Elimination Period
d
4) Waiting period 5) Cooling period
77. Union Electronics and Information Technology Minister Ashwini Vaishnav has
been included in TIME magazine's list of "Most Influential People in AI 2024. Apart
ee

from Ashwini Vaishnav, which actor is also included in this list?

1) Prabhas 2) Salman khan 3) Amir Khan
4) Anil Kapoor 5) Jackie Shroff
78. In June 2023, the World Bank approved the $1.5 billion for the First Low-Carbon
C
Energy Programmatic Development Policy investment the development comes in
the backdrop of India’s ambitious National Green Hydrogen Mission and energy
transition targets. The Centre has set a target of achieving 500 GW of installed
Sr

renewable energy capacity by ________ and reaching net zero by 2070.

1) 2025 2) 2030 3) 2035 4) 2040 5) 2050
79. Consider the following statements with reference to the Foreign Exchange
Reserves:
I) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves
in India.
II) India’s Foreign Exchange Reserves include foreign currency assets and Special
Drawing Rights (SDRs).
C
III) The biggest contributor to India’s foreign exchange reserves is Gold.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
1) Only (I) 2) Only (II) 3) Only (III)
4) Only (I) and (II) 5) Only (II) and (III)
80. According to the Hurun Research Institute Report, how many billionaires does
Mumbai have, making it Asia's third billionaire capital after surpassing Beijing?
1) 74 2) 92 3) 105 4) 45 5) 12
81. Which among the following body determines interest rate on savings deposit?
1) Department of Economic Affairs 2) Bank’s Independent decision
3) Reserve Bank of India
4) Cabinet committee on Economic Affair
5) Securities and Exchange Board of India
82. As per the recently announced disclosure norms of the Securities and Exchange
Board of India (SEBI), overseas funds having more than Rs. _________of equity
assets under management in the Indian market, will have to provide detailed
information about their beneficial owners.
1) 15,000 crore 2) 20,000 crore 3) 25,000 crore
4) 30,000 crore 5) 42,000 crore

8
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

83. Which institution approved a $200 million loan to enhance solid waste
management and sanitation across 100 Indian cities as part of the Swachh Bharat
Mission 2.0?
1) World Bank 2) Asian Development Bank
3) International Monetary Fund
4) European Central Bank 5) National Development Bank
84. Which state became the first in India to introduce Digital Health education for all
medical students through a partnership between NHA and MUHS?
1) Maharashtra 2) Tamil Nadu 3) Gujarat
4) Karnataka 5) Andhra Pradesh
85. Recently, where was the 64th International Sugar Organization Council meeting
organized?

r’s
1) Beijing, China 2) Paris, France 3) New Delhi, India
4) London, UK 5) Geneva, Switzerland
DATA ANALYSIS AND INTERPRETATION
Directions (86-88): Each question below contains statements followed by quantity
I and quantity II. Find both to find the relationship among them. Make your answer
accordingly.
ha
86. Quantity I: A zinc sphere of diameter 6 cm is drawn into a wire of diameter 4mm,
then find length of wire?
Quantity II: The perimeter of rhombus is 3600 cm, then find the side of the
rhombus?

E
1) Quantity I > Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II
2) Quantity I < Quantity II
4) Quantity I  Quantity II
d
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be established
87. Quantity I: The last 10 alphabets are written down at random. How many ways
ee

that the letters w, x, y and z always come together?

Quantity II: In how many ways five Indians, five Americans be seated in a row, so
that all person of same nationality sits together?
C
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity I 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
Sr

5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be established

88. Quantity I: The HCF and LCM of two numbers are 7 and 5320 respectively. If one
of the number is 140, then find another number?
Quantity II: The HCF and LCM of two number are 150 and x respectively. If one of
the number is 150 and another number is 300, then find the value of x?
1) Quantity I > Quantity II 2) Quantity I < Quantity II
3) Quantity I  Quantity II 4) Quantity I  Quantity II
C
5) Quantity I = Quantity II or no relation can be established
Directions (89-90): In the following problem, a question is followed by two
statements I and II. Read the statements to find the answer to given question
and then answer accordingly that which statements can give the answer alone/
together.
89. Breakers P and Q each have X ml of the pure acid, then what is the value of X?
Statement I: Raju took out 20% of the acid from beaker Q and added 72 ml water.
As a result percentage of water in the mixture becomes 35%.
Statement II: Raju took out 32 ml of acid from beaker P and replaced it with an
equal quantity of water. He again took out 32 ml of a new formed mixture of acid
and water from the same beaker and replaced it with an equal quantity of water.
As a result, respective ratio of acid and water in beaker P becomes 16:9.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I and II
4) Either I or II 5) Neither I nor II

