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UPSC & State Public Service Commission Exams

GENERAL STUDIES
Volume-7

ENVIRONMENT
&
ECOLOGY
Chapterwise Solved Papers
Chief Editor
Anand Mahajan
Editor
Adv. Abhishek Singh
Writer
Siddhartha Srivastava (M.Tech.)
Computer Graphics by
Balkrishna, Charan Singh
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CONTENTS

Analysis Chart of UPSC and various State Public Service

Commissions Exam Papers ............................. ................3-5

Analysis of Pie Chart & Bar Graph ............... ................6-6

Environment : An Introduction ................................... 7-15

Ecology ......................................................................... 16-26

Biodiversity .................................................................. 27-42

Environmental Pollution ............................................. 43-64

Green house Effect and Climate Change ................... 65-73

Ozone Layer Depletion................................................ 74-78

Water Conservation .................................................... 79-84

Conservation of Forest and Wild Life........................ 85-98

Sanctuary/ Biosphere Reserve .................................. 99-128

Non- Conventional Energy Sources ....................... 129-134

Miscellaneous ........................................................... 135-160

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ANALYSIS OF QUESTION PAPERS

Analysis of Civil Service Examination Question Papers of Union and
various State Public Service Commissions
Total Exam Environment
S.No. Exam Name And Year
Papers & Ecology
Union Public Service Commission
A. UPSC I.A.S. (Pre)
Year 1993-2010 18×150 = 2700
Year 2011-2022 12×100 = 1200 197
UP Public Service Commission
B. UP P.C.S. (Pre)
Year 1991-1997 8 × 120 = 960
Year 1998-2022 25 × 150 = 4050 189
Year 2004 Spl., 2008 Spl., 2015 (Re-Exam) 3 × 150 = 450
C. UP P.C.S. (Mains)
Year 2002-2017 (2002, 2003 in 1-1 Paper 30 × 150 = 4500
& 2004-2017 in 2-2 Paper) 95
Year 2004 Spl., 2008 Spl. (Every Year Two Papers) 4 × 150 = 600
D. UP UDA/LDA/RO/ARO (Pre & Mains) Exam.
U.P. UDA/LDA (Pre) 2001 1 × 150 = 150
U.P. UDA/LDA (Pre) 2006 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2010 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2010 Spl. 1 × 140 = 140 57
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2013 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2014 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2016 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2017 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2016 (Re. Exam 2020) 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Pre) 2021 1 × 140 = 140
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2010 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2010 Spl. 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2013 1 × 120 = 120 22
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2014 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2017 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2016 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. RO/ARO (Mains) 2021 1 × 120 = 120
E. UP Lower Subordinate (Pre & Mains) Exam.
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 1998 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2002 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2002 Spl. 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2003 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2004 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2004 Spl.
34
1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2008 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2009 1 × 100 = 100
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2013 1 × 150 = 150
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Pre) 2015 1 × 150 = 150
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Mains) 2013 1 × 120 = 120
U.P. Lower Subordinate (Mains) 2015 1 × 120 = 120

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F. UP PSC ACF/RFO Exam

U.P. PSC ACF Exam 2013 3 × 150 = 450 68
U.P. PSC ACF Exam 2015, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2020, 2021 14 × 150 = 2100
G. UP PSC AE Exam
UP PSC AE Exam 2019, 2021 2 × 25 = 50 3
H. Uttarakhand Public Service Commission
Uttarakhand PSC Exam 2002-2016, 2021 8 × 150 = 1200 31
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) Exam 2007 & 2015 2 × 150 = 300 5
Uttarakhand RO/ARP (Pre) Exam 2021 1 × 150 = 150 8
I. MP Public Service Commission
MP Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 1990- 2005-06 14×75 = 1050
MP Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2008-2010 3×150 = 450 48
MP Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2012-2021 10×100 = 1000
J. Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission
Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2003 & 2×75 = 150
2004-05
Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2008 1×100 = 100 32
Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2010-11 1×150 = 150
Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2012 - 10×100 = 1000
2021
K. Rajasthan Public Service Commission
Rajasthan Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam1992- 2012 12×100 = 1200
53
Rajasthan Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2013-14, 5×150 = 750
2015, 2016, 2018, 2021
L. Bihar Public Service Commission
Bihar Public Service Commission (Pre) 38th Exam 1992 1×100 = 100
Bihar Public Service Commission (Pre) 39th–65th Exam 20×150 = 3000 24
1994-2019, 66th (Re-Exam) 2021, 67th (Cancel) 2022
M. Jharkhand Public Service Commission
Jharkhand Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2003, 4×100 = 400
2006, 2008, 2010 17
Jharkhand Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 6×100 = 600
2013 (I, II), 2016 (I, II), 2021 (I, II)
N. Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission
Himachal Pradesh Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 9×100 = 900 51
2010-2021
O. Haryana Public Service Commission
Haryana Public Service Commission (Pre) Exam 2014, 2017, 3×100 = 300 15
2021
P. Punjab Public Service Commission
Punjab Public Service Commission (Pre) 2015, 3 × 100 = 300 7
2018, 2020
Q. Maharashtra Public Service Commission
Maharashtra Public Service Commission (Pre) 7×100=700 21
Exam 2015-2021
R. Goa Public Service Commission
Goa Public Service Commission (Pre) 2022 1 × 75 = 75 2
S. Gujarat Public Service Commission
Gujarat Public Service Commission (Pre) (Paper-I, 6 × 200 = 1200 13
II) 2018, 2019, 2021

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T. Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission

Tamil Nadu Public Service Commission (Pre) 6 × 50 = 300 25
2014-2019
U. Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission
Andhra Pradesh Public Service Commission (Pre) 3 × 150 = 450 13
(Group-I, Group-II) 2017, 2019
V. Karnataka Public Service Commission
Karnataka Public Service Commission (Pre) 2020 1 × 100 = 100 1
W. Kerala Public Service Commission
Kerala Public Service Commission (Pre) 2020
(Paper-I) 1 × 100 = 100 3
1 × 70 = 70
(Paper-II)
X. Odissa Public Service Commission
Odissa Public Service Commission (Pre) 2018, 3 × 100 = 300 2
2020, 2021
Y. Telangana State Public Service Commission
Telangana State Public Service Commission (Pre) 2 × 150 = 300 6
2016, 2017
Z. West Bengal Public Service Commission
West Bengal Public Service Commission (Pre) 6 × 100 = 600 15
2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, 2019, 2021
AA. Arunachal Pradesh Public Service Commission
Arunachal Pradesh Public Service Commission 1 × 100 = 100 3
(Pre) 2021
AB. Assam Public Service Commission
Assam Public Service Commission (Pre) 2021 1 × 100 = 100 1
AC. Manipur Public Service Commission
Manipur Public Service Commission (Pre) 2013, 2 × 200 = 400 3
2016
AD. Sikkim Public Service Commission
Sikkim Public Service Commission (Pre) 2017 1 × 100 = 100 3
AE. Meghalaya Public Service Commission
Meghalaya Public Service Commission (Pre) 2020 1 × 200 = 200 1
AF. Mizoram Public Service Commission
Mizoram Public Service Commission (Pre) 2015, 4 × 100 = 400 7
2017, 2018, 2021
AG. Nagaland Public Service Commission
Nagaland Public Service Commission (Pre) 2017, 3 × 200 = 600 4
2018, 2019
AH. Tripura Public Service Commission
Tripura Public Service Commission (Pre) 2019, 2 × 200 = 400 7
2020
AI. J&K Public Service Commission
J&K Public Service Commission (Pre) 2018, 2021 2 × 100 = 200 8
Total Papers = 317 1094
Note : After due analysis of the above question papers, 1094 questions related to
Environment and Ecology have been presented chapter wise. Questions of repetitive and
similar nature have been included so that the technique of asking questions can benefit the
competitors.

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Trend Analysis of Previous Year Environment Papers

through Pie Chart and Bar Graph

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01.
Environment : An Introduction
1. Environment refers to : 4. Which of the following is related to
(a) The natural world of land, water, air, plants environmental degradation?
and animals that exists around it. (i) Extraction in carrying capacity
(b) The sum total of conditions which surround (ii) Waste generated in Absorptive Capacity
human beings at a given point of time. (iii) Conservation of renewable and non-
(c) The interacting system of physical, biological renewable resources
and cultural elements which are interlinked. (iv) Opportunity cost of negative environment
(d) All the above impact
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2006 Select the correct codes:
Ans : (d) Environment refers to all external conditions (a) 1 and 2 (b) 4 only
in which an organism lives. It comes from the French (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
word "Environ", which means to surround. It is used to J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
describe everything such as places, things, people,
Ans. (b): Environmental degradation is the
nature etc. It also includes thing created by human
deterioration of the environment through depletion of
beings. As per the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986,
resources such as air, water and soil. It is defined as any
‘Environment’ includes water, air and land and the
change or disturbance to the environment perceived to
inter-relationship, which exists among water, air, land
be deleterious or undesirable. Negative environmental
and human beings, other living creatures, plants, micro-
impact has long term opportunity costs involved. When
organism and property. Hence (d) is the correct answer.
the rate of resource extraction is higher than that of its
2. Environment is a composite state of- renewal, many resources get exhausted or become on
(a) Biotic factors the verge of extinction. As a result, we are forced to
(b) Physiographic factors invest too much in exploration of alternate resources.
(c) Abiotic factors The environmental pollution results in bad quality of air
(d) All the above and water, which results in many diseases; like asthma
BPSC (Pre) GS 2011 and cholera. Prevention and treatment of these diseases
Ans: (d) Environment is defined as the total planetary involved huge cost to the society. Thus, it can be said
inheritance and the totality of all the resources. It that the opportunity costs of negative environmental
includes all the biotic and abiotic factors that influence impact is related to environmental degradation.
each other. All living things such as birds, animals, 5. The non- native species successfully establishes
plants, forests and fisheries etc are biotic elements in the introduced environment and causes the
whereas air, water, land and sunlight etc are abiotic damage to the environment due to
elements. (i) Better adaptation to the new environment
3. Environmental degradation means- (ii) All the niches are utilized by the native species
(a) Overall degradation of environmental (iii) Absence of natural enemies in the introduced
attributes region
(b) Adverse changes brought in by human (iv) Low biotic potential
activities Choose the correct option:
(c) Ecological imbalance because of ecological (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
diversity (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(d) All the above J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
UPPCS (Pre) GS 2006 Ans. (b): The non-native species successfully
Ans : (d) Environmental degradation is decline in the establishes in the introduced environment and causes
quality of our environment. This can be a result of the damage to the environment due to various factors,
pollutants that spoil air, water or food supply. The which includes; better adaptation of new environment
over extraction of resources so that little remains for by the non-native species and absence of natural
future use or the destruction of habitats so that the enemies at that particular environment, which may harm
resources, once contained are no longer available. their potential growth at that particular environment. It
While natural disasters can also cause environmental depends on the nature of that particular species, whether
degradation, more often it is the result of human it will protect that particular environment or harm that
activities. environment.
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6. World Nature Conservation Day celebrated 10. Which of the following is a traditional method
annually on_________. of conservation of tree cover across
(a) 28 July (b) 08 July communities in India?
(c) 05 June (d) 25 June (a) Van Mahostav
Karnataka PCS -2020 (b) Sacred groves
Ans. (a) : World Nature Conservation Day is celebrated (c) Growing plantations
on July 28 annually. World Nature Conservation Day (d) Adopt a tree per home
acknowledges that a healthy environment is the APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017)
foundation for a stable and healthy society. Theme for Ans. (b) : Sacred Groves are the tracts of virgin forests
World Nature Conservation Day 2021 was "Forests and that are left untouched by the local inhabitants and are
Livelihoods: Sustaining People and Planet". protected by the local people due to their culture and
7. Homeostasis means: religious beliefs. Sacred groves are relic vegetation of
(a) A tendency of an ecosystem to resist change once dominant flora. They are repositories of our rich
biodiversity. They are also the last bastion, where the
and to remain in a state of equilibrium
rich culture and the customs of the indigenous people
(b) A property of an ecosystem to withstand all
are still preserved. Sacred Groves originated in
kinds of environmental changes Meghalaya. They are unique feature of Khasi and
(c) A characteristic of an ecosystem to convert Jaintia Hills. They are among the few least disturbed
into changes of pollution forest patches, which are serving as the natural treasure
(d) An ecosystem never respond to environmental house of biodiversity and a refuge for a large number of
change endemic, endangered and rare taxa. Sacred groves are
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) found in Aravalli Hills of Rajasthan, Western Ghat
Ans. (a): Maintenance of a constant internal regions of Karnataka and Maharashtra and the Sarguja,
environment by the organisms is known as homeostasis. Chanda and Bastar areas of Madhya Pradesh.
Homeostasis is a term coined to describe the physical 11. Which one is incorrect regarding sustainable
and chemical parameters that an organism must development?
maintain to allow the proper functioning of its (a) The development that meets the needs of the
component cells, tissues, organs and organ systems. present without compromising the ability of
Commensalism is a type of relationship between two future generations to meet their own needs
living organisms in which one-organism benefits from (b) Economic development refers to the flow of
the other without harming it. It is often seen as a goods and services in the economy for a long
resistance to changes in the external environment period of time only
furthermore. Homeostasis is a self-regulating process (c) It is practice of developing land and
that regulates internal variables necessary to sustain life. construction projects in a manner that
8. The maintenance of a constant internal reduces their impact on the environment by
environment is called_______. allowing them to create energy efficient
(a) Symbiosis models of self-sufficiency
(b) Heterobeltiosis (d) To conserve natural resources and to develop
(c) Homeostasis alternate sources of power while reducing
pollution and harm to the environment
(d) Commensalisms
Himanchal PCS 2018
Manipur PSC-2016
Ans : (b) Environment and economy are
Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question.
interdependent and need each other. Development that
9. Which is the first industry using plasma ignores its repercussions on the environment will
technology for the disposal of hazardous waste destroy the environment that sustains life forms. What
for the conservation of the environment and is needed is Sustainable Development. The concept of
natural resources? sustainable development was emphasized by the
(a) Madras Rubber Factory (MRF) United Nations Conference on Environment and
(b) Madras Fertilizer Limited (MFL) Development (UNCED) which defined it as
(c) Bharat Sanchar Nigam Limited (BSNL) ‘development that meets the need of the present
(d) Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL) generation without compromising the ability of the
future generation to meet their own needs’. In more
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
specific terms, sustainable development aims at
Ans. (d) : State-run Steel Authority of India Limited decreasing the absolute poverty of the poor by
(SAIL) using plasma technology for the disposal of providing lasting and secure livelihoods that minimize
hazardous waste for the conservation of the resource depletion, environmental degradation,
environment and natural resources. cultural disruption and social instability.
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12. Given below are two statements, one is labeled 16. Which one of the following is the best strategy
as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). for environment friendly sustainable
Assertion (A) : Sustainable development is development in Indian agriculture?
important for well being of human society. (a) Expansion of cultivable land, increased use of
Reason (R): Sustainable development is a kind of superphosphate, urea and effective biocides
development that meets the needs of the present (b) Wider popularization of high yielding crop
without compromising the ability of future varieties, better and more frequent irrigation
generations to meet their own needs. and increased frequency of aerial sprays
Select the correct answer from the codes given of 2/45 inorganic fertilizers and pesticides
below: (c) Mixed cropping, organic manures, nitrogen
Code: fixing plants and pest resistant crop varieties
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the (d) Improved farm implements and machinery,
correct explanation of (A) use of potent insecticides to minimize post
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the harvest grain losses and mono culture
correct explanation of (A) cropping practices
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false IAS (Pre) G.S 1993
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans : (c) Sustainable agriculture integrates three main
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 goals; environmental health, economic profitability
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above and social and economic equity. Sustainability works
question. on the principle that we must meet the needs of the
present without compromising the ability of the future
13. What is important for Sustainable
generations to meet their own needs. For Indian
Development? prospective, organic farming, vermicomposting,
(a) Conservation of biological diversity nitrogen fixations, crop rotation, inter cropping and
(b) Prevention and control of pollution integrated pest management are the ways for
(c) Decreasing poverty environment friendly sustainable development in
(d) All of the above agriculture.
U.P. Lower (Pre) 2004 17. Which one of the following agricultural
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above practices is eco-friendly?
question. (a) Organic farming
14. Sustainable development is a matter of inter- (b) Shifting cultivation
generational sensibility in respect of use of (c) Cultivation of high yielding varieties
(a) Natural resources (b) Material resources (d) Growing plants in glass-houses
(c) Industrial resources (d) Social resources Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2014
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 Ans : (a) Conventional agriculture relies heavily on
Ans : (a) Sustainable development is a case of chemical fertilizers and toxic pesticides which enter
intergenerational sensibility in respect of use of natural the food supply, penetrate the water sources, harm the
resources. It is the development of present generation livestock, deplete the soil and devastate natural eco-
without depleting the resource share of future systems. Efforts in evolving technologies which are
generation. It includes the concept of 'Needs and Idea eco-friendly are essential for sustainable development
of Limitations'. and one such technology which is eco-friendly is
15. Sustainable agriculture means: ‘Organic Farming’. In short, organic agriculture is a
(a) Self sufficiency whole system of farming that restores, maintains and
(b) To be able to export and import under WTO enhances the ecological balance. Organic agriculture
norms offers a means to substitute costlier agricultural inputs
(c) To utilize land so that its quality remains such as HYV seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides
intact etc. with locally produced organic inputs that are
(d) To utilize wasteland for agriculture use
cheaper and thereby generate good returns on
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2001
investment.
Ans : (c) Sustainable agriculture means successful
18. Indiscriminate use of fertilizers has led to:
management of resources for agriculture to satisfy the
(a) Soil pollution (b) Water pollution
changing human needs while maintaining or
enhancing the quality of environment and conserving (c) Air pollution (d) All of the above
natural resources. Sustainable agriculture can be UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2016
achieved by adopting mixed farming, mixed cropping, Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
crop rotation, crop selection, varietal improvement etc. question.
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19. Which of the following is the most appropriate Ans : (b) The air around us is a mixture of gases
and correct practice from the point of view of a mainly nitrogen and oxygen but contains much smaller
healthy environment? amount of water vapour, argon, carbon dioxide and
(a) Burning of plastic wastes to keep the very small amount of other gases. The table indicates
environment clean the composition of a typical sample of air-
(b) Burning of dry and fallen leaves in a garden Substance Percentage by volume
or field Nitrogen 78.08
(c) Treatment of domestic sewage before its
Oxygen 20.95
release
(d) Use of chemical fertilizers in agricultural Argon 0.93
fields Carbon dioxide 0.033
CDS G.S 1ST Paper 2015 Neon 0.0018
Ans : (c) The residue that accumulates in sewage Helium 0.00052
treatment plants is called sludge or biosolids. Sewage
Methane 0.0002
sludge is the solid, semisolid or slurry residual
material that is produced as a by-product of Krypton 0.00011
wastewater treatment processes. This residue is Dinitrogen Oxide 0.00005
commonly classified as primary and secondary Hydrogen 0.00005
sludge. Primary sludge is generated from chemical
precipitation, sedimentation and other primary Xenon 0.0000087
processes whereas secondary sludge is the activated Ozone 0.000001
waste biomass resulting from biological treatments. 22. In atmosphere, the highest percentage is of
Some sewage plants also receive septic tank solids (a) Oxygen (b) Carbon dioxide
from household on-site wastewater treatment systems. (c) Nitrogen (d) Hydrogen
Quite often the sludges are combined together for Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Mains) 2007
further treatment and disposal. Basic goals of treating
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
sludge before final disposal are to reduce its volume
question.
and to stabilize the organic materials. Stabilized
sludge does not have an offensive odour and can be 23. Which of the following Nobel gas is not present
handled without causing a health hazard. Rest of the in the atmosphere?
given options would pollute the environment in its (a) Helium (b) Argon
own ways. Hence (c) is the correct answer. (c) Radon (d) Neon
20. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005
in organic waste may result in_________. Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Drying of the lake very soon due to algal question.
bloom 24. Which of the following adds/add carbon
(b) An increased production of fish due to lot of dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet
nutrients Earth?
(c) Death of fish due to lack of Oxygen 1. Volcanic action
(d) Increased population of aquatic food with 2. Respiration
web organisms 3. Photosynthesis
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2 4. Decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given
Ans. (c) : A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage
below.
rich in organic waste may result in death of fish due to
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
lack of oxygen. Domestic sewage contains
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
biodegradable organic matter, which is decomposed by
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
bacteria. Microorganism involved in biodegradation of
organic matter results in sharp decline of dissolved Ans : (c) Carbon dioxide is an atmospheric constituent
oxygen. This causes morality of fish and other aquatic that plays several vital roles in the environment. It is a
greenhouse gas that traps infrared radiation heat in the
creatures.
atmosphere. It plays a crucial role in the weathering of
21. Which one of the following is considered to be rocks. It is the carbon source for plants. It is stored in
the optimum concentration of carbon-dioxide biomass, organic matter in sediments and in carbonate
for natural balance in atmosphere? rocks like limestone. The primary source of
(a) 0.02 percent (b) 0.03 percent carbon/CO2 is out gassing from the earth's interior at
(c) 0.04 percent (d) 0.05 percent mid ocean ridges, hotspot volcanoes and subduction
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017 related volcanic arcs. Respiration is a process in which
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plants, photosynthetic algae and bacteria use some of Which of the statements given above is/are
the stored carbohydrates as an energy source to carry correct?
out their life functions. Some of the carbohydrates (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
remain as biomass (the bulk of the plant etc). (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Consumers such as animals, fungi and bacteria get IAS (Pre) 2019
their energy from this excess biomass either while
Ans : (b) The Environment (Protection) Act was
living or dead and decaying. Oxygen from the
enacted in 1986 under Article 253 of the Constitution
atmosphere is combined with carbohydrates to liberate
of India with the objective to provide protection and
the stored energy. Water and carbon dioxide are
improvement to the environment. It empowers the
byproducts. Organic matter in the soil is decomposed
Central Government to establish authorities, charged
to its constituents, water and carbon dioxide which in
with the mandate of preventing environmental
turn return to the atmosphere. Plants and
pollution in all its forms and to tackle specific
photosynthetic algae and bacteria use energy from
environmental problems that are peculiar to different
sunlight to combine carbon dioxide from the
parts of the country. The Act was last amended in
atmosphere with water to form carbohydrates. These
1991. Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not
carbohydrates store energy. Oxygen is a byproduct
contain any provision regarding public participation in
that is released into the atmosphere. This process is
environment protection. Hence, statement 1 is not
known as photosynthesis. Hence respiration, decay of
correct. Section 3 (iv) of Environment Protection Act,
organic matter and volcanic action adds carbon to the
1986 asserts that Government should take measures
carbon cycle on earth while the process of
for laying down standards for emission or discharge of
photosynthesis absorbs the carbon dioxide of the
environmental pollutants from various sources
atmosphere. Therefore (c) is the correct answer.
whatsoever. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
25. Which of the following does not add the carbon
28. In which of the following year was passed the
dioxide to carbon cycle on the planet earth? Environment Protection Act?
(a) Respiration (a) 1982 (b) 1986
(b) Photosynthesis (c) 1990 (d) 1994
(c) Decay of organic matter UPPCS (Pre.) 2022, 2021, 2014
(d) Volcanic action UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 UPPCS (Mains) G.S Ist Paper 2017
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2013
question. Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
26. In which year was the National Afforestation question.
and Eco-development Board was set up by the 29. Which one of the following has been constituted
Government of India? under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?
(a) 1989 (b) 1990 (a) Central Water Commission
(c) 1991 (d) 1992 (b) Central Ground Water Board
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I (c) Central Ground Water Authority
Ans. (d): The National Afforestation and Eco- (d) National Water Development Agency
Development Board (NAEB), established in 1992, is UPSC (IAS) Pre, G.S, 2022
responsible for promoting afforestation, tree planting,
ecological restoration and eco-development activities in Ans. (c) : Central Ground Water Authority has been
India with special attention to the degraded forest areas constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment
and lands adjoining the forest areas, national parks, (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control
sanctuaries and other protected areas as well as the development and management of ground water resources
ecologically fragile areas (Western Himalayas, in India. Central Ground Water Authority regulates and
Aravallis, Western Ghats etc). control management and development of ground water in
India and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the
27. Consider the following statements:
purpose.
The Environment Protection Act, 1986
empowers the Government of India to 30. Under Indian Forest Act (1927) which of the
1. State the requirement of public following is the correct classification of forest?
participation in the process of (a) Grasslands, tropical forest, wetlands
environmental protection, and the (b) Wildlife Sanctuary, national park, Biosphere
procedure and manner in which it is reserves
sought (c) Grassland, Wildlife Sanctuary, National Parks
2. Lay down the standards for emission or (d) Protected Forests, Reserved Forests, Village
discharge of environmental pollutants Forests
from various sources Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
Environment & Ecology 11 YCT
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Ans. (d) : The Indian forest Act 1927, aimed to regulate including enforcement of any legal right relating to
the movement of forest produce and duly livable forest environment and giving relief and compensation for
produce. Indian Forest Act, 1927 classified forests into damages to persons and property. It is a specialized
three categories namely Protected Forests, Reserved body equipped with the necessary expertise to handle
Forests and Village Forests. environmental disputes involving multi-disciplinary
31. Environment Protection Act (EPA) is also issues. The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in
known as: environmental matters provides speedy environmental
(a) Umbrella Legislation justice and reduces the burden of litigation in the
(b) Chhadi Mubarak higher Courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
(c) Environment Legislation endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals finally
within six months of filing of the same. The
(d) Eco Safety Law
Chairperson of the NGT is a retired Judge of the
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
Supreme Court. New Delhi is the principal place of
Ans : (a) In wake of the Bhopal tragedy, the sitting of the Tribunal. Bhopal (Central Zone Bench),
Government of India enacted Environment Pune (Western Zone Bench), Kolkata (Eastern Zone
(Protection) Act, 1986 as umbrella legislation Bench) and Chennai (Southern Zone Bench) are the
designed to coordination the environmental activities other four place of sitting of the Tribunal.
between Central and State Governments, which were
The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), a
earlier dealt with laws such as Water Act, Air Act etc.
statutory organization was constituted in September,
32. N.E.A stands for: 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of
(a) National Enquiry Act Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, Central Pollution Control
(b) National Environment Authority Board was entrusted with the powers and functions under
(c) National Examination Agency the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
(d) National Event Association Principal functions of the Central Pollution Control
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2003 Board are to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in
Ans : (b) The National Environment Appellate different areas of the States by prevention, control and
Authority (NEAA) was set up by the Ministry of abatement of water pollution and to improve the quality
Environment and Forests to address cases in which of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the
environment clearances are required in certain country. Hence only statement 2 is correct.
restricted areas. It was established by the National
34. National Green Tribunal (NGT) was
Environment Appellate Authority Act, 1997 to hear
established by the Government of India in:
appeals with respect to restriction of areas in which
any industries, operations or processes or class of (a) 2007 (b) 2008
industries, operations or processes shall or shall not be (c) 2009 (d) 2010
carried out, subject to certain safeguards under the UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2016
Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. (Held on 20/09/2020)
33. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) Ans : (d) See the explanation of the above question.
different from the Central Pollution Control 35. The full form of NGT is-
Board (CPCB)? (a) National Green Tribunal
1. The NGT has been established by an Act
(b) National General Tribe
whereas the CPCB has been created by an
(c) National General Tribunal
executive order of the Government
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and (d) National Green Tribe
helps reduce the burden of litigation in the MPPCS G.S. (Pre) 2018
higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to question.
improve the quality of air in the country 36. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) came into
Which of the statements given above force from-
is/are correct? (a) October, 2010
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) November, 2008
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) January, 2011
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (d) April, 2012
Ans : (b) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was UPPCS (M) G.S. IInd Paper 2017
established on 18.10.2010 under the National Green
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and expeditious
disposal of cases relating to environmental protection Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and conservation of forests and other natural resources question.

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37. World Environment Day is celebrated on- (a) Ag Mark (b) Eco Mark
(a) December 1 (b) June 5 (c) ISI Mark (d) Water Mark
(c) November 14 (d) August 15 UPPCS (Spl) (Mains) 2004
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS Mains 2004, 2011, 2014 question.
UPPCS (Pre) 2012 41. The founder of Centre for Science and
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) 2007 Environment is
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) 2006 (a) Anil Agarwal (b) Sunita Naraysn
Ans : (b) World Environment Day is celebrated every (c) Madhav Gadgil (d) Medha Patkar
year on June 5th. World Environment Day is the UN's UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
most important day for encouraging worldwide Ans. (a) : Center for science and environment was
awareness and action for the protection of founded by Anil Agarwal in 1980. It is a not-for-profit
environment. Since it began in 1974, it has grown to ornisation based in New Delhi. It works as a think-tank
become a global platform for public outreach that is on environment development issues in India, poor
widely celebrated in over 100 countries. World planning, climate shift etc.
Environment Day, 2022 was hosted by Sweden. 42. The headquarter of U.N.E.P is located at-
Theme for World Environment Day, 2022 is "Only (a) Geneva (b) Kathmandu
One Earth", highlighting the need to live sustainably (c) Nairobi (d) New Delhi
in harmony with nature by bringing transformative Jharkhand PSC (Pre) 2016
changes through policies and people's choices towards
UPPCS (Mains) 2010
cleaner, greener lifestyles.
Ans : (c) The United Nations Environment Program
Note- "Only One Earth" was the motto for the 1972
(UNEP) is the leading global environmental authority
Stockholm Conference.
that sets the global environmental agenda, promotes
38. Eco-Mark is given to an Indian product which the coherent implementation of the environmental
is – dimension of sustainable development within
(a) Pure and unadulterated the United Nations system and serves as an
(b) Rich in protein authoritative advocate for the global environment.
(c) Environmental friendly Headquartered in Nairobi, Kenya, it works into seven
(d) Economically viable broad thematic areas namely climate change, disasters
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022, 2012 and conflicts, ecosystem management, environmental
governance, chemicals and waste, resource efficiency
CDS G.S 1st Paper, 2011
and environment under review.
Ans : (c) To increase consumer awareness, in the year
43. The decade of Sustainable Energy for All is the
1991, the Bureau of Indian Standards launched the
initiative of:
eco-labeling scheme known as `Ecomark' for easy
identification of environment-friendly products. Any (a) United Nations (b) India
product which is made, used or disposed of in a way (c) Germany (d) World Bank
that significantly reduces the harm to the environment UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
could be considered as environment friendly Ans : (a) The Sustainable Energy for All initiative is a
product. The criteria follow a cradle-to-grave multi-stakeholder partnership between Governments,
approach, i.e. from raw material extraction to private sector and civil society. It was launched by the
manufacturing and to disposal. The 'Ecomark' label is UN Secretary-General in 2011. It has three
awarded to consumer goods which meet the specified interlinked objectives to be achieved by 2030:- Ensure
environmental criteria and the quality requirements of universal access to modern energy services, Double
Indian Standards. the global rate of improvement in energy efficiency
39. The symbol 'ECOMARC' is related to which of and Double the share of renewable energy in the
the following? global energy mix. These objectives are
(a) Goods of best quality complementary. Progress in achieving one can help
with progress toward the others. The Sustainable
(b) Safe goods for environment
Energy for All initiative also acts in support of the
(c) Exported goods
2014-2024 Decade of Sustainable Energy for all, as
(d) Imported goods declared by the UN General Assembly.
UPPCS (Pre.) 2021
44. The headquarter of World Metrological
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Organization is located at-
question. (a) Geneva (b) Rome
40. To label environment friendly consumer (c) Sidney (d) Tokya
products, Government has introduced UPPCS (Mains) 2010
Environment & Ecology 13 YCT
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Ans : (a) The World Meteorological Organization 48. The basis of Indira Gandhi Environment
(WMO) is an intergovernmental organization with a Award given every year is-
membership of 192 member countries. It originated (a) Sensible contribution in the field of
from the International Meteorological Organization environment
(IMO), the roots of which were planted at the 1873 (b) Excellent contribution in the field of
Vienna International Meteorological Congress. Afforestation
Established by the ratification of the WMO
(c) Excellent contribution in the field of
Convention on 23 March 1950, WMO became the
development of barren land
specialized agency of the United Nations for
meteorology (weather and climate), operational (d) Exemplary work in the field of conservation
hydrology and related geophysical sciences a year and research of wildlife
later. The Secretariat, headquartered in Geneva, is UPPCS (Main) Spl. G.S. 2004
headed by the Secretary-General. Its supreme body is Ans : (a) Indira Gandhi Environment Award was
the World Meteorological Congress. instituted in 1987 by the Ministry of Environment and
45. Which of the following States in India has Forests and is awarded to an organization and to an
recently introduced the ‘Greenhouse individual every year on the 19th November for their
Farming’? significant contributions in the field of environment.
(a) Haryana (b) Punjab The award carries Rs.5 lakhs in cash.
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttar Pradesh 49. ‘Global 500’ award is given for-
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2001, 2003 (a) Population control
Ans : (b) State of Punjab introduced green house (b) Movement against terrorism
farming in India. A Greenhouse is a framed structure
(c) Environment immunity
covered with a transparent material and is large
enough to grow crops under partial or fully controlled (d) Movement against intoxicant
environmental conditions to get optimum growth and UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2019
productivity. UP Lower (Pre) G.S. 2003, 2002
46. Which country introduced ‘Green Army’ for Ans : (c) The Global 500 Award was launched in
the environment conservation? 1987 by the United Nations Environment Program
(a) Japan (b) China (UNEP) to recognize and honour environmental and
(c) Australia (d) Egypt humanitarian achievement. This award was a tribute to
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 success on the front lines of environmental action and
Ans : (c) The Green Army Program was a practical honored individuals and organizations that combat
environmental action program that supported local environmental issues despite immense social, political
environment and heritage conservation projects across and logistical obstacles. Prominent award winners
Australia. The program delivered over 1,000 projects include Jimmy Carter, Wangari Maathai, Jane Goodall
across Australia and engaged with over 11,000 young and the World Wildlife Fund.
Australian’s as participants. The Green Army Program 50. Consider the following statements and choose
closed on 30 June 2018. the correct answer from the codes-
47. The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given Assertion (A): Natural environment is clean.
for the excellence in the field of-
Reason (R): Human activities are responsible for
(a) Afforestation and conservation of barren land environmental pollution.
(b) Clean technology and development
Code:
(c) Wild life conservation
(a) (A) and (R) both are correct and R is the
(d) Hindi book writing on environment
correct explanation of A.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2009
UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2006 (b) (A) and (R) both are correct and R is not the
correct explanation of A
Ans : (b) The Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award for
clean technology was instituted in the year 1993. This (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
award is provided to those industrial units which make (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
a significant contribution towards the development of UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2003
new technologies or the innovative modification of Ans : (a) Natural environment is clean. Human
existing technologies or adoption and use of clean activities such as industrialization, urbanization,
technologies and practices that substantially to reduce
deforestation, air pollution are responsible for
or prevent environmental pollution. The award
consists of a cash prize of Rupees two lakhs, trophy environmental pollution. Therefore (A) and (R) both
and citation. are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Environment & Ecology 14 YCT

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51. National Environment Engineering Research 55. ‘Van Mahotsav’ week is celebrated every year
Institute is situated at: in Uttar Pradesh –
(a) Bangalore (b) Hyderabad (a) 8th July to 15th July
(c) Nagpur (d) New Delhi (b) 16th July to 22nd July
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012, 2014 (c) 1st July to 7th July
UPPCS (Mains) 2017, 2005, 2011 (d) 23rd July to 30th July
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) 2010 UPPSC Asst. Forest Conservator Exam. 2013
Ans : (c) National Environment Engineering Research Ans : (c) ‘Van Mahotsav’ (Forest Festival) week is
Institute (NEERI) was established at Nagpur in 1958 celebrated from 1st July to 7th July every year in Uttar
by Government of India. This premier institute deals Pradesh to promote people regarding plantation of
with water supply, sewage disposal, communicable trees.
diseases and industrial pollution. National 56. In which of the following Institutions, the
Environment Engineering Research Institute is part of Environmental Information System (ENVIS)’s
Council of Scientific & Industrial Research (CSIR) Centre on Population and Environment is
and is largest R&D organization in the world for located?
scientific and industrial research. Council of Scientific (a) I.I.T. Kharagpur (b) I.I.T. New Delhi
& Industrial Research (CSIR) is an autonomous body
(c) I.I.P.S. Mumbai (d) N.I.R.S. Dehradun
under Ministry of Science & Technology. National
Environment Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) UPPCS (M) G.S. Ist 2017
has five zonal laboratories at Delhi, Mumbai, Ans : (c) Environmental Information System (ENVIS)
Hyderabad, Kolkata and Chennai. Scheme, established in 1982, serves as a single-stop
52. Indian Institute of Ecology and Environment is web-enabled repository of comprehensive
located in- environmental information with collection, collation,
(a) New Delhi (b) Mumbai storage, retrieval and dissemination of the same through
a nationwide network of ENVIS Hubs and ENVIS
(c) Kolkata (d) Thiruvananthapuram
Resource Partners. The database generated by ENVIS
UPPCS (Main) G.S. 2016 is used for the management of Biodiversity. The
Ans : (a) The Indian Institute of Ecology and objective of the scheme includes promoting,
Environment, New Delhi was established on the implementing and coordinating green skill development
occasion of the World Environment Day on 5th June program, to implement and coordinate National
1980. The Institute has been pioneer in organizing Environment Survey (NES), to implement and
national and international congresses and conventions coordinate community-driven environmentally
on environment. sustainable village program etc. International Institute
53. National Botanical Research Institute is located for Population Science (IIPS), Mumbai is the Centre for
at ENVIS in the area of population environment. This
(a) Kanpur (b) Dhampur centre collects and supply information on population
(c) Rampur (d) Lucknow and environment.
UPPCS (Mains) Ist GS, 2015 57. The database generate by ENVIS is used for
Ans : (d) National Botanical Research Institute is the management of:
located at Lucknow which works under Council of (a) Biodiversity
Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR), New Delhi. (b) Freshwater recharge
This premier institution is involved in various research (c) Ocean Temperature
and development activities. (d) Popular Growth
54. Wildlife Institute of India is located at- OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
(a) Almora (b) Dehradun Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Bhopal (d) Guwahati question.
UPPSC Asst. Forest Conservator Exam. 2015 58. In which year Ministry of Environment was set
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2006–07 up in India ?
Ans : (b) Wildlife Institute of India is located at (a) 1970 A.D (b) 1975 A.D.
Dehradun, Uttarakhand. It is an autonomous (c) 1980 A.D (d) 1985 A.D
Institution of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and
UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
Climate Change. Established in 1982, Wildlife
Institute of India (WII) is an internationally acclaimed Ans : (d) The Ministry of Environment and Forests
Institution, which offers training program, academic was set up in India in the year 1985. It is the nodal
courses and advisory in wildlife research and agency in the administrative structure of the central
management. The Institute is actively engaged in Government for planning, promotion, co-ordination
research across the breadth of the country on and overseeing the implementation of India's
biodiversity related issues. environmental and forestry policies and programs.

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02.
Ecology
1. ‘Ecology’ is the study of relationship between- Ans : (a) The surroundings, where animals live are
(a) Organism and Environment called their habitat. Habitat means a dwelling place.
(b) Man and Forest The main components of habitat are shelter, water, food
(c) Soil and Water and space. The organism depends on their habitat for
(d) Husband and Wife their food, water, air, shelter and other needs.
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014 6. The natural place of an organism or
Ans : (a) Ecology is the study of the relationship community is known as-
between living organisms (including humans) and (a) Niche (b) Biome
their physical environment. It seeks to understand the (c) Habitat (d) Habit
vital connections between plants, animals and the Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I
world around them. Ecology also provides information Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question.
about the benefits of ecosystems and how we can use
7. The movement of nutrient elements through
earth's resources in ways that leave the environment
the various components of an ecosystem is
healthy for future generations. Ramdeo Misra is
called
revered as the father of ecology in India.
(a) Bio-geo-chemical cycle
2. Ecology takes into account of:
(b) Bio-geological cycle
(a) Environmental factors only
(c) Ecological succession
(b) Effects of plants on environment
(d) Biological cycle
(c) Plant adaptation
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
(d) Relationship between organism and their
environment Ans. (a) : The cycling of an element in an ecosystem is
called biogeochemical cycle. It is a pathway by which a
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2011
chemical element moves through the biotic and abiotic
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above components.
question.
8. The concept of 'Ecological Transition' was first
3. Ecology is the study of- used by
(a) Earth (b) Environment
(a) Elton (b) Bennett
(c) Space (d) Sky
(c) Berkeley (d) Ratzel
Uttarakhand PCS (M) 2004–05
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans : (b) The concept of 'Ecological Transition' was
question.
first used by Bennett. Bennett defines, Ecological
4. The entire sequence of communities, that Transition as the development of an anthropocentric
successively change in a given area are called as orientation toward the natural world that emerged in
(a) Ecological succession the western renaissance but has since characterized
(b) Sere every civilization and nation.
(c) Community dynamics 9. Which of the following is the largest ecological
(d) Pyramid of biomass unit ?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 (a) Organism (b) Population
Ans. (b) : The entire sequence of communities that (c) Biome (d) Ecosystem
successively change in a given area are called as sere. Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019
The individual transitional communities are termed
Ans. (c) : A "Biome" is a plant and animal community
seral stages or seral communities.
that covers a large geographical area. The boundaries of
5. The actual location or place where an organism different biomes on land are determined mainly by
lives is called climate. Therefore, a biome can be defined as the total
(a) Habitat (b) Ecosystem assemblage of plant and animal species interacting
(c) Niche (d) Biome within specific conditions. These include rainfall,
(e) None of the above/More than one of the temperature, humidity and soil conditions. Some of the
above major biomes of the world are: forest, grassland, desert
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 and tundra biomes.
Environment & Ecology 16 YCT
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Biomes can be classified into three types, namely Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
terrestrial, fresh water biomes and marine biomes. question.
• Terrestrial biomes include grasslands, deserts, 15. Which of the following is an artificial
tropical forest. ecosystem?
• Fresh water biomes include large lakes, tropical and (a) Rice field (b) Forest
sub tropical coaster rivers. (c) Grassland (d) Lake
• Marine biomes include continental shelves, tropical UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
coral and kelp forests. Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
10. Which one of the following is the best Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
description of the term ‘ecosystem’? question.
(a) A community of organism interacting with 16. The environment modified by human activities
one another is called
(b) That part of the Earth, which is inhabited by (a) Natural environment
living organisms (b) Anthropogenic environment
(c) A community of organisms together with the (c) Urban environment
environment in which they live
(d) Modern environment
(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans : (c) The term "Ecosystem" was first proposed by question.
A.G. Tansley in 1935. Ecosystem is defined as a
system formed by the community and the 17. Which of the following components ecosystem
environment. Ecosystem is an interacting unit that acts as intermediary between biotic and abiotic
includes both biological community as well as non- kingdoms?
living components of an area. The living and non- (a) Producer (b) Consumer
living components of an ecosystem interact among (c) Decomposer (d) The habitat
themselves and function as a unit, which gets evident UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
during the process of energy flow, decomposition, Ans : (a) There are two components of ecosystems
productivity and nutrient cycling. The few examples namely "Biotic" component and "Abiotic" component.
of ecosystems are ponds, forest, grassland etc. Crop Biotic component includes biotic factors such as
fields and an aquarium may also be considered as producers, consumers, decomposers etc. Producers
man-made ecosystems. They are called as include plants as they contain chlorophyll pigment,
"Anthropogenic Biome". which helps them to carry out the process of
11. The term "Ecosystem" was coined by photosynthesis in the presence of the sun light.
(a) E.P. Odum (b) Arthur G. Tansley Producers acts as intermediary between biotic and
(c) Charles Darwin (d) Stephen Hawking abiotic components. Abiotic component are non-living
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I component of an ecosystem such as light, water, soil,
air, inorganic nutrients etc. In an isolated system,
Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. neither matter nor energy is exchanged with its
12. The term ‘Ecosystem’ was proposed by- environment. In a closed system, energy is exchanged
(a) G Tailor (b) E. hartigan but matter is not exchanged. In an open system, both
(c) D.R. Stoddart (d) Tansley matter and energy are exchanged between the system
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 and its surrounding environment. Hence, ecosystem is
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2005 an example of an open system.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 1st Paper, 2006 18. Which of the following is not a biotic
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above component of the ecosystem?
question. (a) Plants (b) Bacteria
13. Which of the following ecosystems is (c) Animal (d) Air
transformed by human? RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) Forest (b) Desert Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Agricultural land (d) Grassland question.
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 19. The primary source of energy in Eco-body is-
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Energy emitted by fermentation
question. (b) Preserved vegetable sugar
14. Which of the following is an example of (c) Solar energy
anthropogenic biome? (d) None of the above
(a) Fresh water (b) Grassland UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2015
(c) Rain forest (d) Cropland Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018 question.

