RM

SMARTS (Smart Moves to Avoid Repeated Test Slips)

(For AIATS-06)

Physics : Moving Charges and Magnetism, Magnetism and Matter, Electromagnetic Induction,
Alternating Current; Electromagnetic Waves
Chemistry : Amines, Coordination Compounds, The d & f-Block Elements
Botany : Molecular Basis of Inheritance, Microbes in Human Welfare
Zoology : Evolution, Human Health & Disease

Dear Aspirant,
This sheet is compilation of errors made by maximum number of students in past three years AIATS.
You are strongly advised to go through these questions as well as topics to improve your performance.
"PREVENTION IS BETTER THAN CURE"

PHYSICS
Concept: Force on Conductor in Uniform Magnetic 2. A circular loop of mass m and radius r lies on a table
Field in x-y plane as shown in figure. A uniform magnetic
field B is switched on along positive x-axis. The
1. A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola.
current I in the loop, so that loop just lift from table is
y2 = 2x carries a current of 2 A. The wire is placed in

a uniform magnetic field B  2k T as shown in
figure. The magnetic force on wire (in newton) is

mg
(1)
2rB

mg
(2)
(1)  8 i (2) 16 i rB

mg
(3) 8 i (4) 16 i (3)
r 2 B
Concept: Torque on Current Carrying Loop in
mg
Uniform Magnetic Field (4)
4rB
SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)

Concept: Transformers 7. A parallel plate capacitor with plate area 2A and

3. Soft iron is preferred as the core of a transformer due separation between the plates d, is charged by a
to its constant current i. Consider a plane surface of area
A/4 parallel to the plates and drawn symmetrically
(1) High retentivity, high coercivity
between the plates, what is the displacement current
(2) High retentivity, low coercivity through this area?
(3) Low retentivity, high coercivity (1) i (2) 2i
(4) Low retentivity, low coercivity (3) i/4 (4) i/8
Concept: Relation Between Electric Field, Magnetic
Concept: Magnetic Field at Centre of Electron
Field and Speed of Light
Revolving in Circular Path
4. A transmitting antenna of a radio-station is mounted
8. An electron is revolving in a circular path of radius
vertically. At a point 10 km due north of the
4 × 10–10 m with a speed of 9 × 106 m/s. The magnetic
transmitter, the peak value of electric field is
field at the center of circular path will be
10–3 V/m. The magnitude of magnetic field at that
location (in gauss) is (1) 1.2 T (2) 2.4 T

(1) 3.33 (3) 0.9 T (4) 3.6 T

(2) 3.33 × 10–8 Concept: Time Varying Magnetic Field

(3) 3.33 × 10–12 9. Which of the following is true for induced electric
fields due to time varying magnetic field?
(4) 3.33 × 10–5
(1) They are conservative
Concept: Field Induction
5. A ring of radius a rotates with a constant angular (2) Their field lines form closed loops

velocity  about its axis (passing through its centre (3) Both (1) and (2)
and perpendicular to its plane). The ring is in x-y (4) Neither (1) nor (2)
plane. The potential difference induced in the ring
Concept: Lorentz Force
would be zero, if uniform magnetic field is along
10. If a charged particle which is projected in an
(1) x-axis (2) y-axis electromagnetic field, experiences no
(3) z-axis (4) All of these electromagnetic force, then

Concept: Motion of Charged Particle in a Magnetic (1) The electric field must be zero
and Electric Field (2) The magnetic field must be zero
6. A positively charged particle moves in a region (3) The electric field may or may not be zero
having a uniform magnetic field and uniform electric
(4) Both (1) and (2)
field in same direction. At time t = 0, the velocity of
the particle is perpendicular to the field direction. The Concept: Lenz’s Law
subsequent path of the particle will be 11. A coil and a bulb are connected in series with a DC
(1) A straight line source. A soft iron core is then inserted in the coil.
Then in steady state condition
(2) A circle
(1) Intensity of the bulb remains same
(3) A helix with uniform pitch
(2) Intensity of bulb decreases
(4) A helix with increasing pitch
(3) Intensity of bulb increases
Concept: Displacement Current
(4) The bulb ceases to glow

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SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)

Concept: Magnetic Field Strength

12. Oersted is a unit of
(1) Impedance
(2) Magnetic field
(3) Magnetic dipole moment
(4) Pole strength (1) 10 2 V (2) 20 V
Concept: Earth’s Magnetism
(3) 20 2 V (4) 16.7 V
13. If at a place the value of true dip is 22.5°, then at that
place apparent angle of dip would be Concept: Poynting Vector

(1) Generally less than 22.5° 16. For an EM wave travelling in vacuum if E0 = 50 V/m,
(2) Generally greater than 22.5° then the value of average Poynting vector is