9
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

90. Points P, Q, R and S are equidistant from each other. A truck travels along
segments PQ, QR and RS. What was the speed of the truck while travelling in
segment RS?
Statement I: The average speed of the truck during the entire journey is 72 km/
h. The speed of the truck to cover segments PQ, QR and RS are in the ratio of
15:12:10.
Statement II: The total distance covered by the truck is 288 km and the speed of
the truck in the segment QR is 72 km/h.
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both I and II 4) Either I or II 5) Neither I nor II
Direction (91-95): Study the given information carefully and answer the given

r’s
question.
The first line graph represents the number of Item 1 and Item 2 sold by five
different shops on Sunday.
The second line graph represents the cost of each Item 1 and the cost of each
Item 2 sold in five different shops.
ha
Note: Total revenue earned by each shop on Sunday = Revenue earned by selling
all Item 1 on Sunday + Revenue earned by selling all Item 2 on Sunday.

E
Number of Item 1 sold Number of Item 2 sold
d
120
106
100 97
ee

91
86 82
80 79
73
61 65
60
C
40 45
Sr

20
0
Shop P Shop Q Shop R Shop S Shop T

Cost of each Item 1 Cost of each Item 2

C
160
150
140
120 125
100 110
100
80
80 60
80 70
60
50
40 40
20
0
Shop P Shop Q Shop R Shop S Shop T
91. The total revenue earned by shops S and T together is approximately what per-
centage more or less than the total revenue earned by shops P and R together?
1) 2% less 2) 3.5% less 3) 4% more 4) 3.5% more 5) 2% more

10
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

92. Find the difference between the total revenue earned by shop Q and shop T on
Sunday?
1) 9460 2) 8520 3) 7980 4) 8650 5) 9990
93. Find the ratio of the total revenue earned by shop R to the total revenue earned
by shop S?
1) 214:207 2) 209:200 3) 211:204 4) 207:211 5) 205:211
94. Find the difference between the total number of Item 1 sold by all the shops and
the total number of Item 2 sold by the same shops on Sunday?
1) 21 2)12 3)5 4)9 5)3
95. The revenue earned by selling Item 2 by shop P is approximately what percent of
the revenue earned by selling Item 1 by the same shop?
1) 45% 2) 66% 3) 72% 4) 85% 5) 57%

r’s
Direction (96-10): study the following pie charts and answer the given questions.
The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the total number of
items (X-type + Y-type) sold by 5 different shops in a particular month.
Total number of items sold by 5 different shops =1500.
ha 20% 15%

E P
Q
R
d
28%
S
25% T
ee

12%

The given pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the number of X-type
C
items sold by the given shops in the same month.
Sr

16% 18%
P
Q
R
24% S
C
30% T

12%

96. If the number of X-type items sold by shop P is 48% of the number of total items
sold by shop T, then find the total number of Y-type items sold by shops Q and T
together?
1) 400 2) 300 3) 360 4) 480 5) Cannot be determined
97. If the number of Y-type items sold by shop S is 165, then find the difference
between the number of X-type items sold by shops P and Q?
1) 42 2) 30 3) 36 4) 48 5) Cannot be determined
98. If the number of Y-type items sold by shop R is 84, then find the total number of
X-type items sold by all the 5 shops together is what percent of the total number
of items (X-type + Y-type) sold by all the 5 shops together?
2 1 1
1) 55% 2) 66 % 3) 33 % 4) 48% 5) 53 %
3 3 3