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20. Driving force for an ecosystem is: Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) Solar energy (b) Vegetation below.
(c) Producers (d) Biomass (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2014 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
question. Ans : (b) Consumers are directly or indirectly
21. Work as intermediaries between biotic and dependent on producers for their food. Decomposers
abiotic components: include micro-organism such as bacteria and fungi.
(a) Parasite (b) Decomposers 27. The process by which the component species of
(c) Producers (d) Consumers a community changes over time is called
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2017 (a) Mass extinction
(b) Ecological Succession
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. (c) Competition for food
(d) Population growth
22. Among the biotic component of the ecosystem,
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I
the producer system is-
(a) Cow (b) Peacock Ans. (b) : The gradual and fairly predictable change in
the species composition of a given area is called
(c) Tiger (d) Green plants
"Ecological Succession". During succession, some
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013 species colonize an area and their population becomes
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above more numerous whereas populations of other species
question. decline and even disappear.
23. What is true about ecosystem? 28. Consider the following statements about eco-
(a) Primary consumers are least dependent upon system-
producer 1. The production at the autotroph level is said
(b) Primary consumers are out-number producers to be primary productivity.
(c) Producers are more than primary consumers 2. The secondary productivity refers to the
(d) Secondary consumers are the largest and most production at the heterotrophy level.
powerful Of the above, the correct statement/s is/are:
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
question. UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
24. Which one of the following is not true about Ans : (c) Organisms are capable of synthesizing
the eco-system? organic molecules from inorganic precursors and of
(a) It represents all living organism and physical storing biochemical energy in the process. These are
environment in any given space-time unit. called autotrophs which mean self-feeding. Autotrophs
(b) It is a functional unit. also are referred to as primary producers. Organisms
(c) It has own productivity. able to manufacture complex organic molecules from
simple inorganic compounds (water, CO2, nutrients)
(d) It is a closed system.
include plants, some protists and some bacteria. Many
UPPCS (Pre) (Re-Exam) 2015 organisms can only obtain their energy by feeding on
UPPCS (Mains) 2014 other organisms. These are called heterotrophs. They
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above include consumers of any organism in any form eg.
question. plants, animals, microbes, even dead tissue.
25. Which one of the following is not a biotic Heterotrophs are also called consumers.
component of an ecosystem? 29. Which one of the following is not a sub-
(a) Air (b) Plant category of terrestrial ecosystem?
(c) Bacteria (d) Animals (a) Mountain ecosystem
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2013 (b) Marine ecosystem
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Lowland ecosystem
question. (d) Semi-arid ecosystem
26. With reference to the food chains in UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021
ecosystems, which of the following kinds of Ans. (b) : On the basis of many classification schemes
organism is/are known as decomposer developed over time, there are six types of terrestrial
organism/ organisms? ecosystems. These include taiga, tundra, deciduous
1. Virus forest, grasslands, tropical rain forests and deserts.
2. Fungi Mountain, Lowland and Semi- Arid ecosystem are sub
3. Bacteria categories of terrestrial ecosystem.
Environment & Ecology 18 YCT
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30. In ecosystem terminology, who are the major Ans. (d): All organisms in an ecosystem depend upon
producers in a terrestrial ecosystem? each other. If the population of one organism rises or
(a) Human beings falls, then this can affect the rest of the ecosystem.
(b) Phytoplankton Therefore, option A is incorrect. Human activities such
(c) Herbaceous and woody plants as over population, pollution, burning fossil fuels and
(d) All the given options deforestation affect the physical environment in many
APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017) ways e.g. global warming, climate change, soil erosion,
poor air quality and undrinkable water etc. Therefore,
Ans. (c) : Herbaceous and woody plants are the major
option (R) is correct.
producers in a terrestrial ecosystem. Herbaceous and
woody plants are present in the terrestrial ecosystem. 34. Deforestation is not a direct cause of:
Herbaceous plants have very flexible stems. Woody (a) Loss of biodiversity
plants include trees and shrubs. They convert solar (b) Top soil erosion
energy into chemical energy through photosynthesis in (c) Global climate change
which carbon dioxide and water are used in presence of (d) Species invasion
sunlight to synthesize nutrients. Such carbohydrates in OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
the form of glucose releases oxygen into the Ans. (d): Direct causes of deforestation are loss of
atmosphere. biodiversity, soil erosion and global climate change.
31. The cycling of elements in an ecosystem is Species invasion is not at all related to deforestation.
called- 35. Given below are two statements, one is labelled
(a) Chemical cycles as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
(b) Biogeochemical cycles Assertion (A): Various components of an
(c) Geological cycles ecosystem are non interdependent.
(d) Geochemical cycles Reason (R) : Human activities have the impacts
UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2012 on the environment.
Ans : (b) The cycling of an element in an ecosystem is Choose the correct answer from the code given
called biogeochemical cycle. It is a pathway by which, below.
a chemical element moves through the biotic and (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
abiotic components. correct explanation of (A)
32. The succession where the community increases (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
its diversity and complexity with time is called: correct explanation of (A)
(a) Primary succession (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(b) Progressive succession (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(c) Retrogressive succession UPPCS RO-ARO (Mains) 2016
(d) Denuded succession Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I 36. Which of the following statements is correct
Ans. (b): The process of succession generally results in about Synecology?
a sequence of number of communities, which finally (a) It is the study of relations of the different
develops into a relatively stable and steady-state communities with the environment
community. Progressive succession refers to the (b) It is the study of complex traditional
succession, where the community becomes complex relationships of bio communities
and contains more species and biomass overtime. (c) This is basically the natural habitat ecology
33. Given below are two statements, one is labelled (d) It is mainly social ecology
as Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 1999
Assertion (A): Various components of an Ans : (b) "Synecology" is the study of group of
ecosystem are not inter-dependent. organisms in relation to their environment. It is
Reason (A): Human activities have the impacts concerned with study of the highest level of biological
on the environment. organization. It is also called as community ecology.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 37. The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment
below. describes the following major categories of
Codes. ecosystem services-provisioning, supporting,
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct regulating, preserving and cultural. Which one
explanation of (A) of the following is supporting service?
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the (a) Production of food and water
correct explanation of (A) (b) Control of climate and disease
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false (c) Nutrient cycling and crop pollination
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true (d) Maintenance of diversity
UPPCS (pre.) 2021 IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
Environment & Ecology 19 YCT
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Ans : (d) The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment was 41. Which one of the following ecosystems covers
called for by the United Nations Secretary-General the largest area of the earth’s surface?
Kofi Annan in 2000. Initiated in 2001, the objective of (a) Desert Ecosystem
the Millennium Ecosystem Assessment was to assess (b) Grassland Ecosystem
the consequences of ecosystem change for human (c) Mountain Ecosystem
well-being and the scientific basis for action needed to (d) Marine Ecosystem
enhance the conservation and sustainable use of those UP Lower Sub. (Spl) (Pre) 2003
systems and their contribution to human well-being. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2002
The Millennium Ecosystem Assessment describes UPPCS Asst. Forest Conservator Exam, 2013
major categories of ecosystem services namely Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
provisioning, supporting, regulating, preserving and question.
cultural. Water, food, wood and other goods are some
42. Which is the most stable ecosystem?
of the material benefits people obtain from ecosystems
(a) Marine (b) Forest
called ‘provisioning services’. Maintaining the quality
(c) Mountain (d) Desert
of air and soil, providing flood and disease control or
pollinating crops are some of the ‘regulating services’ UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2018, 2013
provided by ecosystems. Providing living spaces for RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2008
plants or animals and maintaining a diversity of plants UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2010
and animals are ‘supporting services’. Hence, Ans : (a) A main characteristic of a stable ecosystem
maintenance of diversity is supporting service. The is biodiversity. The more diverse an ecosystem is, the
non-material benefits people obtain from ecosystems more resilient the ecosystem is. A dynamically stable
are called "cultural services". These include aesthetic system is one that is relatively immune to disturbances
inspiration, cultural identity, sense of home and and is more likely to have more biotic interactions.
spiritual experience related to the natural environment. An ecosystem is bound to face disturbances,
Typically, opportunities for tourism and for recreation especially now with the interference from human
are also considered within the group. activity. The more species an ecosystem has, the
higher the likeliness that a species or several in that
38. Who of the following used the term 'deep ecosystem has the traits that allow them to adapt to a
ecology' for the first time? change in the ecosystem. The more complex that these
(a) E.P. Odum (b) C. Raunkiaer ecosystems are, the more easily it can resist a stress
(c) F.E. Clements (d) Arnies Naess such as a disturbance. The ecosystems resilience and
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014 resistance against natural disturbances plays a role in
its stability. If the ecosystem can recover fast and
Ans : (d) In 1973, Norwegian philosopher and
continue to function after something happens, it can be
mountaineer Arne Naess introduced the phrase "Deep considered stable. Marine ecosystem is stable in their
Ecology" to environmental literature. The word deep in chemical composition due to being saline. In addition,
part referred to the level of questioning of our purposes dissolved oxygen, temperature of the ocean remains
and values when arguing in environmental conflicts. more or less constant compared to other ecosystems.
39. Which one of the following is the largest Hence marine ecosystem is most stable ecosystem.
ecosystem of the world? 43. Which of the following is correct sequence of
(a) Ocean (b) Grassland ecosystem in order of decreasing productivity?
(c) Forest (d) Mountains (a) Ocean, Lakes, Grasslands and Mangroves
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 (b) Mangroves, Oceans, Grasslands and Lakes
Ans : (a) Six major ecosystems of the world are- (c) Mangroves, Grasslands, Lakes and Oceans
1. Fresh water ecosystem (d) Oceans, Mangroves, Lakes and Grasslands
2. Marine (ocean) ecosystem UPPSC RO-ARO (Pre) 2021
3. Grassland ecosystem Ans. (c) : Primary production is defined as the amount
4. Forest ecosystem of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area
5. Desert ecosystem over a time period by plants during photosynthesis. The
rate of biomass production is called productivity.
6. Cropland ecosystem
Order of decreasing productivity of different
The ocean ecosystem is the largest ecosystem of the ecosystems-
world as it covers 70 percent of earth’s geographical area. Mangroves > Grassland > Lakes > Oceans
40. Which one of the following is the largest 44. With reference to food chains in ecosystems,
ecosystem? consider the following statements:
(a) Forest ecosystem 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which
(b) Marine ecosystem a chain of organisms feed upon each other.
(c) Desert ecosystem 2. Food chains are found within the
(d) Pond ecosystem populations of a species.
Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of
Ans. (b): See the explanation of the above question. each organism which are eaten by others.
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Which of the statements given above is / are 45. The Pyramid of energy in any ecosystem is-
correct? (a) Always upright
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (b) Always inverted
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None
(c) May be upright or inverted
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
(d) None of these
Ans : (a) A food chain shows how energy is
transferred from one living organism to another via Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021, 2018 Paper-I
food. It describes how energy and nutrients move MPPCS (Pre.) 2020
through an ecosystem. At the basic level, there are Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.
plants that produce the energy, then it moves up to
46. Which of the following is a correct statement?
higher-level organisms like herbivores (herbivore is an
animal that gets its energy from eating plants). After (a) Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is
that when carnivores (carnivore is an animal that gets unidirectional
food from killing and eating other animals) eat the (b) Energy flow in the biospheric ecosystem is
herbivores, energy is transferred from one to the cyclic
other. Photosynthesis is only the beginning of the food (c) Relative loss of energy in natural ecosystem
chain. There are many types of animals that will eat decreases with increasing trophic levels
the products of the photosynthesis process. Examples
(d) Species at progressively higher tropic levels
are deer eating shrub leaves, rabbits eating carrots or
worms eating grass. When these animals eat these appear to be less efficient in using available
plant products, food energy and organic compounds energy
are transferred from the plants to the animals. These UPPCS (Pre) G.S (Re-Exam) 2015
animals are in turn eaten by other animals like tiger, Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
fox etc., again transferring energy and organic question.
compounds from one animal to another.
47. Which of the following are the primary
consumers in an ecosystem? Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1. Ants 2. Deer
3. Fox 4. Tiger
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2006
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
48. In a food chain, man is
(a) Producer
(b) Only primary consumer
(c) Only secondary consumer
(d) Primary as well as secondary consumer
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans : (d) In food chain, man is primary as well as
secondary consumer as it eats plants, fruits and
animals.
49. Which of the following constitute a food chain?
(a) Grass, Wheat and Mangos
(b) Grass, Goat and human
(c) Goat, Cow and Elephant
(d) Grass, Fish and Goat
(e) None of the above
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans : (b) Correct food chain is grass, goat and human
as grass is being eaten by goat and goat is being eaten
Source- NCERT by human.

Environment & Ecology 21 YCT

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50. Assertion (A) : Food chain is the sequence of 53. With reference to ecological niche, which of the
transfers of matter and energy in following statements is/are correct?
the form of food from organism 1. It represents the range of conditions that it
to organism. can tolerate the resources it utilizes and its
Reason (R) : The amount of energy at each functional role in ecological system
trophic level decreases by 50% as 2. Each species has a distinct niche.
it moves through an ecosystem. Select the correct answer from the code given
Select the correct answer given below : below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct Code
explanation of (A) (a) Only 1 (b) Both 1 and 2
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not (c) Only 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct explanation of (A)
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
54. The concept of ecological niche was enunciated
Ans. (c) : Food chain is the sequence of transfers of
by-
matter and energy in the form of food from organism to
organism. (a) Greenels (b) Darwin
The amount of energy at each trophic level decrease as (c) E. Rodum (d) C.C.Park
it moves through an ecosystem. As little as 10% of the UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005
energy at any tropic level is transferred to the next level, Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the rest is lost largely through metabolic processes as heat. question.
51. Consider the following kinds of organisms: 55. In the ecosystem the durable bio group is
1. Copepods 2. Cyanobacteria called-
3. Diatoms 4. Foraminifera (a) Ecotone (b) Succession
Which of the above are primary producers in (c) Climax (d) Siril
the food chains of oceans? UPPCS (Main) G.S. 2002
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 Ans : (a) In the ecosystem, the durable bio group is
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 called "Ecotone". An ecotone is an area that acts as a
UPSC (IAS) Pre. G.S 2021 boundary or a transition between two ecosystems.
Ans. (b): Cyanobacteria and Diatoms are primary Examples of ecotone are marshlands (between dry and
producers in food chain of ocean. Primary producers in wet ecosystems), mangrove forests (between terrestrial
oceans synthesize their own energy without needing to and marine ecosystems), grasslands (between desert
eat. Bacteria, phytoplankton and algae are primary and forest) and estuaries (between saltwater and
producers in oceans. Cyanobacteria also called blue freshwater).
green algae uses sun light to make their own food. 56. Which of the following is not an example of an
Diatoms are considered as one of the most diverse and Ecotone :
ecologically important phytoplanktonic groups, which (a) River Bank (b) Teak Forest
contribute around 20% of global primary productivity.
(c) Mangroves (d) Marshland
They are particularly abundant in nutrient rich coastal
ecosystems and at high latitudes. TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
52. Which one of the following terms describes not Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
only the physical space occupied by an question.
organism, but also its functional role in the 57. The transitional area between two living
community of organisms? organism is known as-
(a) Ecotone (b) Ecological niche (a) Ecozone (b) Ecophos
(c) Habitat (d) Home range (c) Ecotone (d) Ecotype
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2018
Ans : (b) The functional characteristic of a species in Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
its habitat is referred as "Niche". The concept of question.
ecological niche was enunciated by Joseph Grinnell. 58. The transitional zone between two distinct
The term niche means the sum of all the activities and communities is known as:
relationships of a species by which it uses the (a) Ecotype (b) Ecade
resources in its habitat for its survival and
reproduction. The most important resources available (c) Ecosphere (d) Ecotone
in the niches of animals are food and shelter while in UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2012
case of plants, they are moisture and nutrients Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(phosphorus and nitrogen). question.

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59. The sequential change in the growth of a field Ans : (a) The number of tropic levels in the grazing
is called- food chain is restricted as the transfer of energy
(a) Biosphere (b) Succession follows 10 per cent law, which is only 10 per cent of
(c) Nutrition level (d) Extreme state the energy is transferred to each tropic level from the
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2010 lower tropic level.
Ans : (b) Ecological succession is the gradual process 63. Statement-1 : The amount of usable energy
by which ecosystems change and develop over time. remains constant as it is passed from one
Nothing remains the same and habitats are constantly trophic level to another.
changing. Statement 2 : The energy within an ecosystem
60. Trophic level-I includes- is constant and never changes.
(a) Herbivorous animals (a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
(b) Carnivorous animals (b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are
incorrect
(c) Omnivorous animals
(c) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is
(d) Green plants
incorrect
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is
Ans : (d) Each step or level of the food chain forms a correct
trophic level. The autotrophs or the producers (green Himachal Pradesh PSC (HPAS) Pre 2021
plants) are at the first trophic level. They fix up the
solar energy and make it available for heterotrophs or Ans. (b): See the explanation of the above question.
the consumers. The herbivores or the primary 64. The amount of energy during transfer from
consumers come at the second, small carnivores or the one tropic level to another in an ecosystem
secondary consumers at the third and large carnivores (a) Increases
or omnivorous or the tertiary consumers form the (b) Decreases
fourth trophic level. (c) Remains constant
(d) May increase or decrease
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
65. The pyramid in an ecosystem is always:
(a) Adverse (b) Quadratic
(c) Curved (d) Straight
UPPSC Asst. Forest Conservator Exam. 2015
Ans : (d) The energy pyramid in an ecosystem is
always straight as only 10 per cent of the energy is
transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic
level.
66. Which of the following is an act that disturbs
the ecological balance?
(a) Lumbering (b) Social Forestry
(c) Van mahotsav (d) Afforestation
Source- NCERT UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014
61. The highest trophic level in an ecosystem is Ans : (a) Main factors responsible for ecological
obtained by imbalance in India are degradation of land and soil
erosion, deforestation, faulty utilization of water
(a) Herbivores (b) Carnivores
resources, environmental problems from faulty mining
(c) Omnivorous (d) Decomposers practices, industrial and atmospheric pollution.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2001 Lumbering which is the felling of trees for timber has
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above been identified as one of the primary occupations that
question. lead to deforestation of the environment.
62. 10 percent law is related with 67. Which one of the following is one of the main
(a) Transfer of energy as food from one trophic causes of ecological imbalance in India?
level to other (a) Deforestation (b) Desertification
(b) Transfer of heat from one matter to another (c) Floods and famines (d) Rainfall variations
(c) Transfer of water from one zone to another RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2012
(d) None of these Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 question.
Environment & Ecology 23 YCT
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68. Which of the following tree is not Eco- 73. “Ecology is permanent economy” is the slogan
Friendly? of which movement?
(a) Babul (b) Eucalyptus (a) Appiko Movement
(c) Neem (d) Pipal (b) Narmada Bachao Andolan
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011 (c) Chipko Movement
UP UDA/LDA (Mains) 2010 (d) None of the above
Ans : (b) Eucalyptus tree is not an eco-friendly tree as UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2007
it consumes approximately 90 liters of water per day
Ans : (c) In 1970, an organized resistance to the
and during summer and times of drought, its roots can
destruction of forests spread throughout India and
go down up to 30 ft.
came to be known as the "Chipko" movement. The
69. Which of the following trees is dangerous for name of the movement comes from the word
environment? "embrace" as the villagers hugged the trees and
(a) Banana (b) Eucalyptus prevented the contractors from felling them.
(c) Babool (d) Neem Sunderlal Bahuguna, a Gandhian activist and
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 philosopher was involved in this movement and
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above coined the Chipko slogan: 'Ecology is Permanent
question. Economy'.
70. Which one of the following tree is considered to 74. Chipko movement is related to:
be an environmental hazard? (a) Plant conservation
(a) Babul (b) Amaltas
(b) Tiger project
(c) Neem (d) Eucalyptus
(c) Crocodile conservation
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005
(d) Plant reproduction
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
question.
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
71. Which of the following forests is known as the
“lungs of the planet earth”? question.
(a) Taiga forest 75. "Appiko Movement" was lead by:
(b) Tundra forest (a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
(c) Amazon rain forest (b) Pandurang Hegde
(d) Rain forest of North –East India (c) Vandana Shiva
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2015 (d) Amrita
Ans : (c) Amazon rainforests are often called the Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
"lungs of the planet" because they generally draw in Ans : (b) Founded and led by environmental activist
carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen. However, the Panduranga Hegde, the movement christened Appiko
amount of carbon dioxide they absorb or produce (‘hug’ in Kannada, symbolizing protection for the
varies hugely with year-to-year variations in the tree) became south India’s first large-scale
climate. environmental movement. Inspired by the tree-
72. In the marine environment, the main primary hugging Chipko forest conservation movement in the
producers are: north India, the Appiko movement continued its fight
(a) Phyto Planktons against tree-felling and deforestation in not only Uttara
(b) Seaweeds Kannada but also other hill districts in Karnataka and
(c) Marine Angiosperms Kerala.
(d) Aquatic Bryophytes 76. What is the objective of the Appiko movement?
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2005 (a) To construct check dams to conserve water
Ans : (a) Phytoplankton serves as the major primary (b) To construct steel bridges in rural areas
producers in the marine ecosystem. These
microscopic single celled plants, bacteria, algae and (c) To fight against corporate farming
other organisms harvest sunlight through (d) To protect forests
photosynthesis and store it as chemical energy before APPSC GROUP-I (7-5-2017)
becoming food for tiny creatures called zooplankton. Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
The zooplankton falls prey to larger animals like question.
small fish and jellyfish and these in turn become
meals for larger fish, squids, sharks and marine 77. The unit to measure ‘Ecological Footprint’ is:
mammals. The phytoplankton rest at the bottom of (a) Global Hectare (b) Nanometer
these food chains because all the energy used by (c) Hopes cubic feet (d) Cubic ton
these larger organisms comes from them. UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016
Environment & Ecology 24 YCT
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Ans : (a) Ecological footprint was conceived in 1990 carbon emissions. The ecological footprint tracks the
by Mathis Wackernagel and William Rees at the use of six categories of productive surface areas;
University of British Columbia. The Ecological cropland, grazing land, fishing grounds, built-up land,
Footprint is the only metric that measures how much forest area and carbon demand on land. On the supply
nature we have and how much nature we use. side, a city, state or nation’s biocapacity represents the
Ecological footprint measures productivity of its ecological assets (including
the demand and supply of nature. On the demand side, cropland, grazing land, forest land, fishing grounds
the ecological footprint measures the ecological and built-up land). These areas, especially if left
assets that a given population requires to produce the unharvested, can also absorb much of the waste we
natural resources it consumes (including plant-based generate, especially our carbon emissions. Both the
food and fiber products, livestock and fish products, ecological footprint and biocapacity are expressed
timber and other forest products, space for urban in global hectares; globally comparable, standardized
infrastructure) and to absorb its waste, especially hectares with world average productivity.

Source- Global Footprint Network.org

78. Which among the following is the unit of Ans. (b): Ecological footprint is a method of gauging
measurement of the "Ecological Footprint"? human's dependence on natural resources by calculating
(a) Global Hectare how much of the environment is needed to sustain a
(b) Gallon Per Capita particular lifestyle. In other words, it measures the
(c) Cubic Meter demand versus the supply of nature.
(d) Man Hour 80. The minimum area of the land required to
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I completely sustain the life of the person is
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question. called his-
79. Ecological footprint is a method of gauging the: (a) Biota footprint (b) Ecological footprint
(a) Biodiversity of region (c) Biome (d) Niche
(b) Human dependence on natural resources UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
(c) Volume of human migration
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) Amount of carbon dioxide emitted
question.
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
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81. In the context of ecosystem productivity, (c) Ecessis, Migration, Nudation, Reaction,
marine upwelling zones are important as they Stabilization
increase the marine productivity by bringing (d) Stabilization, Stabilization, Nudation,
the- Migration, Ecessis
1. Decomposer microorganism to the surface. UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016
2. Nutrients to the surface.
Ans : (a) The correct sequence of the phases of biotic
3. bottom-dwelling organism to the surface.
succession is nudation, migration, ecessis, reaction and
Which of the statements given above is/are
stabilization. Nudation is development of bare areas in
correct?
initial prerequisite. Migration starts when germules
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
leave their parent areas and terminates when they
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
reach the final resting place. Ecessis is a process of
IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
establishment of immigrants. Reaction essentially
Ans : (b) Winds blowing across the ocean surface involves the changes that are brought in the habitat
push water away. Water then rises up from beneath the
conditions by the plants themselves. This is the effect
surface to replace the water that was pushed away.
of interactions between vegetation and habitat.
This process is known as upwelling. Upwelling occurs
in the open ocean and along coastlines. The reverse Continuous competition and reaction bring about
process is called down welling. It occurs when wind several marked changes in the environment and
causes surface water to build up along a coastline and consequently introduce gradual change in the structure
the surface water eventually sinks toward the bottom. of vegetation. Climate at this stage plays primary role
Water that rises to the surface as a result of upwelling in determining the nature of community. This process
is typically colder and is rich in nutrients. These is called stabilization.
nutrients fertilize surface water which means that these 84. The number of organisms that can be
surface waters often have high biological supported by the environment in a given area
productivity. Therefore good fishing grounds is known as:
typically are found where upwelling is common.
(a) Population
Hence (b) is the correct answer.
(b) Carrying Capacity
82. In the grassland, trees do not replace the
grasses as a part of an ecological succession (c) Pyramid of number or biomass
because of Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2014
(a) Insects and fungi Ans : (b) Carrying capacity is the maximum
(b) Limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients population size of a species that the environment can
(c) Water limits and fire sustain indefinitely for available resources. Hence (b)
(d) None of the above is the correct answer.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 85. The maximum number of Individuals that can
Ans : (c) The gradual and fairly predictable change in be supported by a given environment is called
the species composition of a given area is called (a) Carrying capacity
ecological succession. During succession, some (b) Population size
species colonize an area and their populations become (c) Biotic potential
more numerous whereas populations of other species
(d) Environmental resistance
decline and even disappear. At some places, grasses
monopolize a place. In dry season, the grasses dry up Assam PSC (CCE) Pre- 2021
and cause fires which destroy other plant species and Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.
their seeds. Also grasslands develop in regions with 86. Which of the following is the largest ecosystem
scanty rainfall where plant growth cannot be achieved. of the earth?
Additionally, grasslands are almost irreversible once (a) Hydrosphere (b) Biome
deforestation in water scarce areas gives way to
(c) Lithosphere (d) Biosphere
grasslands. Hence (c) is the correct answer.
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
83. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of the phases of biotic succession? Ans : (d) Biosphere is the largest ecosystem of earth.
(a) Nudation, Migration, Ecessis, Reaction, The biosphere is made up of parts of earth where life
Stabilization exists. The biosphere extends from the deepest root
(b) Migration, Nudation, Ecessis, Reaction, systems of trees to the dark environment of ocean
Stabilization trenches, to lush rain forests and high mountaintops.

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03.
Biodiversity
1. Biodiversity means 5. The most significant aspect of biodiversity is
(a) Diverse kinds of plants and vegetation. (a) Food
(b) Diverse kinds of animals. (b) Drug
(c) Diverse kinds of plants and animals in (c) Industrial use
particular area.
(d) Maintenance of ecosystem
(d) Diverse kinds of exotic plants and animals.
Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 Ans : (d) Biodiversity plays an important role in the
Manipur PSC - 2013 way ecosystems functions and the services they
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 1993 provide. Some of the significance of biodiversity are;
Ans : (c) Biodiversity is the term first coined by provisioning services such as food, clean water,
Walter G. Rosen. It was popularized by the timber, fiber and genetic resources; regulating services
sociobiologist Edward Wilson to describe the such as climate, floods, decease, water quality and
combined diversity at all the levels of biological pollination; cultural services such as recreational,
organization. Biodiversity is the amount of variety of aesthetic and spiritual benefits; supporting services
life on earth. It is the number of different species of such as soil formation and nutrient cycling. Hence,
plants, animals and microorganisms. It includes most significant aspect of biodiversity is maintenance
organisms from earth’s vastly different ecosystems of ecosystem.
including deserts, rainforests, coral reefs, grasslands,
tundra and polar ice caps. 6. Among the mathematical indices for measuring
2. Biodiversity is described as- bio-diversity, which one shows the mean
(a) The way species differ from one another species diversity in a habitat at a local scale?
(b) The seasonal and daily changes in the (a) Alpha index (b) Beta index
environment (c) Gamma index (d) None of these
(c) The influence of physical factors on an RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018
environment Ans : (a) Typically, researchers measure genetic
(d) The range of different species in an diversity by counting how often certain genetic
environment patterns occur. Measuring the diversity of a species
UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 generally incorporates estimates of richness. Also
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014 referred to as alpha-diversity, species richness is a
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above common way of measuring biodiversity and involves
question. counting the number of individuals or even families in
3. Who among the following had used the term a given area. At the ecosystem-level, measures of
‘Biodiversity’ for the first time? biodiversity are often used to compare two ecosystems
(a) C.J. Barrow (b) De Castri or to determine changes over time in a given region.
(c) Walter G. Rosen (d) D.R. Batish Describing changes in biodiversity within or between
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 ecosystems is called beta-diversity. Gamma-diversity
UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2013 estimates the total biodiversity within an entire region.
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
7. Which of the following is NOT responsible for
question.
increase in the biodiversity of an ecosystem?
4. Biodiversity
(a) Productivity of the ecosystem
(a) Increases towards the equator
(b) Intermediate disturbance
(b) Has no effect on change in latitude
(c) Decreases towards the equator (c) Age of the ecosystem
(d) Remains same throughout the planet (d) Less number of tropic levels
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I UPPCS (Pre.) Re–exam. 2015
Ans. (a) : Biodiversity refers to the variety in the life Ans : (d) Less number of tropic levels would only
forms present on earth. It is higher in the tropical region decrease the diversity of an ecosystem. Rest of the
around the equator due to the favorable warm and moist given options are factors responsible for increase in
climate and it deceases towards the poles. the biodiversity of an ecosystem.