(3) Always equal to 22.5° (1) 6.53 W/m2 (2) 3.31 W/m2

(4) Equal to 11.25° (3) 2.63 W/m2 (4) 13.23 W/m2

Concept: Time Period of Bar Magnet Concept: Relation Between Electric Field, Magnetic
14. Time period of a bar magnet in earth’s magnetic field Field and Speed of Light
T 17. The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave
is s . If it is cut perpendicular to length in to 4 equal
2 is given by
parts, then time period of each part of magnet in
By = 3 × 10–6 sin(0.3 × 102x + 1.4 × 109t) T,
same field is
expression for the electric field is
T T
(1) s (2) s (1) Ex = 140 sin(0.3 × 102x + 1.4 × 109t)V/m
8 12
(2) Ey = 900 sin(0.3 × 102x + 1.4 × 109t)V/m
T T
(3) s (4) s (3) Ez = 140 sin(0.3 × 102x + 1.4 × 109t)V/m
4 2
Concept: Calculation of rms Values (4) Ez = 600 sin(0.3 × 102x + 1.4 × 109t)V/m

15. The root mean square voltage of the square

waveform shown in the figure is

CHEMISTRY
Concept: Bonding in Coordination Compounds
18. Most stable complex ion among the following is (1)
(1) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ (2) [Mn(H2O)6]2+
(3) [Ru(H2O)6]3+ (4) [Os(H2O)6]3+
Concept: Nitro Compounds
(2)

19. (3)

Product ‘P’ is
(4)

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SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)

Concept: Bonding in Coordination Compounds (1) Acetylation of toluene

20. Consider the following statements (2) Benzoylation of aniline
(a) [Ni(CO)4] is a planar complex.
(3) Acetylation of benzoic acid
(b) [Pt(CN)4]2– is a planar complex.
(c) [Ti(H2O)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex ion. (4) Benzoylation of benzaldehyde

Choose the correct option from the following. Concept: Bonding in Coordination Compounds
(1) (b) only (2) (a), (b) and (c) 24. Pick out the correct statement with respect to
(3) (b) and (c) only (4) (a) and (b) only [Mn(CN)6]3–
Concept: General Properties of the Transition (1) It has magnetic moment due to two unpaired
Elements (d-Block) electrons
21. Among the following metals, one with the highest (2) It is outer orbital complex
melting point is (3) It is diamagnetic in nature
(4) It is heteroleptic complex
(1) Ti (2) V
Concept: Basic Character of Amines
(3) Cr (4) Mn 25. The correct order of the pKa of ethyl substituted
Concept: Some Important Compounds of Transition amines in gas phase is
Elements (1) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N
22. Which of the following oxo ions has highest oxidising (2) (C2H5)2NH > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)NH2
power? (3) C2H5NH2 > (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH
(4) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2
(1) VO2 (2) Cr2O72
Concept: Stereoisomerism
(3) MnO 4 (4) TiO2+ 26. Number of geometrical isomers of [Pt(NH3)(H2O)
(SCN) (NO2)] is
Concept: Chemical Reactions
(1) 4 (2) 8
23. Schotten-Baumann reaction involves
(3) 12 (4) 11
BOTANY
Concept: The DNA 29. A single stranded linear DNA molecule has 1000
27. The total numbers of base pairs in genetic material of nucleotides. Calculate the number of phosphodiester
an organism is 4.6 × 106 bp, then the length of genetic bonds in it.
material is approximately (1) 1000 (2) 999
(1) 2.2 meters (2) 1.56 mm (3) 998 (4) 500
(3) 1.5 m (4) 1.2 meters Concept: Transcription
28. A cytidine molecule in a polynucleotide chain contains 30. What will be the sequence of mRNA produced by the
A. Deoxyribose sugar following stretch of DNA?
B. Cytosine
3A A C T G G A A T 5Template strand
C. N-glycosidic linkage
5T T G A C C T T A 3Coding strand
D. Phosphate group
(1) A, B and C only (1) 3A U U C C A G U U 5
(2) All A, B, C and D (2) 5A U U C C A G U G 3
(3) B and D only
(3) 5A A C U G G A A U 3
(4) B and C only
(4) 3U U G A C C U U A 5

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SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)

31. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base (2) Only (A), (B), & (C)
sequence as CTATG, what would be the
(3) Only (A) & (D)
complementary RNA sequence?
(4) All (A), (B), (C) & (D)
(1) G A T A C (2) C U A U G
(3) G A A A C (4) G A U A C 34. Major composition of ‘biogas’ includes
(1) N2 and O2 (2) H2S and SO2
32. Transcription unit in DNA includes all of the following
regions, except (3) CH4 and CO2 (4) O2 and H2S

(1) Promoter (2) Structural gene 35. Technology of biogas in India is developed by
(1) KVIC and IARI
(3) Terminator (4) Ori
(2) IARI only
Concept: Microbes in Production in Biogas
(3) KVIC only
33. Which of the given gases is/are produced when
(4) Ministry of Environment and Forests
methanogens grow anaerobically on cellulosic
material? Concept: Microbes as Biofertilisers
36. All of the following are autotrophic organisms that can
(A) Methane
fix atmospheric nitrogen, except
(B) CO2 (1) Nostoc (2) Anabaena
(C) H2 (3) Azospirillum (4) Oscillatoria
37. Leguminous plants show symbiotic association with
(D) H2S
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azospirillum
(1) Only (A) & (B)
(3) Azotobacter (4) Glomus