11
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

99. If the difference between the total X-type and Y-type items sold by all shops (X-
type > Y-type) is 100.Find the average of total number of items Y-type sold by
shops P, R and S?
1) 92 2) 100 3) 76 4) 88 5) None of these
100. Find the ratio of the total number of X-type items sold by shops P, R and T
together to that of sold by shops Q and S together?
1) 1: 1 2) 3: 2 3) 12: 13 4) 23: 27 5) 53: 47
Direction (101-105) : Study the table and answer the given question :
Data related to Journals uploaded by 5 Digital libraries during 3 years
Digital Journals (both Respective Journals (both Respective Journals (both Respective

r’s
Libraries national and ratio of national and ratio of national and ratio of
international) national to international) national to international) national to
uploaded in international uploaded in international uploaded in international
2017 journals 2018 journals 2019 journals
uploaded in uploaded in uploaded in
2017 2018 2019
A
B
924
836
ha
4 :7
13 : 6
690
1176
11 : 12
9:5
860
1260
13 : 7
10 : 11
C
D
E
918
806
792

E
10 : 17
8 :5
11 : 7
884
585
1035
10 : 7
4:5
10 : 13
924
722
979
5:7
10 : 9
5:6
d
101. The average number of Peer-Reviewed research papers published in each of the
national journals uploaded in 2018 by digital library A was 7 and the average
ee

number of Peer-Reviewed research papers published in each of the national journals

uploaded in 2019 by digital library C was 13. What was the difference between total
number of Peer-Reviewed research papers (published in national journals) uploaded
C
by digital library A in 2018 and total number of Peer-Reviewed research papers
(published in national journals) uploaded by digital library C in 2019 ?
Sr

1) 2680 2) 2745 3) 2825 4) 2695 5) 2750

102. What is the respective ratio between total number of journals (both national and
international) uploaded by digital libraries C and E together in 2017 and total
number of journals (both national and international) uploaded by digital libraries
D and E together in 2018 ?
1) 21:20 2) 17:16 3) 13:12 4) 19:18 5) 23:22
C
103. Only 25% of journals (both national and international) uploaded by digital library
E in 2017 were related to Sociology. If 100 national journals uploaded by digital
library E in 2017 were related to sociology, what percent of international journals
uploaded by the same library in the same year were related to sociology ?
5 3 7 2 9
1) 34 7 2) 32 7 3) 31 4) 33 5) 31
11 11 11
104. Digital library D had to purchase 80% of international journals uploaded by it in
2018 It the average cost per international journal purchased by digital library D
in 2018 was Rs.396. What was the amount spent by digital library D in purchasing
international journals in 2018 ?
1) Rs. 1,09,670 2) Rs. 1,02,960 3) Rs. 1,04,240
4) Rs. 1,08,940 5) Rs.1,06,360
105. What is the total number of International journals uploaded by all the given
digital libraries in 2017 ?
1) 2048 2) 2254 3) 2086 4) 2188 5) 1992

12
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

Direction (106-110): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given question.
In the year 2021, a certain number of students who cleared three different
exams i.e. Banking, RRB, and SSC from Vijayawada, and the respective ratio of
the number of students who cleared the Banking and SSC exams are in the ratio
of 8: 9. The number of students who cleared both RRB and SSC exams is 200 and
the respective ratio of the number of students who cleared only Banking and only
SSC exam is 6:7. The number of students who cleared the Banking exam is 20%
less than the number of students who cleared the RRB exam and 45% of students
cleared only the Banking exam out of the students who cleared Banking. The
number of students who cleared all three exams is 120 and the number of students

r’s
who cleared only the SSC exam is 75% more than the number of students who
cleared all three exams.
106. What is the respective ratio between the total number of candidates who cleared
only Banking to that of only RRB exam?
1) 8:9 2) 3:8 3) 3:4 4) 5:7 5) 9:8
107. The total number of candidates who cleared both Banking and SSC exam only is

2) 15
ha
what percent of the total number of candidates who cleared RRB exam?
1) 4 3) 18 4) 25 5) 8
108. What is the difference between the number of candidates who cleared at most