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8. Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ 13. Which of the following is an example of Ex-situ
method of conservation of flora? conservation in Jharkhand?
(a) Biosphere Reserve (b) Botanical Garden (a) Betla National Park
(c) National Park (d) Wildlife Sanctuary (b) Birsa Munda Zoological Park
Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I (c) Palamau Sanctuary
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2011 (d) Palkot Sanctuary
Manipur PSC - 2013 JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
Ans : (b) When whole ecosystem is conserved and Ans. (b) : Birsa Munda Zoological Park, located in
protected, its biodiversity at all levels is protected e.g. Ranchi district of Jharkhand, is an example of ex-situ
to save the tiger, entire forest is protected. This conservation. It was established in the year 1994. It is a
approach is called in- situ (on site) conservation. major tourist destination of Jharkhand, which is situated
Examples of in-situ conservation are; Wildlife on the bank of Sapati river. Betlu National Park is
Sanctuary, National Park, Biosphere Reserve. located in Latehar district of Jharkhand. It was
However when there are situations, where an animal established in the year 1986. Palamu wildlife sanctuary
or plant is endangered or threatened and needs urgent is the largest sanctuary of Jharkhand. It was established
measures to save it from extinction, ex-situ (off site) in the year 1976. Pulkot wildlife sanctuary is located in
conservation is the desirable approach. Examples of Gumla district of Jharkhand. It was established in the
ex-situ conservation are; Seed Bank, Zoological Parks, year 1990. Tiser, leopard, elephant, chital, wolf, wild
Botanical Garden. Hence, Botanical Garden is not a dog etc. are found in these wildlife sanctuaries.
site for in-situ method of conservation of flora.
14. What is India's share of the global species
9. Which of the following is NOT an example of
diversity?
in-situ conservation strategy?
(a) 2% (b) 4%
(a) Biosphere reserve (b) Botanical garden
(c) 6% (d) 8%
(c) National Park (d) Sacred groves
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2018
Ans. (d): Species diversity refers to the number of
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
different species of organisms present at a given
question.
location. India belongs to one of the 17-mega
10. Maintenance of genetic diversity in National biodiversity countries in the world. The Indian Sub
Parks is done by- continent occupying only 2.4% of earth's terrestrial land
(a) In-situ conservation area, is home to several diverse species of organisms
(b) Ex-situ conservation and currently shares around 8% of the global species
(c) Gene pool diversity.
(d) None of the above 15. Which of the following gas is commonly used in
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) G.S. 2016 Cryo- Bank for the ex-situ conservation?
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Nitrogen (b) Oxygen
question. (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Methane
11. Which one of the following is not included UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009
under in-situ conservation Ans : (a) Cryopreservation (Cryo-Bank) is becoming
(a) Zoo (b) National Park more widely used for long term storage of seeds and in
(c) Botanical Garden (d) Germplasm bank vitro cultures and is the method of choice for ensuring
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I cost-effective and long-term safe storage of genetic
Ans. (d) : Germplasm bank uses ex-situ conservation. resources of species which have recalcitrant seeds or
Germplasm bank conserves an endangered species are vegetative propagated. Storage is usually in liquid
outside its natural habitat. nitrogen (-196°C), whereby all metabolic processes
12. Ex-situ conservation includes: and cell divisions are arrested.
(a) National parks 16. CBD is expanded as:
(b) Botanic gardens (a) Convention on Bio-Diversity
(c) Biosphere reserves (b) Conservation of Bio-Diversity
(d) Wildlife sanctuaries (c) Conservation of Biological Diversity
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I (d) Centre of Biological Diversity
Ans. (b): In ex-situ conservation, threatened animals OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
and plants are taken out from their natural habitat and Ans. (a): The Convention on Biological Diversity
placed in special setting, where they can be protected (CDB), known informally as the Biodiversity
and given special care. Zoological parks, botanical Convention is a multilateral treaty. The convention has
gardens and wildlife safari parks serve this purpose. three main goals, the conservation of biological
Environment & Ecology 28 YCT
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diversity, sustainable use of its components and the fair Ans : (d) A healthy biodiversity provides natural
and equitable sharing of benefits arising from genetic services for everyone which includes "Ecosystem
resources. Its objective is to develop-national strategies Services" such as protection of water resources, soil
for the conservation and sustainable use of biological formation and protection, nutrient storage and
diversity and it is often seen as the key document recycling, pollution breakdown and absorption,
regarding sustainable development. contribution to climate stability, maintenance of
17. The most important strategy for the ecosystems, recovery from unpredictable events.
conservation of biodiversity together with Biological Services such as food, medicinal resources
traditional human life is the establishment of and pharmaceutical drugs, wood products, ornamental
(a) Biosphere reserves (b) Botanical gardens plants, breeding stocks, population reservoirs, future
resources, diversity in genes, species and ecosystems.
(c) National parks (d) Wildlife sanctuaries
Social Services, such as research, education and
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014 monitoring, recreation, tourism and cultural values.
Ans : (a) For the conservation of biodiversity together Therefore, biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity
with human activities, Biosphere Reserves are the best for human existence where each species, no matter
strategy as biosphere reserves are areas comprising how small, all have an important role to play. Hence,
terrestrial, marine and coastal ecosystems. It promotes (d) is the correct answer.
economies that are based on the sustainable and wise 21. Consider the following statements:
use of regional natural and human resources. Each 1. Biodiversity is normally greater in lower
reserve promotes solutions reconciling the latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
conservation of biodiversity with its sustainable use. 2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is
Biosphere reserves are ‘science for sustainability normally greater in the lower altitudes as
support sites’. These are special places for testing compared to higher altitudes.
interdisciplinary approaches to understanding and Which of the statements given above is/ are
managing changes and interactions between social and correct?
ecological systems including conflict prevention and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
management of biodiversity. There are 686 biosphere
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
reserves in 122 countries, among them, 18 biosphere
reserves are in India. IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
Ans : (c) Environmental gradient such as altitude is
18. Which one of the following is an important
known to affect biodiversity. Higher altitudes are
strategy for the conservation of biodiversity?
associated with a decline in species richness due to the
(a) Biosphere reserves (b) Botanical gardens extreme weather conditions, which in turn declines the
(c) National parks (d) Wildlife sanctuaries biodiversity. Similarly along the mountain terrain,
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013 biodiversity is greater at the lower altitudes as
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above compared to higher altitudes due to better weather
question. conditions which supports plant growth, species
19. Biosphere reserves are areas for conservation richness etc. Hence (c) is the correct answer.
of 22. Maximum biodiversity is found in-
(a) Grassland (a) Tropical rain forest (b) Temperate forest
(b) Agriculture production (c) Coniferous forest (d) Arctic forest
(c) Atmosphere balance UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012, 2016
(d) Genetic variation Ans : (a) Maximum biodiversity is found in tropical
UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2004 rain forest. Tropical rainforests are home to gigantic
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above trees, colorful birds and a huge variety of fascinating
question. mammals. Tropical rainforests support the greatest
diversity of living organisms on earth. About 80% of
20. Biodiversity forms the basis for human the world's documented species can be found in
existence in the following ways tropical rainforests, even though they cover only about
1. Soil formation 6% of the earth's land surface. Tropical forests
2. Prevention of soil erosion are closed canopy forests growing within 28 degrees
3. Recycling of waste north or south of the equator. They are very wet
4. Pollination of crops places, receiving more than 200 cm rainfall per
Select the correct answer using the codes given year either seasonally or throughout the year.
below: Temperatures are uniformly high between 20°C and
(a) 1,2and 3 only (b) 2,3 and 4 only 35°C. Such forests are found in Asia, Australia,
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Africa, South America, Central America, Mexico and
on many of the Pacific Islands.
IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2011
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23. Which one of the following has the largest 28. Which of the following places has maximum
biodiversity? biodiversity and endemic animals?
(a) Temperate deciduous forest biome (a) Eastern Ghats and West Bengal
(b) Tropical rain forest biome (b) Western Ghats and Eastern Himalayas
(c) Temperate grassland biome (c) Thar Desert and Punjab
(d) Savana biome (d) Nicobar and Kerala
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014 Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (b) : In India, maximum biodiversity and endemic
question. animals are found in two geographical areas, i.e.
24. The greatest diversity of animals and plant Eastern Himalaya and Western Ghats. These two areas
species occurs in: are included among the 36 hotspots of the world.
(a) Temperate deciduous forest
29. Which of the following is associated with coral
(b) Tropical moist forest
atolls?
(c) Heavily polluted rivers
(a) Nicobar group of Islands
(d) Deserts and Savana
(b) Lakshadweep Islands
IAS (Pre) G.S 1994
(c) Islands of Sundarban delta
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) Wheeler and Shorts Island
question.
Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020
25. Which part of the world has a high density of
organism? Ans. (b): An atoll is a ring shaped coral reef Island or
(a) Grasslands series of is lets. An atoll surrounded a body of water is
(b) Savannah called a lagoon. Lakshadweep's topography is a perfect
(c) Deciduous forests combination of beautiful islands, coral reefs and atolls,
lagoons, crystal clear seawater and the silvery sand
(d) Tropical rain forests
beaches. Lakshadweep, the group of 36 islands is
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2010, 2014
known for its exotic and sun-kissed beaches and lush
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above green landscape. The name Lakshadweep in Malayalam
question. and Sanskrit means "a hundred thousand islands".
26. Which of the following statement is NOT true? India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an
(a) Species diversity increases from equator archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of 32
towards poles sq km. It is a uni-district Union Territory and is
(b) Tropics harbour more species than temperate comprised of 12 atolls, three reefs, five submerged
areas banks and ten inhabited islands.
(c) Greatest biodiversity occurs in Amazonian Sundarban, a mangrove area in the delta formed by
rain forest confluence of the Padma, Brahmaputra and Meghna
(d) Species diversity decreases from temperate Rivers in the Bay of Bengal.
areas towards poles
Dr. Abdul Kalam Island, formerly known as Wheeler
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Island is an Island off the coast of Odisha.
Ans : (a) Species diversity decreases as we move from
30. Which one of the following ecosystem has
equator towards the poles because at poles, sunlight is
less visible due to slanting rays of the sun but at maximum plant bio mass?
equator posses straight rays of sunlight due to which (a) Tropical deciduous forest
vegetation of tropical region is much high than the (b) Tropical rain forest
polar regions. Hence statement (a) is not correct while (c) Temperate deciduous forest
rest of the statements is correct. (d) Deserts shrubs
27. Vast majority of biodiversity occur in: UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
(a) Developing countries Ans : (b) Biomass is organic material that comes from
(b) Developed countries plants and animals and it is a renewable source of
(c) Equal in both energy. As discussed earlier, tropical rain forest
(d) None of the above provides maximum biomass.
Himanchal PCS Pre 2017 31. An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found
Ans : (a) Vast majority of biodiversity occur in in which ecosystem?
developing countries as most of them are situated in (a) Marine (b) Grassland
tropical zone. Climate conditions of tropical zone (c) Forest (d) Tundra
support biodiversity. RAS/RTS (PRE.) 2021
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Ans. (a): An inverted pyramid of biomass can be found Act is implemented through a three-tiered institutional
in marine ecosystem. In the aquatic ecosystem, structure at the National, State and local levels. In
pyramids of biomass are inverted because the small October, 2003, headquarter of National Biodiversity
standing crop of phytoplankton supports large standing Authority (NBA) has been set up at Chennai.
crop of zooplankton. 36. National Biodiversity Authority has its
32. In which environment the annual production of headquarters at-
bio-mass is minimal? (a) Bengaluru (b) Chennai
(a) Deep ocean (b) Prairie (c) Hyderabad (d) New Delhi
(c) Deciduous forest (d) Taiga UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2000 Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans : (a) Under deep ocean, the annual production of question.
bio-mass is minimum as compared to the other options 37. The Biological Diversity Act 2002 was born out
given. of India's attempt to realize the objectives of
33. Biodiversity day is celebrated on- enshrine in the;
(a) 29 December (b) 27 June (a) United National Convention on Biological
(c) 22 May (d) 30 January Diversity (CBD) 1991
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2018 (b) United National Convention on Biological
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 Diversity (CBD) 1992
RAS/ RTS (Pre) G.S 2012 (c) United National Convention on Biological
Ans : (c) The United Nations has proclaimed May 22nd Diversity (CBD) 1993
as the International Day for Biological Diversity to (d) United National Convention on Biological
increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity Diversity (CBD) 1994
issues. In December 2000, the UN General Assembly Haryana PSC Pre 2014
adopted 22 May as international day for biological Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
diversity to commemorate the adoption of the text of the question.
Convention on 22 May 1992 by the Nairobi Final Act of
38. National Biodiversity Authority of India was
the Conference for the Adoption of the Agreed Text of
established in-
the Convention on Biological Diversity. For 2022, theme
for World Biodiversity Day was "Building a shared (a) 2003, in Chennai (b) 2003, in Bengaluru
future for all life". (c) 2003, in Hyderabad (d) 2003, in Kerala
UP UDA/LDA (Mains) G.S 2014
34. The United Nations has declared the decade
2011-2020 as the UN decade of Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Biodiversity question.
(b) Eradication of poverty 39. ‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and
(c) Water for all ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes
(d) Sustainable energy for all seen in the news, are related to-
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 (a) Constitutional reforms
(b) Ganga Action Plan
Ans : (a) The United Nations General Assembly
declared the period 2011-2020 as United Nations (c) Linking of rivers
Decade on Biodiversity to promote the implementation (d) Protection of Western Ghats
of a strategic plan on biodiversity and its overall vision of IAS (Pre) G.S, 2016
living in harmony with nature. The main goal is to Ans : (d) In March 2010, Ministry of Environment
mainstream biodiversity at different levels. and Forestry set up an expert panel, Gadgil
35. The Biodiversity Act was passed by the Indian Commission (named after its chairman Madhav
Parliament in- Gadgil) to find out a strategy for conserving Western
(a) May, 2000 (b) December, 2002 Ghats. The commission is formally known as Western
(c) January, 2004 (d) October, 2008 Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP). The Western
UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S 2017 Ghats Ecology Expert Panel (WGEEP) designated the
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 entire hill range of Western Ghats as an Ecologically
UP UDA/LDA (PRE) G.S 2010 Sensitive Area (ESA). The Kasturirangan committee
was constituted to examine the Western Ghats
Ans : (b) India signed the United Nations Convention
on Biological Diversity at Rio de Janeiro on 5th June Ecology Expert Panel report. Kasturirangan
1992. India enacted the Biological Diversity Act in Committee recommended only 37% of total area of
2002 and notified Biological Diversity Rules in 2004 Western Ghats to be brought under Ecologically
to give effect to the provisions of this Convention. The Sensitive Area.
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40. Other than poaching, what are the possible 42. Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often
reasons for the decline in the population of mentioned in news?
Ganges River Dolphins? (a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics
1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers (b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area
2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in in which it grows
rivers (c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of
3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally pesticides
4. Use of synthetic fertilizers and other (d) None of the above
agricultural chemicals in crop-fields in the IAS (Pre) 2018
vicinity of rivers Ans : (b) Prosopis juliflora L. is one of the world's
Select the correct answer using the code given worst woody invasive plant which is an evergreen,
below. fast-growing mimosa tree or shrub, native to Mexico,
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only South America and the Caribbean. Currently, Prosopis
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 has become the worst weed in Pastoral and agro-
IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2014 pastoral communities of Ethiopia, Kenya and
Ans : (c) Dolphins are one of the oldest creatures in generally in the eastern part of Africa. According to
the world along with some species of turtles, assessment made by national and international
crocodiles and sharks. The Ganges river dolphin organizations, Prosopis is number one priority
(Common name-Susu, Scientific name-Platanista invasive weeds in Ethiopia. The worst thing about
gangetica gangetica) was officially discovered in Prosopis is its negative impacts on the ecosystem like
1801. The Ganges river dolphin can only live in forming impenetrable shrubby thickets, invading water
freshwater and is essentially blind. The habitat of the courses, lowering the water-table and thus indirectly
Ganges river dolphin is within one of the most densely starving plants of other species of moisture and
populated areas of the world. The Ganga river dolphin nutrients, creating what are known as ‘green deserts’,
is important because it is a reliable indicator of the largely devoid of life, instead of meeting the stated
health of the entire river ecosystem. The government objective. The rapid expansion of Prosopis is
of India declared it the National Aquatic Animal in considered as a major threat mainly for pastoralist
2009. Ganges river dolphins and people, both favour livelihood in the environment due to its invasive
areas of the river where fish are plentiful and the water nature. It can infest pasturelands, irrigated cultivated
current is slower. This has led to fewer fish for people lands and irrigation canals, finally causing an
and dolphins. More dolphins died as a result of irreversible displacement of natural pasture grasses as
accidentally being caught in fishing nets, also known well as native tree species.
as "bycatch". The Ganges river dolphin is still hunted 43. Which of the following can be threats to the
for meat and oil, which are both used medicinally. The biodiversity of a region?
oil is also used to attract catfish in net fishery. 1. Global warming
Industrial, agricultural and human pollution is another 2. Fragmentation of habitat
serious cause of habitat degradation. Each year, 3. Invasion of alien species
million tons of fertilizers and pesticides are used in the 4. Promotion of Vegetarianism
vicinity of the river. High levels of pollution can Select the correct answer using code-
directly kill dolphins and other species and completely
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
destroy their habitat. As the top predator, river
dolphins have been known to have high levels of (c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
persistent toxic chemicals in their bodies, which is IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2012
likely to adversely affect their health. Ganges river RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S. 2016
dolphins are divided into isolated groups due to the Ans : (a) There are four major factors, which results in
construction of dams and other irrigation-related threat to biodiversity of geographical area. They are;
projects. This makes them susceptible to inbreeding habitat loss and fragmentation, over-exploitation, alien
and more vulnerable to other threats because they species invasions and co-extinctions. The most
cannot move to new areas. dramatic example of habitat loss comes from tropical
41. In the freshwaters of river Ganga, a variety of rain forests. Once covering more than 14 per cent of
dolphins named _______ are found the earth’s land surface, these rain forests now cover
(a) Dolma (b) Susu no more than 6 per cent. They are being destroyed
fast. The Amazon rain forest (it is so huge that it is
(c) Saka (d) Doha
called the ‘lungs of the planet’) harboring probably
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) millions of species, is being cut and cleared for
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above cultivating soya beans or for conversion to grasslands
question. for raising beef cattle. Humans have always depended
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on nature for food and shelter but when need turns to 48. Which one of the following strongly threatens
greed, it leads to over exploitation of natural biodiversity?
resources, which in turn provides threat to (a) Fragile ecosystem such as mangroves and
biodiversity. Many species extinctions in the last 500 wetlands
years were due to overexploitation by humans. When (b) Inaccessible habitats in the Himalayas
alien species are introduced unintentionally or (c) Destruction of natural habitats, vegetation and
deliberately for whatever purpose, some of them turn Jhum cultivation
invasive and cause decline or extinction of indigenous
(d) Creation of biosphere reserve
species. The Nile perch introduced into Lake Victoria
in East Africa led eventually to the extinction of an Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2010
ecologically unique assemblage of more than 200 Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
species of cichlid fish in the lake. When a species question.
becomes extinct, the plant and animal species 49. The destruction of biodiversity is due to:
associated with it in an obligatory way also become (a) The lack of natural habitats of organism
extinct. When a host fish species becomes extinct, its (b) Environmental pollution
unique assemblage of parasites also meets the same
(c) Destruction of forest
fate.
(d) All the above
44. Biodiversity has maximum danger from UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2002
(a) Destruction of natural habitats and vegetation
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Improper agricultural operations
question.
(c) Climate change
(d) Water pollution 50. Which one of the following is not a reason for
the loss of biodiversity in Uttarakhand?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
(a) Expansion of roads
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Urbanization
question.
(c) Afforestation of barren land
45. The main reason for the decrease in
(d) Extension of agriculture
biodiversity is
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006
(a) Habitat pollution
(b) Introduction of exotic species Ans : (c) Expansion of roads, urbanization and
(c) Over exploitation extension of agriculture, all leads to loss of
biodiversity but afforestation of barren land helps to
(d) Natural habitat destruction
increase the biodiversity.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016, 2015
51. The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
extinction" is often mentioned in the news in
question.
the context of the discussion of
46. The reason for the destruction of biodiversity (a) Widespread monoculture practices in
is- agriculture and large-scale commercial
(a) Decrease in natural habitat of creatures farming with indiscriminate use of chemicals
(b) Environmental pollution in many parts of the world that may result in
(c) Destruction of forests the loss of good native ecosystems
(d) All of the above (b) Fears of a possible collision of a meteorite
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 with the Earth in the near future in the
UPPCS (Main) G.S. 2002 manner it happened 65 million years ago that
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above caused the mass extinction of many species
question. including those of dinosaurs.
47. Which one of the following is the most (c) Large scale cultivation of genetically
important factor responsible for the decline of modified crops in many parts of the world
bio-diversity? and promoting their cultivation in other parts
(a) Genetic assimilation of the world which may cause the
(b) Controlling assimilation disappearance of good native crop plants and
(c) Destruction of habitat the loss of food biodiversity.
(d) Controlling pests (d) Mankind's over-exploitation/misuse of
natural resources, fragmentation/loss of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010
natural habitats, destruction of ecosystems,
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above pollution and global climate change
question.
IAS (Pre) 2018
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Ans : (d) A ‘biological annihilation’ of wildlife in 53. Which of the following is considered a ‘Hotspot’
recent decades means a ‘Sixth Mass Extinction’ in of biodiversity in India?
earth’s history is under way and is more severe than (a) Aravalli Hills (b) Western Ghats
previously feared. Species are becoming extinct (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Indo-Gangetic Plains
hundred times faster than they would without human
UPPSC RO-ARO (Pre) 2021
impacts. Populations of wild animals have more than
halved since 1970, while the human population has Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
doubled. Wildlife is dying out due to habitat question.
destruction, overhunting, toxic pollution, invasion by 54. Which of the following statement(s) is(are)
alien species and climate change. But the ultimate correct with reference to the Biodiversity
cause of all of these factors is human overpopulation Hotspot?
and continued population growth and 1. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeography
overconsumption. Only five times before in earth’s region with significant levels of biodiversity
history, have so many species and so much
that is threatened with destruction.
biodiversity been lost so quickly. The fifth was when
the dinosaurs were wiped out. That is why scientists 2. To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region
and conservationists call, what is happening now is must meet two strict criteria: it must contain at
the sixth mass extinction. least 500 species of vascular plants as endemic
52. Consider the following statements: and it has to have lost at least 50% of its
1. Biodiversity hotspots are located only in primary vegetation.
tropical regions. 3. Western Ghats is biodiversity hotspot in India.
2. India has four biodiversity hotspots i.e., (a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 and 3
Eastern Himalayas, Western Himalayas, (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Western Ghats and Andaman and Nicobar Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
Islands.
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Which of the statements given above is/are
question.
correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 55. Biodiversity hot spots are among the richest
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 and most important ecosystems in the world.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010 How many such hot spots are presently there in
Ans : (d) Biodiversity hotspots are areas that support the world?
natural ecosystems that are largely intact and where (a) 25 (b) 34
native species and communities associated with these (c) 36 (d) 42
ecosystems are well represented. They are also areas Assam PSC (CCE) Pre- 2021
with a high diversity of locally endemic species that MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017
are not found or are rarely found outside the hotspot.
Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet
two strict criteria: contain at least 1,500 species of 56. Which among the following is a biodiversity
vascular plants found nowhere else on earth (known as 'Hot-spot' in India?
‘endemic’ species), have lost at least 70 percent of its (a) Indo-Myanmar landscape
primary native vegetation. Conservation International (b) Lakshadweep
was a pioneer in defining and promoting the concept (c) Sundarban
of hotspots. In 1989, just one year after scientist
Norman Myers wrote the paper that introduced the (d) Pachmarhi
hotspots concept, Conservation International adopted UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I
the idea of protecting these incredible places as the Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.
guiding principle. Biological hotspots are found at 57. Which of the following in not a Biodiversity
both tropical and temperate regions. Hence statement Hotspot in India?
1 is incorrect. Conservation International has
(a) The Western Ghats
recognized 36 biodiversity hotspots in the world. The
North American Coastal Plain was recognized as 36th (b) The Sundaland
biodiversity hotspot of world. Officially, four out of (c) The Eastern Ghats
the 36 Biodiversity Hotspots in the world are present (d) The Himalayas
in India:- Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
1. Himalayas Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question.
2. Western Ghats 58. Biodiversity Hotspots are characterized on the
3. Indo-Burma (Myanmar) region basis of:
4. Sundaland (includes Nicobar group of islands) (a) Endemic flowering plant and threat
Hence, statement 2 is also incorrect. perception
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(b) Species of flowering plants Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Endemic flowering plant question.
(d) Diversity of plants 63. Which of the following is considered a ‘hot
TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017 spot’ of biodiversity in India?
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question. (a) Aravalli hills (b) Indo-Gangetic plain
59. Three of the following criteria have (c) Eastern Ghats (d) Western Ghats
contributed to the recognition of Western Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Ghats, Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
hotspots of biodiversity- question.
1. Species richness 64. Which of the following has been identified as a
2. Vegetation density ‘biodiversity hotspot’ in India?
3. Endemism (a) Sundarban (b) Western Ghats
4. Ethno-botanical importance (c) Manas (d) Cherapunji
5. Threat perception UPPCS (Pre) (Re Exam) G.S 2015
6. Adaption of flora and fauna to warm and Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
humid conditions question.
Which three of the above are correct criteria in 65. Which of the following is a biodiversity
this context? saturated area in India?
(a) 1, 2 and 6 (b) 2, 4 and 6 (a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats
(c) 1, 3 and 5 (d) 3, 4 and 6 (c) Thar Desert (d) The Bay of Bengal
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2011 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
Ans : (c) Biodiversity hotspots are areas that support Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
natural ecosystems that are largely intact and where question.
native species and communities associated with these 66. Which of the following is a biodiversity rich
ecosystems are well represented. They are also areas place in India?
with a high diversity of locally endemic species that (a) Western Ghats (b) Eastern Ghats
are not found or are rarely found outside the hotspot.
(c) Thar Desert (d) The Bay of Bengal
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, an area must meet
two strict criteria: contain at least 1,500 species of UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
vascular plants found nowhere else on earth (known as Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
‘endemic’ species), have lost at least 70 percent of its question.
primary native vegetation. Conservation International 67. The ‘Hot Spots’ (in the context of environment)
was a pioneer in defining and promoting the concept found in India are-
of hotspots. Hence, species richness, endemism and (a) Eastern Ghats, Western Ghats
threat perceptions are correct criteria for Biodiversity (b) Vindhya Range, Eastern Ghats
Hotspots. (c) Eastern Himalaya Range, Western Ghats
60. The most biodiversity rich area in India is (d) Shivalik Range, Eastern Ghats
(a) Gangetic plain (b) Trans Himalayas UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2012
(c) Western Ghats (d) Central India UP UDA/LDA (Main) Spl. G.S. 2010
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) G.S. 2016
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2015, 2013, 2008
question. UPPCS (Pre.) Spl. G.S. 2004
61. Which of the following mountains are UPPCS (Pre.) Re–exam, 2015
considered as one of the top biodiversity hot Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
spots? question.
(a) Western Ghats (b) Eastern Ghats 68. Which reference to biodiversity, which of the
(c) Himalayas (d) Aravallis following regions in India is regarded as
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2017 'HOTSPOT'?
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
question. (b) Gangetic Plain
62. Which one of the following is not a (c) Central India
‘biodiversity hotspot’ of India? (d) None of the above
(a) Himalayas (b) Vindhyas UPPCS (Main) G.S. IInd 2009
(c) North-East India (d) Western Ghats Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016 question.
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69. The Himalayan Range is very rich in species 19. Forests of Eastern Australia
diversity. Which one among the following is the 20. Sundaland
most appropriate reason for this phenomenon? 21. Wallacea
(a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant 22. Western Ghats and Sri Lanka
vegetative growth III. Europe and Central Asia
(b) It is a confluence of different bio- 23. Caucasus
geographical zones 24. Irano-Anatolian
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been 25. Mediterranean Basin
introduced in this region 26. Mountains of Central Asia
(d) It has less human interference
IV. North and Central America
IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2011 27. California Floristic Province
Ans : (b) The Himalayan Range is very rich in species 28. Caribbean Islands
diversity because of its geographical diversity. The 29. Madrean Pine-Oak Woodlands
most characteristic features of the Himalayas are their
30. Mesoamerica
soaring heights, steep-sided jagged peaks, valley and
31. North American Coastal Plain (Latest addition on
alpine glaciers often of stupendous
Feb 2016)
size, topography, deeply cut by erosion, seemingly
V. South America
unfathomable river gorges, complex geologic structure
and series of elevational zones that display different 32. Atlantic Forest
ecological associations of flora, fauna and climate. 33. Cerrado
34. Chilean Winter Rainfall-Valdivian Forests
70. Consider the following regions:
35. Tumbes-Chocó-Magdalena
1. Eastern Himalayas
36. Tropical Andes
2. Eastern Mediterranean region
Source- ENVIS Center on Floral Diversity
3. North- Western Australia
Which of the above is/are Biodiversity 71. As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which
Hotspot(s)? of the following?
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) For nutrient recovery and cycling
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants
IAS (Pre) G.S 2009
(c) In reducing silitiation of rivers by retaining
Ans : (a) Eastern Himalayas are the biodiversity sediments
hotspot. Entire Mediterranean basin is a biodiversity
(d) All the above
hotspot while Southwest Australia is a biodiversity
hotspot. Hence (a) is the correct answer. List of 36 UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2012
biodiversity hotspots of world is given below:- Ans : (d) A wetland is a place where the land is
I. Africa covered by water (either salt, fresh or somewhere in
1. Cape Floristic Region between). Marshes and ponds, edge of a lake or ocean,
delta at the mouth of a river, low-lying areas that
2. Coastal Forests of Eastern Africa
frequently flood, all of these are wetlands. Wetlands
3. Eastern Afromontane
prevent flooding by holding water much like a sponge.
4. Guinean Forests of West Africa Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess
5. Horn of Africa nutrients. By doing so, wetlands help keep river levels
6. Madagascar and the Indian Ocean Islands normal and filter and purify the surface water.
7. Maputaland-Pondoland-Albany Wetlands accept water during storms and whenever,
8. Succulent Karoo water levels are high. When water levels are low,
II. Asia-Pacific wetlands slowly release water. Wetlands also release
9. East Melanesian Islands vegetative matter into rivers, which helps feed fish in
10. Himalaya the rivers. Wetlands help to counter balance the human
11. Indo-Burma effect on rivers by rejuvenating them and surrounding
ecosystems. Hence all the given options are correct.
12. Japan
13. Mountains of Southwest China 72. "If rainforests and tropical forests are the
lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands
14. New Caledonia
function as its kidneys". Which one of the
15. New Zealand following functions of wetlands best reflects the
16. Philippines above statement?
17. Polynesia-Micronesia (a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface
18. Southwest Australia runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
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(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, 74. India is a party to the Ramsar Convention and
crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and has declared many areas as Ramsar Sites.
mammals thrive. Which of the following statements best
(c) Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining describes as to how we should maintain these
sedimentation balance and soil stabilization. sites in the context of this convention?
(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and (a) Keep all the sites completely inaccessible to
excess nutrients. man so that they will not be exploited
(b) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
UPSC, IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
approach and permit tourism and recreation
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above only
question. (c) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
73. Consider the following statements around wet approach for a period without any
lands. exploitation, with specific criteria and specific
(i) Wet lands can be both aquatic and terrestrial period for each site, and then allow
at the same time depending on seasonal sustainable use of them by future generations
variability. (d) Conserve all the sites through ecosystem
(ii) Wet lands are first Targets of human approach and allow their simultaneous
interference. sustainable use
(iii) The boundaries of wet lands are defined as IAS (Pre) G.S 2010
per their geographical location. Ans : (d) The Convention on Wetlands, called the
Which of the above statements are correct? Ramsar Convention is the intergovernmental treaty
that provides the framework for the conservation and
(a) Only 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 and 2
wise use of wetlands and their resources. The
(c) Only 3 and 2 (d) Only 2 Convention was adopted in the Iranian city of Ramsar
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) in 1971 and came into force in 1975. Since then
Ans. (b) : Wetlands are defined as areas of land, which almost 90% of UN member States from the entire
are either temporarily or permanently covered by water. world’s geographic regions have acceded to become
Wetlands exhibit enormous diversity according to their "Contracting Parties". The Convention’s mission is
genesis, geographical location, water regime and “The conservation and wise use of all wetlands
chemistry. Hence, boundary of a wet land cannot be through local and national actions and international
defined. Therefore, statement 3 is not correct. Wetlands cooperation, as a contribution towards achieving
are one of the most productive ecosystems and play sustainable development throughout the world”. The
crucial role in hydrological cycle. Wetlands directly and Convention defines wise use of wetlands as “the
indirectly support millions of people in providing maintenance of their ecological character, achieved
services such as storm and flood control, clean water through the implementation of ecosystem approaches
supply, food, fiber and raw materials. However, the within the context of sustainable development”. Hence
very existence of these unique resources called wetlands (d) is the correct answer. The convention entered into
is under threat due to human interference such as force in India on 1 February 1982. List of 49 updated
developmental activities and population pressure. Ramsar Wetland sites in India is given below:–

RAMSAR Wetland Sites in India (As on February, 2022)

Sl. Name of the Site State
No.
1 Kolleru Lake Andhra Pradesh
2 Deepor Beel Assam
3 Kabartal Wetland Bihar
4 Khijadia Wildlife Sanctuary Gujarat
5 Nalsarovar Bird Sanctuary Gujarat
6 Thol Lake Wildlife Sanctuary Gujarat
7 Wadhvana Wetland Gujarat
8 Bhindawas Wildlife Sanctuary Haryana
9 Sultanpur National Park Haryana
10 Chandertal Wetland Himachal Pradesh
11 Pong Dam Lake Himachal Pradesh

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12 Renuka Wetland Himachal Pradesh

13 Wular Lake Jammu and Kashmir
14 Hokera Wetland Jammu and Kashmir
15 Surinsar-Mansar Lakes Jammu and Kashmir
16 Tsomoriri Lake Jammu and Kashmir
17 Asthamudi Wetland Kerala
18 Sasthamkotta Lake Kerala
19 Vembanad Kol Wetland Kerala
20 Tso Kar Wetland Complex Ladakh
21 Bhoj Wetlands Madhya Pradesh
22 Lonar Lake Maharashtra
23 Nandur Madhameshwar Maharashtra
24 Loktak Lake Manipur
25 Bhitarkanika Mangroves Orissa
26 Chilka Lake Orissa
27 Beas Conservation Reserve Punjab
28 Harike Lake Punjab
29 Kanjli Lake Punjab
30 Keshopur-Miani Community Reserve Punjab
31 Nangal Wildlife Sanctuary Punjab
32 Ropar Lake Punjab
33 Keoladeo Ghana NP Rajasthan
34 Sambhar Lake Rajasthan
35 Point Calimere Wildlife and Bird Sanctuary Tamil Nadu
36 Rudrasagar Lake Tripura
37 Bakhira Wildlife Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
38 Haiderpur Wetland Uttar Pradesh
39 Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
40 Parvati Agra Bird Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
41 Saman Bird Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
42 Samaspur Bird Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
43 Sandi Bird Sanctuary Uttar Pradesh
44 Sarsai Nawar Jheel Uttar Pradesh
45 Sur Sarovar Uttar Pradesh
46 Upper Ganga River (Brijghat to Narora Stretch) Uttar Pradesh
47 Asan Conservation Reserve Uttarakhand
48 East Kolkata Wetlands West Bengal
49 Sunderbans Wetland West Bengal
(Source: Ministry of Environment & Forests, Government of India)
Note- India aims to have 75 Ramsar sites on its 75th complexes in Suchindram Theroor and Vembannur,
anniversary of independence in addition to existing 49 Pichavaram Mangrove, Pallikaranai Marsh and the
sites. The 26 wetlands proposed to be designated as Gulf of Mannar Marine Biosphere Reserve. The
Ramsar sites comprise thirteen from Tamil Nadu, four Satkosia Gorge, Tampara Lake, Hirakud Reservoir
from Odisha, three from Madhya Pradesh, two from and Ansupa lake in Odisha; Sirpur wetland, Sakhya
Jammu and Kashmir and one each from Maharashtra, Sagar and Yashwant Sagar in Madhya Pradesh; the
wetland conservation reserves in Hygam and
Mizoram, Karnataka and Goa. If the Convention on
Shallbugh in Jammu and Kashmir; Thane creek in
Wetlands agrees to the proposal, India could have 75
Maharashtra; Nanda lake in Goa; Pala wetland in
Ramsar sites in the 75th year of Independence. The Mizoram and Ranganathituu Bird Sanctuary in
sites in Tamil Nadu include bird sanctuaries in Karnataka are set to get a push for designation as
Chitrangudi, Koonthankulam, Vaduvur, Vellode, Ramsar sites.
Kanjirakulam, Vedanthangal and Karikili, the wetland Source- The Hindu

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75. Ramsar Treaty is related to Ans. (c): The Parvati Arga Bird Sanctuary is situated in
(a) Conservation of forest the Tarabganj Tehsil of Gonda district of Uttar Pradesh.
(b) Reduction in green house It was designated as a Ramsar site on 2nd December,
(c) Conservation of wet lands 2019. The sanctuary provide habitat for waterbirds and
(d) Damodar valley corporation is a refuse for some of the India’s threatened vulture
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II species such as White–Rumped Vulture, Indian Vulture
Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019 and Egyptian vulture.
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 Hence, both statements are correct.
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 80. Bihar's first Ramsar Site is located in-
question. (a) Begusarai (b) Banka
76. The Ramsar Convention is about the (c) Bhagalpur (d) Bhojpur
conservation of which one of the following? (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
(a) Mountain flora and fauna 66th BPSC Re- Exam- 2020
(b) Wetlands UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
(c) Desert Flora and Fauna Ans. (a) : Kabartal in Bihar’s Begusarai district has
(d) Tropical Rain Forests been recognized as first Ramsar wetland in Bihar. It is
J & K PSC Pre-2018 Paper-I an important wetland of the Central Asian Flyway for
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above its population of migratory birds and biodiversity.
question. 81. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly
77. Which of the following lakes of Rajasthan has matched?
been included in the list of Ramsar wetland Act Year of Commencement
sites? (a) Wildlife Protection Act - 1972
(a) Jaisamand Lake (b) Anasagar Lake (b) Environment Protection Act - 1986
(c) Rajsamand Lake (d) Sambhar Lake (c) Forest Conservation Act - 1980
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016
(d) Biological Diversity Act -2000
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the above table. UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Note- Of the 49 sites, 10 are in UP, 6 in Punjab, 4
Ans. (d):
each in Gujarat and Jammu and Kashmir, 3 each in
Himachal Pradesh and Kerala, 2 each in Haryana, Act Year of Commencement
Maharashtra, Odisha, West Bengal, Rajasthan and one Wildlife Protection Act 1972
each in Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Ladakh, Environment Protection Act 1986
Manipur, Tamil Nadu, Tripura, Uttarakhand and Forest Conservation Act 1980
Madhya Pradesh. Biological Diversity Act 2002
The countries with the most Ramsar Sites are the 82. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
United Kingdom (175) and Mexico (142). answer using the code given below the lists-
78. The Ramsar Convention was associated with List-I List-II
the conservation of- (Wetland) (State)
(a) Bio- fuels (b) Forests A. Bhitarkanika 1. Punjab
(c) Wetlands (d) Dry lands B. Sasthamkotta Lake 2. Assam
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008 C. Kanjli 3. Odisha
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above D. Deepor Beel 4. Kerala
question.
Code :
79. With reference to 'Parvati Arga' Ramsar site, A B C D
which of the following statements is/are (a) 3 4 1 2
correct?
(b) 3 4 2 1
(1) It is situated in Gonda district of Uttar
(c) 4 3 2 1
Pradesh
(d) 4 1 3 2
(2) It is a bird sanctuary.
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
Select the correct answer using the code given
below Ans : (a) Correct match is-
Code Bhitarkanika Odisha
(a) Only 1 (b) Only2 Sasthamkotta Lake Kerala
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Kanjli Punjab
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021 Deepor Beel Assam

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83. Which of the following is not a wetland site Ans : (c) India has 19 types of wetlands. Gujarat has
under Ramsar Convention? highest area of wetland with 34,700 sq km (17.56% of
(a) Loktak Lake, Manipur total geographical area of the state) or 22.7 percent of
(b) Bhitarkanika, Odisha total wetlands areas of India due to its long coastline
(c) Jaisamand, Rajasthan followed by Andhra Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh and West
(d) Rudrasagar, Tripura Bengal. Hence, statement 1 is correct. In India as a
Manipur PSC-2016 whole, there are 62,466 wetlands covering 3.83% of
Ans. (c): Among the given options, Jaisamand, the area. Inland-Natural wetlands accounted for 8,
Rajasthan is not a Ramsar site. 14,521 sq km of total area, while Coastal-Natural
84. The number of wetlands in India listed under wetlands account for 14, 99, 496 sq km of total area.
Ramsar Convention is: Hence statement 2 is also correct.
(a) 35 (b) 21 88. In India, which of the following States has the
(c) 26 (d) 39 largest inland saline wetlands?
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 (a) Gujarat
Ans : (*) At the time when question was asked, (b) Haryana
Ramsar sites in India were 26. As on February, 2022, (c) Madhya Pradesh
total number of Ramsar Wetlands in India is 49. (d) Rajasthan
85. Which of the following wet lands are IAS (Pre) G.S 2009
designated as Ramsar sites? Ans : (d) Sāmbhar Lake is the largest inland saline
1. Chilka Lake wetland of India. It covers an area of 190 sq km in gap
2. Loktak of Aravalli mountain range. It is located in Rajasthan.
3. Keoladeo
89. Wetland day is observed on-
4. Wuller Lake
(a) 2nd February (b) 2nd April
Select the correct answer from the code given nd
(c) 2 May (d) 2nd March
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All Ans : (a) World Wetlands Day is observed on 2nd
UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2013 February each year to raise global awareness about the
Ans : (d) All the wetlands given in the option are vital role of wetlands for people and the world. This
designated Ramsar sites in India. day also marks the date of the adoption of the
Convention on Wetlands on 2 February 1971, in the
86. Which of the following is a Ramsar site under
Iranian city of Ramsar on the shores of the Caspian
Ramsar Convention?
Sea. World Wetlands Day was celebrated for the first
(a) Godavari delta
time on February 2, 1997, on the 16th anniversary of
(b) Krishna delta
the Ramsar Convention. In 2022, the theme for World
(c) Sundarbans
Wetland Day is "Wetlands Action for People and
(d) Bhoj Wetlands
Nature".
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2015
90. The theme of World Wetlands Day, 2017
Ans: (*) At the time when question was asked, among
celebrated in February, 2017 is?
the given options, only Bhoj Wetlands was the Ramsar
site in India, but on 1st February, 2019, Sundarbans (a) Kidneys of Landscape
had been included as 27th Ramsar site in India. (b) Biological Supermarkets
87. With reference to the wetlands of India, (c) Wetlands for Disaster Risk Reduction
consider the following statements: (d) Conservation of liquid assets
1. The country’s total geographical area under TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
the category of wetlands is recorded more in Ans. (c) : The theme of World Wetlands Day, 2017 was
Gujarat as compared to other States. "Wetlands for Disaster Risk Reduction"
2. In India, the total geographical area of coastal
91. Low nutritious concentration reservoir is found
wetlands is larger than that of inland
in-
wetlands.
(a) Littoral zone
Which of the statements given above is /are
correct? (b) Oligotrophic zone
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Neritic zone
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Floor zone
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2008
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Ans : (b) Reservoirs are those water bodies formed or forest in terms of species diversity and biological
modified by human activity for specific purposes in productivity in the ocean. Tropical coral reefs are
order to provide a reliable and controllable resource. found between 30° north and south of the equator, in
Their main use include:- drinking and municipal water areas where surface water temperatures do not drop
supply, industrial and cooling water supply, power below 16°C. The reef formation in India is restricted
generation, agricultural irrigation, river regulation and to four major centers; Gulf of Kutch, Gulf of Mannar,
flood control, commercial and recreational fisheries Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar
etc. Oligotrophic zone has very low nutritious Islands. Sundarbans is famous for its unique mangrove
concentration. forest. Hence (a) is the correct answer.
92. If a wetland of international importance is 94. Coral reefs are found between:
brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what (a) 25ºN; 25ºS Latitude
does it imply? (b) 30ºN; 30ºS Latitude
(a) Changes in ecological character have (c) 15ºN; 15ºS Latitude
occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur (d) None of the above
in the wetland as a result of human Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016
interference.
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) The country in which the wetland is located
question.
should enact a law to prohibit any human
activity within five kilo meters from the edge 95. Consider the following statements about Coral
of the wetland reefs:
(c) The survival of the wetland depends on the 1. Corals are a kind of calcareous rock chiefly
cultural practices and traditions of certain made of the skeletons of minute sea
communities living in its vicinity and organisms called 'polyps'
therefore the cultural diversity therein should 2. Corals can only live in fresh water
not be destroyed 3. For growth of corals the depth of the water
(d) It is given the status of ‘World Heritage Site’ should not exceed 200 m
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014 4. The water temperature for most favorable
Ans : (a) The "Montreux Record" is a register of growth of corals is 23-25 degree Celsius
wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International Which of the above is/are correct? Choose your
Importance, where changes in ecological character answer by using the code given below:
have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur as a (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
result of technological developments, pollution or
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 only
other human interference. It is maintained as part of
Manipur PSC-2016
the Ramsar List.
Ans. (c): Coral reefs are some of the most diverse
93. Which of the following have coral reefs?
ecosystems in the world. Coral polyps, the animals
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
primarily responsible for building reefs by their
2. Gulf of Kutch
skeleton, can take many forms e.g. large reef building
3. Gulf of Mannar
colonies, graceful flowing fans and even small, solitary
4. Sundarbans
organisms. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Thousands
Select the correct answer using the code given
of species of corals have been discovered; some live in
below.
warm, shallow, tropical seas and others in the cold, dark
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only
depths of the ocean. Therfore, statement 2 is not correct.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Coral reef grow better in shalow water having a depth
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
less than 50m but depth should not exceed 200m.
Ans : (a) Corals are minute invertebrates, yet they can Hence, third statement is correct. Reef-building corals
build vast reefs. Coral reefs are one of the most cannot tolerate water temperatures below 18° Celsius.
biologically diverse marine eco-systems on the
Many grow optimally in water temperatures between
earth. Coral reefs play an important role in marine
23°–29°Celsius but some can tolerate temperatures as
ecosystem and support the habitats of flora and fauna
high as 40° Celsius for short periods. Therefore,
in the sea. Ecologically, coral reefs are important
because they are the counterpart to the tropical rain statement 4 is correct.
Environment & Ecology 41 YCT
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96. Consider the following statements functioning coral reef ecosystems by the end of this
1. Most of the world's coral reefs are in tropical century if humans continue to emit greenhouse gases
waters under a business-as-usual scenario. Hence (d) is the
2. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs correct answer.
are located in the territories of Australia, 98. Which of the following is the most effective
Indonesia and Philippines factor of coral bleaching?
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal (a) Marine pollution
phyla than those hosted by tropical (b) Increase in salinity of sea
rainforests. (c) Rise in normal temperature of sea water
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) Outbreak of diseases and epidemics
correct? UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 1and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 question.
IAS (Pre) 2018 99. How does National Biodiversity Authority
Ans : (d) Coral reefs are the most diverse (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
communities on the planet. These tropical marine agriculture?
communities occupy less than 1% of the ocean floor 1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the
but are inhabited by at least 25% of all marine species. indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters 2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the
less than 50 meters deep. Coral reefs are often called scientific research on genetic modification of
the “tropical rainforests of the sea” for their crop plants.
astounding richness of life. Hence statement 1 is 3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights
correct. More than one-third of the world's coral reefs related to genetic/biological resources cannot
are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia be made without the approval of NBA.
and Philippines. Hence statement 2 is correct. As per Which of the statements given above is /are
the latest International Union for Conservation of correct?
Nature (IUCN) report, 32 of the 34 recognized animal (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to 9 Phyla (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
in tropical rainforests. Hence statement 3 is also correct. IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
97. Which one of the following is the most Ans : (c) The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA)
significant factor in coral bleaching? with its headquarter at Chennai was established in
(a) Mining of coral rocks 2003 by the Central Government to implement India’s
(b) Outbreak of coral diseases Biological Diversity Act, 2002. The NBA is a
(c) Siltation of sea water statutory body and that performs facilitative,
regulatory and advisory function for Government of
(d) Global warming
India on issue of conservation, sustainable use of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S (Re Exam) 2015
biological resource and fair equitable sharing of
Ans : (d) Warmer water temperature can result in benefits of use. The functions of National Biodiversity
coral bleaching. When water is too warm, corals will Authority under Biological Diversity Act, 2002 are
expel the algae (Zooxanthellae) living in their tissues, research, bio-survey and bio-utilization, commercial
causing the coral to turn completely white. This is utilization, intellectual property right. To check
called coral bleaching. Coral reefs are among the most misappropriation of Indian biological resources, the
threatened ecosystems on earth, largely due to Act provides that access to Indian biological resources
unprecedented global warming and climate changes, and associated knowledge is subject to terms and
combined with growing local pressures. Over the last conditions, which secure equitable sharing of benefits.
few years, reefs around the world have suffered from Further, it would be required to obtain the approval of
mass coral bleaching events as a result of the increase the National Biodiversity Authority before seeking
in global surface temperature caused by anthropogenic any Intellectual Property Rights based on biological
greenhouse gas emissions. The first global scientific material and associated knowledge obtained from
assessment of climate change impacts on World India. Hence statement 1 and 3 are correct. NBA does
Heritage coral reefs, published in 2017 by UNESCO, not monitor and supervise the scientific research on
predicts that the coral reefs in all 29 reef-containing genetic modification of crop plants. Therefore,
World Heritage sites would cease to exist as statement 2 is incorrect.