ZOOLOGY
Concept: Australian Marsupials
(1) Seven (2) Six
38. How many of the animals given in the box below (3) Four (4) Five
are examples of adaptive radiation seen in
marsupials of Australia? Concept: Darwin’s Finches
40. Darwin’s finches are one of the examples of all,
Wombat, Numbat, Lemur, Spotted cuscus,
except
Flying squirrel, Bobcat, Tasmanian wolf
(1) Adaptive radiation
Select the correct option.
(2) Divergent evolution
(1) Four (2) Five
(3) Natural selection
(3) Six (4) Three
(4) Convergent evolution
Concept: Major Categories of Psychoactive Drugs,
Concept: Origin and Evolution of Man
Their Effects and Clinical Uses
41. Which of the following had the largest brain
39. How many of the diseases given below in the box capacity among the given hominids?
are associated with the increased incidence of
harmful effects of smoking? (1) Homo habilis
(2) Homo erectus
Cancer of lung, cancer of urinary bladder,
cancer of throat, emphysema, bronchitis, gastric (3) Homo sapiens
ulcer, coronary heart disease (4) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis

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SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)
Concept: Vaccination and Immunisation (1) (a) and (b) only (2) (a), (b), (c) and (e)
42. How many diseases given below in the box have (3) (c), (d) and (e) (4) (d) and (e) only
been controlled to a large extent by the use of
Concept: Acquired Immunity
vaccines?
46. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t.
Smallpox, Polio, Diphtheria, Pneumonia, Tetanus antibodies?
Choose the correct option. (1) Consist of heavy chains and light chains
(1) Two (2) Three (2) Basic structure contains two paratopes
(3) Five (4) Four
(3) IgG is predominantly present in colostrum
Concept: Australian Marsupials
(4) Associated with primary and secondary
43. Identify the below given figure and select the
immune response
phenomenon which is exhibited by it
Concept: Bacterial Diseases

47. Read the following statements and choose the

correct option.

Statement A: Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli

of the lungs whereas common cold pathogen
affects nose and respiratory passage but not the
lungs.

Statement B: Macrophages and helper T-

lymphocytes, both act as HIV factory.

(1) Only statement A is correct

(2) Only statement B is correct

(1) Convergent evolution
(2) Divergent evolution (3) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Adaptive convergence (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(4) Co-evolution
Concept: Acquired Immunity
Concept: Origin and Evolution of Plants
48. Read the following statements and select the
44. All of the following have directly evolved from
Psilophyton, except option that correctly states each of them as true(T)
(1) Ferns (2) Ginkgos or false(F).

(3) Conifers (4) Seed ferns A. Widal test is used for diagnosis of typhoid.
Concept: Innate Immunity
B. Primary and secondary immune responses are
45. Physiological barriers of innate immunity include
functions of all leucocytes.
(a) Macrophages
C. Two disulfide bonds are present between
(b) NK cells
heavy chains of antibody IgG.
(c) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the
respiratory tract A B C
(d) Saliva in the mouth (1) T T F
(2) T F F
(e) Acid in the stomach
(3) T F T
Choose the correct answer from the options given
(4) T T T
below.

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SMARTS AIATS-06 (RM)
Concept: Diseases Caused by Protozoans Concept: Origin and Evolution of Animals
49. Read the following stages in life cycle of 51. Following statements are based on evolutionary
Plasmodium. Select the option with all correct history of vertebrates through geological periods.
statements. Select the option with all correct statements.
(a) Parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells and
(a) Saurapsids are considered as ancestors of
RBCs but bursting of red blood cells causes
both reptiles and birds.
cycles of fever and other symptoms.
(b) Dinosaurs and Crocodiles have evolved from
(b) Sexual stages develop in red blood cells but it
thecodonts.
is completed in the gut of mosquito.
(c) Turtles evolved in the Cretaceous period along
(c) Sporozoites escape from gut and migrate to the
salivary glands of mosquito. with tuataras.

(d) Sporozoites are injected in warm blooded host (d) Pelycosaurs evolved into crocodiles in Triassic
by infected female mosquito bite. period of Mesozoic era.

(1) Only (a) and (b) (2) Only (a), (b) and (c) (1) (a) and (b)
(3) Only (a), (c) and (d) (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (c)
Concept: Bacterial Disease (3) (c) and (d)
50. Read the following statements A and B and choose (4) (a) and (d)
the correct option.
Concept: Factors Affecting Hardy-Weinberg
Statement A: Dysentery, plague and diphtheria Principle
are bacterial diseases in humans.
52. Sexual reproduction contributes to evolution
Statement B: In severe cases of pneumonia, the because it introduces variations. These variations
lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in normally appear mainly due to
colour.
(1) Reunion of gametes
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
(2) Rearrangement of cells
(2) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Genetic recombination
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Chromosomal aberration
(4) Only statement B is correct

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