109.
1) 400 2) 350

E
one exam to that of those who cleared at least two exams?
3) 180 4) 250 5) 330
The total number of candidates who cleared both SSC and RRB exam is what
d
percent more or less than the number of candidates who cleared RRB exam?
1) 60 2) 15 3) 80 4) 50 5) 40
110. If the total number of candidates who cleared DSC exam is 40% more than the
ee

number of candidates who cleared SSC exam, then find the total number of
candidates who cleared DSC exam?
1) 630 2) 615 3) 680 4) 650 5) 540
C
Direction (111-115): What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the
given number series.
111. 40 122 369 1111 3338 ?
Sr

1) 10040 2) 10020 3)10060 4) 10050 5)10070

112. 45 63 90 126 171 ?
1) 178 2) 174 3) 176 4) 225 5) 186
113. 9 50 93 140 193 ?
1) 277 2) 276 3) 238 4) 237 5) 252
114. 49 139 211 265 301 ?
1) 319 2) 324 3) 345 4) 358 5) 367
C
115. 101 133 105 129 109 ?
1) 131 2) 139 3) 125 4) 173 5) 126
Direction (116-120): What approximate value will come in place of the question
mark (?) in the given question. (You are not expected to calculate exact value)
116. 13.878 x 24.87 + 1295.6 + 19.77 % of 179.67 = ? x 4
625
1)18 2)16 3) 85 4)19 5) 17
117. 299.80 ÷ 14.97 + 42.85% of 118.46 + 155.8 ÷ 11.97 = ?
1) 84 2) 500 3) 4096 4) 7056 5) 8100
118. 167.63 ÷ 11.95 + 34.56% of 199.23 + 1 4 4 3 of 14.9 = ?
1) 685 2) 760 3) 655 4) 630 5) 770
119. 1213.35 + 22.22% of 170.35 - 14.66 ÷ 5.99 x 180 = ?
1) 830 2) 850 3) 880 4) 750 5) 800
120. 5399 of 44.96 ÷ 899.68 - 89.65% of 209.568 = ?2
1) 15 2) 9 3) 17 4) 16 5) 20

13
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Directions(121-125): In this question, a sentence has been divided into five parts
denoted by (A), (B), (C), (D) & (E). One part of the sentence will be highlighted in
bold and underlined. Consider that part as correct, the remaining three parts of
the sentence will have errors and only one of the remaining parts will be free of
error. Mark that error free part as your answer. If there is no error in any of the
part of the sentence, mark ‘No error’ as your answer.
121. Dr. Harris emphasized that their primary goals should /A/ involve promoting
foundational childhood/B/ learning opportunities for the community’s younger
generation, /C/ enhancing training module for mature learners, /D/ and resolved
learners’ mental stress./E/

r’s
1) No Error 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) D
122. The role of managing gestational/A/ diabetes in reducing the risk of /B/both
mother and child development/C/ diabetes on a later date /D/cannot been
overemphasised./E/
1) No Error 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) D
123.
ha
The latest war, triggered by Hamas’s October 7, /A/2023 cross-border attack, has
also spilling /B/into West Asia, with Israel invaded Lebanon /C/late month and
Israel and Iran carrying /D/out strikes and counter-strikes. /E/
1) No Error 2) E 3) B 4) C 5) A
124.

E
Officials at the Prime Ministers Office/A/ face other grievous allegation, including/
B/ leak classified documents,/C/ doctoring transcripts of official conversations
d
and/D/ intimidating those with access to such records. /E/
1) No Error 2) A 3) B 4) C 5) E
125. U.S. President-elect Donald Trump is poised to/A/ kick off his second term at
ee

the White House, a four-year/B/ stint that will likely see major shifts in domestic
and foreign /C/policy and transform the functioning/D/ of a wide range of
American public institutions. /E/
C
1) No Error 2) D 3) B 4) C 5) E
Directions (126-130): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
Sr

while answering some of the questions.