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04.
Environment Pollution
1. Which of the following represents the major pollution (also known as particulate matter), Carbon
loss to the human kind due to environmental Monoxide, Sulpher dioxide and Nitrogen Dioxide.
degradation? Hence (b) is the correct answer. Higher the AQI value,
(a) Ecosystem goods greater the level of air pollution and so the greater
(b) Ecosystem services health concern. For each of these pollutants,
(c) Ecosystem-based tourism Environmental Protection Agencies have established
(d) Ecosystem-dependent tribes national air quality standards to protect public health.
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 Ground-level ozone and airborne particles are the two
major pollutants that pose the greatest threat to human
Ans : (b) Environmental degradation is a decline in
health. In India, Air Quality Index is monitored by
the quality of our environment. This can be a result of
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) under the
pollutants that spoil the air, water or food supply. The
Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate
over-extraction of resources so that little remains for
Change. There are six Air Quality Index (AQI)
future use or the destruction of habitats so that the
categories namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately
resources they once contained are no longer available
polluted, Poor, Very Poor and Severe. The Air
also contributes to the environment degradation. While
Quality Index considers eight pollutants namely
natural disasters can cause environmental degradation,
Respirable suspended particulate matter (RSPM) or
more often it is the result of human activities. Some of
PM10 (particulate matter of 10 micrometers or less in
the major effects of environmental degradation on
diameter), PM2.5 (particulate matter of 2.5
human life are poverty, famine, weather extremes,
micrometers or less in diameter), NO2 (Nitrogen
diseases etc. Ecosystem services have the direct and
dioxide), SO2 (Sulpher dioxide), CO (Carbon
indirect contributions to human well-being. Ecosystem
monoxide), O3 (Ozone), NH3 (Ammonia) and Pb
services include provisioning services, regulating
(Lead) for which short-term (up to 24-hourly
services, habitat services and cultural services. They
averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality
directly or indirectly support our survival and quality
Standards are prescribed. National Air Quality Index
of life. Hence, ecosystem services are most affected
uses “One-Number, One- Color, One-Description”
due to environmental degradation.
which is given below:-
2. In the cities of our country, which among the
Air Quality Remark Color Possible
following atmospheric gases are normally
considered in calculating the value of Air Index code Health
Quality Index? (AQI) Impact
1. Carbon dioxide 0-50 Good Dark Minimal
2. Carbon monoxide Green Impact
3. Nitrogen dioxide 51-100 Satisfactory Light Minor
4. Sulfur dioxide Green breathing
5. Methane discomfort to
Select the correct answer using the code given sensitive
below. people
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only 101-200 Moderate Yellow breathing
(c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 discomfort to
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016 sensitive
people with
Ans : (b) The Air Quality Index (AQI) is an index for
reporting daily air quality. It reflects how clean or lungs, asthma
polluted air is and what associated health effects might and heart
be a concern for people. The Air Quality Index disease
focuses on health effects people may experience 201-300 Poor Orange Breathing
within a few hours or days after breathing polluted air. discomfort to
Environmental Protection Agency, regulated by the most people
Clean Air Act, calculates the Air Quality Index for on prolonged
five major air pollutants: Ground-level ozone, Particle exposure
Environment & Ecology 43 YCT
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301-400 Very Poor Red Respiratory 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone
illness on pollution occur during the periods of
prolonged inclement weather
exposure 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and
enter the blood stream.
401-500 Severe Maroon Affects 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger
healthy asthma.
people and Which of the statements given above are
seriously correct?
impacts those (a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 4 only
with existing (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 2 only
diseases UPSC, IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
3. Match AQI range with levels of health concern Ans. (b) : According to WHO Air Quality Guidelines,
in EPA colour scale and select the correct 2021, the annual average for PM 10 should not exceed
answer using the codes given below: 15 micrograms per cubic meter of air, while the 24-hour
AQI range Levels of Health average should not exceed 45 micrograms per cubic
Concern meter. Similarly, the recommendation for PM 2.5 is that
(A) 0 to 50 (1) Good the annual average should not exceed 5 micrograms per
(B) 51 to 100 (2) Unhealthy cubic meter or 15 micrograms per cubic meter in a day.
(C) 101 to 150 (3) Moderate The earlier limit was 10 micrograms per cubic meter
(D) 151 to 200 (4) Unhealthy for annually and 25 micrograms per cubic meter in a day.
sensitive groups Hence, statement 1 is correct. Other recommendations
Codes : includes the ozone levels average should not exceed 100
A B C D micrograms per cubic meter over a 24-hour period,
(a) 2 4 1 3 nitrogen oxide should not exceed 25 micrograms per
(b) 1 2 3 4 cubic meter, sulphur dioxide should remain below 40
micrograms per cubic meter and carbon monoxide
(c) 4 3 2 1
levels should not exceed more than 4 micrograms per
(d) 1 3 4 2
cubic meter over the same time period.
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
Most of the ozone at ground level is formed, when
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above pollutants, particularly hydrocarbons and nitrogen
question.
oxides from a wide variety of sources including motor
4. Under Government of India's National Air vehicles, factories and small sources like paint shops
Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) and dry cleaning stores, react with sunlight. The more
covering 312 cities/towns in 29 States and 6 sunlight and the higher the temperatures the more ozone
Union Territories of the country, which of the and smog are formed. Therefore, highest level of ozone
following combination has been identified for
pollution occures during summer. Hence, statement 2 is
regular monitoring at all the locations?
not correct.
(a) CO, NO2, PM10 and PM2.5
Particles with diameter less than 10 microns can
(b) CO, NO2, (OF2) and PM2.5 penetrate and lodge deep inside the lungs. PM 2.5 can
(c) (SO2), (NO2), & (PM10) and (PM2.5) penetrate the lung barrier and enter the blood system.
(d) (SO2), (NO2), (CO) and (PM10) Therefore, statement 3 is not correct.
JPSC (Pre.) I 2021 Long-term exposure to ozone is linked to aggravation of
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above asthma and is likely to be one of many causes of asthma
question. development. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.
5. Resipiratory Suspended Particulate Matter 7. The environmental lapse rate is found to be :
(RSPM) are the particles having diameter: (a) –6.5 ºC/km (b) –7.6 ºC/km
(a) Less than 2.6 µm (b) Less than 10 µm (c) +6.5 ºC/km (d) +7.6 ºC/km
(c) Less than 20 µm (d) Less than 100 µm Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I Ans. (c) : The rate of decrease of temperature with
Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. height is termed as the normal lapse rate. It is 6.5°C per
6. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, 1 Km. The environment lapse rate is referred to as the
consider the following statements: rate at which the air temperature surrounding us would
1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not be changed if we were to climb up into the atmosphere.
exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM2.5 This rate varies from time to time and from place to
should not exceed 5 µg/m3 place.

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8. Consider the following statements 10. Which of the following is an inorganic gaseous
1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury. pollutant of air?
Coal fired power plants release sulphur dioxide (a) Hydrogen cyanide (b) Hydrogen sulphide
and oxides of nitrogen into the environment. (c) Methane (d) Phosgene
2. High ash content is observed in Indian Coal.
RAS/ RTS(Pre)G.S. 2015
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct? Ans : (b) A number of gaseous inorganic pollutants
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only enter the atmosphere as the result of human activities.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Those added in the greatest quantities are CO (Carbon
Monoxide), SO2, NO and NO2. Other inorganic
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
pollutant gases include NH3, N2O, N2O5, H2S
Ans: (d) Coal ash is produced primarily from the (Hydrogen sulphide), Cl2, HCl and HF.
burning of coal in coal fired power plants. Coal ash
includes a number of byproducts produced from 11. During normal conditions, the gas which
burning coal. Ash includes lead, mercury, cadmium, pollutes the atmosphere is-
chromium, arsenic and selenium. Hence, statement 1 (a) Carbon Monoxide (CO)
is correct. Main emissions from coal fired thermal (b) Carbon Dioxide (CO2)
power plants are carbon dioxide, nitrogen oxide, (c) Nitrogen (N2)
sulpher oxide and air borne inorganic particles. Hence, (d) Oxygen (O2)
statement 2 is also correct. India’s domestic coal
UP UDA/LDA (Pre) G.S 2006
reserves have a high ash content upto 40-45 percent.
This inturn means higher emissions. Hence, statement Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
3 is also correct. question.
9. Which of the following are the reasons/factors 12. Which among the following has been included
for exposure to benzene pollution? as a parameter for the first time under the
1. Automobile exhaust National Ambient Air Quality Standards
2. Tobacco smoke (NAAQS) based on Central Pollution Control
3. Wood burning Board and IIT, Kanpur research, WHO
4. Using varnished wooden furniture guidelines and European Union limits and
5. Using products made of polyurethane Practices?
Select the correct answer using the given code (a) Sulphur dioxide (b) Oxides of nitrogen
below- (c) Ozone (d) Carbon monoxide
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 4 only UPSC CDS G.S Ist Paper 2013
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only Ans : (c) Ambient air quality refers to the condition or
IAS (Pre) G.S 2020 quality of air surrounding us in the outdoors. National
Ans : (d) Benzene is a chemical that is a colorless or Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) are the
light yellow liquid at room temperature. It has a sweet standards for ambient air quality set by the Central
odor and is highly flammable. Benzene evaporates Pollution Control Board of India, applicable
into the air very quickly. Its vapor is heavier than air nationwide. Following a gap of 15 years, the Ministry
and may sink into low lying areas. Benzene is formed of Environment and Forests announced the
from both natural processes and human activities. notification of the Revised National Ambient Air
Natural sources of benzene include volcanoes and Quality Standards 2009. The previously existing
forest fires. Benzene is also a natural part of crude oil, National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS)
gasoline and cigarette smoke. Outdoor air contains were notified by the Central Pollution Control Board
low levels of benzene from tobacco smoke, gas (CPCB) in year 1994 under the Air Act, 1981 for
stations, motor vehicle exhaust, wood burning and seven parameters : Suspended Particulate Matter
industrial emissions. Indoor air generally contains
(SPM), Respirable Particulate Matter (RPM), Sulphur
levels of benzene higher than those in outdoor air. The
benzene in indoor air comes from products that Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen (NOx), Carbon
contain benzene such as glues, paints, furniture wax, Monoxide (CO), Ammonia (NH3) and Lead (Pb). The
and detergents. Polyurethane foam is a polymer review of the previous NAAQS and inclusion of new
substance made by combining two types of liquid parameters was undertaken by the Central Pollution
chemicals; an isocyanate and a polyol plus additives Control Board in association with the Indian Institute
and catalysts. Both chemicals come from crude oil of Technology, Kanpur. These revised Standards
distillation. Polyurethanes have applications in many include initiatives that have been developed in
areas including insulation, furniture, clothing, consonance with global best practices and in keeping
adhesives, medical implants, electronics and surface with the latest advancements in technology and
coatings. Its thermal composition produces benzene. research. Some of the salient features include:
Hence, all the factors given are responsible for • Area classification based on land-use has been
benzene pollution. done away with so that industrial areas have to
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conform to the same standards as residential areas. (c) Most polluting-red category
• The standards shall be applicable uniformly with (d) None of these
the exception of stringent standards for NO2 and Himachal Pradesh PSC (HPAS) Pre 2021
SO2 in the Ecologically Sensitive Areas. Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.
• The previous standards for residential area have
been uniformly applied for fine particulate matter 15. According to National Oceanic and
(PM10), Carbon Monoxide and Ammonia. More Atmospheric Administration (NOAA) and
stringent limits for Lead, SO2 and NO2 have been Scripps Institution of Oceanography (SIO), the
prescribed even for residential areas. global concentration of carbon dioxide in the
• Suspended particulate matter (SPM) as parameter earth's atmosphere during May 2020 is :
has been replaced by fine particulate matter (a) ~275 parts per million
(PM2.5) which is more relevant for public health. (b) ~355 parts per million
• Other new parameters such as Ozone, Arsenic, (c) ~417 parts per million
Nickel, Benzene and Benzo (a) Pyrene (BaP) have (d) ~507 parts per million
been included for the first time under NAAQS Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
based on CPCB/IIT research, World Health
Organization guidelines and EU limits and Ans. (c) : According to National Oceanic and
practices. Though Mercury has not been notified as Atmospheric (NOAA) and Scripps Institution of
part of these revised standards, the Ministry is Oceanography (SIO), the global concentration of carbon
conscious of the need to monitor the same. dioxide in the earth's atmosphere during May 2020 was
~417 parts are million.
13. A new categorization of industries based on
their pollution load that was released by the 16. Which of the following are the main air
Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate pollutants from the industry through usage of
Change in March 2016 does not include which conventional energy source?
of the following colour categories? (a) Nitrogen and Hydrogen Sulphide
(a) Blue (b) Green (b) Nitrogen and Sulphur
(c) Red (d) White (c) Nitrogen and Carbon Dioxide
UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 (d) Sulphur Dioxide and Nitrous Oxide
Ans : (a) On March 5th, 2016, Government of India Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
released a new categorization of industries based on Ans. (d) : Sulfur dioxide, Oxides of nitrogen and fly ash
their pollution load. The Ministry of Environment, are produced as main pollutants, if conventional energy
Forest and Climate Change has developed the criteria source like coal is used as a fuel.
of categorization of industrial sectors based on the
Pollution Index, which is a function of the emissions 17. Which among the following is the secondary
(air pollutants), effluents (water pollutants), hazardous pollutant?
wastes generated and consumption of resources. The (a) Smog (b) Carbon dioxide
new category of "White industries" has been released, (c) Carbon mono-oxide (d) Fly ash
which is practically non-polluting industries and will UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
not require environmental clearance and consent and Ans : (a) A primary pollutant is an air pollutant
will help in getting finance from lending institutions. emitted directly from a source. Five major primary
Criteria on "Range of Pollution Index" for the purpose pollutants are: Carbon monoxide, Sulfur dioxide,
of categorization of industrial sectors are given below:
Nitrogen oxides, Hydrocarbons and Particulate matter.
Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 60 A secondary pollutant is not directly emitted as such
and above – Red category
but forms, when other pollutants (primary pollutants)
Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 41 react in the atmosphere. Secondary pollutants are:
to 59– Orange category
Ozone, PAN (Peroxy acetyl nitrate), Photochemical
Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score of 21 smog, Aerosols and mists (H2SO4). Hence (a) is the
to 40– Green category
correct answer.
Industrial Sectors having Pollution Index score up to
20 – White category 18. Which one of the following is not a secondary
pollutant?
14. The government has released a new four-color
(a) PAN (b) Smog
classification scheme for industries based on
their pollution potential. Which is not correct (c) Sulpher Dioxide (d) Ozone
in this regard? UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
(a) Moderately polluting-orange category Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Not polluting-white category question.

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19. The most toxic metal pollutant of automobile 24. Which of the following air pollutants gets
exhaust is dissolved in hemoglobin of the blood more
(a) Copper (b) Lead rapidly than oxygen?
(c) Cadmium (d) None of the above (a) PAN (b) Carbon dioxide
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2006 (c) Carbon monoxide (d) Ozone
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2006, 2009 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans : (b) Lead is the most toxic metal pollutant of Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
automobile exhaust. Other ingredients of air pollution question.
by automobile exhaust are particulate matter (PM), 25. Which one of the following air pollutants can
benzene, nitrogen oxides, carbon monoxide and affect blood streaming leading to death?
sulpher oxide. Automobiles use lead as antiknocking (a) Asbestos dust (b) Cadmium
agent. It affects brain, digestive and nervous system of (c) Nitrogen Oxides (d) Carbon Monoxide
human body. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
20. Combustion of petrol in automobiles pollutes Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the air by producing following metals- question.
(a) Mercury (b) Cadmium
26. The main pollutant in the smoke coming from
(c) Lead (d) Carbon Dioxide
cigarette is
(e) None of the above
(a) Carbon monoxide & Dioxicine
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2015 (b) Carbon monoxide and Nicotine
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Carbon monoxide and Benzene
question. (d) Dioxicine and Benzene
21. Colorless gas coming out from motor vehicle UPPCS (Pre) G.S (Re Exam) 2015
and cigarette due to incomplete combustion is-
Ans : (c) Tobacco smoke contains around 7,000
(a) Carbon Dioxide (b) Nitrous Oxide chemicals. Many of these are poisonous and over 60
(c) Carbon Monoxide (d) Methane are known to be cancer causing. The chemical
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 constituents of cigarettes include: nicotine, carbon
Ans : (c) Combustion is burning a fuel in oxygen, monoxide, arsenic, ammonia, benzene etc.
which produces heat energy. If the fuel is burned with 27. Consider the statements:
a limited supply of oxygen, incomplete combustion Assertion (A): Level of air pollution in Delhi
can occur and the following pollutants can be formed: during winter season is maximum.
Carbon Monoxide (CO), soot (unburned carbon, Reason (R): The combustion process of vehicles
which leaves as dirty particles). Carbon monoxide is increases in winter.
also produced by burning of organic material (coal,
Select the correct answer by using codes given
gas, wood, trash, etc.). Automobiles are the biggest
below:
source of carbon monoxide (nearly 80%); cigarette
smoke is another major source of carbon monoxide. Code :
Carbon monoxide is a colorless, odorless, tasteless, (a) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the
non-irritating and highly poisonous gas at low correct explanation of (A)
concentrations. Carbon monoxide is highly toxic as it (b) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the
binds to hemoglobin, which reduces oxygen in blood. correct explanation of (A)
22. The combustion of coal, petrol and diesel etc is (c) (A) is true but (R) is false
the basic source of (d) (A) is false but (R) is true
(a) Water pollution (b) Land pollution UP Lower (Pre) G.S. 2003–04
(c) Air pollution (d) Noise pollution Ans : (c) During winters, smoke exhausted by motor
vehicles condenses more as compared to summer.
UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2011
That is why level of air pollution in Delhi during
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above winter season is maximum. Hence Assertion (A) is
question. correct. During winter season, combustion process in
23. Which of the following air pollutant is most motor vehicles slows down. Hence Reason (R) is not
dangerous? correct.
(a) Ozone (b) Hydrogen Sulphide 28. Consider the statements:
(c) Carbon Dioxide (d) Carbon Monoxide Assertion (A): Aerosols have potential for
UP RO/ARO (Mains) G.S 2014 modifying the climate.
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Reason (R): Aerosols interact with both
question. shortwave and infra-red radiations.
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Select the correct answer using the code given 31. What is formed by flying of ‘Supersonic Jet’?
below- (a) Pollution in air
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (b) Eye disease
correct explanation of (A). (c) Interruption in Ozone layer
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the (d) None of the above
correct explanation of (A) MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 1993
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false Ans : (c) Gases release by engines of supersonic jets
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true has potential effect on ozone layer. The major
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 problem arises from the emission of nitrogen oxide,
Ans : (a) Aerosols are minute particles suspended in which has the potential to destroy ozone in the
the atmosphere. When these particles are sufficiently stratosphere. Further, aerosol load induced by SO2,
released by aircraft further damages ozone layer.
large, their presence is noticed as they scatter and
absorb sunlight. Their scattering of sunlight can 32. ‘Euro norms’ are meant for—
reduce visibility (haze) and redden sunrises and (a) Regulating vehicular speed
sunsets. Aerosols interact both directly and indirectly (b) Classifying size of the vehicle
with the earth's radiation capability and climate. As a (c) Regulating vehicular emission of harmful
direct effect, the aerosols scatter sunlight directly back ases
into space. As an indirect effect, aerosols in the lower (d) Specifying power of the engine
atmosphere can modify the size of cloud particles, UPPCS Spl. (Pre) G.S. 2008
changing how the clouds reflect and absorb sunlight, Ans : (c) Euro norms are implemented in Europe for
thereby affecting the earth's energy budget. Aerosols permissible emission levels for both petrol and diesel
have an outsized effect on the planet’s climate. Some vehicles. Government of India has implemented Euro
of them like black and brown carbon warm the earth’s norms for available fuel quality and method of testing.
atmosphere while others like sulfate droplets cool the Government of India has decided to implement Euro-
atmosphere. Hence Both (A) and (R) are correct and VI norms from March 2020.
(R) is the correct explanation of (A). 33. Which one of the following fuels produces least
29. The effects of aerosols on climate is/ are environmental pollution?
1. They directly reflect sunlight back to space. (a) Hydrogen
2. They indirectly make clouds brighter reflectors. (b) Power alcohol
3. Aerosols have a net cooling effect on climate (c) Petrol
systems. (d) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
4. Human generated aerosols offset the impact of UPPCS (Main) G.S. IInd 2015
global warming to the some extent. UP Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2013
Which of the above effects is/are true? UP UDA/LDA (Pre) Spl. G.S. 2010
(a) Only 1, 2 and 3 are true Ans : (a) Among the given options, hydrogen fuel
(b) Only 1 and 3 are true produces least environmental pollution. Hydrogen is a
clean fuel that when consumed in a fuel cell, produces
(c) Only 2, 3 and 4 are true
only water. Hydrogen can be produced from a variety
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct of domestic resources such as natural gas, nuclear
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019 power, biomass and renewable power like solar and
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above wind. These qualities make it an attractive fuel option
question. for transportation and electricity generation
30. The biggest source of air pollution in big cities applications. It can be used in cars, in houses, for
of India is- portable power and in many more applications.
Hydrogen is an energy carrier that can be used to
(a) Thermal power section
store, move and deliver energy produced from other
(b) Industrial section sources. Today hydrogen fuel can be produced
(c) Urban solid waste through several methods. The most common methods
(d) Transport section today are natural gas reforming (a thermal process)
UP UDA/LDA (Main) Spl. G.S. 2010 and electrolysis. Other methods include solar-driven
Ans : (d) Transport section is the biggest source of air and biological processes.
pollution in big cities of India as combustion of fuel in 34. Lead, ingested or inhaled, is a health hazard.
vehicles produces pollutants like carbon monoxide, After the addition of lead to petrol has been
carbon dioxide, lead etc which are harmful to human banned, what still are the sources of lead
health. poisoning?
Environment & Ecology 48 YCT
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1. Smelting units Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Pens and pencils below.
3. Paints (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
4. Hair oils and cosmetics (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given GOA PSCS, 2022
below: IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only Ans: (a) Fly ash is produced by the thermal power
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 plants using coal as fuel .Fly ash is the finely divided
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 residue that results from the combustion of pulverized
Ans: (b) Lead-based paint and lead contaminated dust coal and is transported from the combustion chamber
are the most common sources of lead exposure for by exhaust gases. The Central Fuel Research Institute,
children. Children residing near lead smelting units are Dhanbad has developed a technology for the
usually found to have high blood lead levels. Hence utilization of fly ash for the manufacture of building
(b) is the correct answer. Further, on 16 August 2017, bricks. Fly ash bricks have a number of advantages
the Minamata Convention on Mercury, a global treaty over the conventional burnt clay bricks. Unglazed tiles
to protect human health and the environment from for use on footpaths can also be made from it. Hence
anthropogenic emissions and releases of mercury and statement 1 is correct. Properly selected fly ash reacts
mercury compounds came into force. The Minamata with the lime to form hydrated calcium silicate, the
Convention limits mercury mining, regulates trade, same cementing product as in Portland cement. Hence
reduces the use of mercury in products and processes, statement 2 is also correct. Fly ash consists of
decreases and eliminates the use of mercury in gold primarily the oxides of silicon, aluminum iron and
mining, controls mercury emissions into the air and calcium. Magnesium, potassium, sodium, titanium and
water and promotes sound waste disposal. The sulfur are also present to a lesser degree. It also
Minamata Convention is named after the city of contains some toxic elements such as arsenic, lead,
Minamata in Japan where local communities were mercury, cadmium, chromium and selenium as well as
poisoned by mercury-tainted industrial wastewater in aluminum, antimony, barium, beryllium, boron,
the late 1950s and suffered crippling, untreatable and chlorine, cobalt, manganese, molybdenum, nickel,
stigmatizing effects. India ratified Minamata thallium, vanadium and zinc. Hence, statement 3 is
Convention on June 18, 2018. incorrect.
35. Consider the following: 37. Fly ash pollution is caused by-
1. Carbon dioxide (a) Oil refining (b) Fertilizer industry
2. Oxides of Nitrogen (c) Thermal power plant (d) Mining
3. Oxides of Sulpher UPPCS (Pre.) 2021
Which of the above is/are the Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question.
emission/emissions from coal combustion at
thermal power plants? 38. Fly ash is a pollutive combustion product of
burning-
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Coal (b) Charcoal
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Diesel/ Kerosene oil (d) CNG
IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2004
Ans: (d) Main emissions from coal fired and lignite
based thermal power plants are carbon dioxide, Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
nitrogen oxide, sulpher oxide and air-borne inorganic question.
particles such as fly ash, carbonaceous material (soot), 39. Why is there a concern about copper smelting
suspended particulate matter (SPM) and other trace plants?
gas species. Hence (d) is the correct answer. 1. They may release lethal quantities of carbon
36. With reference to 'fly ash' produced by the monoxide into environment.
power plants using coal as fuel, which of the 2. The copper slag can cause the leaching of
following statements is/are correct? some heavy metals into environment.
1. Fly ash can be used in the production of 3. They may release sulphur dioxide as a
bricks for building construction. pollutant.
2. Fly ash can be used as a replacement for some Select the correct answer using the code given
of the Portland cement concrete. below.
3. Fly ash is made up of silicon dioxide and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
calcium oxide only, and does not contain any (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
toxic elements. UPSC (IAS) 2021
Environment & Ecology 49 YCT
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Ans. (b): Copper, while an essential nutrient, is toxic to 42. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause
animals and humans in high concentrations. The process neurodegenerative problems, are generated as
of smelting releases the main pollutants. Most copper environmental pollutants from which of the
ores are sulphur-based and smelting releases sulphur following?
dioxide, an air pollutant known to have many harmful 1. Brakes of motor vehicles
effects. The other byproduct of smelting is slag, the 2. Engines of motor vehicles
waste matter separated from metals. This slag may 3. Microwave stoves within homes
leach heavy metals (arsenic, cadmium, lead or mercury 4. Power plants
depending on the composition of the ore) into 5. Telephone lines
groundwater reservoirs. Water with a high heavy metal Select the correct answer using the code given
content is very toxic to humans. below.
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
40. With reference to furnace oil, consider the
following statements: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
UPSC (IAS) 2021
1. It is a product of oil refineries.
2. Some industries use it to generate power. Ans. (b): Scientists have discovered tiny magnetite
particles from air pollution lodged in human brains,
3. Its use causes sulphur emission into
which could be a possible cause of neurodegenerative
environment. diseases including Alzheimer’s disease. This strong
Which of the statements given above are correct? magnetite mineral is toxic and has been implicated in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only the production of reactive oxygen species (free radicals)
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 in the human brain. The magnetite particles are often
UPSC (IAS) 2021 accompanied by nanoparticles containing other metals
such as platinum, nickel and cobalt. The major source
Ans. (d): Furnace oil or fuel oil is a dark viscous
of magnetite particle is vehicle pollution e.g. from
residual fuel obtained by blending mainly heavier
brakes of motor vehicles, engines of motor vehicles etc.
components from crude oil distillation units, short Pollution emission from power plants and wood
residue and clarified oil from fluidized catalytic cracker burning stoves are also source of magnetite particle.
unit. Furnace oil is used primarily for steam boilers in Microwave stoves within homes radiate electromagnetic
power plants, aboard ships and in industrial plants. waves, while telephone lines carrying radio waves does
Sulphur contained in fuel causes emissions of Sulphur not radiate at all. Only mobile towers radiate
dioxide (SO2) and contributes to the formation of microwaves.
secondary particulate matter (PM). Hence, all the given 43. There is some concern regarding the
statements are correct. nanoparticles of some chemical elements that
41. Which of the following are some important are used by the industry in the manufacture of
pollutants released by steel industry in India? various products. Why?
1. Oxides of sulpher 2. Oxides of nitrogen 1. They can accumulate in the environment, and
3. Carbon monoxide 4. Carbon dioxide contaminate water and soil.
2. They can enter the food chains.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. 3. They can trigger the production of free
radicals.
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct answer using the code given
(e) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 below.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Ans: (d) Air pollution from the steel industry is the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
result of emission of particulate matter containing IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
minerals (iron, iron oxide), metals (cadmium, lead, Ans: (d) Nanoparticles are the particles that exist on a
chromium, nickel, zinc, copper and arsenic) and other nanometer scale (i.e., below 100 nm in at least one
pollutants (polycyclic aromatic hydrocarbons, nitrogen dimension) in environment. They can possess physical
oxides and Sulpher dioxide). Steel industry is also a properties such as uniformity, conductance or special
source of carbon dioxide, carbon monoxide emissions optical properties that make them desirable in
which is generated during iron and steel making materials science and biology. Materials currently
operations, either as a result of the reaction of coke being produced as nanopowders include: metals, metal
with iron oxide in the blast furnace or from a power oxides, borides, carbides, nitrides and sulphides and
plant producing electricity used in the production of non-metal materials such as various forms of carbon,
steel. Hence (d) is the correct answer. clay silica and silicon carbides.
Environment & Ecology 50 YCT
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Nanopowders are already used in a wide range of pollute indoor air.

industries and developments. There are some hazards Seven common indoor pollutants are:
to human health due to the use of nanoparticles as they (1) Carbon monoxide is an odorless, invisible gas. It
enter in to human body through environment and is produced by the incomplete combustion of
distribute around human body that affects human fossil fuels. Carbon monoxide stops human body
organs. These nanoparticles also affect ground water from using the oxygen it needs to work normally.
and soil through which they enter to the food chain. (2) Radon is an odorless, colorless gas that is found
Free radicals are unstable atoms or molecules with everywhere in low levels. It is made naturally as
free outer electrons. This makes them highly reactive the uranium in the earth breaks down. Being
as free electrons always strive to form a stable exposed to elevated levels of radon increases risk
bond. Experimental studies show that nanoparticles of getting lung cancer.
can trigger the production of free radicals. The chronic (3) Nitrogen dioxide is a common oxide of nitrogen.
release of such reactive molecules can lead to tissue It is a toxic and corrosive gas. Nitrogen dioxide
degeneration. irritates the throat, eyes, nose and respiratory
44. Which of the following causes maximum indoor tract.
chemical pollution? (4) Secondhand smoke also called environmental
(a) Burning coal tobacco smoke comes from incompletely burned
(b) Burning cooking gas tobacco products. In the short term, exposure to
(c) Room spray secondhand smoke can cause eye, nose and throat
(d) Burning mosquito coil irritation. In the long-term, it can cause many of
JPSC (Pre.) I 2021 the same health problems as smoking, like
Ans. (a): Burning of coal causes maximum indoor wheezing, pneumonia, bronchitis and lung cancer.
chemical pollution. Carbon dioxide, carbon mono Asthma attacks may be triggered by secondhand
oxide, sulfur dioxide and other toxic gases are released smoke exposure.
due to burning of coal inside, which can even lead to (5) Lead is a natural, soft metal that is very toxic if
death because these gases can lead to suffocation. consumed. Lead was widely used in house paint
until it was banned in 1978. Lead particles and
45. The most important pollutant of indoor air
dust can become airborne, leading to dangerous
pollution is-
indoor air pollution. Exposure to lead can damage
(a) Sulpher dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide
the brain, nervous system, kidneys and red blood
(c) Nitrogen dioxide (d) Radon gas cells. If children are exposed, they may develop
(e) None of the above short attention spans, behavioral problems, lower
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 IQ levels and delayed growth.
Ans: (d) Indoor air pollution is the degradation of (6) Although asbestos is not hazardous when intact,
indoor air quality by harmful chemicals and other disturbing asbestos fibers causes them to become
materials, which can be up to 10 times worse than airborne, where they could potentially enter the
outdoor air pollution. This is because contained areas lungs. In the long-term, exposure to asbestos can
enable potential pollutants to build up more than open lead to various lung disorders, including lung
spaces. The principal sources of indoor air pollution cancer and asbestosis.
are: combustion, building material and bioaerosols. (7) Molds are types of fungi that grow indoors and
While radon, asbestos, pesticides, heavy metals, outdoors. Some types of mold are harmless, while
volatile organic matter and environmental tobacco others are dangerous. Mold can trigger an allergic
smoke are considered major indoor pollutants in reaction in some people. Mold can also trigger
developed countries, the combustion products of asthma attacks.
biomass fuels contribute most to indoor air pollution
46. Human made pollutant are called-
in developing nations. The incomplete combustion
products of biomass fuels include suspended (a) Xenobiotics (b) Antibiotics
particulate matter, carbon monoxide, polyaromatic (c) Humalins (d) Anthropogenic
hydrocarbons, polyorganic matter, formaldehyde etc., UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005
which have adverse effects on health. The combustion Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
of coal results in production of oxides of sulfur, Ans: (d) Pollution is any undesirable change in
arsenic and fluorine. Pollutants such as aldehydes, physical, chemical or biological characteristics of air,
volatile and semivolatile organic compounds are land, water or soil. Agents that bring about such an
produced from resins, waxes, polishing materials, undesirable change are called as pollutants.
cosmetics and binders. Biological pollutants like dust Anthropogenic effects, processes, objects or materials
mites, molds, pollen and infectious agents produced in are those that are derived from human activities, as
stagnant water, mattresses, carpets and humidifiers too opposed to those occurring in natural environments

Environment & Ecology 51 YCT

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without human influences. The term is often used in 52. Which one of the following is not
the context of environmental externalities in the form biodegradable?
of chemical or biological wastes that are produced as (a) Vegetables (b) Cotton cloth
by-products of otherwise purposeful human activities. (c) Paper (d) Aluminum foil
47. The polluted atmosphere is cleaned by which of MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017
the following? Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Oxygen (b) Rain question.
(c) Nitrogen (d) Air 53. Biodegradable pollutant is
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2013 (a) Mercury (b) Sewage
Ans : (b) As raindrop falls through the atmosphere, (c) Plastic (d) Asbestos
it can attract tens to hundreds of tiny aerosol particles UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
to its surface before hitting the ground. The process by Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
which droplets and aerosols attract is coagulation, a question.
natural phenomenon that can act to clear the air
of pollutants like soot, sulfates and organic particles. 54. Which one of the following is a biodegradable
So the polluted atmosphere is cleaned by rain. pollutant?
(a) Asbestos (b) DDT
48. Which one of the following is a biodegradable
(c) Plastic (d) Sewage
pollutant?
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2010
(a) Sewage (b) Asbestos
(c) Plastic (d) Polythene Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans: (a) Those pollutants, which can be broken down 55. Which of the following a degradable pollutant?
into simpler, harmless substances in nature in due (a) Mercury
course of time by the action of micro-organisms like (b) Polish materials
certain bacteria are called biodegradable pollutants. (c) Domestic flushing
Domestic wastes (garbage), urine, sewage, agriculture (d) Steel
residues, paper, wood, cloth, cattle dung, animal UPPSC Food Safety Inspector Exam. 2013
bones, leather, wool, vegetable stuff or plants are Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2009-10
biodegradable pollutants. Non-biodegradable Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
pollutants have a slow or zero rate of degradation by question.
general biological processes. They include plastics,
56. Which one of the following polymers is not
pesticide, tin container, heavy metals, aluminum foil,
biodegradable?
radioactive substances etc. These are created by
(a) Cellulose (b) Starch
human activities, like industrialization.
(c) Protein (d) P.V.C
49. Which of the following material is bio-
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
degradable?
Ans : (d) Among the given options, PVC is not
(a) Wool (b) Plastic cups
biodegradable.
(c) Aluminium foil (d) Glass bottle
57. Which one of the following is biodegradable?
Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.
(a) Plastic (b) Polythene
50. Biodegradable waste can usually be converted (c) Mercury (d) Rubber
into useful substances with the help of- UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014
a) Bacteria
Ans: (d) A biodegradable product has the ability to
b) Viruses
break down safely and relatively quickly by biological
c) Nuclear proteins
means into the raw materials of nature and disappear
d) Radioactive substances
into the environment. Among the given options,
e) None of the above/more than one of the above
rubber is biodegradable.
67th BPSC (Pre) 2022 (Cancelled)
58. Match List-I with List- II and select the correct
Ans. (a) :See the explanation of the above question.
answer from the codes given below the lists:
51. Which of the following is NOT a biodegradable List-I List- II
pollutant? (Air Pollutant) (Part affected)
(a) Paper waste (b) Pesticide A. Asbestos Dust 1. Brain
(c) Manure (d) Slaughter house waste B. Lead 2. Stomach
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I C. Mercury 3. Lung
Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. D. Carbon Monoxide 4. Blood stream
Environment & Ecology 52 YCT
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Codes: 61. Radioactive waste management in our country

A B C D is governed under:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) Hazardous Waste (Management, Handling
(b) 3 1 2 4 and Trans-boundary Movement)
(c) 3 2 4 1 (b) Atomic Energy Act, 1962
(d) 2 3 1 4 (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 (d) Biomedical Waste (Management and
Ans: (b) Asbestos fibers are easily inhaled and carried Handling) Rules, 1998
into the lower regions of the lung, where they can KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
cause fibrotic lung disease (asbestosis). Long-term Ans. (b) : Atomic Energy Act, 1962 is an Act to
inhalation of asbestos fibers also increases the risk of provide for the development, control and use of atomic
lung cancer and mesothelioma. Lead affects the energy for the welfare of the people of India and for
nervous system, digestive system and brain of the peaceful purposes. The Atomic Energy Act, 1962
human body. The inhalation of mercury vapour can established the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) to
produce harmful effects on the nervous, digestive and promote the utilization of atomic energy for peaceful
immune systems. Inorganic salts of mercury are purposes to the maximum extent consistent with the
corrosive to the skin, eyes and gastrointestinal tract common defense and security and with the health and
and may induce kidney toxicity if ingested. Breathing safety of the public.
air with a high concentration of carbon monoxide 62. Which radioactive pollutant has recently
reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported drawn the attention of the public, due to its
in the blood stream to critical organs like the heart and occurrence in the building material?
brain. At very high levels, carbon monoxide can cause (a) Plutonium (b) Thorium
dizziness, confusion, unconsciousness and death. (c) Radon (d) Radium
59. Match the pollutants with their long-term IAS (Pre) G.S. 1994
effects with the help of the given code: Ans : (b) Some building materials such as granite,
Pollutants Effects brick, marble and other items contain natural
A. Carbon monoxide 1. Damage to lever and radioactivity. The amount of radioactivity in building
Kidney materials depends on the type of material but the
B. Oxides of Nitrogen 2. Cancer amount of radiation released from these materials is
C. Soil particles 3. Ailments related to typically very low. Many homes contain decorative
breathing rock and stone such as granite and marble. Granite
D. Lead 4. Central nervous contains naturally occurring uranium, thorium. Brick
system contains radioactive materials uranium and thorium.
Codes : Fly ash is produced by the concrete used in building.
A B C D When the natural radioactivity found in building
(a) 2 3 4 1 materials decays, it releases the radioactive gas radon.
When radon level is high, it can be a risk to human
(b) 4 3 2 1
health.
(c) 1 2 3 4
63. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the
(d) 3 4 1 2
reaction among-
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2008
(a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
Ans : (c) presence of sunlight
Pollutants Effects (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the
A. Carbon monoxide 1. Damage to lever and presence of sunlight
Kidney (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature
B. Oxides of Nitrogen 2. Cancer (d) High concentration of NO2, O3 and CO in the
C. Soil particles 3. Ailments related to evening
breathing IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
D. Lead 4. Central nervous system Ans: (a) The word smog is derived from the words
60. Most suitable tree to stop dust pollution is- smoke and fog. This is the most common example of
(a) Sita Ashoka (b) Mahua air pollution that occurs in many cities throughout the
(c) Poplar (d) Neem world. When fossil fuels are burnt, a variety of
pollutants are emitted into the earth’s troposphere.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2007
Two of the pollutants that are emitted are
Ans : (a) Sita Ashoka (Saraca asoca) is evergreen hydrocarbons (unburnt fuels) and nitric oxide (NO).
perennial tree, which is air pollution tolerant tree. When these pollutants build up to sufficiently high
Environment & Ecology 53 YCT
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levels, a chain reaction occurs from their interaction Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
with sunlight in which nitric oxide is converted into question.
nitrogen dioxide (NO2). This nitrogen dioxide in turn 67. Which of the following does not belong to
absorbs energy from sunlight and breaks up into nitric natural air pollutant?
oxide and free oxygen atom. Oxygen atoms are very
(a) Hydrocarbon (b) SOx
reactive and combine with the oxygen in air to
(c) NOx (d) Peroxyacetyl nitrate
produce ozone (O3). The ozone formed reacts rapidly
with the nitric oxide to regenerate nitrogen dioxide. OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
Nitrogen dioxide is a brown gas and at sufficiently Ans. (d): Peroxyacetyl Nitrate (PAN) are secondary
high levels, can contribute to haze. Ozone is a toxic pollutants since they are form in the atmosphere after
gas and both nitrogen dioxide and ozone are strong the emission of primary pollutants. It is present in
oxidizing agents and can react with the unburnt photochemical smog. Hence, it is not a natural air
hydrocarbons in the polluted air to produce chemicals pollutant.
such as formaldehyde, acrolein and peroxyacetyl 68. Indiscriminate use of fertilizers have led to
nitrate (PAN). The common components of (a) Soil pollution (b) Water pollution
photochemical smog are ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, (c) Air pollution (d) All of above
formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate (PAN). UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans: (d) If the credits of pesticides include enhanced
economic potential in terms of increased production of
food and fiber and amelioration of vector-borne
diseases, then their debits have resulted in serious
health implications to man and his environment. In
India, the first report of poisoning due to pesticides
was from Kerala in 1958, where over 100 people died
after consuming wheat flour contaminated with
parathion. Pesticides can contaminate air, soil, water,
turf and other vegetation. In addition to killing insects
or weeds, pesticides can be toxic to a host of other
organisms including birds, fish, beneficial insects and
non-target plants. Insecticides are generally the most
acutely toxic class of pesticides but herbicides can also
pose risks to non-target organisms. Nitrogen
component of fertilizer used to supposedly enrich the
soil and grow bigger crops are the major source of air
pollution. Pesticides can reach surface water through
64. Photo chemical smog always contains
runoff from treated plants and soil. Contamination of
(a) Aluminium ion (b) Ozone water by pesticides is widespread. Groundwater
(c) Methane (d) Phosphorus pollution due to pesticides is a worldwide problem.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 Use of fertilizers also leads to soil contamination. If
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above we lose both bacteria and fungi, then the soil degrades.
question. Overuse of chemical fertilizers and pesticides have
65. Which reference to photochemical smog, which effects on the soil organisms that are similar to human
of the following statements is/are correct? overuse of antibiotics. Therefore indiscriminate use of
1. It results from the action of sunlight on fertilizers has led to air, water and soil pollution.
unsaturated hydrocarbons and nitrogen oxides. Hence (d) is the correct answer.
2. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. 69. In view of environmental problems, the use of
Select the correct answer using codes given which insecticide has been reduced?
below: (a) Gammaxene (b) D.D.T
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) B.H.C (d) D.M.T
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Uttarakhand RO/ARO, 2016
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Ans : (c) Dichlorodiphenyltrichloroethane (DDT) is
Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question. a colorless, tasteless and almost
66. Which of the following is produced during the odorless crystalline chemical compound. It was
formation of photochemical smog? originally developed as an insecticide and used to
(a) Hydrocarbons (b) Nitrogen oxides control malaria. Later, it became infamous for its
(c) Ozone (d) Methane environmental impacts. The first report notes that
IAS (Pre) G.S 2003 DDT is linked to effects in animals or humans such
Environment & Ecology 54 YCT
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as reduced lactation and reproductive problems. Carbide’s Bhopal plant, which leaked and spread
Currently, DDT's only official use, as specified by throughout the city. Residents awoke to clouds of
the World Health Organization (WHO) is for the suffocating gas and began running desperately through
control of disease vectors in indoor house spraying. the dark streets, victims arrived at hospitals; breathless
Because of the availability of safer and effective and blind. The lungs, brain, eyes, muscles as well as
alternatives for fighting malaria, World Health gastro-intestinal, neurological, reproductive and
Organization is calling for a global phase out and immune systems of those who survived were severely
eventual ban on DDT production and use. affected. When the sun rose the next morning, the
70. Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane (DDT) is a magnitude of devastation was clear. Dead bodies of
(a) Biochemical pollutant humans and animals blocked the street, leaves turned
(b) Non-biodegradable pollutant black and a smell of burning chili peppers lingered in
(c) Biodegradable pollutant the air. An estimated 10,000 or more people died.
(d) Non-pollutant About 500,000 more people suffered agonizing
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 injuries with disastrous effects of the massive
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above poisoning.
question. 73. In which year Bhapal Gas disaster ocuured?
71. The highest pollution is caused by the (a) 1982 (b) 1986
industrial effluents of (c) 1984 (d) 1980
(a) Leather industry (b) Paper industry MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
(c) Rayon industry (d) Textile industry Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005 question.
Ans: (a) Industrial pollution refers explicitly to any 74. Chernobyl accident is related with
contamination caused by industrial activities. The (a) Nuclear accident (b) Earthquake
effects of industrial pollution are vast, causing water (c) Flood (d) Acid rain
contamination, a release of toxins into soil and air and (e) None of these
it is the cause of some of the most significant Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2015
environmental disasters of all time. The activities that
are causing pollution include: burning fossil fuels like Ans: (a) On April 26, 1986, a sudden surge of power
oil, natural gas and petroleum, burning coal, chemical during a reactor systems test destroyed unit 4 of the
solvents used in dyeing and tanning industries, nuclear power station at Chernobyl, Ukraine in the
untreated gas and liquid waste being released into the former Soviet Union. The accident and the fire
environment, improper disposal of radioactive released massive amounts of radioactive material into
material. Leather industry causes highest chemical the environment. The Chernobyl accident's severe
pollutant. Leather industry releases large amount of radiation effect killed 28 workers in the first four
toxic chemicals and acidic effluents concentrated with months after the event. Another 106 workers received
heavy metal like chromium, cadmium, lead, arsenic, high enough doses to cause acute radiation sickness.
cobalt, copper, iron, zinc and manganese. These toxins Two workers died within hours of the reactor
not only contaminate the river but also seep in and explosion from non-radiological causes. The
pollute the soil and ground water. Chernobyl accident contaminated wide areas of
72. The gas which leaked from Union Carbide Belarus, the Russian Federation and Ukraine inhabited
factory, Bhopal was- by millions of residents.
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Methane 75. Which of the following energy sources
(c) Methyl isocyanate (d) Sulpher dioxide produces no atmospheric pollution?
(a) Nuclear energy (b) Solar energy
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008, 2001
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2001 (c) Petroleum energy (d) Coal energy
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014 UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2002 Ans : (b) Among the options given, only solar energy
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) G.S 2007 produces no atmospheric pollution. Rest of the energy
Ans: (c) The Bhopal Gas Tragedy, 1984 was a sources produces atmospheric pollution by some way
catastrophe that had no parallel in the world’s or another.
industrial history. In the early morning hours of 76. Which one of the following is a pollution
December 3, 1984, a rolling wind carried a poisonous indicator plant?
gray cloud from the Union Carbide Plant in Bhopal, (a) Algae (b) Fungi
Madhya Pradesh. Forty tons of toxic gas [Methy-Iso- (c) Lichen (d) Fern
Cyanate, (MIC)] was accidentally released from Union UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2021, 2019, 2015, 2013
Environment & Ecology 55 YCT
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Ans: (c) Lichens are widely used as environmental Ans: (c) Bioremediation is the use of biological
indicators or bio-indicators. If air is very badly interventions of biodiversity for mitigation (wherever
polluted with Sulpher dioxide, there may be no lichens possible, complete elimination) of the noxious effects
present, just green algae may be found. Lichens are caused by environmental pollutants in a given site. It
mutualistic associations of fungus and algae and occur operates through the principles of biogeochemical
as crusty patches or bushy growths on trees, rocks and cycling. If the process occurs in the same place
bare ground. Lichens are very sensitive to sulpher affected by pollution then it is called in-situ
dioxide pollution in the air. Lichens also absorb bioremediation. In contrast, deliberate relocation of
sulpher dioxide dissolved in water. Additionally the contaminated material (soil and water) to a
ecosystems dominated by mosses and lichens are different place to accelerate biocatalysts is referred to
amongst the most sensitive to nitrogen pollution. As as ex-situ bioremediation. Bioremediation has been
mosses are so good at absorbing nitrogen, they prevent successfully applied for cleanup of soil, surface water,
it from leaching into ground water but if they get groundwater, sediments and ecosystem restoration.
overloaded, they quickly deteriorate. Some moss Bioremediation is generally considered to include
species are especially sensitive to increased levels of natural attenuation (little or no human action), bio-
nitrogen. stimulation or bio-augmentation, the deliberate
addition of natural or engineered micro-organisms to
77. Which of the following is the best indicator of
accelerate the desired catalytic capabilities. Hence
SO2 pollution?
statement 1 is correct. Bioremediation may not
(a) Bryophyte (b) Pteridophyte provide a feasible strategy at sites with high
(c) Lichen (d) None of these concentrations of chemicals that are toxic to most
Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020 microorganisms. These chemicals include metals such
Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question. as cadmium or lead and salts such as sodium chloride.
78. Some reliable indicators of pollution are: Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Genetic engineering is
a technique used to alter the chemistry of genetic
(a) Ferns and Cycoas
material (DNA/RNA) and introduction of it into
(b) Algee and liverworts
organisms to change its phenotype. There are several
(c) Lichens and mosses approaches for the use of genetic engineered
(d) Neem tree and Eichhornia microorganism for bioremediation application. First
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2010 approach is the identification of organisms suitable for
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above modification with the relevant genes. Here,
question. microorganisms are well adapted to survive in soil
79. Lichens are the best indicator of- environment may not be able to survive in aquatic
environment and hence cannot be used successfully.
(a) Air pollution (b) Water pollution
Therefore, aquatic microbes can be used to develop
(c) Soil pollution (d) Noise pollution
genetic engineered microorganism for bioremediation
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 of aquatic sources. The second approach is the
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above pathway construction, extension and regulation.
question. Genetic engineered microorganism have developed by
80. In the context of solving pollution problems, improving existing catabolic pathways or to extend
what is/are the advantage/advantages of these pathways to degrade some more compounds
bioremediation technique? which are not possible to degrade by using wild strain.
1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by The complete catabolic pathway may be encoded by a
enhancing the same biodegradation process single microorganism or by a consortium of
that occurs in nature. microorganisms, each performing one or more of the
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as stages of bioremediation of Xenobiotics. In this way,
cadmium and lead can be readily and constructed genetic engineered microorganism possess
completely treated by bioremediation using the degradation capabilities of different microbial
microorganisms. communities due to the alteration of gene sequences
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create which further improve the efficiency and efficacy of
microorganisms specifically designed for the catabolic pathways. Third approach is modification
bioremediation. Select the correct answer of enzyme specificity and affinity. Fourth approach is
using the code given below: bioprocess development, monitoring, and control, and
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only bioaffinity, bioreporter, sensor applications for
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 chemical sensing, toxicity reduction and end point
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 analysis. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.

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81. The use of microorganism to degrade the water, fog and snow as wet deposition. Acid rain is a
harmful hazardous pollutants in the byproduct of a variety of human activities that emit the
environment is called: oxides of sulpher and nitrogen in the atmosphere.
(a) Micro mediation (b) Nanoremediation Burning of fossil fuels (which contain sulpher and
(c) Bioremediation (d) Biotransformation nitrogenous matter) such as coal and oil in power
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020, 2018 stations and furnaces or petrol and diesel in motor
engines, produce sulpher dioxide and nitrogen oxides.
Ans. (c): See the explanation of the above question.
Sulpher dioxide and nitrogen dioxide, after oxidation
82. The process in which living organisms are used and reaction with water are major contributors to acid
to remove contaminants, pollution of other rain because polluted air usually contains particulate
unwanted substances from soil or water is matter that catalyses the oxidation. Ammonium salts
known as are also formed and can be seen as an atmospheric
(a) Biotechnology (b) Bioremediation haze (aerosol of fine particles). Acid rain is harmful
(c) Biodegradation (d) Biomagnification for agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and
Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019 washes away nutrients needed for their growth. It
Ans. (b) : See the explanation of the above question. causes respiratory ailments in human beings and
animals. When acid rain falls and flows as ground
83. Bioremediation means:
water to reach rivers, lakes etc., it affects plants and
(a) Elimination of toxic pollutant from animal life in aquatic ecosystem. It corrodes water
environment by organism pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as
(b) Bio control of pathogens and pests iron, lead and copper into the drinking water. Acid
(c) Transplantation of organs in the body rain damages buildings and other structures made of
(d) Diagnosis of diseases by the help of stone or metal.
microorganism
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2007
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
84. Which one of the following is an air pollutant
gas and is released by fossil fuel?
(a) Hydrogen (b) Nitrogen
(c) Oxygen (d) Sulpher dioxide
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011
Ans: (d) Burning fossil fuels gives out carbon dioxide,
water (steam) and sulfur dioxide (from sulfur
impurities in the fuel). These pollutants cause acid rain
(from sulfur dioxide emissions). This damages trees,
kills fish and other aquatic life and attacks metals and
the limestone used in the buildings and statues. Source-NCERT
Burning fossil fuels also increases the greenhouse 86. Consider the following:
effect because of increased carbon dioxide emissions. 1. Carbon monoxide
85. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of 2. Nitrogen oxide
environment by 3. Ozone
(a) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen
4. Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
Excess of which of the above in the
(c) Ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide and sulpher dioxide environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 only
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2018, 2015 (c) 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013, 2010 UPSC IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2006 question.
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006
87. Acid rain is caused by an increase of ------in the
Ans: (d) When the pH of the rain water drops below
5.6, it is called acid rain. Acid rain refers to the ways atmosphere
in which acid from the atmosphere is deposited on the (a) Ozone and dust (b) SO2 and NO
earth’s surface. Oxides of nitrogen and sulpher which (c) O2 and CO2 (d) CH4 and H2O
are acidic in nature can be blown by wind along with MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017
solid particles in the atmosphere and finally settle
down either on the ground as dry deposition or in Ans. (b): See the explanation of the above question.

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88. Acid rain is caused by- Select the correct answer from the code given
(a) Industries (b) Petrol below:
(c) Burning coal (d) Wood Code:
BPSC (Pre) G.S 2005 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2011
89. Acid rains occurs due to- Ans: (b) Among the countries given in the option,
(a) Acid water reaching the clouds Canada and Norway suffers from the acid rain.
(b) Reaction between rain water and carbon 94. The International Acid Rain Information
dioxide pollutants Center has been established at-
(c) Reaction between clouds and sulpher dioxide (a) Berlin (b) Oslo
pollutants (c) Osaka (d) Manchester
(d) Reaction between water vapour and electric UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2005
ions during lightning and cloud burst Ans: (b) The International Acid Rain Information
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2001 Center has been set up at Oslo, Norway.
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 95. Which of the following can be found as
question. pollutants in the drinking water in some parts
90. Which one of the following gases is responsible of India?
for causing acid rain in the atmosphere? 1. Arsenic 2. Sorbitol
(a) CFC (b) CH4 3. Fluoride 4. Formaldehyde
(c) O3 (d) SO2 5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the codes given
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2003
below.
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
question.
(c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
91. Which of the following is present in maximum in IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
acid rain?
Ans: (c) Water pollution in India is a major problem.
(a) HCl (b) HNO3 In recent years due to industrialization and
(c) H2SO4 (d) H2CO3 urbanization in India, this problem has become
(e) None of the above/ More than one of above gigantic. Additionally, domestic sewerage, inadequate
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 sanitation facilities, poor seepage management and the
Ans : (c) About 75% of the acidity of the rain is due to near absence of sanitation and wastewater policy
the presence of Sulphuric acid (H2SO4). Although frameworks are also responsible for water
sulfuric acid may be produced naturally in small pollution. Water in some parts of various States in
quantities from biological decay and volcanic activity, India is contaminated by salinity, arsenic, fluoride,
it is produced almost entirely by human activity, iron, nitrate and heavy metals (copper, nickel, iron,
especially the combustion of sulfur-containing fossil cobalt, manganese, chromium, zinc and uranium).
fuels in power plants. About one-fourth of the acidity There (c) is the correct answer.
of rain is accounted for by Nitric acid (HNO3). In 96. The non-biotic pollutant of underground water
addition to the natural processes that form small is-
amounts of nitric acid in rainwater, high-temperature (a) Bacteria (b) Algae
air combustion which occurs in car engines and power (c) Arsenic (d) Virus
plants, produces large amounts of nitrogen oxide gas. UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2012
This gas then forms nitric acid. Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
92. Which acid is present in acid rain? question.
(a) Benzoic acid (b) Acetic acid 97. The plant species which is an indicator of
(c) Oxalic acid (d) None of the above aquatic pollution is :
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2018 (a) Eichhornia species
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Hydrilla species
question. (c) Eupatorium species
93. Which of the following countries suffer from (d) Tridax species
the acid rains? Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
1. Canada 2. France Ans. (b) : Hydrilla species is an indicator of arsenic
3. Norway 4. Germany pollution in the aqueous ecosystem.
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98. The problem of water pollution with Arsenic is 101. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a
maximum in- standard criterion for
(a) Haryana (b) Rajasthan (a) Measuring oxygen levels in blood
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) West Bengal (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest
UPPCS (Pre) (Re- Exam) G.S 2015 ecosystems
(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystems
Ans: (d) Arsenic contamination in groundwater is
(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude
found in the Ganga- Brahmaputra fluvial plains in regions
India and Padma-Meghna fluvial plains in Bangladesh
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
and its consequences to the human health have been
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2017
reported as one of the world’s biggest natural
Ans : (c) Biochemical oxygen demand or BOD
groundwater calamities to the mankind. In India, seven
measures the amount of oxygen consumed by
States namely West Bengal, Jharkhand, Bihar, Uttar
microorganisms in decomposing organic matter in
Pradesh in the flood plain of the Ganga River; Assam
stream water. Biochemical oxygen demand also
and Manipur in the flood plain of the Brahamaputra measures the chemical oxidation of inorganic matter.
and Imphal rivers and Rajnandgaon village in BOD directly affects the amount of dissolved oxygen
Chhattisgarh State have so far been reported affected in rivers and streams. The greater the Biochemical
by arsenic contamination in groundwater above the oxygen demand, the more rapidly oxygen is depleted
permissible limit. Therefore, problem of water in the stream. This means less oxygen is available to
pollution with Arsenic is maximum in West Bengal. higher forms of aquatic life. The consequences of high
99. Which of the following is not a water Biochemical oxygen demand are the same as those for
pollutant? low dissolved oxygen, results aquatic organisms
(a) Zinc (b) Copper become stressed, suffocate and die. Sources of
(c) Nickel (d) Sulpher dioxide Biochemical oxygen demand include leaves and
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011 woody debris, dead plants and animals, animal
manure, effluents from pulp and paper mills,
Ans: (d) Sulpher dioxide is an air pollutant. The wastewater treatment plants, feedlots and food-
primary sources of copper, nickel, chromium and zinc processing plants, failing septic systems and urban
in water are rocks. Concentrations of these metals in storm water runoff.
ground water are usually well below the amount that
102. High Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD)
could potentially occur. Sewage and industrial indicates?
disposal has greatly increased the addition of copper,
(a) High level of Microbial Pollution
nickel, chromium and zinc in the aquatic ecosystems.
(b) Low level of Microbial Pollution
100. Which one of the following river is called (c) Absence of Microbial Pollution
‘biological desert’ on account of its pollutants? (d) Water is fully pure
(a) Yamuna (b) Periyar TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
(c) Damodar (d) Mahanadi Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
103. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is an
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 indication of pollution in-
Ans: (c) The Damodar river basin is part of the (a) Aquatic environment (b) Soil
Ganges river basin, spreading over an area of about (c) Air (d) All of the above
23,370.98 Sq km in Jharkhand and West Bengal. From Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2007
its source at Chulhapani on the Lohardaga-Latehar Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
border (Jharkhand) to Beonkhali in West Bengal, question.
where it meets the Hooghly river, the journey of 104. The water pollution in river is determined by
nearly 600 km is littered with ravages of human measuring the dissolved amount of-
activity, from town garbage to untreated industrial (a) Chlorine (b) Nitrogen
wastes. A recent survey by the Zoological Survey of (c) Ozone (d) Oxygen
India (ZSI) lays a shocking fact that vast stretches of UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2011
the Damodar have turned into ‘biological desert’ with
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
no marine life left. This is primarily because industrial
question.
and domestic effluents have increased the value of
105. A water body having high BOD indicates that
chemical oxygen demand (COD) and biochemical
its water is-
oxygen demand (BOD), two scientific measures used
(a) Receiving minerals
to determine pollution in a water body.
(b) Being aerated
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(c) Being contaminated by sewage Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) Atrophic below:
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2007 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
question. IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
106. The biological oxygen demand of water is Ans: (d) Phytoplanktons are microscopic organisms
reduced mainly by: that live in watery environments, both salty and fresh.
(a) Primary treatment Like land plants, phytoplankton have chlorophyll to
(b) Secondary treatment capture sunlight and they use photosynthesis to turn it
(c) Tertiary treatment into chemical energy. They consume carbon dioxide
(d) None of the above and release oxygen. When conditions are right,
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 phytoplankton populations can grow explosively, a
Ans : (b) The biological oxygen demand of water is phenomenon known as a bloom. Through
mainly reduced by secondary treatment such as photosynthesis, phytoplankton consumes carbon
sewage treatment plant, waste water treatment plant dioxide on a scale equivalent to forests and other land
etc. plants. Some of this carbon is carried to the deep
107. Dead zones ion in the world’s oceans and large ocean when phytoplankton die and some is transferred
lakes are characterized by: to different layers of the ocean as phytoplankton are
(a) High biological oxygen demand eaten by other creatures. Even small changes in the
(b) Excessive bloom of algae growth of phytoplankton may affect atmospheric
(c) Excess nutrients like nitrates carbon dioxide concentrations, which would feed back
(d) All of the above to global surface temperatures. Hence statement 1 is
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 correct. Phytoplanktons are the foundation of the
Ans : (d) Dead zones are low oxygen areas in world aquatic food webs, the primary producers, feeding
oceans and lakes. As every organism needs oxygen to everything from microscopic animal zooplankton to
live, that is why these areas are called dead zones. Dead multi-ton whales. Small fish and invertebrates also
zones occur because of a process called eutrophication, graze on the plant-like organisms and then those
which happens when a body of water gets too smaller animals are eaten by bigger ones. Therefore
many nutrients such as phosphorus and nitrogen. At statement 2 is correct. In addition to that, it is to be
normal levels, these nutrients feed the growth of an noted that certain species of phytoplankton produce
organism called blue-green algae, which are responsible powerful biotoxins, making them responsible for so-
for nitrogen fixation from atmosphere as well as organic called ‘red tides’ or harmful algal blooms. These toxic
compounds of living organism. With too many blooms can kill marine life and people who eat
nutrients, blue-green algae grow out of control, which contaminated seafood. Due to the warmer ocean water,
can be harmful to the organism. Human activities are temperature increases which in turn decrease the
the main cause of these excess nutrients being washed density of ocean water as temperature and density
away into the ocean. For this reason, dead zones are
have inverse relationship. Hence statement 3 is also
often located near inhabited coastlines. Hence (d) is the
correct.
correct answer.
110. Human activities in the recent past have caused
108. Which of the following is associated with
biological nitrogen fixation? the increased concentration of carbon dioxide
in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not
(a) Red algae (b) Brown algae
remain in the lower atmosphere because of
(c) Green algae (d) Blue-green algae
1. Its escape into the outer stratosphere.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
2. The photosynthesis by phytoplankton in the
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above oceans.
question.
3. The trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
109. What would happen if phytoplankton of an
Which of the statements given above is/ are
ocean is completely destroyed for some reason?
correct?
1. The ocean as a carbon sink would be
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
adversely affected.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only
2. The food chains in the ocean would be
adversely affected. IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
3. The density of ocean water would drastically Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
decrease. question.

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111. The acidification of oceans is increasing. Why Hence statement 3 is also correct. The majority of
is this phenomenon a cause of concern? sulfur in the atmosphere is emitted from the ocean, often
1. The growth and survival of calcareous in the form of dimethylsulfide (DMS) produced by
phytoplankton will be adversely affected. phytoplankton. Some of DMS produced
2. The growth and survival of coral reefs will be by phytoplankton enters the atmosphere and reacts to make
adversely affected. sulphuric acid, which clumps into aerosols or microscopic
3. The survival of some animals that have airborne particles. Aerosols seed the formation of clouds,
phytoplanktonic larvae will be adversely which helps to cool the earth by reflecting sunlight. But in
affected. acidified ocean water, phytoplankton produces less DMS.
4. The cloud seeding and formation of clouds This reduction of sulpher may lead to decreased cloud
will be adversely affected. formation, raising global temperatures. Therefore,
statement 4 is also correct.
Which of the statements given above is /are
correct? 112. The term Biomagnification refers to:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 only (a) Raising of environmental issues by man
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) Growth of organism due to food consumption
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 (c) Increase in population size
Ans: (d) Ocean acidification is sometimes called (d) Increase in concentration of non-
“Climate change’s equally evil twin”. Carbon dioxide biodegradable pollutants
is added to the atmosphere, whenever people burn Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2010
fossil fuels. Oceans play an important role in keeping Ans: (d) Toxic chemicals and heavy metals flow into
the earth’s carbon cycle in balance. As the amount of the ocean when industrial, agricultural and human
carbon dioxide in the atmosphere rises, the oceans wastes run off or is deliberately discharged into rivers
absorb a lot of it. In the ocean, carbon dioxide reacts that then empty into the sea. These pollutants cause
with seawater to form carbonic acid. This causes the disease, genetic mutations, birth defects, reproductive
acidity of seawater to increase. Ocean acidification is difficulties, behavioral changes and death in many
having a dangerous effect on phytoplankton, the marine organisms. But the severity of the damage varies
greatly between species. In many cases, animals near the
largest source of the planet’s oxygen and the
top of the food chain are most affected because of a
cornerstone of the marine food chain. Plankton process called "Biomagnification". Many of the most
communities play a key role in the marine food web dangerous toxins settle to the seafloor and then are taken
and are expected to be highly sensitive to ongoing in by organisms that live or feed on bottom sediments.
environmental change. Oceanic uptake of Because these compounds aren't digested, they
anthropogenic carbon dioxide causes pronounced accumulate within the animals that ingest them and
shifts in marine carbonate chemistry and a decrease in become more and more concentrated as they pass along
seawater pH. These changes can significantly affect the food chain as animals eat and then are eaten in turn.
the physiology of planktonic organisms. Hence This is biomagnification and it means that higher-level
statement 1 is correct. Coral reefs are created in predators-fish, birds and marine mammals-build up
shallow tropical waters by millions of tiny animals greater and more dangerous amounts of toxic materials
called corals. Each coral makes a skeleton for itself than animals lower on the food chain.
and over time, these skeletons build up to create coral 113. Biomagnification refers to an increases in the
reefs which provide habitat for lots of fishes and other number/content/quantity of:
ocean creatures. Warmer water has already caused (a) Blue green algae (b) Insects
coral bleaching (a type of damage to corals) in many (c) Weeds (d) Toxicants
parts of the world. By 2050, live corals could become OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I
rare in tropical and sub-tropical reefs due to the
Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.
combined effects of warmer water and increased ocean
acidity caused by more carbon dioxide in the 114. There is a concern over the increase in harmful
atmosphere. The loss of coral reefs will reduce algal blooms in the seawater of India. What
habitats for many other sea creatures and it will disrupt could be the causative factors for this
the food web that connects all the living things in the phenomenon?
ocean. Therefore statement 2 is also correct. Larvae in 1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
acidic water had more trouble finding a good place to 2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
settle, preventing them from reaching adulthood. In 3. Upwelling in the seas.
acidic water, oyster larvae fail to even begin growing Select the correct answer from the codes given
their shells. In their first 48 hours of life, oyster larvae below:
undergo a massive growth spurt, building their shells (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
quickly so they can start feeding. But more acidic (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
seawater eats away their shells before they can form. IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
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Ans : (d) The algae bloom is caused by Noctiluca 117. If water pollution continues at its present rate,
scintillans, microscopic dinoflagellates that feed on it will eventually-
plankton and suck up energy from the sun through (a) Prevent precipitation
microscopic algae living within their cells. In a marine (b) Stop water cycle
ecosystem, dinoflagellates make up only a small part (c) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to
of the food chain. However when there's a build-up of aquatic life
plankton, it leads to massive algae blooms that start (d) Make nitrate unavailable to aquatic life
dominating the local area. When the cell of these UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 1991
dinoflagellates breaks down, ammonia is released. It IAS (Pre) G.S. 1994
changes the flavour of the water and in extreme cases, Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S. 2006
it kills fishes. Increasing ocean temperature is not only Ans : (d) If water pollution continues at its present
aiding algae blooms but also making dead zones more rate, life of aquatic species will be in larger threat.
common across the world. Harmful algal blooms are Water pollution reduces amount of oxygen present in
lethal for both human beings and marine ecosystems the water, which will directly reduce the nutrients
and are steadily increasing in intensity in the Indian available to the aquatic life due to the absence of
waters. Upwelling, formation of mud banks, nutrient algae, blooms and other aquatic species.
discharges from estuaries and run-off from the land 118. Brominated flame retardants are used in many
during southwest and northeast monsoons cause some household products like mattresses and
algae blooms in coastal waters. Therefore (d) is the upholstery. Why is there some concern about
correct answer. their use?
115. Which bacterial strain, developed from natural 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the
isolates by genetic manipulations, can be used environment.
for treating oil spills? 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and
(a) Agrobacterium (b) Clostridium animals.
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Nitrosomonas (d) Pseudomonas
below.
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2010 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans : (d) Refinery effluent and oil spills are the major (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
sources of oil pollution. Diverse microbial population IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
including bacteria, fungi and algae can metabolize the Ans : (c) Brominated flame retardants (BFRs) have
hydrocarbons found in crude oil. Pseudomonas routinely been added to consumer products for several
aeruginosa has been reportedly used as effective repair decades in a successful effort to reduce fire-related
of crude oil spills. injury and property damage. Recently, concern for this
116. Recently, “oil zapper” was in news. What is it? emerging class of chemicals has been risen because of
(a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the the occurrence of several classes of BFRs in the
remediation of oily sludge and oil spills environment and in human biota. The widespread
(b) It is the latest technology developed for production and use of BFRs shows strong evidence of
under-sea oil exploration increasing contamination of the environment, wildlife
and people. BFR-treated products, whether in use or
(c) It is genetically engineered high biofuel- waste, leach BFRs into the environment and
yielding maize variety contaminate the air, soil and water. These
(d) It is the latest technology to control the contaminants may then enter the food chain where
accidentally caused flames from the oil wells they mainly occur in food of animal origin, such as
IAS (Pre) G.S 2011 fish, meat, milk and derived products. Therefore both
Ans: (a) Oilzapper was developed by TERI- The statement 1 and 2 are correct.
energy and research institute, New Delhi after seven 119. With reference to bio-toilets used by the Indian
years of research work and partly supported by the Railways, consider the following statements:
Department of Biotechnology. "Oilzapper" is 1. The decomposition of human waste in the
essentially a cocktail of five different bacterial strains bio-toilets is initiated by fungal inoculums.
that are immobilized and mixed with a carrier material 2. Ammonia and water vapour are the only end
(powdered corncob). Oilzapper feeds on hydrocarbon products in this decomposition which are
compounds present in crude oil and oily sludge (a released into the atmosphere.
hazardous hydrocarbon waste generated by oil Which of the statements given above is/are
refineries) and converts them into harmless CO2 and correct?
water. The Oilzapper is neatly packed into sterile (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
polythene bags and sealed aseptically for safe (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
transport. The shelf life of the product is three months IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
at ambient temperature. Oilzapper's uniqueness lies in Ans: (d) The bio-toilets in Indian Railways have been
the bio-friendly manner in which it detoxifies oily developed jointly by Indian Railways engineers and
sludges and cleans up oil slicks. Hence (a) is the Defence Research and Development Organization
correct answer. (DRDO) scientists. The bio-toilet project of Indian

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Railways is first of its kind, being used by any railroad Ans : (d) Among the given options, jet engine
in the world for on-board accelerated digestion of produces maximum noise pollution (120 dB).
human waste. Under the bio-toilet concept of the 126. “Knock- Knee syndrome” is caused by the
DRDO, the bio-digester tank in every toilet is filled
pollution of
with inoculums containing four types of bacteria. The
water trap system in the toilet prevents air from getting (a) Mercury (b) Lead
into the tank, the human waste is processed by (c) Arsenic (d) Fluoride
anaerobic bacteria in seven chambers in the tank and UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
the methane gas is allowed to escape into the air. Ans: (d) A standing child of average weight, whose
120. Sound above what level (in decibels) is knees touch but whose ankles do not, is usually
considered hazardous noise pollution? considered to have knock knees. When a child has
(a) 30 dB (b) 40 dB knock knees, both knees usually lean inward
(c) 60 dB (d) 80 dB symmetrically. Prolonged intake of fluoride polluted
UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2013 water causes stiffing of bone and joints particularly
spinal cord. Due to affinity with calcium, fluoride
Ans : (d) A sound's loudness is measured in Decibels
stores in bones which causes mottling of teeth, bone
(dB). Noise pollution is generally defined as regular
pains and outward bending of legs from the knees
exposure to elevated sound levels that may lead to
adverse effects in humans or other living known as knock-knee.
organisms. According to the World Health Organization 127. Which pollution is responsible for “Knock-
(WHO), sound levels less than 70 dB are not damaging Knee- Syndrome”?
to living organisms, regardless of how long or consistent (a) Fluoride (b) Mercury
the exposure is. Exposure for more than 8 hours to (c) Arsenic (d) Cadmium
constant noise beyond 85 dB may be hazardous. MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
121. Which of the following unit is used to measure Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
noise pollution? question.
(a) Nanometers (b) Decibel 128. Which one of the following gases is released
(c) Hertz (d) None of the above mostly from landfills in urban areas?
UPPCS (M) G.S. IInd 2017 (a) Nitrogen (b) Hydrogen
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Methane (d) Oxygen
question. UPSC CDS G.S IInd Paper 2016
122. ‘Green muffler’ is used to protect from which Ans: (c) Landfill Gas (LFG) is a natural byproduct of
type of pollution? the decomposition of organic material in landfills.
(a) Air (b) Water Landfill gas is composed of roughly 50 percent
(c) Soil (d) Noise methane (the primary component of natural gas), 50
UPPCS (M) G.S. IInd 2017 percent carbon dioxide (CO2) and a small amount of
Ans : (d) Green Muffler is a technique of reducing non-methane organic compounds. Methane is a potent
noise pollution by planting 4-6 rows around the greenhouse gas, 28 to 36 times more effective than
populated areas or noisy places like along roadsides, CO2 at trapping heat in the atmosphere.
industrial areas, societies near highways etc. so that 129. The crew and passengers of a flying aircraft
dense trees reduce noise pollution as they filter out the suffer generally from chronic obstructive
noise and obstruct it reaching the citizens. pulmonary disease due to the effect of
123. Green muffler is used against which type of (a) solar radiation
pollution ? (b) ozone concentration
(a) Air (b) Noise (c) nitrogen oxide
(c) Soil (d) Water (d) particulate pollutant
Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019 UPSC CDS G.S Ist Paper 2013
Ans.(b):Kindly refer the explanation of the above question. Ans: (b) Commercial jet aircraft fly in the lower
124. ‘Green Muffler’ is related to- stratosphere to avoid the turbulence, which is common
(a) Soil pollution (b) Air pollution in the troposphere. The top of the stratosphere occurs
(c) Noise pollution (d) Water pollution at an altitude of 50 km (31 miles). Ozone, that is
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 relatively abundant in the stratosphere, heats this layer
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above as it absorbs energy from incoming ultraviolet
question. radiation from the sun. Due to ozone, the crew and
125. Which of the following is the reason for passengers of a flying aircraft suffer generally from
maximum noise pollution? chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
(a) Heavy truck transport 130. Which one of the following is not related to air
(b) Election committees pollution?
(c) Pop music (a) Smog (b) Acid Rain
(d) Jet flying (c) Eutrophication (d) Asbestosis
UP Lower (Pre) G.S. 2003–04 UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2013
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Ans : (c) Eutrophication is related to water pollution, (b) (A) and (R) both are correct but (R) is not the
which begins with the increased load of nutrients to correct explanation of (A).
the ocean water. Rest is related to air pollution. (c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
131. A pesticide which is a chlorinated hydrocarbon (d) (A) is false but (R) is false
is sprayed on a food crop. The food chain is: UPPSC (GIC) 2010
Food crop - Rat - Snake-Hawk, in this food UPPCS (Pre) G.S. Spl. 2004
chain, the highest concentration of the pesticide Ans : (a) Soil pollution is much dangerous in
would accumulate in which one of the comparison to industrial pollution as use of fertilizers
following? and insecticides in soil to increase the production of
(a) Food crop (b) Rat food grains enters into food chain. Chemicals
(c) Snake (d) Hawk produced by this fertilizers and insecticides are
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2010 harmful to health. Hence (A) and (R) both are correct
Ans : (d) In this food chain, the highest concentration and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
of the pesticide would accumulate by hawk. A 136. Due to improper / indiscriminate disposal of
pesticide, which is chlorinated hydrocarbon (For old and used computers or their parts, which of
example- DDT) used to get biomagnified, which the following are released into the environment
reaches to a higher and higher level with each as e-waste?
successive step in food chain. Small amount of 1. Beryllium 2. Cadmium
pesticide absorbed by plant increases its concentration 3. Chromium 4. Heptachlor
with each step. Hence hawk would be worst affected 5. Mercury 6. Lead
by pesticide. 7. Plutonium
132. Indiscriminate use of DDT is undesirable (a) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only (b) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 only
because (c) 2, 4, 5 and 7 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
(a) It causes mutation IAS (Pre) G.S. 2013
(b) It is degradable Ans : (b) Electronic waste (e-waste) typically includes
(c) It accumulated in the food chain discarded computer monitors, motherboards, mobile
(d) None of the above phones and chargers, compact discs, headphones,
Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019 television sets, air conditioners and refrigerators etc.
Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question. Only 20 per cent of global e-waste is recycled.
133. Which one of the following organisms is likely Electronic devices are made of a complex mix of
to show the highest- concentration of DDT once materials that include gold, silver, copper, platinum,
it has been introduced into the ecosystem? palladium, lithium, cobalt and other valuable elements.
(a) Grasshopper (b) Toad Electronic devices also comprise toxic heavy metals
like lead, mercury, cadmium and beryllium, mercury,
(c) Snake (d) Cattle
polluting PVC plastic and hazardous chemicals such
IAS (Pre.) G.S. 1997 as brominated flame retardants, which can harm
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above human health and the environment.
question. 137. March List-I with List-II and select the correct
134. On the basis of assessment of DDT answer using the codes given below the lists:
concentrations in the aqueous environment, the List–I List–II
level of pollution in the food chain increases in A. Skin Cancer 1. Chlorofluorocarbons
the following sequence- B. Noise Pollution 2. Ultraviolet light
(a) Bird, Fish, Snail, Aquatic plants C. Global warming 3. Decibel
(b) Aquatic plants, Snail, Fish, Bird D. Ozone Hole 4. Carbon dioxide
(c) Snail, Fish, Bird, Aquatic plants
Code:
(d) Snail, Fish, Bird, Aquatic plants
A B C D
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 1999 (a) 1 2 3 4
Ans : (b) Correct sequence for level of pollution in the (b) 2 3 4 1
food chain is- Aquatic plants, Snail, Fish, Bird. (c) 2 3 1 4
135. Assertion (A): Soil pollution is much dangerous (d) 4 3 2 1
in comparison to industrial pollution. BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017
Reason (R): Fertilizers and insecticides enter the
Ans : (b) Correct match is-
food chain.
List–I List–II
Select the correct answer from the following
code: A. Skin Cancer 1. Ultraviolet light
Code: B. Noise Pollution 2. Decibel
(a) (A) and (R) both are correct and (R) is the C. Global warming 3. Carbon dioxide
correct explanation of (A). D. Ozone Hole 4. Chlorofluorocarbons