The countries of the Global South are most adversely impacted by food, fuel
and fertilizer crises caused by global conflicts and the G-20 must give primacy to
their concerns and priorities, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said on Monday. In
an address on the first day of the G-20 summit, Mr. Modi complimented the
Brazilian presidency of the grouping for taking forward the “people-centric
decisions” taken at the bloc’s summit in New Delhi last year. The Indian G-20
C
presidency’s call for “One earth, one family, one future” continued to resonate at
the Rio conversations, he said. U.S. President Joe Biden, Mr. Modi, Chinese
President Xi Jinping, French President Emmanuel Macron and British Prime
Minister Keir Starmer are among the leaders attending the two-day summit at
Rio de Janeiro’s Modern Art Museum. “I would like to say that countries of the
Global South are most adversely impacted by the food, fuel and fertilizer crises
caused by global conflicts,” he said. (A) “So our(1) discussions(2) can only be
priorities (3) when we keep in mind the challenges and successful (4) of the
Global South.” The Prime Minister made the remarks at the G-20 session on
“Social inclusion and the fight against hunger and poverty”. The opening day’s
highlight was the launch of a global alliance to combat poverty and hunger that
has been supported by at least 80 nations. In a post on X, Mr. Modi called the
initiative “commendable” saying it marks a significant stride towards ensuring
food security and uplifting vulnerable communities worldwide. In his remarks at
the session, the Prime Minister said India believed in the approaches of “Back to
basics” and “March to future” and that is why it is emphasising organic farming,
popularising millets and encouraging climate-resilient crop varieties.

14
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

Speaking about India’s initiatives to deal with hunger and poverty, Mr. Modi
said India had pulled 250 million people out of poverty in the last 10 years and
was distributing free food grains to 800 million people in the country. He also
highlighted the steps taken by India to strengthen food security in Africa and
elsewhere. “Over 800 million people are being given food grains free of cost; 550
million people are benefiting from the world’s biggest health insurance scheme,”
he said. “Now, 60 million senior citizens, over the age of 70, will also be able to
benefit from free health insurance,” he said. “Over 300 million women micro-
entrepreneurs have been linked to banks and given access to credit,” Mr. Modi
added. “Under the world’s larger crop insurance scheme, over 40 million farmers
have received benefits worth 20 billion U.S. dollars,” he added. The Prime
Minister also said India has developed over 2,000 climate-resilient crop varieties

r’s
and has started the ‘Digital Agriculture Mission’.
126. Which of the following is TRUE based on the passage?
1) Prime Minister Narendra Modi emphasized that the Global South is most
adversely impacted by the food, fuel, and fertilizer crises caused by global conflicts.
2) A global alliance to combat poverty and hunger, supported by at least 80 nations,
was launched at the G-20 summit.
ha
3) The G-20 summit in Rio de Janeiro focused on “One earth, one family, one
future.”
1) Only I 2)Only II 3)Only III 4)Both I and II 5)All the above
127.

E
What was the primary focus of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s address at the G-
20 summit?
1) Promoting global trade agreements
d
2) Emphasizing the challenges of the Global South due to food, fuel, and fertilizer
crises
3) Discussing the impact of artificial intelligence on global economies
ee

4) Highlighting India’s space exploration initiatives

5) None of these
128. Which of the following initiatives was highlighted by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi as part of India’s efforts to address hunger and poverty?
C
1) Distribution of free food grains to 800 million people
2) Offering free health insurance to all citizens regardless of age
3) Providing credit access to 300 million women micro-entrepreneurs
Sr

4) Both 1 and 3
5) Both 2 and 3
129. Find the error in the sentence given below.
“Under the world’s largest crop/A/ insurance scheme, beyond/B/ 40 million
farmers have received benefits/C/ worth 20 billion U.S. dollars.”/D/
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) No error
130. The sentence given in (A) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given bold
C
words which of the followings must interchange to make the sentence
grammatically and contextually correct and meaningful?
1) (2)-(4) 2) (1)-(2) 3) (3)-(4) 4) (1)-(4) 5) (2)-(3)
Direction (131-135): Rearrange the following sentences to form a meaningful
paragraph and then answer the questions given below them.
(A) Merchants would likely pass those costs on to consumers, pushing up prices
for a wide range of products.
(B) Democrats still hold on to at least one lever of power: the Republicans’ 53-47
majority in the Senate leaves the minority party able to block legislation with the
filibuster rule.
(C) Similarly, Trump’s proposed campaign of mass deportation could remove workers
from vital industries like homebuilding, further raising prices.
(D) However, it would also carry risks, especially if he enacts heavy tariffs, as he
pledged to do on the campaign trail.
(E) Economists have widely predicted that Trump’s economic agenda could push
economic growth upward.
131. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence of the paragraph so formed?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E