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05.
Green House Effect and
Climate Change
1. What is greenhouse effect? (c) Magnesium oxide, Fluorine, Chlorine
(a) Increase in temperature of earth due to (d) Carbon monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Calcium
concentration of gases in atmosphere oxide
(b) Acid rain Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
(c) Black rain Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question.
(d) None of the above 5. Which one of the following primary greenhouse
Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) G.S 2006 gases is not associated with global warming?
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 1992 (a) Water vapour (b) Carbon dioxide
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 1991 (c) Methane (d) Hydrogen
Ans: (a) Joseph Fourier, French mathematician was Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
first to describe the "Greenhouse Effect", responsible
for global warming. The greenhouse effect is a natural Ans. (d) : See the explanation of the above question.
process that warms the earth’s surface. When the sun’s 6. Which one of the following is correct about
energy reaches the earth’s atmosphere, some of it is greenhouse gases?
reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re- (a) Water vapour is a greenhouse gas.
radiated by greenhouse gases. The absorbed energy (b) Water vapour is responsible for one-fourth of
warms the atmosphere and the surface of the earth. the greenhouse effect.
Human activities are changing earth's natural (c) Water vapour is not the most important
greenhouse effect. Burning fossil fuels like coal and oil greenhouse gas in the atmosphere.
puts more carbon dioxide into our atmosphere, which (d) Water vapour will stay for 25 days in the
results to global warming. Greenhouse gases include atmosphere.
water vapour, carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide, Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
ozone and some artificial chemicals such as
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question.
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
7. Which of the following gas has highest global
2. Which of the following is NOT a green house
warming potential?
gas?
(a) SF6 (b) PFC5
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(c) N2O (d) CH4
(c) Methane (d) Argon
Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
Ans. (d): See the explanation of the above question.
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 8. Global warming is mainly due to
3. Which one of the following is not a greenhouse (a) Ozone layer accumulation
gas? (b) Green house gas accumulation
(a) Methane (b) Ozone (c) UV Rays
(c) Oxygen (d) Nitrous Oxide (d) Ozone layer
UK RO-ARO (Pre.) 2021 MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I Ans. (b): See the explanation of the above question.
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above 9. Which one of the following atmospheric
question. changes takes place due to green house effect?
4. Which of the following sets of gases contributes (a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration in
to the greenhouse effect on the earth? atmosphere
(a) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide (b) Increase in humidity in atmosphere
(b) Hydrogen, Propane, Butane (c) Increase in biological population
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(d) Increase in wind speed Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017, 2015 question.
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 15. The concept of Greenhouse Gases was
question. postulated by-
10. The main component of greenhouse gases is (a) C.C. Park (b) J.N.N Jeffers
(a) Carbon dioxide (c) Joseph Fourier (d) L. Zobler
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011
(b) Methane
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Nitrous oxide
question.
(d) Ozone
16. Greenhouse effect is enhanced in the
(e) None of the above/More than one of the
environment due to
above
(a) Carbon monoxide (b) Carbon dioxide
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2019 (c) Oxygen (d) None of the above
Ans : (e) Kindly refer the explanation of the above UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
question. Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
11. Which one of the following is not responsible question.
for global warming? 17. Which of the following gases is not a
(a) Methane (b) Water vapour greenhouse gas?
(c) Argon (d) Carbon dioxide (a) CO2 (b) CH4
UPPCS (Main) G.S. 2016 (c) NO2 (d) O2
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS RO/ARO (Mains) 2017
question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016, 2012
12. Which of the following substances does not Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
contribute to global warming? UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2007
(a) Oxides of sulpher and nitrogen Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Methane question.
(c) Carbon dioxide 18. Which set of the following gases is most
(d) Water vapour important for greenhouse effect?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013 (a) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Chlorine, Nitric
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 oxide
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006 (b) Nitric oxide, Methane, Ethane, Chlorfluoro
carbons
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Carbon dioxide, Methane, Nitrous oxide,
question. Water vapour
13. Apprehension of global warming are (d) Carbon Monoxide, Sulphur dioxide, Methane,
aggravated by increased concentration in the Water vapour
atmosphere of- Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Nitrous oxide UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
(c) Ozone (d) Sulpher dioxide Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2003 Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2004, 2006 question.
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 19. Which among the following is the most
question. abundant Green-House-Gas (GHG) in the
earth's atmosphere?
14. Carbon dioxide absorbs strongly in infrared
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Water vapour
region and its presence in atmosphere
(c) Sulphur dioxide (d) Tropospheric ozone
decreases the loss of heat from earth by
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I
radiations. This is called:
Ans. (b) : Water vapour is known to be earth’s most
(a) Carbon dioxide burning
abundant greenhouse gas. Heat-amplifying effect of
(b) Carbon dioxide recycling water vapour is potent enough to double the climate
(c) Carbon recycling warming caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide
(d) Greenhouse effect in the atmosphere. Therefore, water vapour also
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2010 contributes to the global warming.
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20. The earth atmosphere is mainly heated by Ans. (b) : At present, roughly 30% of the incoming
which one of the following? solar radiation is reflected back to space by the clouds,
(a) Short wave solar radiation aerosols and the surface of the earth. Without naturally
(b) Scattered solar radiation occurring greenhouse gases, earth's average temperature
would be near 0°F (-18°C) instead of the much warmer
(c) Reflected solar radiation
59°F (15°C) (approximately 33 degrees Celsius cooler).
(d) Long wave terrestrial radiation
24. The total amount of green-house gases
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
produced, to directly and indirectly support
Ans. (d) : The earth's atmosphere is mainly heated by human activities, is referred to as:
long wave terrestial radiation. Shortwave radiation (a) Carbon dioxide index (b) Carbon footprint
contains higher amounts of energy and longwave (c) Carbon sequestration (d) Carbon capture
radiation contains a smaller amount of energy. RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018
Therefore, the sun gives off shortwave radiation, as it is Ans : (b) The term "Carbon Footprint" is often used as
extremely hot and has a lot of energy to give. On the shorthand for the amount of carbon (usually in tones) is
other hand, earth’s radiation is emitted as longwave, as being emitted by an activity or organization. A carbon
it is much cooler but still emits radiation. Once in the footprint is defined as the total amount of greenhouse
earth’s atmosphere, clouds and the surface of the earth gases produced to directly and indirectly support human
absorbs the solar energy, the ground heats up and re- activities, usually expressed in equivalent tons of carbon
emits energy as longwave radiation in the form of dioxide (CO2).
infrared rays. Most of the emitted longwave radiation 25. Carbon footprint means-
warms the lower atmosphere, which in turn warms (a) Carbon dioxide emissions by a Coal industry
earth's surface. (b) Total sets of Carbon gas emissions caused by
21. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the an organization, event, or a person
air is slowly raising the temperature of the (c) Total sets of greenhouse gas emissions caused
atmosphere, because it absorbs: by an organization, event or a person
(d) Carbon dioxide emissions by humans
(a) The water vapour of the air and retains its
heat Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I
(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar radiation Ans. (c) : See the explanation of the above question.
(c) All the solar radiations 26. Which of the following statements best
describes "carbon fertilization"?
(d) The infrared part of the solar radiation
(a) Increased plant growth due to increased
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 concentration of carbon dioxide in the
Ans: (d) Carbon dioxide molecules trap heat as they are atmosphere
transparent to sunlight but not to the heat radiation. If (b) Increased temperature of Earth due to
the amount of carbon dioxide crosses the delicate increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
proportion of 0.03%, the natural greenhouse balance the atmosphere
may get disturbed. Carbon dioxide is the major (c) Increased acidity of oceans as a result of
contributor to global warming. increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
the atmosphere
22. Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas,
because (d) Adaptation of all living beings on Earth to
the climate change brought about hr the
(a) It is transparent to sunlight and heat
increased concentration of carbon dioxide in
(b) It is transparent to sunlight but traps heat
the atmosphere
(c) It is used in green house to enhance plant
IAS (Pre) 2018
growth
Ans. (a) From a quarter to half of earth’s vegetated
(d) It is transparent to heat but traps sunlight lands has shown significant greening over the last 35
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I years largely due to rising levels of atmospheric carbon
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above dioxide, also known as "Carbon Fertilization". Green
question. leaves use energy from sunlight through photosynthesis
23. Without greenhouse effect the average to chemically combine carbon dioxide drawn in from
the air with water and nutrients tapped from the ground
temperature of earth surface would be?
to produce sugars, which are the main source of food,
(a) 0ºC (b) –18ºC fiber and fuel for life on earth. Studies have shown that
(c) 5ºC (d) –20ºC increased concentrations of carbon dioxide have
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 increased photosynthesis, spurring plant growth.
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27. The relative contribution of carbon dioxide 29. Which of the following gas has highest
(CO2), nitrous oxide (N2O), chlorofluorocarbons contribution in global warming?
(CFCs) and methane (CH4) towards global (a) Carbon dioxide
warming are- (b) Chlorofluorocarbons
(a) CO2 > CFCs > CH4 > N2O (c) Nitrous oxide
(b) CO2 > CH4 > CFCs > N2O (d) Methane
(c) CO2 > CH4 > N2O > CFCs MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
(d) CO2 > N2O > CH4 > CFCs Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2016 question.
Ans (c) Among all the greenhouse gases, carbon dioxide is 30. Which of the following greenhouse gases is
present at the highest concentration. Carbon dioxide is said entirely produced by human activities?
to be responsible for almost 76% of the total greenhouse (a) Methane
effect as far as efficiency and concentration are considered. (b) Carbon dioxide
Methane is present in the atmosphere at less than 1% the (c) Nitrous oxide
level of carbon dioxide but it contributes to a little over (d) Chlorofluorocarbons
16% of the total greenhouse effect based on current Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2018
concentrations. Nitrous oxide also occurs in low Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
concentrations relative to carbon dioxide and makes it a question.
6% contributor to total the greenhouse effect. The only
31. Which of the following gas is most responsible
major greenhouse gas that is not naturally occurring is
for the global warming?
the chlorofluorocarbon. They come solely from
(a) Nitrogen (b) Methane
anthropogenic sources such as the production and use of
(c) Carbon dioxide (d) Carbon monoxide
foams, aerosols, refrigerants and solvents. They are present
at an extremely low concentration in the atmosphere. They Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
contribute to approximately 2% of the total greenhouse Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2012
effect. Therefore, relative contribution of greenhouse gases Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
towards global warming are CO2 (76%), CH4 (16%), question.
Nitrous oxide (6%), chlorofluorocarbons (2%). Hence (c) 32. Which of the following conditions indicate the
is the correct answer. impact of global warming? Select the correct
answer from the code given below:
1. Melting of glaciers
2. Rise in sea level
3. Changes in weather conditions
4. Rise in global temperature
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All the above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2006
Ans: (d) About 75 % of the solar energy reaching the
earth is absorbed by the earth’s surface, which increases
its temperature. The rest of the heat radiates back to the
atmosphere. Some of the heat is trapped by gases, such
as carbon dioxide, methane, ozone, chlorofluorocarbon
compounds (CFCs) and water vapour in the atmosphere.
Thus, they add to the heating of the atmosphere. This
Source- IPCC (Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
causes global warming. During the past century, the
Change) 2014 Report
atmospheric temperature has risen by 1.1°F (0.6°C) and
28. Which of the following is the most important sea level has risen several inches. Some of the longer-
greenhouse gas in the earth’s atmosphere? term results of global warming are melting of polar ice
(a) Nitrogen dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide with a resulting rise in sea level and coastal flooding;
(c) Water vapour (d) Sulphur dioxide disruption of drinking water supplies dependent on
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 snow melts; extinction of species as ecological niches
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above disappear; more frequent tropical storms and an
question. increased incidence of tropical diseases.

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33. Which of the following is expected to be a cause 37. As a result of global warming-
of the rise in sea level? 1. Universal has become good
(a) Ozone layer depletion 2. Glaciers has started to become liquid
(b) Monsoon rain 3. Premature coming of blossom in mangoes
(c) Melting of polar ice cap 4. Side effect on health
(d) Continental drift
Code:
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (c): Sea level rise is one of the major problem,
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
earth is facing in the 21st century. It is attributed both to
the thermal expansion of oceans due to increased UP Lower (Pre) G.S. 2002
temperature because of global warming and also Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
melting of ice sheets and glaciers on land. Melting of question.
ice shelves and icebergs in oceans also contributes to 38. As a result of global warming there has been:
sea level. 1. Better global communication
34. Which of the following is/are the correct 2. Melting of glaciers
statement/statements in case of a sea level rise 3. Flowering of mango trees before times
due to global warming 4. Adverse impact on health
(a) There will be an increase in bicarbonate Select the answers from the code below:
content of well water in coastal areas
Code:
(b) There will be an increase in sodium content (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
of well water in coastal areas
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) There will be an increase in potassium
(c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
content of well water in coastal areas
(d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) There will be an increase in nitrate content of
well water in coastal areas UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2003, 2001
J & K PSC Pre-2018 Paper-I Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (b): Sodium content of drinking water (through question.
several resources) increases in coastal areas in case of 39. Consider the following which can be found in
sea level rise due to global warming. the ambient atmosphere:
35. As a result of global warming the frequency 1. Soot
and severity of which of the following are 2. Sulphur hexafluoride
increasing due to global warming? 3. Water vapour
(a) Cyclones only (b) Storms only Which of the above contribute to the warming
(c) Hurricanes only (d) All of the above up of the atmosphere?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Ans : (d) The effects of global warming are melting (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
glaciers, early snowmelt, severe droughts, rising sea IAS (Pre) G.S. 2010
levels (which will lead to coastal flooding), troublesome
Ans : (d) Soot, sometimes called lampblack or carbon
new pests, heat waves, heavy downpours and increased
black is a fine black or brown powder that can be
flooding (which will damage or destroy agriculture and
fisheries), rise in temperature, disruption of habitats, slightly sticky and is a product of
such as coral reefs and alpine meadows could drive incomplete combustion. A major component of soot
many plant and animal species to extinction, health is black carbon. Black carbon is the highest solar
related issues like allergies, asthma and infectious energy-absorbing component of particulate matter and
disease outbreaks. can absorb one million times more energy than carbon
36. The global warming has resulted : dioxide. Hence, soot contributes to the global warming.
(a) Increase in yield crop Sulphur hexafluoride or SF6 is widely used in the
(b) Decrease in sea levels electrical industry to prevent short circuits and
(c) Decrease in human deaths accidents. It is widely used across the industry from
(d) Increase in sea levels large power stations to wind turbines to electrical sub-
Himanchal PCS Pre 2017 stations in towns and cities. It has the highest global
warming potential of any known substance. It has
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 23,500 times more warming capability than carbon

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dioxide. Water vapour is known to be earth’s most 42. Due to their extensive rice cultivation, some
abundant greenhouse gas. Heat-amplifying effect of regions may be contributing to global
water vapour is potent enough to double the climate warming. To what possible reason/reasons is
warming caused by increased levels of carbon dioxide this attributable?
in the atmosphere. Hence water vapour also contributes 1. The anaerobic conditions associated with rice
to the global warming. cultivation cause the emission of methane.
40. Consider the following: 2. When nitrogen based fertilizers are used,
1. Carbon monoxide nitrous oxide is emitted from the cultivated
2. Methane soil.
3. Ozone Which of the statements given above is/are
4. Sulphur dioxide correct?
Which of the above are released into (a) 1 only
atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass (b) 2 only
residue? (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only IAS (Pre) G.S 2010
(c) 1 and 4 only Ans: (c) Rice farming is known to be a major contributor
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 to climate change. The main culprit is methane, a potent
IAS (Pre) 2019 greenhouse gas emitted from flooded rice fields as
Ans : (d) Agriculture crop burning contribute towards bacteria in the waterlogged soil, produced in large
the emission of green house gases such as carbon quantities. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. Nitrous
dioxide, methane, nitrogen oxide and air pollutants such oxide, commonly known as laughing gas is also produced
as carbon monoxide, ammonia, sulpher dioxide with by soil microbes in rice fields due to the excessive use of
particulate matters which posses threat to human health. nitrogen based fertilizers that can have a harmful climate
Punjab and Haryana are both responsible for causing air effect. Hence, statement 2 is also correct.
pollution due to burning of parali for land clearing and 43. Among the following crops, which one is the
pest control. These two States contribute to 48 percent most important anthropogenic source of both
of the total emission across India due to paddy burning. methane and nitrous oxide?
Latest observations have revealed that elevated levels of (a) Cotton (b) Rice
ozone, carbon monoxide and aerosols are emitted due to (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
long-range transport of pollutants from biomass UPSC, IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
burning. Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
41. Consider the following: question.
(1) Rice fields 44. The gas which is produced by Paddy fields and
(2) Coal mining is involved in global warming is-
(3) Domestic animals (a) Chlorine (b) Methane
(4) Wetlands (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Hydrogen sulphide
Which of the above are sources of methane, a UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2017
major greenhouse gas? Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) 1 and 4 only question.
(b) 2 and 3 only 45. Consider the following agricultural practices:
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only 1. Contour bunding
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 2. Relay cropping
IAS (Pre) G.S 2008 3. Zero tillage
Ans: (d) Methane is produced naturally when In the context of global climate change, which
vegetation is burnt, digested or rotted in the absence of of the above helps/help in carbon
oxygen. Large amounts of methane are released in sequestration/storage in the soil?
paddy fields, coal mines, wet lands, from rotting (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
garbage dumps and by fossil fuels. Therefore (d) is the (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None of them
correct answer.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
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Ans: (c) Contour bunding is a proven sustainable land Ans: (a) Arctic and Greenland ice sheet are the most
management practice for marginal, sloping and hilly fragile ecosystem that will be first affected by global
land where the soil productivity is very low. This warming. Due to global warming, ice will melt and
technology has successfully been used to control soil more melting of ice means higher sea levels, which
erosion, promote water retention and increase crop would lead to higher storm surges and more coastal
production. It has a high probability of replication flooding, putting millions more people at risk
because it is simple to implement, is low cost and around the world.
makes the maximum use of local resources. Relay 49. Climate change is caused by-
cropping is the growing of two or more crops on the (a) Greenhouse gases
same field with the planting of the second crop after the (b) Depletion of ozone layer
first one has completed its development. It reduces (c) Pollution
hillside erosion and protects topsoil, especially the (d) All of the above
contour strip cropping. Zero tillage (ZT) implies UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
planting crops in previously unprepared soil. It can Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013
reduce or eliminate soil erosion. Therefore all the
Ans: (d) Climate change is expected to have
statements are correct.
unprecedented implications on people, where they can
46. The greenhouse gas liberated by cud-chewing settle, grow food, build cities and rely on functioning
animals is- ecosystems for the services they provide. In many
(a) Carbon dioxide (b) Methane places, change in temperature and sea-level rise are
(c) CFC (d) Nitrous oxide already putting ecosystems under stress and affecting
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2005 human well-being. Human activities, especially
Ans: (b) Cud-chewing animals release methane. When emissions of heat-trapping greenhouse gases from fossil
the fibrous matter breaks down and undergoes fuel combustion, deforestation and pollution are the
fermentation in their stomach, it releases methane. primary driver of the climate change observed in the
Though methane emissions are lower than CO2, they industrial era. Such activities cause the depletion of
are much more harmful. A kg of the methane gas has 21 ozone layer in the atmosphere which in turn decreases
times the effect of a kg of CO2. its ability to prevent the harmful ultraviolet radiation.
47. Which one of the following provides the 50. Which of the following are the primary causes
cryogenic indicator of climate change? of climate change?
(a) Ice core (b) Fossilized pollen 1. Excessive burning of fossil fuels
(c) Tree ring growth (d) Evapourate deposit 2. Exploding numbers of automobiles driven by
oil
UPPCS (Pre) (Re- Exam) G.S 2015
3. Increasing solar flares
Ans: (a) There are multiple cryogenic indicators that
4. Heavy deforestation
show the climate system is changing. These include:
decreasing arctic sea ice, record high surface air Select the correct answer using the code given
temperature, increased average number of hot days per below:
year, decreased average number of cold days per year, (a) 2 and 3 only
increasing intensity and frequency of extreme events (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(e.g. fires, floods), changing rainfall patterns, increasing (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
sea surface temperatures, rising sea levels, increasing (d) 1 and 4 only
ocean heat content, increasing ocean acidification, UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
changing southern ocean currents, melting ice caps and Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
glaciers. question.
48. Which one of the following is the most fragile 51. In the context of mitigating the impending
eco- system that will be first affected by global global warming due to anthropogenic
warming? emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the
(a) Arctic and Greenland ice sheet following can be the potential sites for carbon
(b) Amazon rain forest sequestration?
(c) Taiga 1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
(d) Indian monsoon 2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2010 3. Subterranean deep saline formations
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Select the correct answer using the code given friendly growth path, climate change adaptation, climate
below: change finance and capacity building and technology.
(a) 1 and 2 only To achieve the goals, Government of India is
(b) 3 only implementing the National Action Plan on Climate
(c) 1 and 3 only Change (NAPCC), released in 2008, which includes
(d) 1, 2 and 3 eight national missions being implemented by various
ministries in specific areas of solar energy, enhanced
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
energy efficiency, sustainable habitat, water, sustaining
Ans: (d) The process of transfer and secure storage of
the Himalayan ecosystem, green India, sustainable
atmospheric CO2 into other long lived carbon pools
agriculture and strategic knowledge for climate change.
such as oceans, forests, soils and other ecosystems that
Hence, nuclear power is not included in that.
would otherwise be emitted or remain in the atmosphere
is called ‘carbon sequestration’. Carbon dioxide 53. India’s first National Action Plan on Climate
sequestration can significantly reduce emissions from Change was released in-
large stationary sources of CO2, which include coal and (a) 2008 AD
natural gas fired power plants as well as certain industry (b) 2012 AD
types such as ethanol and natural gas processing plants. (c) 2014 AD
Subterranean deep saline formations are also a source of (d) 2015 AD
CO2. After capture, carbon dioxide is compressed and UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021
then transported to a site where it is injected UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2018, 2016
underground for permanent storage. Therefore (d) is the
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
correct answer.
question.
52. Which one of the following is not included in
Eight Mission under India’s National Action 54. Choose the correct Intended Nationally
Plan on Climate Change? Determined Contribution (INDC) in carbon
(a) Solar power emissions under the Paris Climate Change
(b) Afforestation Agreement set by India:
(c) Nuclear power (a) 33-35 Percent below 2005 levels by 2030
(d) Waste of energy conservation (b) 20-25 Percent below 1990 levels by 2020
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016 (c) 23-25 Percent below 2000 levels by 2020
Ans: (c) In the Pre-2020 period, India announced its (d) 15-20 Percent below 1990 levels by 2030
voluntary goal to reduce the emission intensity of its TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) by 20-25 per cent from Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
2005 levels by 2020. According to Biennial Update question.
Report submitted by Government of India to United 55. Which of the following is not listed under eight
Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change action of climate action plan of Government of
(UNFCCC) in 2016, India has achieved 12% reduction India?
in emission intensity between 2005 and 2010 and is on
(a) Solar energy
course to achieve the voluntary goal by 2020. Under
(b) Atomic energy
the Paris Agreement, India has submitted its Nationally
Determined Contribution (NDC) to the UNFCCC (c) Waste water conservation
outlining eight targets for 2021-2030 which includes: to (d) Afforestation
reduce emission intensity of its Gross Domestic Product UPUDA/LDA (Mains) G.S 2010
(GDP) by 33 to 35 percent by 2030 from 2005 level, to UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S 2017
achieve about 40 percent cumulative electric power Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
installed capacity from non-fossil fuel based energy question.
resources by 2030 with the help of transfer of
56. When was Jharkhand Action Plan on Climate
technology and low cost international finance including
Change published?
from Green Climate Fund (GCF), to create an additional
carbon sink of 2.5 to 3 billion tones of CO2 equivalent (a) 2013 (b) 2014
through additional forest and tree cover by 2030. The (c) 2015 (d) 2011
other targets pertain to sustainable lifestyles, climate Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
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Ans: (a) Jharkhand’s Climate Change Action Plan was Ans: (c) Carbon negative country means the greenhouse
envisaged with a vision of ‘achieving economic growth, gas pollution produced by the country is not only offset
poverty alleviation objectives and enhancing livelihood by its extensive forests but also in the negative due to
opportunities while ensuring environmental the generation and export of renewable energy. Bhutan
sustainability’. Supported by UNDP, the Jharkhand has stepped onto the international stage as the first
Government initiated the action plan development country to become carbon negative.
process in May 2011 with the formation of State
61. Which one of the following countries is the first
Steering Committee and State Advisory Group. 163
country in the world to propose a carbon tax
page draft report of Jharkhand Action Plan on Climate
for its people to the address global warming?
Change was published in the year 2013.
(a) Australia
57. According to Jharkhand Action Plan on
(b) Germany
Climate Change Report (2014), which is the
(c) Japan
most sensitive district?
(d) New Zealand
(a) E. Singhbhum
(b) Saraikela Kharaswan IAS (Pre) G.S 2006
(c) Ranchi Ans: (d) In 2005, New Zealand Government levied a
(d) Bokaro new tax for New Zealanders to pay extra money for
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 electricity, petrol and gas, therefore becomes the first
country in the world to introduce a carbon tax to address
Ans: (b) According to Jharkhand Action Plan on
global warming.
Climate Change Report (2014), Saraikela Kharaswan
district of Jharkhand was the most sensitive district with 62. Which of the following represents the average
the score of 0.78 on scale. increase in earth’s temperature during last
58. Which of the following countries was the century?
largest emitter of CO2 in 2015? (a) 0.6 degree Celsius
(a) China (b) U.S.A (b) 0.7 degree Celsius
(c) India (d) France (c) 0.8 degree Celsius
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018 (d) 0.9 degree Celsius
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2016 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
UPPCS Spl. (Pre) G.S. 2008 Ans: (c) According to a temperature analysis,
Ans : (a) As per the Global Emission report released by conducted by scientists at NASA’s Goddard Institute
World Economic Forum for the year 2019, just two for Space Studies, the average global temperature on
countries, China and the United States of America are earth has increased by about 0.8° Celsius (1.4°
responsible for more than 40% of the world’s CO2 Fahrenheit) since 1880.
emissions. China emits 27.2% of total global emission
63. Scientist of Manchester University have
followed by America (14.6%), India (6.8%) and Russia
recently suggested formation of brightened
(4.7%).
clouds over Pacific by geo engineering to
59. India’s sub-division in global green house gases prevent further increase in global warming.
is-
What is sprayed in the atmosphere to achieve
(a) 1% (b) 2% this?
(c) 3% (d) 5%
(a) Silver salts
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2005
(b) Iron filings
Ans : (d) In the year 2005, India’s sub-division in
(c) Sea water
global green house gases was 5%. In 2019, it was 6.8%.
(d) Gypsum
60. Which of the following is known as ‘carbon
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009
negative country’ in the world?
(a) Afghanistan Ans: (c) Scientist of Manchester University have
(b) Bahrain recently suggested formation of brightened clouds over
(c) Bhutan Pacific by geo engineering to prevent further increase in
(d) Nepal global warming by spraying sea water in the
UPPCS Lower (Pre) G.S 2015 atmosphere.
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06.
Ozone Layer Depletion
1. With reference to the cause of ozone layer 2. Ultra-violet radiation from Sun light causes the
depletion which of the following statement is reaction that produces which of the following?
incorrect? (a) CO (b) SO2
(a) A number of naturally occurring substances (c) O3 (d) Fluorides
like Hydrogen Oxide (HOx), Methane (CH4), UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
Hydrogen gas (H2), Nitrogen Oxides (NOx)
Ans : (c) Stratospheric ozone is formed naturally by
causes ozone layer depletion.
chemical reactions involving solar ultraviolet radiation
(b) Chlorine Monoxide (CIO); during volcanic
(sunlight) and oxygen molecules, which make up 21%
eruptions, significant amount of chlorine may
of the atmosphere. In the first step, solar ultraviolet
be released in the stratosphere which causes
radiation breaks apart one oxygen molecule (O2) to
ozone layer depletion
produce two oxygen atoms. In the second step, each of
(c) Tiny particulate matter in the stratosphere,
these highly reactive atoms combines with an oxygen
known as stratospheric aerosols, the only
molecule to produce an ozone molecule (O3). These
matter protect ozone layer depletion.
reactions occur continually whenever solar ultraviolet
(d) Any event, which release chlorine atoms into radiation is present in the stratosphere. As a result, the
the atmospheric, can cause severe ozone largest ozone production occurs in the tropical
destruction, because chlorine atoms in the stratosphere.
stratosphere can destroy ozone very
3. Ozone layer is mainly found in-
efficiently.
(a) Troposphere (b) Mesosphere
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
(c) Stratosphere (d) Exosphere
Ans. (a&c) : Ozone in the stratosphere, which protects
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2012
from harmful effects of ultraviolet radiation, is
depleting fast due to emission of greenhouse gases. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008
Greenhouse gases include water vapour, carbon dioxide, Ans: (c) The ozone layer is a layer in earth's
methane, nitrous oxide, ozone and some artificial atmosphere, which contains relatively high
chemicals such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs). Hence, concentrations of ozone (O3). Ozone layer thickness is
statement 1 is not correct but Commission has taken expressed in terms of Dobson units. Ozone is mainly
statement 1 as correct option but hydrogen is not a found in two regions of the earth's atmosphere. Most
green house gas. Some natural processes, such as large ozone (about 90%) resides in a layer that begins
volcanic eruptions can have an indirect effect on ozone between 10 and 17 kilometers above the earth's surface
levels. For example, Mt. Pinatubo's 1991 volcanic and extends up to about 50 kilometers. This region of
eruption did not increase stratospheric chlorine the atmosphere is called the stratosphere. The ozone in
concentrations, but it did produce large amounts of tiny this region is commonly known as the ozone layer. The
particles called aerosols (different from consumer remaining ozone is in the lower region of the
products also known as aerosols). These aerosols atmosphere, which is commonly called the troposphere.
increase chlorine's effectiveness for destroying ozone. According to the Environmental Protection Agency,
The aerosols in the stratosphere create a surface on exposure to ozone levels of greater than 70 parts per
which, CFC-based chlorine can destroy ozone. billion (ppb) for 8 hours or longer is unhealthy.
However, the effect from volcanoes is short-lived. 4. Which layer of the atmosphere is also called
Therefore, statement 2 is correct but statement 3 is not
ozonosphere?
correct. When chlorine and bromine atoms encounter
(a) Troposphere
ozone in the stratosphere, they destroy ozone molecules.
One chlorine atom can destroy over 100,000 ozone (b) Stratosphere
molecules before it is removed from the stratosphere. (c) Ionosphere
Ozone can be destroyed more quickly than it is (d) Mesosphere
naturally created. Therefore, statement 4 is correct. NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
Note- Commission has taken option (c) as the correct Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
answer. question.

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5. Ozone lies in which of the following layers of 11. Ozone layer prevents entry of which of the
the atmosphere? following rays in the atmosphere?
(a) Troposphere (a) UV-B only (b) UV-A only
(b) Thermosphere (c) UV-C only (d) Both UV-B and UV-C
(c) Exosphere Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
(d) Stratosphere Ans. (d) : The ozone layer acts as an invisible shield
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 and protects us from harmful ultraviolet (UV) radiation
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above from the sun. In particular, the ozone layer protects us
question. from the UV radiation, known as UV-B, which causes
6. Which of the following concentration of ozone sunburn. In addition to UV-B rays, the sun also emits
in ambient air is considered good? another from the ultraviolet light, UV-C. When UV-C
(a) upto 0.6 ppm rays reach high in the stratosphere, it is completely
(b) upto 0.18 ppm absorbed by oxygen molecules and never reaches the
(c) upto 0.15 ppm earth's surface. UV-C rays splits oxygen molecules into
(d) upto 0.20 ppm oxygen atoms. These single atoms then react with other
Himanchal PCS 2018 oxygen molecules to produce ozone. So, these reactions
increase the amount of ozone in the stratosphere.
Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. 12. Harmful ultra-violet radiation coming from the
sun can cause-
7. Ozone layer is above the earth crust around-
(a) Liver cancer
(a) 50 Km (b) 300 Km
(b) Brain cancer
(c) 2000 Km (d) 20 Km
(c) Oral cancer
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2012
(d) Dermal cancer
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
8. Which of the following unit is used to measure Ans: (d) Exposure to ultraviolet radiation due to
the thickness of ozone layer? depletion of ozone layer is a major risk factor for skin
(a) Knot (b) Dobson cancer also known as dermal cancer. Sunlight is the main
source of ultraviolet rays. People who get a lot of
(c) Pauz (b) Maxwell
ultraviolet exposure are at greater risk for skin cancer.
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2009
Even though ultraviolet rays make up only a very small
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above portion of the sun’s rays, they are the main cause of the
question. sun’s damaging effects on the skin. Ultraviolet rays
9. The radiation that is absorbed by ozone damage the DNA of skin cells. Skin cancers start when
present in the atmosphere is- this damage affects the DNA of genes that control skin
(a) Infrared (b) Visible cell growth.
(c) Ultraviolet (d) Microwave 13. In coming years, skin related disorders will
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014, 2013 become more common due to:
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006 (a) Excessive use of detergents
Ans: (c) The ozone layer in the stratosphere absorbs a (b) Water pollution
portion of the radiation (Ultraviolet light) from the sun, (c) Air pollution
preventing it from reaching the earth’s surface.
(d) Depletion of ozone layer
Ultraviolet light has been linked to many harmful
effects including skin cancers, cataracts and harm to Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2011
some crops and marine life. Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
10. Ozone layer in atmosphere- question.
(a) Produces rain 14. Consider the following statements:
(b) Produces pollution 1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere.
(c) Provides safety to life from ultraviolet 2. Ozone layer lies 55-75 km above the earth
radiation surface
(d) Produces oxygen in the atmosphere 3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2006 sun.
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on
question. the Earth.

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Which of the statements given above are (c) CFCs (d) PFCs
correct? Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 question.
UPSC CDS (Pre) G.S 2012 19. Ozone layer of upper atmosphere is being
Ans: (b) Most of the ozone (about 90%) resides in destroyed by which of the following?
stratosphere which is around 50 Km above the earth (a) Sulphur dioxide
surface. Therefore statement 1 is correct but statement 2 (b) Photo-chemical oxidants
is incorrect. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from (c) Chlorofluorocarbons
the sun which has been linked to many harmful effects, (d) Smog
including skin cancers, cataracts and harm to some
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2017
crops and marine life. Hence statement 3 is correct
while statement 4 is incorrect. Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
15. Which is responsible for ozone hole?
(a) CO2 (b) SO2 20. Ozone hole is caused by-
(a) Acetylene (b) Ethylene
(c) O2 (d) CFC
(c) Chlorofluorocarbons (d) Methane
(e) None of these
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
MPPSC (Pre) G.S 2016, 2015
Ans: (d) In 1984, British Antarctic survey scientists,
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014
Joseph Farman, Brian Gardiner and Jonathan Shanklin
discovered a recurring springtime Antarctic ozone Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2014
hole. Their paper was published in May 1985. The UPSC CDS (Pre) G.S 2013
ozone hole is really a reduction in concentrations of Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
ozone high above the earth in the stratosphere. The question.
ozone hole is defined geographically as the area 21. The pollutant to cause maximum damage to
wherein the total ozone amount is less than 220 Dobson ozone layer is-
units. Man-made chlorines, primarily (a) Hydrocarbon (b) Carbon dioxide
chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) contribute to the thinning (c) Nitrous oxide (d) Chlorofluorocarbons
of the ozone layer and allow larger quantities of harmful MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
ultraviolet rays to reach the earth.
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014
16. Ozone layer protects earth from ultraviolet Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2005
rays. Which of the following harms the ozone UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2009
layer?
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Burning of wood for cooking
question.
(b) CO2 used in soda water bottle
(c) Urea used as fertilizer 22. Ozone hole was detected in which of the
following year?
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons used in Air Conditioners
(a) 1958 (b) 1972
TSPSC Group-II Pre 2016
(c) 1985 (d) 1995
Ans. (d): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2017
question.
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
17. In your opinion which of the following is due to
question.
ozone hole ?
(a) Increased UV radiation 23. The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic
region has been a cause of concern. What could
(b) Acid rain
be the reason for the formation of this hole?
(c) Global warming
(a) Presence of prominent tropospheric
(d) Greenhouse effect turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019 (b) Presence of prominent polar front and
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above stratospheric clouds; and inflow of
question. chlorofluorocarbons
18. The pollutant that mainly causes hole in the (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric
ozone layer is clouds; and inflow of methane and
(a) Carbon Dioxide (b) Helium chlorofluorocarbons
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(d) Increased temperature at polar region due to 28. Who among the following had discovered
global warming ‘ozone hole’ over Tibetan Plateau in 2005?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2011 (a) M. Molina
Ans: (b) The severe depletion of stratospheric ozone in (b) Joseph Farman
late winter and early spring in the Antarctic is known as (c) G.W. Kent Moore
the ozone hole. The ozone hole first appeared over (d) Marcus Rex
Antarctica because atmospheric and chemical
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2013
conditions unique to this region increase the
effectiveness of ozone destruction by reactive Ans: (c) A research team led by G.W Kent Moore from
chlorofluorocarbons. In addition to an abundance of University of Toronto, Canada discovered in 2005 that a
these reactive gases, the formation of the Antarctic concentrated ring of ozone sits around the Tibetan
ozone hole requires temperatures low enough to form plateau, which rises 4,000 meters above the sea level.
polar stratospheric clouds, isolation from sunlight and Its ozone concentration is as high as levels in heavily
air in other stratospheric regions. Therefore (b) is the polluted cities.
correct answer. 29. Which of the following is not true about
24. Polar Stratospheric Clouds are associated with chlorofluorocarbon?
which of the following? (a) It is used as a refrigerant
(a) Ozone layer depletion (b) Is not responsible for greenhouse effect
(b) Greenhouse effect (c) It is responsible for reducing ozone in the
(c) Acid Rain stratosphere
(d) Artificial Rain (d) It is inactive in lower atmosphere
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2 UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2004
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans: (b) Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are a group of
question. compounds, which contain the elements chlorine,
25. Ozone holes are more pronounced at the fluorine and carbon. At room temperature, they are
(a) Equator usually colourless gases or liquids, which evaporate
(b) Tropic of Cancer easily. They are generally un-reactive and stable, non-
(c) Tropic of Capricorn toxic and non-flammable. The properties of
(d) Poles Chlorofluorocarbons make them useful for a variety of
UPSC CDS (Pre) G.S 2012 commercial and industrial purposes; as a propellant in
Ans: (d) Ozone holes are more pronounced at poles due aerosol sprays (now banned in the US and Europe), in
to the atmospheric and chemical conditions, unique to refrigeration and air-conditioning systems, in foams, in
this region, which increases the effectiveness of ozone cleaning solvents and in electrical components. Most
destruction by reactive halogen gases. Further, poles Chlorofluorocarbons have been released to the
provide very low temperature to form stratospheric atmosphere through the use of aerosols containing them
clouds, which in turn forms ozone holes. and as leakages from refrigeration equipment. Release
26. Formation of Ozone hole is maximum over— of Chlorofluorocarbons has serious environmental
(a) India (b) Africa consequences. Their long lifetime in the atmosphere
(c) Antarctica (d) Europe mean that some end up in the higher atmosphere
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 2008 (stratosphere) where they can destroy the ozone layer,
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above thus reducing the protection it offers the earth from the
question. sun's harmful ultraviolet rays. Chlorofluorocarbons also
contribute to global warming through the Greenhouse
27. Which one of the following team of scientist
first discovered ‘ozone hole’ over Antarctica? Effect.
(a) Russian team 30. Consider the following statements:
(b) German team Chlorofluorocarbons, known as ozone-
(c) American team depleting substances, are used
(d) British team 1. In the production of plastic foams
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2013 2. In the production of tubeless tires
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 3. In cleaning certain electronic components
question. 4. As pressurizing agents in aerosol cans

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Which of the statements given above is/are 33. Montreal Protocol is related with-
correct? (a) To protect the ozone layer depletion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) Global warming
(b) 4 only (c) Acid rain
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) Photochemical smog
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (e) None of these
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2015
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
question. Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2010
31. Which of the following substances is/are ozone Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
depleting? question.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 34. Kigali Agreement modifies which of these
below: previous multi lateral agreements:
1. Cholorofluoro Carbons (a) Kyoto Protocol
2. Halans (b) Montreal Protocol
3. Carbon tetrachloride (c) Bali Action plan
Codes : (d) Paris Agreement
(a) 1 only TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
(b) 1 and 2 only Ans. (b): Kigali Agreement modifies Montreal
(c) 2 and 3 only Protocol. Parties of Montreal Protocol met in Kigali
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (Capital of Nairobi) in 2016 to discuss further
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 amendments in Montreal Protocol. The principal
Ans: (d) Ozone depleting substances are manmade gases features of the Kigali Amendment provide for a gradual
that destroy ozone once the gases reach the ozone layer. phase down in the production and consumption of
The ozone layer sits in the upper atmosphere and reduces Hydrofluorocarbon (HFCs), major ozone-depleting
the amount of harmful ultra violet radiation that reaches substances, being phased out by the end of the century.
earth from the sun. Ozone depleting substances include: A unique feature of the protocol is a legally binding
chlorofluorocarbons, hydrochlorofluorocarbons, adjustment provision that enables the Parties to the
hydrobromoflurocarbons, halons, methyl bromide, Protocol to respond quickly to new scientific
carbon tetrachloride and methyl chloroform. Therefore information in a bid to accelerate the reductions
(d) is the correct answer. required on chemicals already covered by the Protocol.
32. Which one of the following is associated with These adjustments are then automatically applicable to
the issue of control and phasing out of the use all countries that ratified the Protocol.
of ozone-depleting substances? 35. World Ozone Day is celebrated on-
(a) Bretton Woods Conference (a) September, 16 (b) December, 1
(b) Montreal Protocol (c) March, 30 (d) April, 22
(c) Kyoto Protocol UPPCS (Pre) 2022, 2021, 2016, 2014
(d) Nagoya Protocol Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2018
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
Ans: (b) The Montreal Protocol is an international Ans: (a) World Ozone Day or International day for the
environmental agreement with universal ratification to preservation of the ozone layer is celebrated every year
protect the earth’s ozone layer by eliminating use of on September, 16. September 16 marks the anniversary
ozone depleting substances (ODS), which would of the Montreal Protocol on Substances that deplete the
otherwise allow increased ultraviolet radiation to reach ozone layer. The theme for World Ozone Day, 2022 is
the earth, resulting in higher incidence of skin cancers "Montreal Protocol @35: Global Cooperation
and eye cataracts, more-compromised immune systems Protecting Life on Earth". The theme recognizes the
and negative effects on watersheds, agricultural lands wider impact the Montreal Protocol has on climate
and forests. Adopted on 15 September 1987, the change and the need to act in collaboration, forge
Montreal Protocol is to date the only UN treaty ever, partnerships and develop global cooperation to address
that has been ratified by every country on earth, all 197 climate challenges and protect life on earth for future
UN Member States. generations.