15
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

132. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph so formed?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
133. Which of the following is the FIFTH (LAST) sentence of the paragraph so formed?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
134. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence of the paragraph so formed?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
135. Which of the following is the FOURTH sentence of the paragraph so formed?
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D 5) E
Directions (136-138): In the following questions two statements are given,
with some words in bold. Select the correct pair of bold words that are to be

r’s
interchanged to make both the sentences grammatically correct.
136. 1) For anyone who has been paying establishment (A), the role of immigration(B)
in the just concluded(C) presidential election could not have come as a surprise(D).
2) Across the Western world, concerns(E) about high levels of immigration and
the perceived failure of the attention (F) to address nagging public disquiet about
ha
its ostensible(G) effects on social integration and infrastructure have sown
mistrust(H) between the electorate and the political elite.
1) A-F 2) B-G 3) D-F 4) C-H 5) None of these

E
137. 1) Russia’s war in Ukraine has made clear (A) that the EU should expanding (B)
its energy sources, but it has not yet sparked(C) a bloc-wide turn toward(D)
nuclear power.
d
2) Instead, the war appears (E) to have led to a hardening (F) of countries’ long-
held positions(G) for and against diversify (H) nuclear power.
1) A-E 2) B-F 3) C-G 4) B-H 5) None of these
ee

138. 1) Walmart (WMT) and Target (TGT) together accounted for some $140 billion in
U.S. sales, reflecting their redefined (A) dominance, unparalleled(B) efficiency,
noteworthy(C) resilience, and commendable(D) adaptability in the retail industry.
C
2) These retail giants have captured(E) a significant market share, sustained(F)
their growth despite economic challenges, astounding (G) consumer expectations,
Sr

and consistently delivered(H) exceptional value to their customers.

1) A-E 2) A-G 3) D-F 4) C-H 5) None of these
Directions (139-141): In the following question, a sentence is divided into three
parts, given in column I, II and III. Match the statements from column 1 with
those in column 2 and column 3 and find which of the following triplets given in
the options make contextually and grammatically correct .
C
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III

A) Your insurance D) and life itself and it P) but you should also
advisor is always there is designed to protect know for yourself what
for you against financial loss your contract says.
resulting from
unforeseen
circumstances
B) Insurance is a broad E) to help you with the Q) by sharing or pooling
topic that includes tricky terms in the the risk of loss with
protections of homes, insurance forms, other policyholders.
139. cars or boats, personal
health,
C) Subrogation allows F) a loss to the insured R) money that it has
an insurer to sue a and pursues all paid to the insured as a
third party that has methods of getting back result of the loss.
caused some of the

1) ADP 2) BDQ 3)CEP 4)AFQ & CEP 5) AFR & CDQ

16
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III

A) Unions may also D) providing facilities to P) which reduces the

negotiate with train workers, or a likelihood of jobs being
employers to ensure variety of other means shifted overseas.
B) An excess supply of E) that their members Q) designed to create a
workers is particularly are better trained and more skilled workforce.

r’s
harmful to employees thus more productive,
140.
C) Nations may try F) working in industries R) those with jobs that
incentivizing training with low barriers to don’t require a degree
through tax breaks, entry for new or any specialized
ha employees—that is, training.

1) BDP 2) BFR & CDQ

E 3)CFP 4)ADP & BFR 5) AFR & CDQ

d
COLUMN I COLUMN II COLUMN III
ee

A) Fixed-rate CDs may D) other fixed-income P) will rise over the time
not pay as much securities, but that the CD locks up
interest as conservative savers cash.
C
accept
B) An investor in a E) than a fixed-rate CD Q) the tradeoff of lower
Sr

variable-rate CD is less buyer and may believe interest for lower risk.
141. risk-averse that interest rates
C) Money market F) liquidity and higher R) suitable for
accounts are designed interest rates compared emergency funds or
for those seeking a to regular savings short-term savings
C
balance of accounts, goals.

1) CDR 2) ADQ & BEP 3) AER & CDP 4) CEQ 5)AFQ , BDR & CEQ
Directions (142-144): Which of the following phrases (I), (II) and (III) given below
each sentence should replace the phrase printed in bold letters to make the
sentence grammatically correct. Choose the best option among the five given
alternatives that reflect the correct use of phrase in the context of the
grammatically correct sentence. If the sentence is correct as it is, mark (5) I.e.,
“No correction required” as the answer.
142. Miners, participants who compete in a race to solve a cryptographic puzzle, is
given new bitcoins if they are the first to solve it.
I. are given new bitcoin if they are the first to solve it
II. are given new bitcoins if they are the first to solve it
III. are giving new bitcoins if they are the first to solve it
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) Both II and III 5) No correction required
17
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

143. The SNS grew out of an earlier program, the National Pharmaceutical Stockpile,
which Congress created in 1999 to serve as an emergency supply of drugs and
vaccines in accordance with a terrorist attack or other crisis affecting public
health.
I. in the wake of a terrorist attack or other crisis affecting public health.
II. because of a terrorist attack or other crisis affecting public health.
III. in front of a terrorist attack or other crisis affecting public health.
1) Only I 2) Both II and III 3) Only III
4) Both I and II 5) No correction required

r’s
144. In a commendable act of community spirit, the neighbors have been visiting the
elderly couple across the street to assist them with their household chores.
I. the neighbors had visited the elderly couple across
II. the neighbor have visited the elderly couple across
III. the neighbors have visited the elderly couple across
1) Only I
ha 2) Only II 3) Only III
4) Both II and III 5) No correction required

E
Direction (145-147): In each question there is a statement followed by three
starters which are denoted by A, B and C. Each starter is a group of first few
d
words of the sentence which on proper completion, is supposed to convey the
same meaning of the original statement. Find out which one or more starters can
form grammatically correct sentences(s) to convey the SAME meaning of the original
ee

statement.
145. Last year, 65,600 fires were recorded about half of them from Punjab alone. The
State, being India’s highest paddy cultivator, has been responsible for 50-60% of
C
farm fires in most years.
A) Being India’s highest paddy…..
Sr

B) Punjab, India’s leading paddy cultivator….

C) Si nce Punjab alone responsible…
1) Only B 2) A and C 3) Only C 4) Only A 5) None of these
146. As artificial intelligence evolves at an unprecedented pace, its impact on industries,
societies, and individuals continues to deepen. Recognising the transformative
potential of this technology, the Hindu is organising an AI summit to explore its
C
far-reaching implications.
A) Recognising the transformative potential of…..
B) Although the impacts on industries…
C) With artificial intelligence evolving at an unprecedented pace….
1) OnlyA 2) B and C 3) A and B
4) Only A and C 5) None of these
147. Automation is displacing workers, and age-old craftspersons are being eradicated.
In this rapidly advancing era, we are neglecting the enjoyment of basic joys and
simple pleasures.
A) Moderately age-old craftspersons are being eradicated....
B) Understanding the rapidly advancing…
C) We are neglecting the enjoyment of…
1) A 2) A and B 3) C 4) A, B and C 5) None

18
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

Directions (148-155): Read the following passage carefully and answer the
questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them
while answering some of the questions.
Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman on Monday emphasised the need to
retain public confidence in India’s banking system by urging lenders to rein in
mis-selling of insurance products and other activities that raise customer costs,
and be more assertive(A) about resolving distressed assets through the
government-backed bad bank NARCL. “Your core business is to mobilise deposits
and lend money. I wish that core is looked into again, only to pursue it further,”
Ms. Sitharaman said at an SBI event, singling out banks’ distribution of insurance

r’s
products as a cause of concern. “I wish to say this for due consideration of banks’
boards. While this model [bank assurance] has significantly contributed to
improving insurance penetration across the country, it has also raised concerns
about instances of mis-selling, and I would say, contributed in indirect ways of
increased cost of borrowing for the customers,” she pointed out. “So banks will
ha
have to look at it with a lot more emphasis(B) on their core banking activities and
not burden customers with insurance which they don’t require. Banks must
prioritise(C) on transparency, ethical practices and clear communication strategies