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07.
Water Conservation
1. Which of the following process does not occur (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
in the water cycle? (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Condensation (b) Infiltration IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
(c) Evaporation (d) Composition Ans: (d) Reduced or zero-tillage systems are often
Himanchal PCS 2018 found to generate higher yields, reduce production
Ans : (d) The water cycle shows the continuous costs and reduce erosion and other forms of land
movement of water within the earth and atmosphere. It degradation with corresponding benefits for the natural
is a complex system that includes many different resource base. They improve environmental quality
processes. Liquid water evaporates into water vapour, owing to less Green House Gas emissions. It also
condenses to form clouds and precipitates back to earth ensures 25% saving in water. Therefore statement 1 is
in the form of rain and snow. Water in different phases correct. Infiltration refers to the entry of water into the
moves through the atmosphere (transportation). Liquid soil. A water infiltration problem reduces the quantity
water flows across land (runoff), into the ground of water put into the soil for later use by the crop.
(infiltration and percolation) and through the ground
Water infiltration can be controlled by adding a
(groundwater). Groundwater moves into plants (plant
chemical substance called gypsum to either soil or
uptake) and evapourates from plants into the
water. Gypsum helps in dissolution of the salt clay pan
atmosphere (transpiration). Solid ice and snow can turn
found in soils that hinder the percolation of water.
directly into gas (sublimation). The opposite can also
take place when water vapour becomes solid This increases the efficiency of irrigation as less water
(deposition). is needed to irrigate the same soil. Therefore statement
2 is also correct. More residues and less tillage on field
reduce the rate of evapouration of water from the soil.
Maintaining residue on the soil surface and doing less
tillage can significantly reduce the amount of
irrigation water needed to grow a crop. Hence
statement 3 is also correct.
3.
With reference to Eutrophication, which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
1. It decreases dissolved oxygen of water.
2. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of
a water body.
Select the correct answer from the codes given
below:
Codes:
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Ans. (c) : Eutrophication is the process which begins
Source- CBSE Book with the increased load of nutrients such as nitrogen,
2. Which of the following practices can help in phosphorus to estuaries and coastal waters which
water conservation in agriculture? depletes dissolved oxygen in water. Harmful algal
1. Reduced or zero tillage of the land bloom, dead zones and fish kill are the result of
2. Applying gypsum before irrigating the field eutrophication. The primary cause for eutrophication is
3. Allowing crop residue to remain in the field excess nitrogen and phosphorus which are produced
Select the correct answer using the code given from sources including fertilizer runoff and septic
below: system.
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4. Eutrophication of water body results from- 9. Which of the following gases is primarily
(a) Depletion of Oxygen responsible for eutrophication of water bodies?
(b) Enhanced growth of algae or algae blooms (a) Nitrogen (b) Sulpher dioxide
(c) High amounts of nitrogenous nutrients and (c) Carbon dioxide (d) All the above
orthophosphates Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2015
(d) Submersing idols in the water body Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2015 question.
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 10. Consider the following statements:
question. 1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as
5. What does eutrophication refers to? “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central
(a) Natural aging of a lake by nutrient enrichment Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
of its water 2. CGWA was formed under the Environment
(b) Natural aging of lake by nutrient deficit of its (Protection) Act.
water 3. India has the largest area under groundwater
(c) Natural expansion of a lake with time irrigation in the world.
(d) Natural increasing of the depth of a lake with Which of the statements given above is/are
time correct?
J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I) (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question. (c) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
6. With reference to Eutrophication, which of the IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
following statements is/are correct? Ans: (b) Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has
1. It is a phenomenon of nutrient enrichment of been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment
a water body (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control
2. It depletes dissolved oxygen of the water development and management of ground water
resources in India. Hence statement 2 is correct. Based
Select the correct answer using the codes given
on groundwater levels, areas across the country are split
below:
into three categories namely over exploited, critical and
Code:
semi critical. Over exploited refers to groundwater
(a) 1 only being extracted more than what’s recharged, critical
(b) 2 only where the groundwater taken out is 90-100% of what's
(c) Both 1 and 2 recharged and semi-critical where extraction rate is
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 70%-90%. Of the Central Groundwater Board’s, 6,584
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 groundwater assessment units across the country, 1034
Ans : (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (15%) are over-exploited, 253 (4%) are critical and 681
question. are semi-critical. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
7. Enrichment of water body by nutrients like India is the largest user of groundwater in the world. At
phosphorus and nitrogen is called 39 million hectares (67% of its total irrigation), India
has the world's largest groundwater irrigation system
(a) Eutrophication
(China with 19 mha is second, USA with 17 mha is
(b) Biomagnification
third). Hence, statement 3 is correct. In India, 85% of
(c) Salination the drinking water supplies are dependent on
(d) Stratification groundwater due to unreliable and inadequate municipal
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 water supply.
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question. 11. How many classes of water quality standards
8. In the lake ecology, nutrient enrichment are classified by Central Pollution Control
process is termed as: Board?
(a) Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) (a) 4 (b) 5
(b) Allelopathy (c) 6 (d) 7
(c) Bio-magnification UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
(d) Eutrophication Ans. (b) : The Central Pollution Control Board
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 (CPCB), a statutory organization was constituted in
Ans : (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above September, 1974 under the Water (Prevention and
question. Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, Central

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Pollution Control Board was entrusted with the powers 12. As per Bureau of India Standards (BIS) for
and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of drinking water acceptable limit for total
Pollution) Act, 1981. Principal functions of the Central hardness as CaCO3 is
Pollution Control Board are to promote cleanliness of (a) 100 mg/l (b) 200 mg/l
streams and wells in different areas of the States by (c) 300 mg/l (d) None of these
prevention, control and abatement of water pollution and Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020
to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or Ans. (b): As per Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS), for
abate air pollution in the country. Central Pollution drinking water, acceptable limit for total hardness as
Control Board has classified water into five quality CaCO3 is 200 mg/liter. Permissible limit for CaCO3 in
standards. the absence of alternate source is 600 mg/liter.
Designated Best Use Classification of Surface water Some other important data
Designated Quality Primary Water Ph → 6.5 - 8.5
best use Class Quality Criteria
TDS → 5000 mg/l
Drinking water Total coliform
source without organisms (MPN*/100 (Total Dissolved Solid)
conventional ml) shall be 50 or less 13. If National Water Mission is properly and
treatment but pH between 6.5 and completely implemented, how will it impact the
with A 8.5, country?
chlorination Dissolved Oxygen 6 1. Part of the water needs of urban areas will be
mg/l or more and met through recycling of wastewater.
Biochemical Oxygen
2. The water requirements of coastal cities with
Demand 2 mg! or less
inadequate alternative sources of water will
Outdoor Total coliform be met by adopting appropriate technologies
bathing organisms(MPN/100
that allow for the use of ocean water.
(organized) ml) shall be 500 or
less, 3. All the rivers of Himalayan origin will be
pH between 6.5 and linked to the rivers of peninsular India,
B 4. The expenses incurred by farmers for digging
8.5,
Dissolved Oxygen 5 bore-wells and for installing motors and
mg/l or more and pump-sets to draw groundwater will be
Biochemical Oxygen completely reimbursed by the Government.
Demand 3 mg or less Select the correct answer using the codes given
Drinking water Total coliform below:
source with organisms (MPN/100 (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
conventional ml) shall be 5000 or
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
treatment less,
C pH between 6 and 9, IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
Dissolved Oxygen 4 Ans: (b) The National Action Plan on Climate Change
mg/l or more and (NAPCC) describes the features of National Water
Biochemical Oxygen Mission as: a National Water Mission will be mounted
Demand 3 mg! or less to ensure integrated water resource management helping
Propagation of pH between 6.5 and to conserve water, minimize wastage and ensure more
wildlife and 8.5, equitable distribution both across and within States. The
fisheries Dissolved Oxygen 4 Mission will take into account the provisions of the
D
mg/l or more and National Water Policy and develop a framework to
Free ammonia 1.2 mg! optimize water use by increasing water use efficiency
or less by 20% through regulatory mechanisms with
Irrigation, pH between 6.0 and differential entitlements and pricing. It will seek to
industrial 8.5, ensure that a considerable share of the water needs of
cooling and Electrical conductivity urban areas are met through recycling of waste water
controlled less than 2250 micro
and ensuring that the water requirements of coastal
waste disposal E mhos/cm,
Sodium Absorption cities with inadequate alternative sources of water are
Ratio less than 26 and met through adoption of new and appropriate
Boron less than 2 technologies such as low temperature desalination
mg/L. technologies that allow for the use of ocean water.
*MPN: Most Probable Number Therefore statement 1 and 2 are correct while statement
(Source: CPCB, 1978) 3 and 4 are not part of National Water Mission.

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14. Which of the following are the key features of 15. In the year 2009, India set up following to clean
‘National Ganga River Basin Authority the Gangas:
(NGRBA)? (a) National Ganga Commission
1. River basin is the unit of planning and (b) Clean Ganga Authority
management.
(c) National Ganga River Basin Authority
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at
(d) National Mission for clean Ganga River
the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States (e) Ganga Seva Mission
through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
Chairman of NGRBA on rotation basis. UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2010
Select the correct answer using the code given Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
below. question.
(a) 1 and 2 only
16. Jharkhand State Water Policy 2011
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) Address adaptation capabilities of Institutions.
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) Reduces GHG emissions.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Reduces vulnerability towards natural hazard.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
(d) Confirms with climate change scenarios.
Ans: (a) On 20 February, 2009, the Government of
India has set up the National Ganga River Basin JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
Authority (NGRBA) as a collaborative institution of Ans. (c): The vision of Jharkhand water policy 2011, is
Central and State Governments under the Environment "To ensure the sustainable development and optimal use
(Protection) Act of 1986 for abatement of pollution of and management of the State’s water resources to
River Ganga. The objective of the authority is to ensure provide the greatest economic and social benefit for the
effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the people of the State of Jharkhand in a manner that
river Ganga by adopting a holistic approach with the maintains important ecological values within rivers and
river basin as the unit of planning. The Prime Minister adjoining lands". Therefore, Jharkhand water policy
is ex-officio chairperson of the National Ganga River
2011 aims to reduce vulnerability towards natural
Basin Authority and it has as its members; the Union
hazards.
Ministers concerned and the Chief Ministers of States
through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar 17. In which of the following year was constituted
Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal. Therefore, the ‘Central Ganga Authority’ by Government
statement 3 is incorrect. The National Ganga River of India?
Basin Authority including the Mission Directorate and (a) 1975 (b) 1982
other related matters of Ganga Rejuvenation was (c) 1985 (d) 1995
transferred and allotted to the Ministry of Water
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
Resources, River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation
with effect from 1st August, 2014. Further, National UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014
Ganga River Basin Authority has been reconstituted in Ans: (c) Ganga runs its course of over 2500 Kms from
September, 2014 with inclusion of additional four Gangotri in the Himalayas to Ganga Sagar in the Bay of
Central Ministries i.e. Union Minister of Rural Bengal through 52 cities and about 48 towns. In
Development, Union Minister for Drinking Water and December 1984, Department of Environment prepared
Sanitation, Union Minister for Shipping and Union an action plan for immediate reduction of pollution load
Minister of State, Tourism for better coordination to on the river Ganga. The Cabinet approved the Ganga
ensure effective abatement of pollution and rejuvenation Action Plan in April 1985 as a 100 per cent centrally
of the river Ganga. Key features of National Ganga
sponsored scheme. Its main objective of Ganga Action
River Basin Authority are: river basin will be the unit of
Plan was to improve the water quality of Ganga to
planning and management, it will spearhead river
acceptable slandered by preventing the pollution load
conservation efforts at the national level, the new
strategy will take into account the competing demands reaching to Ganga. To oversee the implementation of
on water and will seek to ensure minimum ecological the Ganga Action Plan and to lay down policies and
flows. STPs minimize the pollution load up to discharge programs, Government of India constituted the Central
standard of BOD of 30mg/liter requiring dilution to Ganga Authority in February 1985, renamed it as
achieve river water quality of 3mg/ liter. Therefore National River Conservation Authority in September
statement 1 and 2 are correct. 1995, under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister.

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18. The main purpose of 'Ganga Action Plan' 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid
project, launched in 1985, was particles, removes turbidity and improves the
(a) Build new dams over the Ganga river valley clarity of water.
(b) Utilize the river water for irrigation only Which of the statements given above is /are
(c) Make its water pollution free only correct?
(d) None of the above (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
question. Ans: (a) There are different types of water filtration
19. The Yamuna Action Plan was formally processes such as Reverse Osmosis Water Filtration
launched in- (RO), Ultra Filtration (UF) and Ultra Violet disinfection
(a) 1991 (b) 1992 (UV). For the ultraviolet filtration system, ultraviolet
(c) 1993 (d) 1994 light is passed on water to kill bacteria and other
microbes by attacking the DNA in cells. These filters
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016
remove pesticides by up to 99%. This filter is effective
Ans: (c) Yamuna Action Plan (YAP) for abatement of in removing all types of pathogens but it is not effective
pollution of river Yamuna is being implemented in a for removing suspended particles, chemicals, taste,
phased manner. Yamuna Action Plan, Phase-I started in smell or colour. Therefore, only statement 1 is correct.
April 1993. The completion period of the phase I
was up to the year 2000; however this phase was 23. Water Pollution of river is measured by-
extended up to 2003. The ongoing second phase of (a) Amount of Chlorine dissolved in water
Yamuna Action Plan was started in December 2004. (b) Amount of Ozone dissolved in water
20. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) (c) Amount of Nitrogen dissolved in water
Act came into force in- (d) Amount of Oxygen dissolved in water
(a) 1980 (b) 1981 UPPSC RO-ARO (Pre) 2021
(c) 1982 (d) 1983 Ans. (d) : Water pollution of river is measured by
Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I oxygen dissolved in water. The amount of dissolved
Ans. (b) : The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) oxygen is indicator of its water quality. Dissolved
Act came into force on 29th March, 1981 to provide for oxygen also indicates life of aquatic animal. Biological
the prevention, control and abatement of air pollution. Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures water pollution.
21. When was the Water Prevention and Control 24. Which one of the following sector has greater
of Pollution Act implemented? consumption share of water in India?
(a) 1990 (b) 1974 (a) Domestic Sector
(c) 1981 (d) None of the above (b) Mining Sector
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 (c) Industrial Sector
(d) Agricultural Sector
Ans : (b) Water Prevention and Control of Pollution
Act was implemented in the year 1974. Water JPSC (pre.) I 2021
Prevention and Control of Pollution Act aims to prevent Ans. (d) : Agriculture sector uses the highest amount of
and control water pollution and to maintain/restore water in India. India has 18% of world population,
wholesomeness of water by establishing Central and having 4% of world’s fresh water out of which, 80% is
State pollution control board to monitor and enforce the used in agriculture. Accoring to the Centre Water
regulations. The Board advises the Government on any Commission, in the last years, 78% of the total fresh
matter concerning the prevention and control of water water sources have been used for irrigation. Thus, the
pollution. The Government has power to restrict any agriculture sector in India is the largest user of water to
unit and to take samples of effluents and get them produce sufficient food, fodder and crops. Ground water
analyzed in Central or State laboratories. The Act was (63%), canal (24%), water tank (2%) and other sources
amended in 1988. (11%) also contribute to it as major sources of
22. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in irrigation.
the water purification systems? 25. Groud water utilization is the highest in the
1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganism state of
in water. (a) Gujarat (b) Punjab
2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the (c) Jammu and Kashmir (d) Maharashtra
water. TSPSC Group-II Pre 2016
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Ans. (b): Ground water plays a key role in meeting the Ans : (d) Desalination of seawater is possible by using
water needs of various user-sectors in India. The thermal desalination technology or membrane
Ground Water utilization is very high in the states of technology like Reverse Osmosis (RO). In the process
Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu. However, of reverse osmosis, water containing dissolved salt
there are states like Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Kerala, molecules is forced through a semi permeable
which utilize only a small proportion of their ground membrane (essentially a filter) in which the larger salt
water potential. molecules do not get through the membrane holes but
26. Which of the following gas is used for the the smaller water molecules do. Therefore reverse
purification of drinking water? osmosis is an effective means to desalinate saline water.
(a) Sulpher dioxide (b) Chlorine 30. Which of the following water management
(c) Fluorine (d) Carbon dioxide strategy is cost-effective in India?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013 (a) Improvement of the flush system
Ans: (b) Chlorination is the process of adding chlorine (b) Treatment and use of waste water
to drinking water to disinfect it and kill germs. A (c) Rain water harvesting
leading advantage of chlorination is that, it has proven (d) Recycling and re-use of water
effective against bacteria and viruses; however it cannot UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011
inactivate all microbes. Ans: (c) Rain water harvesting is a simple method by
27. Which of the following is/are used as a which rainfall is collected for future usage. India
disinfectant of water? receives a large amount of rain water every year during
(a) Ozone monsoon. Capturing the rainwater can help to recharge
(b) Chlorine dioxide local aquifers, reduce urban flooding and most
(c) Chloramine importantly ensure water availability in water-scarce
(d) All of the above zones. Therefore rain water harvesting is most cost
effective water management strategy in India.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
31. The World Water Conservation Day is
Ans: (d) Disinfection is an important step in ensuring
celebrated on:
that water is safe to drink. Water systems add
disinfectants to destroy microorganisms that can cause (a) 28th February
disease in humans. Primary methods of disinfection are (b) 22nd March
chlorination, chloramines, ozone, and ultraviolet light. (c) 5th June
Other disinfection methods include chlorine dioxide, (d) 11th May
potassium permanganate and nanofiltration. Therefore UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2011
(d) is the correct answer. Ans: (b) International World Water Day is celebrated
28. The presence of high coliform counts in water annually on 22 March as a means of focusing attention
indicates: on the importance of freshwater and advocating for the
(a) Decreased biological oxygen demand sustainable management of freshwater resources. The
(b) Phosphorus contamination theme for World Water Day 2022 is “Groundwater:
(c) Hydrocarbon contamination making the invisible visible”.
(d) Contamination by human wastes 32. Which of the following environmentalists is
TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017 known by the name of ‘Jal Purush’?
Ans. (d): Coliforms are bacteria that are always present (a) Sunderlal Bahuguna
in the digestive tracts of animals including humans and (b) Rajendra Singh
are found in their wastes. They are also found in plant (c) B. Venkateshwarlu
and soil material. Most coliform bacteria do not cause (d) Salim Ali
disease. However, some rare strains of E. coli can cause MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
serious illness.
Ans: (b) Rajendra Singh, known as the ‘Jal Purush’ or
29. By which process the sea water can be ‘Waterman of India’, has been awarded with Stockholm
converted into fresh water? Water Prize in 2015 and Magsaysay award in 2001,
(a) Inflammation what is known as the ‘Nobel Prize for water’ for his
(b) Boiling efforts, which brought water to 1, 000 villages in the
(c) Electric separation arid state of Rajasthan by using a modern version of
(d) Reverse osmosis ancient Indian techniques of rainwater harvesting,
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2008 which are cheap and simple.

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08.
Conservation of Forest and
Wild Life
1. The minimum land area recommended for Checking soil erosion and denudation in the
forest cover to maintain proper ecological catchment areas of rivers, lakes, reservoirs in the
balance in India is- interest of soil and water conservation, for
(a) 25% (b) 33% mitigating food and droughts and for the retardation
(c) 43% (d) 53% of siltation of reservoirs.
IAS (Pre) G.S 1999 Checking the extension of sand-dunes in the desert
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014, 2002 areas of Rajasthan and along the coastal tracts.
Increasingly substantially the forests/tree cover in
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2009
the country through massive afforestation and
Ans: (b) National Forest Policy of India, 1988 social forestry programs, especially on all denuded,
envisages a goal of achieving 33% of geographical area degraded and unproductive lands.
of the country under forest and tree cover. The national Meeting the requirements of fuel wood, fodder,
goal should be to have a minimum of one-third of the minor forest produce and small timber of the rural
total land area of the country under forest or tree cover. and tribal population.
In the hills and in mountainous regions, the aim should Increasing the productivity of forests to meet
be to maintain two-third of the area under such cover in essential national needs.
order to prevent erosion and land degradation and to Encouraging efficient utilization of forests produce
ensure the stability of the fragile eco-system. and maximizing substitution of wood.
2. Consider the following programs: Creating a massive people's movement with the
I. Afforestation and development of wastelands. involvement of women, for achieving these
II. Reforestation and replantation in existing objectives and to minimize pressure on existing
forests. forests.
III. Encouraging the wood substitutes and 3. The National Forest Policy was launched in:
supplying other types of fuel. (a) 1988 (b) 1990
IV. Promotion of wide use of insecticides and (c) 1994 (d) 1996
pesticides to restrict the loss of forest area
Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
from degradation caused by pests and insects.
The National Forest Policy of 1988 includes Ans : (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) II and IV question.
(c) I, III and IV (d) I, II and III 4. The Government of India enacted the Forest
IAS (Pre) G.S 1999 Conservation Act in the year:
Ans: (d) The principal aim of National Forest Policy, (a) 1976 (b) 1980
1988 is to ensure environment stability and (c) 1983 (d) 1988
maintenance of ecological balance including UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
atmospheric equilibrium, which is vital for sustenance UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2013
of all life forms, human, animal and plant.
Ans: (b) The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 came
The basic objectives of the National Forest Policy
are the following- into force on 25 October, 1980.
Maintenance of environmental stability through 5. Which of the following has not been
preservation and, where necessary, restoration of categorized as forest under the National Forest
the ecological balance that has been adversely Policy (1952)?
disturbed by serious depletion of the forests of the (a) National Forests (b) National Parks
country. (c) Protected Forests (d) Village Forests
Conserving the natural heritage of the country by UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016
preserving the remaining natural forests with the
vast variety of flora and fauna which represent the Ans: (b) National Forest Policy, 1952, classifies forest
remarkable biological diversity and genetic in to four categories namely: Protected Forests, National
resources of the country. Forests, Village Forests and Tree-Lands.

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6. India awarded Certificate of Commendation by 8. As per the 'Indian State of Forest Report-2021'
CITES for its effort to combat illegal wildlife which of the following States has registered
trade during 2017 for which of the following maximum increase in the forest cover during
operations? the last two years?
(a) Operation Thunderbird (a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Assam
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Kerala
(b) Operation Save Kurma
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
(c) Operation Save a Life
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(d) Operation Save Tigers
question.
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020
9. According to ‘India, State of Forest Report
Ans. (b): India has been awarded a certificate of 2017’ what percentage of total geographical
commendation for its effort to combat illegal wildlife area of the country is under forest cover?
trade by the Convention on International Trade in (a) 21.04 (b) 21.54
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES). (c) 20.54 (d) 20.04
Currently 183 countries are signatory to the CITES. UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
The award was given to Wildlife Crime Control Bureau MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010
(WCCB) for its efforts in conducting and coordinating a Ans : (*) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
species-specific wildlife enforcement operation, question.
codenamed "Operation Save Kurma". The operation 10. The percentage of forest cover concerning the
was conducted to combat the proliferating illegal trade total geographical area is highest in-
of live turtles and its parts from the country to (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Meghalaya
destinations abroad. During the operation conducted (c) Mizoram (d) Nagaland
from December 15, 2016 to January 30, 2017, UPRO/ ARO (Pre) G.S 2016
approximately 16,000 live turtles and tortoises were Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2014
seized and released back into the wild. UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2012
7. Which of the following States of India has RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2003
largest forest cover? BPSC (Pre) G.S 2001
(a) Maharashtra UPPCS (Pre) G.S 1991
(b) Chhattisgarh Ans : (*)Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Nagaland question.
(d) Arunachal Pradesh 11. Which of the following State has the largest
Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020 area under forest?
(a) Kerala (b) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. (d): According to Forest Survey Report 2021:
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Rajasthan
Area-wise, Madhya Pradesh has the largest forest cover
BPSC (Pre) G.S 2017
in India followed by Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010
Odisha and Maharashtra. RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2003
In terms of forest cover as a percentage of total Uttarakhand (Pre) G.S 2003
geographical area, the top five States are. MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2000
Mizoram (85.53%) Ans : (*) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Arunachal Pradesh (79.33%) question.
Meghalaya (76.00%) 12. In India, the State with the largest area under
Manipur (74.34%) very dense forest is-
Nagaland (73.90 %) (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh
• The total forest and tree cover of India is 80.90 (c) Maharashtra (d) Orissa
million hectares, which is 24.62% of the UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2011
geographical area of the country. As compared to the UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008
assessment of 2019, there is an increase of 2,261 Sq Ans : (a) Very Dense Forest means all lands with tree
Km in the total forest and tree cover of the country. canopy density of 70 percent and above. As per Indian
State of forest Report, 2021, area covered by very dense
• Maximum increase in forest cover witnessed in forest is 99,779 sq km (3.04%). Arunachal Pradesh
Andhra Pradesh (647 Sq Km) followed by Telangana (21,058 Sq Km) has largest area under very dense forest
(632 Sq Km), Odisha (537 Sq Km) Karnataka (155 cover followed by Maharashtra (8,734 Sq Km) and
Sq km) and Jharkhand (110 Sq Km). Madhya Pradesh (6,665).
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13. Tree cover is maximum in- 14. Which of the following countries has passed
(a) East Deccan (b) Northern Plains resolution to maintain forest on 70% land of its
(c) West Coast (d) East Coast geographical area?
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2009 (a) Maldives (b) Nepal
Ans: (c) Tree cover is defined as all tree patches of size (c) Bhutan (d) Afghanistan
less than 1 ha occurring outside the recorded forest area.
Tree cover includes trees in all formations including UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016
scattered trees. As per Indian State of forest Report, Ans: (c) As mandated in its Constitution, Bhutan
2021, the tree cover of the country is estimated to be preserves (at all times) 60 percent of its land under
95,748 Sq Km, which is 2.91% of the geographical forest cover. The total area of Bhutan is under forest,
area. There is an increase of 721 Sq Km in the tree
which is 72.5 % of the geographical area of the
cover of India as compared to assessment of 2019.
Maharashtra (12,108 Sq Km) has the highest tree cover country.
in India followed by Rajasthan (8,733 Sq Km). Hence, 15. The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that
tree cover is maximum in west coast. mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge
Other salient features of India State of Forest against coastal calamities. How do mangroves
Report, 2021 function as a safety hedge?
• For the first time, Assessment of Forest Cover in (a) The mangrove swamps separate the human
Tiger Reserves and Lion conservation areas of settlements from the sea by a wide zone in
India has been done.
which people neither live nor venture out.
• Assessment of Above Ground Biomass (AGB)
estimation using Synthetic Aperture Radar data has (b) The mangroves provide both food and
been done for the first time. medicines which people are in need of any
• For the first time, mapping of climate change natural disaster.
Hotspots in Indian forests has been done. (c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense
• Forest cover includes all lands more than one canopies and serve as an excellent shelter
hectare in area with tree canopy density of more
during a cyclone or tsunami.
than 10 percent.
• The current assessment shows that mangrove cover (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by
in India is 4,992 Sq Km, which is 0.15% of the storms and tides because of their extensive
country’s total geographical area. There has been a roots.
net increase of 17 sq km in the mangrove cover of IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
India as compared to 2019 assessment. The States
that show significant gain in mangrove cover are Ans: (d) Mangroves are defined as assemblages of salt
Odisha (8 Sq Km) and Maharashtra (4 Sq Km). tolerant trees and shrubs that grow in the intertidal
West Bengal (2,114 Sq Km) has highest mangrove regions of the tropical and subtropical coastlines. They
cover in India followed by Gujarat (1,175 Sq Km) grow luxuriantly in the places where freshwater mixes
and Andaman and Nicobar Islands (616 Sq Km). with seawater and where sediment is composed of
South 24 Parganas district of West Bengal alone accumulated deposits of mud. Many mangrove forests
accounts for 41.74% mangrove cover of India.
can be recognized by their dense tangle of prop roots
• The Tiger Reserves occupies 2.27% of the India's
geographical area. that make the trees appear to be standing on stilts
• Madhya Pradesh has maximum bamboo bearing above the water. This tangle of roots allows the trees
area (1.84 m ha) followed by Arunachal Pradesh to handle the daily rise and fall of tides, which means
(1.57 m ha), Maharashtra (1.35 m ha) and Odisha that most mangroves get flooded at least twice per
(1.12 m ha). day. The roots also slow the movement of tidal
• As compared to ISFR 2019 report, total bamboo waters, causing sediments to settle out of the water
bearing area in India has decreased by 1.06 m ha.
and build up the muddy bottom. Mangrove wetland is
• For the first time, the extent of Tree Outside Forest
(TOF) in India has been assessed at 29.38 m ha, a multiple use ecosystem. It is considered as a best
which is 8.94% of the total geographical area of form of coastal bio shield since it plays a critical role
India. in reducing the impact of cyclonic storms, hurricanes
• Arunachal Pradesh has maximum carbon stock and tsunami on human lives and properties. It also
followed by Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh and avoids or reduces soil erosion. It enhances fishery
Maharashtra. Forest carbon stock is the amount of productivity of the adjacent coastal waters by acting as
carbon that has been sequestered from the
a nursery ground for commercially important fish,
atmosphere and is now stored within the forest
ecosystem, mainly within living biomass and soil prawn and crabs and supplying organic and inorganic
and to a lesser extent in dead wood and litter. nutrients. Therefore (d) is the correct answer.

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16. Consider the following statements about Ans: (c) According to mangrove cover assessment
Bhitarkanika Mangroves: report under India State Forest Report, 2021, West
1. It is located in the deltaic region of Bengal (2,114 Sq Km) has highest mangrove cover in
Vansadhara and Subarnarekha rivers. India followed by Gujarat (1,175 Sq Km) and
2. It lies in the State of West Bengal. Andaman and Nicobar Islands (616 Sq Km).
Of these: 20. Which of the following plant, grown in non-
(a) Only 1 is correct forest area has been omitted from the
definition of trees in the Indian Forest
(b) Only 2 is correct (amendment) Act 2017?
(c) 1 and 2 both are correct (a) Palm (b) Canes
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct (c) Bamboo (d) Banana
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016 RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018
Ans: (d) Bhitarkanika is a unique habitat of mangrove Ans : (c) Union Government has promulgated the
forests, criss-crossed with numerous creeks and mud Indian Forest (Amendment) Act, 2017 to exempt
flats, located in Kendrapara district of Orissa. bamboo grown in non-forest areas from definition of
Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. One of the largest tree, thereby dispensing with the requirement of
Mangrove eco systems in India, Bhitarkanika is home permit for its economic use. Bamboo, though
to diverse flora and fauna. Bhitarkanika is located in taxonomically a grass, was legally defined as a tree
the estuary of Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra and under the Indian Forest Act, 1927. Before this
Mahanadi river systems. Therefore, statement 1 is also amendment, the felling and transit of bamboo grown
incorrect. on forest as well non-forest land attracted the
provisions of the Indian Forest Act, 1927. This was a
17. Which one of the following regions of India has major impediment for bamboo cultivation by farmers
a combination of mangrove forest, evergreen on non-forest land. Major objective of the amendment
forest and deciduous forest? is to promote cultivation of bamboo in non-forest
(a) North Coastal Andhra Pradesh areas to achieve twin objectives of increasing the
(b) South-West Bengal income of farmers and also increasing the green cover
(c) Southern Saurashtra of the country.
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Island 21. As part of New Forest Inventory Design
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 implemented in 2016, the revisit time has been
reduced to:-
Ans: (d) Mangrove forest, evergreen forest and
(a) 5 years (b) 2 years
deciduous forest are all found at Andaman and
(c) 6 months (d) 10 years
Nicobar Island. According to mangrove cover
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2017
assessment report under India State Forest Report,
2021, total mangrove cover is 4,992 Sq Km, which is Ans : (a) As per the new Forest Inventory Design
implemented in 2016, Forest Survey of India (FSI) has
0.15% of the country’s total geographical area.
devised a new grid based assessment of the national
18. Which one of the following has a protected forest inventory which will provide the data about the
mangrove region? status of forests of the country in a span of five years
(a) Eastern Ghats (b) Western Ghats as compared to 20 years time span previously. In order
(c) Goa (d) Chandra Tal to facilitate this, forest across the country has been
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016 divided into grids with each grid measuring around 0.1
hectare area.
Ans: (c) 178 hectare of the mangrove area at Chorao,
Goa has been declared as Reserved Forest under the 22. Which of the following forests is known as the
Indian Forest Act, 1927 to protect and conserve the “lungs of the planet earth”?
mangrove forests. Subsequently, in 1988, this area was (a) Rainforests of North- East India
(b) Taiga forest
declared a bird sanctuary under the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972. (c) Tundra forest
(d) Amazon rain forest
19. Second largest mangrove area in India is found
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2013
along the coast of-
Ans: (d) The Amazon in South America is the largest,
(a) Andaman and Nicobar
most diverse tropical rainforest on earth. It is home to
(b) Andhra Pradesh more than half of the world's species of plants and
(c) Gujarat animals. Tropical rainforests are often called the
(d) Orissa ‘lungs of the planet earth’ because they generally draw
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008 in carbon dioxide and breathe out oxygen.
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23. In which of the following ecosystems the species 26. Which one of the following has an evergreen
diversity is relatively higher? forest?
(a) Deep sea (b) Tropical rain forest (a) Malwa Plateau
(c) Coral reefs (d) Desert (b) Eastern Ghats
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018 (c) Western Ghats
Ans : (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (d) Chotanagpur Plateau
question. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
24. Which of the following is/are unique Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
characteristic/characteristics of equatorial question.
forests?
27. In India, in which one of the following types of
1. Presence of tall closely set trees with crowns
forests is teak a dominant tree species?
forming a continuous canopy
(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest
2. Co-existence of a large number of species
(b) Tropical rain forest
3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Tropical thorn scrub forest
below: (d) Temperate forest with grasslands
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans: (a) Tropical moist deciduous forests are the
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 monsoon forests found in the large part of India,
Ans: (d) The equatorial forest region is found on both northern Australia and in Central America. These
sides of the equator and falls in the Torrid Zone. The regions experience seasonal changes. Trees shed their
climate is hot and wet in this region as it receives leaves in the dry season to conserve water. The
direct rays of sun. Throughout the year, water hardwood trees found in these forests are sal, teak,
evaporates from plants, ponds, rivers etc. Tall, closely neem and shisham, which are extremely useful for
set trees are characteristics of equatorial forest. The making furniture, transport and constructional
upper portion of canopy often supports rich epiphytes materials.
(a plant that grows on other plant). Many animals such 28. In which of the following continents, the
as monkey, chimpanzees, flying box, flying squirrels, tropical deciduous forests are most extensive?
crocodile alligators, snakes, turtles, anacondas, (a) Africa (b) Asia
macaws, parrots and hummingbirds are found in (c) Australia (d) South America
equatorial forest region. Therefore (d) is the correct
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2014
answer.
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
25. Consider the following States:
question.
1. Arunachal Pradesh
29. The greatest diversity of plants and animals is
2. Himachal Pradesh
characteristic of:
3. Mizoram
(a) Temperate deciduous forest
In which of the following states do “Tropical
(b) Tropical moist forest
Wet Evergreen Forests” occur?
(c) Savana
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Temperate grassland
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2013
Ans: (c) Tropical wet evergreen forests are found in Ans: (b) Generally found in large, discontinuous
warm and humid areas with an annual precipitation of patches centered on the equatorial belt and between
over 200 cm and mean annual temperature above the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, tropical forests
220C. Tropical evergreen forests are well stratified are characterized by low variability in annual
with layers closer to the ground and are covered with temperature and high levels of rainfall. Forest
shrubs and creepers with short structured trees composition is dominated by semi-evergreen and
followed by tall variety of trees. In these forests, trees evergreen deciduous tree species. These trees number
reach great heights up to 60 m or above. In India, these in the thousands and contribute to the highest levels of
forests are found in the western slope of the Western species diversity in any terrestrial major habitat type in
Ghats, hills of the Northeastern region and the world. These forests are home to more species than
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Therefore, (c) is the any other terrestrial ecosystem. Therefore (b) is the
correct answer. correct answer.

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30. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes 1. Oak

seen in the news, consider the following 2. Rhododendron
statements: 3. Sandalwood
1. It is a tree species found in a part of South Select the correct answer using the code given
India. below
2. It is one of the most important trees in the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
tropical rain forest areas of South India. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
correct? Ans: (a) The Himalayas stretches over a distance of
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only about 2500 Kms from west to east. Its average width
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 along the entire longitudinal extension ranges from
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016 100 - 400 km. Himalayan vegetation varies according
Ans: (a) Red Sanders tree species is endemic to India to both altitude and climatic conditions. They range
and has a highly restrictive distribution in tropical rain from the tropical deciduous forests in the foothills to
forest of Eastern Ghats of South India (Andhra temperate forests in the middle altitudes. Higher up,
Pradesh, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu). Therefore, both coniferous, sub-alpine and alpine forests spring up.
statement 1 and 2 are correct. These finally give way to alpine grasslands and high
altitude meadows. Tropical deciduous forests are
31. Consider the following statements:
found in regions of slightly lower rainfall. Forests of
1. The Taxus tree naturally found in the
teak and sal are common in areas of deciduous
Himalayas. vegetation. Temperate forests are mainly found in the
2. The Taxus tree is listed in the Red Data Book. middle altitudes of the Himalayas. They confine
3. A drug called "taxol" is obtained from Taxus deodar, blue pine, fir and spruce. Sub-alpine forests
tree is effective against Parkinson's disease. are found near the snow line across all over the
Which of the statements given above is/are Himalayas and even in the cold desert regions. Birch
correct? forests join the fir forests at an elevation of above
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only 3000m. Low rhododendron evergreen forests can also
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 be found alongside the birch forests. Sandalwood
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010 distribution in India is spread along eight States
Ans : (d) Taxus wallichiana Zucc or Himalayan yew namely Tamil Nadu, Karnataka (maximum area),
belongs to the family Taxaceae and is found in India Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, Madhya,
as an evergreen tree in the temperate Himalayas in the Maharashtra and Rajasthan. Therefore Sandalwood is
hills of Meghalaya and Manipur at an altitude of 1500 not found in Himalayan region. Hence (a) is the
meters. It has been used by the native populations for correct answer.
treating common cold, cough, fever and pain. It 34. Government of India encourages the
received attention recently as its leaves and bark were cultivation of 'sea buckthorn'. What is the
found to be the prime source of taxol, a potent importance of this plant?
anticancer drug. Taxol is also been used to treat 1. It helps in controlling soil erosion and in
Parkinson’s disease. In 2011, IUCN (International preventing desertification.
Union for Conservation of Nature) listed Taxus tree in 2. It is a rich source of biodiesel.
its list of endangered species. Therefore, all the 3. It has nutritional value and is well-adapted to
statements are correct. live in cold areas of high altitudes.
32. In Uttarakhand, Oak-Rhododendron are 4. Its timber is of great commercial value.
characteristic plants of- Which of the statements given above is /are
(a) Sub-tropical forest (b) Sub-alpine forest correct?
(c) Temperate forest (d) All of the above (a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (c) The temperate zone of Uttarakhand is rich in IAS (Pre) G.S 2012
flora and fauna. Between 2,000 meter to 3,000 meter, Ans: (c) Sea buckthorn (Hippophae spp.) is a
forests of deodar, oak and rhododendron are found. deciduous shrub or medium sized tree belongs to the
The wood from oak and rhododendron is utilized for family "Elaeagnaceae", which grow naturally at higher
agricultural implements while their leaves serve as altitudes of temperate zone of Asia and Europe. In
cattle fodder. Deodar is used for building temples. India, Sea buckthorn is generally found in higher hills
33. If you travel through the Himalayas, you are of Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand and Jammu and
Iikely to see which of the following plants Kashmir. In Himachal Pradesh, the species grows
naturally growing there? mainly in the district of Lahaul-Spiti, a cold desert
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area adjoining Tibet in eastern region and Ladakh in Baigas under the Forest Rights Act of 2006. Habitat
north. In Uttarakhand, it is grown wild on sandy loam rights go beyond the individual and community rights
soils, on river banks and steep slope of hills between conferred under the Act. They aim to protect not just
2200 to 4000 m. It has an ability to fix atmospheric land rights and livelihoods of the people living in
nitrogen through Frankia symbiosis, thus helps in soil forests but encompass their whole culture and way of
amelioration. It develops extensive root system in a life. The Baiga community is one of the 75
short period of time, therefore it is planted for soil particularly vulnerable tribal groups who are eligible
conservation and erosion, strengthen sandy slopes. Sea to get habitat rights under the Scheduled Tribes and
buckthorn (SBT) is known to possess unique other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
characteristics, including robust growth and higher Forest Rights) Act, also known as the Forest Rights
survival under limited resource environments and Act, 2006. Hence statement 2 is also correct. Ministry
adverse climatic conditions. This is why Sea of Tribal Affairs decides and declares Habitat Rights
buckthorn is called as ‘A wonder plant of the for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part
Himalayas’. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The uses of of India. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Sea buckthorn are manifold and include its use as 37. In a particular region in India, the local people
fence, fuel, fodder, fruit and medicines. The fruits of train the roots of living tree into robust bridges
Sea buckthorn are considered as a storehouse for across the streams. As the time passes these
several valuable vitamins, minerals and specialty bio- bridges become stronger. These unique ‘Living
molecules, which provide unique opportunity to use
Root Bridges’ are found in
this plant in nutraceutical and pharmaceutical
(a) Meghalaya
industries. Hence, statement 3 is also correct.
(b) Himachal Pradesh
35. Sea buckthorn has a huge global market
potential. The berries of this plant are rich in (c) Jharkhand
vitamins and nutrients. Genghis Khan used (d) Tamil Nadu
them to improve stamina of his troops. Russian IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
cosmonauts used its oil to combat radiation. Ans: (a) During monsoon season in Northeast India,
Where is this plant found in India? rainwater gushes through the emerald valleys and deep
(a) Nagaland (b) Ladakh gorges of Meghalaya. The local Khasi tribes devised
(c) Kodaikanal (d) Pondicherry an ingenious way to traverse the turbulent waterways
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2004 and link isolated villages: living root bridges, locally
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above known as ‘Jing kieng jri’. Tree trunks are planted on
question. each side of the bank to create a sturdy foundation and
36. Consider the following statements: over the course of 15 to 30 years, the Khasi slowly
1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is thread Ficus elastica roots across a temporary bamboo
incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006 scaffolding to connect the gap. A combination of
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been humidity and foot traffic help compact the soil over
given Habitat Rights time and the tangle of roots grows thick and strong.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Mature bridges stretch 15 to 250 feet over deep rivers
Climate Change officially decides and and gorges and can bear impressive loads up to 35
declares Habitat Rights for primitive and people at a time.
Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India 38. Every year, a month long ecologically
Which of the statements given above is/are important campaign/festival is held during
correct? which certain communities/ tribes plant
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only saplings of fruit-bearing trees. Which of the
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 following are such communities/tribes?
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018 (a) Bhutia and Lepcha
Ans : (a) Critical wildlife habitats (CWH) are defined (b) Gond and Korku
under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, as the “areas of (c) lrula and Toda
national parks and sanctuaries where it has been (d) Sahariya and Agariya
specifically and clearly established, case by case, on
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
the basis of scientific and objective criteria, that such
areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the Ans: (b) Every monsoon, the Gond and Korku tribes
purposes of wildlife conservation”. Hence, statement 1 of Madhya Pradesh’s Betul and Harda districts
is correct. The Baigas in Dindori district of Madhya celebrate ‘Hari Jiroti’. It is a month-long festival of
Pradesh lives in the dense sal forests of Maikal Hills. greenery during which the tribals plant saplings of
For the first time, habitat rights have been given to the fruit-bearing trees.