E
for us to earn the trust of the people,” she stressed.
On the NARCL, which has acquired 18 accounts with a loan exposure of
around Rs. 92,000 crore so far, the minister said banks can be more ambitious
d
and the NARCL more proactive(D) in getting this working “far more speedily”. “I
will say a few things on which I would like the bank management, particularly of
SBI, to pay a bit more attention. Banks need to be equipped to deal with the flow
ee

of distressed assets and the markets need to be equipped to channel investments

into the reconstruction and revival of such assets. This is where the NARCL can
be used,” she remarked. “The establishment of a government-backed company for
C
the aggregation and resolution of ___________ assets will further improve liquidity
and competition in the market,” she said.
Sr

148. What did Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman emphasise during her address at
the SBI event?
1) The need for increased foreign investments
2) The importance of retaining public confidence in the banking system
3) The reduction of interest rates for loans
4) The role of RBI in regulating banks
C
5) All the above
149. According to Ms. Sitharaman, what concern is associated with banks’ distribution
of insurance products?
1) Lack of customer awareness
2) Too many insurance products available
3) Increased cost of borrowing for customers
4) Inadequate training for bank staff
5) None of these
150. What did the Finance Minister suggest banks should focus on instead of insurance
product sales?
1) Focusing more on their core banking activities
2) Expanding their digital platforms
3) Providing more loans to businesses
4) Lowering interest rates on deposits
5) Reducing the number of branches

19
Sreedhar’s CCE UNION BANK OF INDIA (LBO) - MT - 26

151. According to the Finance Minister, how will the establishment of the NARCL
improve the market?
1) By reducing the cost of borrowing
2) By creating more government jobs
3) By improving liquidity and competition in the market
4) By increasing foreign investments
5) By enhancing digital banking capabilities
152. What can be inferred about Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman’s view on the
relationship between banks’ non-core activities and customer trust?

r’s
1) Banks should prioritize insurance sales to increase their revenue.
2) Non-core activities, such as mis-selling insurance, could harm customer
trust and raise borrowing costs.
3) Banks’ primary concern should be increasing insurance penetration across the
country.
ha
4) The government’s focus is solely on resolving distressed assets.
5) None of these

E
153. Which of the following is the most suitable meaning of the phrase “far more
speedily” as used in the passage?
d
1) At a slower pace 2) With less effort
3) Much more quickly 4) In a more organized manner
ee

5) With greater caution

154. Select the correct antonym to one of the four bolded words denoted by (A),(B),(C)
and (D) given in the passage.
C
1) docile 2) swift 3) naive 4) resilient 5) none
Sr

155. Select the correct options which fits in the blank given in the passage.
I. grieved II. troubled III. Distressed
1) Only I 2) Only II 3) Both II and III
4) Only III 5) All the above

KEY
C
1.4 2.4 3.3 4.5 5.1 6.1 7.2 8.4 9.1 10.2
11.2 12.2 13.3 14.1 15.5 16.2 17.2 18.5 19.5 20.1
21.4 22.2 23.4 24.2 25.3 26.5 27.1 28.3 29.2 30.3
31.4 32.5 33.2 34.3 35.3 36.2 37.2 38.3 39.4 40.1
41.4 42.2 43.2 44.4 45.3 46.3 47.4 48.5 49.1 50.2 SCAN QR FOR
51.3 52.5 53.3 54.4 55.3 56.5 57.4 58.1 59.3 60.5 OUR RESULTS
61.4 62.5 63.2 64.4 65.5 66.4 67.4 68.3 69.5 70.4
71.5 72.1 73.4 74.2 75.5 76.1 77.4 78.2 79.3 80.2
81.2 82.3 83.2 84.1 85.3 86.5 87.1 88.2 89.4 90.1
91.1 92.1 93.2 94.5 95.3 96.1 97.1 98.5 99.2 100.4
101.4 102.4 103.5 104.2 105.1 106.3 107.5 108.5 109.1 110.1
111.2 112.4 113.5 114.1 115.3 116.3 117.4 118.3 119.5 120.2
121.4 122.3 123.5 124.5 125.1 126.5 127.2 128.4 129.2 130.3
131.1 132.5 133.2 134.4 135.3 136.1 137.4 138.2 139.2 140.2
141.2 142.2 143.4 144.3 145.1 146.4 147.3 148.2 149.3 150.1
151.3 152.2 153.3 154.1 155.3

20