Environment & Ecology 91 YCT

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39. Phytotron is a facility to- 42. Red data book contains data of-
(a) Grow plants under disease-free conditions (a) All existing plant and animal species
(b) Conserve endangered species of plants (b) Rare and endangered species
(c) Grow plants under controlled conditions (c) Economically important species
(d) Induce mutations (d) Extinct species
I.A.S. (Pre) G.S. 2000 Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans : (c) The Phytotron provides all services
question.
necessary to conduct many types of controlled
environment experiments, from the simplest to the 43. “Red Data Book” is published by
most complex. The Phytotron staff performs all (a) USEPA (b) IUCN
preparation, configuration and maintenance of the (c) WWF (d) IG-BP
growth chambers or greenhouse units. Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2017
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
40. The first country of the world which banned
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the cutting down of trees is-
question.
(a) New Zealand (b) Germany
44. Endangered species are listed in-
(c) Norway (d) Polland
(a) Dead Stock Book (b) Red Data Book
UPPSC Asst. Forest Conservator Exam. 2015 (c) Live Stock Book (d) None of the above
Ans : (c) Norway has become the first country to stop UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
clear-cutting of trees, a huge step toward curbing Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
global deforestation. question.
41. The ‘Red Data Book’ published by the 45. ‘Red Data Book’ is concerned with-
international union for conservation of nature (a) Facts about biodiversity
and natural resources (IUCN) contains list of- (b) Organism and animal facing the danger of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in extinction
the biodiversity hotspot (c) Plantation
2. Threatened plant and animal species (d) Illegal hunting of forest animals by smugglers
3. Protected sites for conservation of natural and UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2002
natural resources in various countries Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Select the correct answer using the codes given question.
below- 46. Which of the following species on earth is
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only known as ‘Living fossil’ surviving for more
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only than 150 billion years?
IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2011 (a) Olive Ridley Turtles (b) Loggerheads
(c) Crane (d) Keneps Ridley
Manipur PSC - 2013
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020
Ans : (b) The International Union for Conservation of
Ans. (a): Olive Ridley Turtles is the species known as
Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of threatened species was living fossil surviving for more than 150 billion years
established in 1964. It has evolved to become the on earth. Olive ridley turtles are found worldwide and
world’s most comprehensive information source on listed under the Endangered Species Act. Their breeding
the global conservation status of animal, fungi and colony populations on the Pacific Coast of Mexico is
plant species. The IUCN Red List is a critical indicator listed as endangered, all others are listed as threatened.
of the health of the world’s biodiversity. It provides 47. Endemic species are
information about range, population size, habitat and (a) Species localized in river basin
ecology, use, trade, threats and conservation actions (b) Species localized in mountains
that will help inform necessary conservation decisions. (c) Species localized in specific region
The IUCN Red List categories the criteria, which is (d) Cosmopolitan in distribution
intended to be an easily and widely understood system Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I
for classifying species at high risk of global extinction. Ans. (c) : Endemic species are those species of plants
It divides species into nine categories: Not Evaluated, and animals, which are found exclusively in a particular
Data deficient, least concern, Near Threatened, area. They are not naturally found anywhere else. A
Vulnerable, Endangered, Critically Endangered, particular type of animal or plant may be endemic to a
Extinct in the Wild and Extinct. zone, a State or a Country.
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48. A species which is only found in a given region (b) Effectively protecting the wildlife to move
or location and nowhere else in the world is from one place to another into inhabited
called places
(a) Endemic species (c) Effectively protecting the wildlife of this
(b) Endangered species country and to control poaching, smuggling
(c) Keystone Species and illegal trade in wildlife and its derivatives
(d) Threatened species (d) None of the above
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 Haryana PSC (Pre) 2014
Ans. (a): See the explanation of the above question. Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
49. The species, though insignificant in number, question.
determine the existence of many other species
in a given ecosystem. Such species is known as : 52. In which year the Wildlife Protection Act was
introduced in India?
(a) Sacred species (b) Keystone species
(c) Endemic species (d) Extinct species (a) 1962 (b) 1970
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 (c) 1972 (d) 1982
Ans. (b) : A keystone species is a plant or animal that MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
plays a unique and crucial role in the way an ecosystem UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
function. RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2012
• Without keystone species, the ecosystem would be Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
dramatically different or cease to exist altogether. question.
• Some Keystone species, such as the wolf, are also 53. Which of the following Acts provides
apex predators. protection to wild animals in India?
• Keystone species have a disproportionately large (a) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972
effect on the communities in which it occurs.
(b) Forests Protection Act, 1982
50. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared
(c) Environment Protection Act, 1996
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife
(Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? (d) West Bengal Wild Animal Protection Act,
(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as the 1959
tiger. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
individuals are under captive protection; and question.
now it is impossible to prevent its extinction. 54. Consider the following statements:
(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India. 1. Animal Welfare Board of India is established
(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in under the Environment (Protection) Act,
this context. 1986.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a
Ans: (a) Wildlife Protection Act 1972 was passed on statutory body.
August 21, 1972, later implemented on September 9, 3. National Ganga River Basin Authority is
1972. This Act prohibits the capturing, killing, chaired by the Prime Minister.
poisoning or trapping of wild animals. Wildlife
Which of the statements given above is/ are
Protection Act 1972 effectively protects wildlife and
correct?
controls poaching, smuggling and illegal trade in
wildlife and its derivatives. A number of wild animal (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
and bird species have been listed in various schedules (c) 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
1972. Schedule I animal under Wildlife (Protection) Ans: (b) The Animal Welfare Board of India is a
Act, 1972, enjoys highest protection in India. If a statutory advisory body on animal welfare laws and
species of tortoise is declared protected under promotes animal welfare in the country. Animal
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, it Welfare Board of India was established in 1962 under
enjoys the same level of protection as the tiger. Section 4 of the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act,
51. The Government of India enacted Wild Life 1960. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. The Animal
(Protection) Act 1972 with the objective of; Welfare Board consists of 28 members. The term of
(a) Effectively protecting the protected wildlife office of members is for a period of 3 years. The
of this country and to control smuggling and National Tiger Conservation Authority is a statutory
to illegalize trade in wildlife and its body under the Ministry of Environment, Forests and
derivatives Climate Change constituted under enabling provisions
Environment & Ecology 93 YCT
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of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 (amended in Ans: (a) Crocodile is under the list of endangered
2006). Therefore, statement 2 is correct. The Prime species while elephant is not listed in endangered
Minister is ex-officio Chairperson of the National species. Therefore, (a) is the correct answer.
Ganga River Basin Authority and it has as its 59. Consider the following pairs:
members, the Union Ministers concerned and the Wildlife : Naturally found in
Chief Ministers of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
1. Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
Jharkhand and West Bengal, through which river
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
Ganga flows.
3. Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats
55. India’s first-ever conservation reserve for
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
black buck will come up in which city-state?
matched?
(a) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Udaipur, Rajasthan
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Allahabad, Uttar Pradesh
IAS (Pre) 2019
(d) Kochi, Kerala
OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020 Ans : (c) The hump-backed mahseer, a large
freshwater fish also called the tiger of the water are
Ans. (c): The Uttar Pradesh Cabinet decided to found only in the Cauvery river basin (including
establish India's first ever conservation reserve for Kerala’s Pambar, Kabini and Bhavani rivers). Hence,
blackbuck in the "Meja Forest Division" of Allahabad statement 1 is correct. Mahseer, belonging to the
(Prayagraj). The blackbuck conservation reserve will genus Tor, is considered a prized sports fish of great
come up over 126 hectares in the Trans-Yamuna region cultural value. In the Cauvery, the Mahseer
of Allahabad (Prayagraj) in Uttar Pradesh. community comprises two varieties namely a blue
56. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, finned fish and an orange finned, hump-backed one.
1972, which of the following animals cannot be As per the International Union for Conservation of
hunted by any person except under some Nature’s (IUCN) Red List of Threatened Species,
provisions provided by law? mahseer is now critically endangered, more
1. Gharial 2. Indian wild ass threatened than the Tiger. Irrawaddy Dolphin species
3. Wild buffalo gets its common name from the Irrawaddy river in
Select the correct answer using the code given Myanmar, where it lives. Its range extends from the
below: Bay of Bengal to New Guinea and the Philippines.
Besides the Irrawaddy River, it is also found in
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
India’s Ganges and Southeast Asia’s Mekong River.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The Rusty-spotted
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 Cat is the smallest wild cat species that occurs only
Ans: (d) According to Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, in India and Sri Lanka. It was observed in eastern
Gharial, Indian wild ass and Wild buffalo comes under Gujarat’s Gir National Park, in Maharashtra’s
protected category. Therefore they cannot be hunted by Tadoba-Andhari Tiger Reserve and along India’s
any person except under some provisions provided by law. Eastern Ghats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
57. Consider the following fauna of India: 60. Consider the following statements:
1. Gharial 1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Leatherback turtle 2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in
3. Swamp deer India only.
Which of the above is/are endangered? 3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only India only.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) None Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Ans: (c) All the animals given in the option are under
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
IAS (Pre) 2019
Animals under Schedule I are endangered species and
enjoy highest protection. Ans: (a) Gir National Park and Wildlife Sanctuary in
Gujarat is the only place in the world, where the
58. Consider the following animals of India: Asiatic Lions are found now. Hence, statement 1 is
1. Crocodile 2. Elephant correct. Bactrian camels or double-humped camel are
Which of these is/are endangered species? found in Central Asia (Gobi Desert of Mongolia and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 China). In India, they are exclusively found in Ladakh
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 region. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. The greater
IAS (Pre) G.S 2003 one-horned rhino or ‘Indian rhino’ is the largest of the
Environment & Ecology 94 YCT
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rhino species. Once widespread across the entire Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
northern part of the Indian sub-continent, rhino question.
populations plummeted as they were hunted for sport 64. With reference to 'Dugong', a mammal found
or killed as agricultural pests. Now they are restricted in India, which of the following statements
to Northeast India and Terai grassland of Nepal. is/are correct?
Hence, statement 3 is also incorrect.
1. It is a herbivorous marine animal.
61. Consider the following 2. It is found along the entire coast of India.
1. Star tortoise 2. Monitor lizard 3. It is given legal protection under Schedule I
3. Pygmy hog 4. Spider monkey of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
Which of the above found in India? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only below.
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only
Ans: (a) The Indian star tortoise is of medium size IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
tortoise and is found in the arid and dry forests in India Ans: (c) The mammal called Dugong or sea cows are
and Sri Lanka. Its name comes from the star-like locally known as ‘Aavuli’ of the Indian seas. Feeding
patterns that feature on its high-domed shell. Monitor on sea grass, dugongs are found in sea grass beds,
lizards are tropical reptiles which are found in sheltered waters, lagoons and bays. Hence, statement 1
northern part of India. Monitor lizards are listed in is correct. In India, dugongs are found along the Gulf
Schedule I of Indian Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. of Mannar, Palk Bay, Gulf of Kutch and Andaman
The smallest member of the pig family, the pygmy islands. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. Dugong has
hog is a critically endangered species. Once found been categorized in the Red list of IUCN and the
along a narrow strip of tall and wet grassland plains on Convention on International Trade on Endangered
the Himalayan foothills, today, Pygmy Hog is found in Species ( CITES) has classified it under Appendix I,
just three places in Assam namely Manas, Sonai Rupai implying that the mammal is under threat. Dugongs
and Orang. The black spider monkey, also known as are also included in the schedule I of the Wildlife
the Guiana or red-faced spider monkey, is found in Protection Act, 1972, India. Hence, statement 3 is
eastern South America in areas north of the Amazon correct.
river. Hence (a) is the correct answer.
65. The marine animal called dugong which is
62. Which of the following groups of animals vulnerable to extinction is a/an:
belongs to the category of endangered species? (a) Amphibian (b) Bony fish
(a) Great Indian Bustard, Musk Deer, Red Panda (c) Shark (d) Mammal
and Asiatic Wild Ass IAS (Pre) G.S 2009
(b) Kashmir Stag, Cheetal, Blue Bull and Great
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Indian Bustard
question.
(c) Snow Leopard, Swamp Deer, Rhesus Monkey
and Saras (Crane) 66. A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat
(d) Lion-tailed Macaque, Blue Bull, Hanuman of an Indian animal species. The animal has no
Langur and Cheetal predators in that area but its existence is
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 threatened due to the destruction of its habitat.
Which one of the following could be that
Ans: (a) According to The International Union for
animal?
Conservation of Nature (IUCN) report, some of the
(a) Indian wild buffalo (b) India wild ass
endangered species in India are: Ganges Dolphin,
Gharial, Snow Leopard, Red Panda, One Horned (c) Indian wild boar (d) Indian gazelle
Rhinoceros, The Nilgiri Tahr, Kashmir Red Stag IAS (Pre) G.S, 2011
(Hangul), Loin Tailed Macaque, Asiatic Wild Ass, Ans: (b) The Wild Ass Sanctuary of the Little Rann of
Asiatic Lion, Bengal Tiger, Great Indian Bustard, Kutch, spreading across nearly 5000 square kilometers
Musk Deer etc. of the Little Rann is the only place on earth where the
endangered Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur),
63. Which one of the following Indian birds are a locally known as ‘Ghudkhar’ still lives. The only
highly endangered species? other two subspecies of wild asses live in the high arid
(a) Golden Oriole plateaus of Tibet. The Indian wild ass doesn’t have
(b) Great Indian Bustard any known predators. However, the destruction of
(c) Indian Fantail Pigeon their habitat is in danger due to salt pans in the rann,
(d) Indian Sunbird the invasion of the exotic Prosopis juliflora shrub,
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2005 encroachment and grazing by local herders.
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67. In which of the following States is lion-tailed Which of the statements given above is/are
macaque found in its natural habitat? correct?
1. Tamil Nadu 2. Kerala (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Karnataka 4. Andhra Pradesh (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given IAS (Pre) G.S 2008
below. Ans: (a) Of the three crocodilians found in India,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2 only mugger crocodile and saltwater crocodile are on the
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 endangered list of the IUCN (International Union for
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 Conservation of Nature) while Gharial, found only in
the Indian subcontinent is listed as critically
Ans: (a) Lion-tailed macaque (Macaca silenus) is
endangered. The salt-water crocodile is found along
listed as endangered in IUCN Red List and is
the eastern coast and in the Andaman and Nicobar
protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Islands. Hence, statement 1 is correct. The great
Act 1972, India. Lion-tailed macaque is endemic to Himalayan range has a very interesting variety of
Western Ghats of India, spread across Tamil Nadu, fauna that includes wild sheep and goats, markhor,
Kerala and Karnataka. There are four known sites that ibex, shrew and tapir. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
hold large populations of Lion-tailed macaque. These
70. Consider the following statements:
sites are Sirsi and Honnavara Forest Divisions in
1. In India, Red Panda is naturally found in the
Karnataka, Kudremukh National Park and the
Western Himalayas only.
adjoining sanctuaries (Karnataka), Silent Valley
National Park (Kerala) and Kalakad-Mundanthurai 2. In India, Slow Loris lives in the dense forests
of the North East.
Tiger Reserve (Tamil Nadu).
Which of the statements given above is/are
68. Consider the following: correct?
1. Black- necked crane (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Cheetah (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Flying squirrel IAS (Pre) G.S 2007
4. Snow Leopard Ans: (b) Red Panda is listed as Endangered in the
Which of the above are naturally found in IUCN red list of Threatened Species and under
India? Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act,
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only 1972. In India, Red Panda is found in eastern
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Himalaya region namely Sikkim, western Arunachal
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 Pradesh, Darjeeling (West Bengal) and parts of
Ans: (b) India was once home to many cheetahs Meghalaya. It is the State animal of Sikkim. Hence,
(Tiger) but the last of them was killed in 1947 and the statement 1 is incorrect. Slow Loris is found across
cheetah was declared extinct in India in 1952. It is the Bangladesh, Cambodia, China, northeastern India,
only large mammal to have been declared extinct in Lao, Myanmar and northern Vietnam. Therefore,
statement 2 is correct.
India. Black necked crane are found in India at Ladakh
region. Flying Squirrels do not actually fly, but glide 71. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in
from one tree to the other. Very little is known about the population of species of butterflies, what
these beautiful mammals (Flying Squirrels) and most could be its likely consequence/consequences?
of them are listed as Data Deficient by the 1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely
International Union for Conservation of Nature affected.
(IUCN). In India, there are around 17 species of 2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal
flying squirrels of which, 14 are found in the infections of some cultivated plants.
Northeast. Snow leopards live in the mountainous 3. It could lead to a fall in the population of
regions of central and southern Asia. In India, their some species of wasps, spiders and birds.
geographical range encompasses a large part of the Select the correct answer using the code given
western Himalayas including Jammu and Kashmir, below:
Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim and (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Arunachal Pradesh in the eastern Himalayas. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
69. Consider the following statements: IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
1. Salt-water crocodile is found in the Andaman Ans : (c) The Western Ghats along with the
and Nicobar Islands. Himalayas, north-east region and the Andaman Islands
2. Shrew and tapir are found in the Western are home to butterflies unique to India. With 1,800
Ghats of the Malabar region. known species and subspecies, India boasts an
Environment & Ecology 96 YCT
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impressive 10 per cent of the global biodiversity in Ans: (b) Diclofenac, a painkiller used to treat
butterfly. Butterflies are crucial pollinators and their livestock was behind the decimation of India’s vulture
contribution to global agriculture is valued only next population. The vultures died of renal failure after
to honey bees. Habitat destruction and deterioration eating carcasses of cattle treated with the drug. Hence
are the foremost threats to butterfly population. A fall (b) is the correct answer.
in their population would also lead to a fall in their
predator population like the wasps, spiders and 75. The most important factor contributing to the
birds. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct. Butterflies loss of vulture population in India is-
are not related to the fungal infections of some (a) Viral infection
cultivated plants. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. (b) Bacterial infection
72. If you want to see Gharials in their natural (c) Administering of pain killers to cattle
habitat, which one of the following is the best (d) Administering of estrogen injection to cattle
place to visit? UPPCS (Pre) G.S (Re Exam) 2015
(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(b) Chambal River question.
(c) Pulicat Lake 76. Recently, which of the following drug has been
(d) Deepor Beel reported as responsible for vulture death?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 (a) Aspirin (b) Chloroquine
Ans: (b) Gharial is listed as "Critically Endangered" (c) Diclofenac Sodium (d) Penicillin
in the IUCN Red List of Endangered Species. Gharials UPPCS (Spl.) G.S (Mains) 2008
are endemic to the Indian sub-continent. Once found
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
abundantly in all the major river systems of South
question.
Asia, the Gharial is now extinct in Pakistan,
Bangladesh, Burma and Bhutan. Nepal has only a 77. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai camel’, a
remnant breeding population. In India too, the major breed found in India?
breeding populations are confined to two rivers 1. It is capable of swimming up to three
namely Girwa and Chambal only. The two rivers run kilometers in seawater.
along the borders of Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh 2. It survives by grazing on mangroves.
and Rajasthan. 3. It lives in the wild and cannot be
73. In which of the following regions of India are domesticated.
you most likely to come across the `Great Select the correct answer using the code given
Indian Hornbill' in its natural habitat? below.
(a) Sand deserts of northwest India (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
(d) Western Ghats Ans: (a) Kharai camel is found in coastal part of
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016 Kutch region of Gujarat. These camels are well
Ans: (d) Hornbills are giants among the forest birds. adapted to both dry-lands as well as costal ecosystems.
They play essential roles in forest ecosystems as They have excellent swimming capacity in sea water
dispersers of seeds of forest plants. Great Indian and graze mainly on mangrove and other saline
Hornbills are listed as "Critically Endangered" in the species. Kharai camel can thrive on high saline water
IUCN Red List of Endangered Species. The natural and tolerate high tides. In Kutch, two pastoralist
habitat for Great Indian Hornbill is Western Ghats. communities keep Kharai camels: the Rabaris and
The Great Indian Hornbills live in the Western Ghats Fakirani Jats.
mountain range. 78. In which year "Project Crocodile" was
74. Vultures which used to be very common in launched in India?
Indian countryside some years ago are rarely (a) 1973 (b) 1975
seen nowadays. This is attributed to (c) 1972 (d) 1980
(a) The destruction of their nesting sites by new Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
invasive species Ans: (b) Crocodilians were threatened in India due to
(b) A drug used by cattle owners for treating their indiscriminate killing for commercial purpose and
diseased cattle severe habitat loss until enactment of the Wildlife
(c) Scarcity of food available to them (Protection) Act, 1972. Based on the report of FAO
(d) A widespread, persistent and fatal disease (Food and Agriculture Organization) expert Dr. H.R.
among them Bustard, Government of India launched Crocodile
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 Conservation Program in 1975. The Gharial and
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Saltwater crocodile conservation program was first 82. World Wildlife Day is celebrated on-
implemented in Odisha. The broad strategy adopted (a) 3 March (b) 22 March
for rehabilitation of crocodiles was to protect them in (c) 28 March (d) 7 April
their natural habitats, to rebuild the population quickly
UPPSC Asst. Forest Conservator Exam. 2015
through captive breeding (rear and release).
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2002
79. The pugmark technique is used-
Ans: (a) On 20 December 2013, at its 68th session,
(a) For bird watching in forests
the UN General Assembly proclaimed 3 March, the
(b) For breeding rare wildlife in captivity
day of signature of the Convention on International
(c) For estimation of population of various wild Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
animals (CITES), as UN World Wildlife Day. This day was
(d) For tattooing wildlife to distinguish one proclaimed to celebrate and raise awareness of the
species from the other world’s wild animals and plants. The theme for World
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008 Wildlife Day 2022 is "Recovering key species for
Ans: (c) Pugmark technique is commonly used to ecosystem restoration".
determine the population size of big cats. It is based on 83. The Indian Council of Forestry Research and
the theory that an individual animal leaves a distinct Education (ICFRE) has signed MOU with
pugmark (paw print). Plaster casts or photographs of TIFAC for supporting forest based
the cat’s pugmarks are taken from their range and then communities. Where the headquarters of
analyzed by experts to determine the cat population of
ICFRE is is located?
the area.
(a) Hyderabad (b) Bangaluru
80. Forest Research Institute is located at- (c) Allahabad (d) Dehradun
(a) New Delhi (b) Shimla (e) None of the above/More than one of the
(c) Dehradun (d) Bhopal above
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006, 2007, 2010 BPSC (Pre) GS 2017
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008 Ans: (d) In 1986, the Indian Council of Forestry
Ans: (c) Forest Research Institute, Dehradun, Research and Education (ICFRE) was formed as an
Uttarakhand made a humble beginning as Forest umbrella organization for taking care of forestry
School established in 1878. Initially named as research, education and extension needs of the
Imperial Forest Research Institute, Forest Research country. Finally on 1st June 1991, the Indian Council
Institute came into being in 1906. The Forest Research of Forestry Research and Education was declared an
Institute is a premier institute in the field of forestry autonomous council under the Ministry of
research, education and extension. Forest Research Environment and Forests. Presently, Indian Council of
Institute, Dehradun was conferred the status of Forestry Research and Education with its headquarters
University in the year 1991 on the recommendation of at Dehradun is an apex body in the national forestry
the University Grants Commission. research system that promotes and undertakes need
81. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources is based forestry research extension. The council has a
situated at- pan India presence with its 9 regional research
(a) New Delhi institutes and 5 centers in different bio-geographical
(b) Kolkata regions of the country. The Indian Council of Forestry
(c) Mumbai Research and Education (ICFRE), Dehradun and
(d) Chennai Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2013 Council (TIFAC), New Delhi (an Autonomous
Ans: (a) On the recommendations of the high level Council under Department of Science and
committee constituted by the Government of India in Technology) signed an MoU for with an objective to
1970, the ‘Division of Plant Introduction’ was provide livelihood opportunities and augment income
upgraded to an independent institute ‘National Bureau of the forest based communities. Through this
of Plant Introduction’ in August 1976 which was collaboration, Technology Information, Forecasting
rechristened as ‘National Bureau of Plant Genetic and Assessment Council (TIFAC) shall help Indian
Resources’ (NBPGR) in January 1977. The National Council of Forestry Research and Education (ICFRE)
Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) has its to refine and up-scale the technologies developed, take
headquarters at New Delhi. It has ten regional stations technologies to the end users including farmers, State
at Shimla, Jodhpur, Thrissur, Akola, Shillong, Forest Departments, forest based industries and forest
Bhowali, Cuttack, Hyderabad, Ranchi and Srinagar. dependent communities in a more effective manner.

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09.
Sanctuary/Biosphere Reserve
1. An area for a National Park, Sanctuary or 2. With reference to ‘Eco-Sensitive Zones’, which
Biosphere reserve is decided on the basis of- of the following statements is/ are correct?
(a) Forest area and fresh water resources 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are
(b) Ecosystem management perspective declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act,
(c) Germplasm bank and zoological significance 1972.
(d) Species richness, diversity and species area 2. The purpose of declaration of Eco-Sensitive
relationship Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human
UPPCS ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017 activities in those zones except agriculture.
Ans: (d) An area for a National Park, Sanctuary or Select the correct answer using the codes given
Biosphere reserve is decided on the basis of species below:
richness, diversity and species area relationship. In (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
India, ecologically unique and biodiversity-rich (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
regions are legally protected as Biosphere Reserves, IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
National Parks and Wildlife sanctuaries. India Ans: (d) In order to preserve certain regions/areas
currently has 18 notified Biosphere reserves, 106 bestowed with unique plants, animals, terrains;
National parks and 565 Wildlife sanctuaries. In Government has declared them as national parks,
addition to that, India currently has 88 Conservation wildlife sanctuaries, etc. Further, to minimize the
Reserves, 127 Community Reserves, 25 Marine impact of urbanization and other developmental
protected areas in peninsular India and 106 Marine activities, areas adjacent to such protected areas have
protected areas in islands of India( out of them, 105 been declared as eco- sensitive zones. The purpose of
are in Andaman and Nicobar Island and only one declaring eco-sensitive zones around protected areas is
namely Pitti marine protected area is in for creating some kind of ‘shock absorber’ to the
Lakshadweep). protected area. They would also act as a transition
Note: Conservation Reserves and Community Reserves zone from areas of high protection to areas involving
in India are terms denoting protected areas of India, lesser protection. The width of eco-sensitive zone and
which typically act as buffer zones to or connectors and type of regulation vary from one area to another. The
migration corridors between established national parks, National Wildlife Action Plan (2002-2016) of the
wildlife sanctuaries and reserved and protected forests Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
of India. Such areas are designated as conservation stipulated that State Governments should declare land
areas if they are uninhabited and completely owned by falling within 10 km of the boundaries of national
the Government of India but used for subsistence by parks and wildlife sanctuaries as eco- sensitive zones
communities and community areas if part of the lands is under the Environmental (Protection) Act, 1986.
privately owned. These protected area categories were Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Activities including
first introduced in the Wildlife (Protection) Amendment commercial mining, setting of saw mills and industries
Act, 2002, the amendment to the Wildlife Protection causing pollution, commercial use of firewood and
Act of 1972. These categories were added because of major hydro-power projects, tourism activities are
reduced protection in and around existing or proposed prohibited in eco- sensitive zones. Further felling of
protected areas due to private ownership of land and trees, drastic change in agriculture systems and
land use. commercial use of natural water resources including
A marine protected area (MPA) is essentially a space groundwater harvesting and setting up of hotels and
in the ocean where human activities are more strictly resorts, are the activities regulated in the areas.
regulated than the surrounding waters, similar to parks Activities permitted in the areas include ongoing
we have on land. These places are given special agriculture and horticulture practices by local
protections for natural or historic marine resources by communities, rainwater harvesting, organic farming,
local, state, territorial, native, regional or national adoption of green technology and use of renewable
authorities. energy sources. Hence statement 2 is also incorrect.

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3. Consider the following statements: Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1. The boundaries of a National Park are defined question.
by legislation. 6. In a national park protection is provided to:
2. A Biosphere Reserve is declared to conserve (a) Entire ecosystem
a few specific species of flora and fauna. (b) Flora and Fauna
3. In a Wildlife Sanctuary, limited biotic
(c) Fauna only
interference is permitted.
(d) Flora only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2013
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 question.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010 7. Maintenance of genetic diversity in National
Ans: (c) An area, whether within a sanctuary or not, can Parks is done by-
be notified by the State Government to be constituted as (a) In-situ conservation
a National Park, by reason of its ecological, faunal, (b) Ex-situ conservation
floral, geomorphologic or zoological association or (c) Gene pool
importance, needed to for the purpose of protecting and
(d) None of the above
propagating or developing wildlife therein or its
environment. Therefore statement 1 is correct. The Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
purpose of the formation of the biosphere reserve is to Ans: (a) In order to fulfill the basic aim of the
conserve in situ all forms of life along with its support National Park, which is to maintain the genetic
system in its totality so that it could serve as a referral biodiversity, in-situ conservation is used as it is
system for monitoring and evaluating changes in natural method of conserving species in their natural habitat.
ecosystems. Therefore, statement 2 is incorrect. In a 8. With reference to 'National Parks and Wildlife
Wildlife Sanctuary, Chief Wildlife Warden is the Sanctuaries in India', which of the following
highest authority, who can provide permits for people to statements is/are correct?
enter and utilize resources within sanctuary. Hence,
(1) Highest number of national parks are in Madhya
statement 3 is correct.
Pradesh.
4. In which one among the following categories of
(2) Highest number of wildlife sanctuaries are in the
protected areas in India are local people not
allowed to collect and use the biomass? Andaman and Nicobar island.
(a) Biosphere Reserves Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) National Parks below-
(c) Wetlands declared under Ramsar Convention Code-
(d) Wildlife Sanctuaries (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (b) An area, whether within a sanctuary or not UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021
can be notified by the State Government to be
constituted as a National Park by reason of its Ans. (c) : As per National Wildlife Database,
ecological, faunal, floral, geomorphologic or December, 2021 of Wildlife Institute of India, there are
zoological association or importance, needed to for the 106 existing National Parks in India covering an area of
purpose of protecting and propagating or developing 44372.42 Sq km, which is 1.35% of the geographical
wildlife therein or its environment. No human activity area of India. Out of 106 National Parks, Madhya
is permitted inside the National Park except for the Pradesh has maximum 11 National Parks followed by
ones permitted by the Chief Wildlife Warden of the Assam (7 National Parks). [Raimona and Dihing
State under the conditions given in Wild Life Patkai National Parks, Assam have been recently
Protection Act, 1972.
declared as National Parks in June, 2021].
5. In which one of the following categories of As per National Wildlife Database, December 2021, of
protected areas in India local people aren't
Wildlife Institute of India, there are 564 wildlife
allowed to own private lands?
sanctuaries in India covering an area of 122509.33 Sq
(a) Biosphere Reserves
km, which is 3.73% of the geographical area of India.
(b) National Parks
Out of 564 wildlife sanctuaries in India, Andaman and
(c) World Heritage Sites
Nicobar islands (94) has maximum wild life sanctuaries
(d) All of the above
followed by Maharashtra (49).
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
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9. The State of India with maximum number of Ans: (c) The Cauvery rises in Brahmagiri hills of
wildlife sanctuaries is Kogadu district in Karnataka. Its length is 800 km and
(a) Karnataka it drains an area of 81,155 sq. km. About 3 percent of
(b) Tamil Nadu the Cauvery basin falls in Kerala, 41 percent in
Karnataka and 56 percent in Tamil Nadu. Its important
(c) Maharashtra tributaries are Kabini, Bhavani and Amravati.
(d) Madhya Pradesh Nagarhole National Park (Karnataka), also known as
(e) None of the above/More than one of the Rajiv Gandhi National Park is in Cauvery basin.
above Papikonda National Park is located near
66 BPSC (Pre) 2020 Rajamahendravaram in the Papi Hills in East Godavari
th
and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. River
Ans. (c) :Kindly refer the explanation of the above Godavari flows through Papikonda National Park.
question. Hence it does not lie in Cauvery basin.
10. Which one among the following has the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is a protected area and
maximum number of National Parks? tiger reserve in the Eastern Ghats in the Erode District,
Tamil Nadu. It is located at the confluence of Western
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Island
Ghat and Eastern Ghat. It lies in Cauvery basin. The
(b) Arunachal Pradesh Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is an animal sanctuary in
(c) Assam Wayanad, Kerala. Kabini river flows through the
(d) Meghalaya sanctuary. It falls under Cauvery basin.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2008 14. The first National Park of India is-
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Nanda Devi National Park
question. (b) Jim Corbett National Park
11. Select the State from amongst the following (c) Rajaji National Park
with the maximum number of National Parks- (d) Kanha National Park
(a) Uttar Pradesh UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
(b) Rajasthan Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
(c) Madhya Pradesh RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2016
(d) West Bengal UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008 MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2011
question. Ans: (b) Jim Corbett National Park (Nainital,
12. Which of the following has the maximum Uttarakhand) was established in the year 1936 as
number of national parks? Hailey National Park. Jim Corbett National Park has
(a) Andaman & Nicobar the glory of being India's oldest and most prestigious
(b) Arunachal Pradesh National Park. The most famous of Corbett wild
(c) Assam residents are the Bengal Tiger, Asiatic Elephant,
(d) Meghalaya Leopards, Wild Boar, Sloth Bear, Jackal, Mongoose
and crocodile. It is also being honored as the place,
Karnataka PCS -2020
where Project Tiger was first launched in 1973.
Ans. (a) : Among the given options, Andaman and
Nicobar has 9 National Parks, 96 Wildlife Sanctuaries 15. Corbett Tiger Reserve is located in which
and 1 Biosphere Reserve. Arunachal Pradesh has 2 Indian State?
National Parks, Assam has 5 National Parks and (a) Rajasthan (b) Madhya Pradesh
Meghalaya has 2 National Parks. (c) Uttarakhand (d) West Bengal
13. Which of the following Protected areas are MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
located in Cauvery basin? Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
1. Nagarhole National Park question.
2. Papikonda National Park 16. Jim Corbett National Park, located in
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve Uttarakhand is related to
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary
(a) Medical Plants (b) Birds
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Wildlife (d) Butterflies
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 and 4 only TSPSC Group-II Pre 2016
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1,2,3 and 4 Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 question.

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17. Dhoopgarh Peak is situated in which of the 19. With reference to India’s Desert National
following National Park? Park, which of the following statements are
(a) Satpura National Park correct?
(b) Kanha National Park 1. It is spread over two districts.
(c) Bandhavgarh National Park 2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
(d) Madhav National Park 3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian
UPPSC RO-ARO (Pre) 2021 Bustard.
Ans. (a) : Dhoopgarh peak is situated at Satpura Select the correct answer using the code given
National Park, highest peak of Madhya Pradesh. below :
Satpura range rises in eastern Gujarat running east
(a) 1 and 2 only
through border of Maharashtra and Madhya Pradesh
and ends in Chhattisgarh, western boundaries of Chota (b) 2 and 3 only
Nagpur plateau. (c) 1 and 3 only
• Kanha National Park is situated MP in two district (d) 1,2 and 3
Mandala and Balaghat. IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
• Bandhavgarh National Park is situated in Umariya Ans: (c) In order to protect the flora and fauna of the
district of Madhya Pradesh. Thar Desert, the Government of India in the late 1970s
• Madhav National Park is situated in Shivpuri started planning for establishment of a large sanctuary
district of Madhya Pradesh. or a park where human presence and anthropogenic
18. Which of the following are the most likely activity can be kept minimum and conservation of
places to find the musk deer in its natural wildlife could be considered imperative. Within the
habitat? Thar Desert, Desert National Park with the purpose of
1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary conserving biodiversity was declared as a National
2. Gangotri National Park Park in 1981. The Desert National Park (DNP) covers
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² falls in the
4. Manas National Park Jaisalmer District and the remaining 1262 km² in the
Select the correct answer using the given code Barmer district. Hence statement 1 is correct. This
below area falls in the extreme hot, arid region of very low
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only rainfall zone of the country. The human population is
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only low, 4-5 persons per km. Hence statement 2 is not
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 correct. Desert National Park is one of the largest
Ans: (a) Musk deer lives in mountainous regions from adobes for highly endangered Great Indian Bustard
Siberia to the Himalayas. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is (Chiriotis nigriceps). Hence statement 3 is correct. In
one of the India’s most famous wildlife sanctuaries
fact Desert National Park was delineated as National
and is known as the "Green Paradise of India". Askot
Park to protect the habitat of this large ground feeding
Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Pithoragarh
district of Uttarakhand. The river Kali forms the birds mainly Great Indian Bustard and two Gype
international boundary and separates it from Nepal in species of vulture. It comprises of crescent shaped
the east. The sanctuary has been set up primarily for dune (Barchan), which is one type of sand dune
the conservation of musk deer and its natural habitat. produced by the action of wind.
Gangotri National Park, established in 1989 is situated 20. Which of the following is a correct
in Uttarkashi district, Uttarakhand. Gangotri glacier, combination?
the origin of river Ganga is located inside Gangotri
(a) Sundarban - Rhinoceros
National Park. Various rare and endangered species
like bharal or blue sheep, black bear, brown bear, (b) Kaziranga - Lion
Himalayan Monal, Himalayan Snowcock, Himalayan (c) Bharatpur - Tigers
Thar, musk deer and Snow leopard are found in the (d) Balukhanda - Black buck
park. The Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
the Dudhwa Tiger Reserve near Mailani in Uttar
Ans. (d) : Correct match is-
Pradesh. It is home to Tigers, Leopards, Pythons,
Barking Deer, Ghariyal, Wild Boar and Swamp Deers. (a) Sundarban – Bengal Tiger
Manas National Park is a national park, UNESCO (b) Kaziranga - Rhinoceros
Natural World Heritage site, a Project Tiger reserve, (c) Bharatpur – Bird sanctuary
an elephant reserve and a biosphere reserve in Assam. (d) Balukhanda - Black buck

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21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans. (a) : In the above obtains, Palamu Sanctuary was
answer using the codes given below the lists: first established in Jharkhand (In 1974). The year of
List-I List-II establishment of other sanctuaries is as follows:
(National Parks) (States) Sanctuary
A. Indravati 1. Jharkhand Establishment year
B. Mollem 2. Haryana Gautam Buddha Wild Life Sancutary 1976
C. Kalesar 3. Goa Topchanci Sanctuary 1978
D. Betva 4. Chhattishgarh Udhawa Lake bird sanctuary 1991
Codes: 25. Which of the following Sanctuary of Jharkhand
A B C D has got largest area in sq. km?
(a) 4 3 2 1 (a) Dalma Sanctuary
(b) 4 2 3 1 (b) Mahuadanr Sanctuary
(c) 4 1 3 2 (c) Parasnath Sanctuary
(d) 3 4 2 1 (d) Palamau Sanctuary
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020 JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
Ans. (a) : Ans. (d) : The area of Palamu Sanctuary (1026 km2) of
(National Parks) (States) Jharkhand is the largest among the given options. It is
Indravati Chhattisgarh spread over three districts namely Palamu, Garhwa and
Mollem Goa Gumla. Surguja district of Chhattisgarh determines its
boundary. The Tiger project was started here in 1974 as
Kalesar Haryana
a national conservation and research program.
Betva Jharkhand
Tiger, Leopard, elephant and wild buffalo are found
22. Which one of the following in not correctly here. Dalma sanctuary was established in the year 1976.
matched? It covers an area of 193.22 sq. km. Mahuadar sanctuary
(a) Anshi National Park - Karnataka was established in the year 1976. It is about 63.25 sq.
(b) Balphakram National Park - Meghalaya km in area. Parasnath sanctuary located in Girdiha
district was established in the year 1981. It covers an
(c) Chandoli National Park - Gujarat
area of 49.33 sq. km.
(d) Hemis National Park - Ladakh 26. Match the following:
MPPCS (Pre.) 2020 National Park State
Ans. (c) : Chandoli National Park was established in (a) Kaziranga (i) Kerala
May, 2004 in the districts of Satara, Kolhapur and (b) Silent Valley (ii) Manipur
Sangli in Maharashtra. (c) Sirohi (iii) Madhya
23. Which one of the following districts is having Pradesh
the only National Park of Bihar? (d) Kanha (iv) Assam
(a) Nalanda Code:
(b) Bhagalpur (a) (b) (c) (d)
(c) West Champaran (A) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) East Champaran (B) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(e) None of the above/More than one of the (C) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
above (D) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
66th BPSC (Pre) 2020 Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019
Ans. (c) : Valmiki National Park in West Champaran Ans. (d) :
district of Bihar is the only national park in Bihar. National Park State
24. Which of the following Park/Sanctuary of (a) Kaziranga Assam
Jharkhand is oldest in terms of its establishment? (b) Silent Valley Kerala
(a) Palamau Sanctuary Palamau (c) Sirohi Manipur
(b) Topchanchi Sanctuary Dhanbad (d) Kanha Madhya Pradesh
(c) Gautam Budha Sanctuary Koderma 27. Mizoram has the following two National Parks
(d) Udhwa Lake Bird Sanctuary, Sahabganj (a) Murlen and Phawngpui
JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II (b) Dampa and Phawngpui
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(c) Murlen and Dampa 31. Which of the following National Park is home
(d) Dampa and Lengteng to Lion tailed macaque?
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 (a) Sunderban (b) Bandipur
Ans. (a): Mizoram has two National Parks namely (c) Simlipal (d) Silent valley
Murlen National Park in Champhai district and UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II
Phawngpui National Park (also known as Blue Ans. (d): Lion tailed macaque are endemic to Western
Mountain Park) in Lawngtlai district. Ghats of South India. It is found in Silent Valley
28. Phawngpui National Park in Mizoram is also National Park in Kerala. Macaca silenus is the scientific
known as which of the following? name of lion tailed macaque.
(a) Black Mountain Park
• Sundarban is known for its "Sundri" mangroves. It
(b) Blue Mountain Park
is world’s largest delta formed by Ganga,
(c) Yellow Mountain Park Brahamputra and Meghna rivers.
(d) Mizo Hills Park
MPPCS (Pre.) 2020
• Bandipur national park is in Karnataka and is a part
of Nilgiri biosphere reserve. It is a home of world
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
largest elephant population.
question.
29. Chandoli National Park is situated in which • Simlipal is in northern part of Odisha. It is a Tiger
of the following states? Reserve. It gets its name from the Bengal's simul
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Madhya Pradesh tree.
(c) Maharashtra (d) Uttarakhand 32. Richest biodiversity is found in the:
UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I (a) Silent valley (b) Kashmir valley
Ans. (c) : Chandoli National Park was established in (c) Valley of flowers (d) Surma valley
May, 2004 in the districts of Satara, Kolhapur and Uttarakhand PCS (Pre) 2004-05
Sangli in Maharashtra. Earlier it was a wildlife UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2003
sanctuary declared in 1985. Covered with lush green Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S. 2010–11
vegetation, Chandauli National Park is an ideal habitat UP Lower (Pre.) Spl, G.S. 2002
for a wide and distinct variety of animals, birds and
Ans: (a) Richest biodiversity is found in Silent Valley
reptiles. Chandauli Park forms the southern part of the
National Park, Kerala. It is a part of the Western
Sahyadri Tiger Reserve and the Koyna Wildlife
Ghats. Silent valley lies in the north- eastern corner of
Sanctuary is the northern part of the reserve.
Palakkad district, known as the gate way to Kerala.
30. Which of the following is NOT correctly The Silent Valley is spread over 237 square kilometers
matched? and happens to be among the oldest stretches of
(National Park) (Location) rainforests in the world. In 1984, the Silent Valley was
(a) Ansi National Park - Karnataka declared a national park. Kunthipuzha river flows
(b) Bandhavgarh National - Madhya Pradesh from the Silent Valley National Park. The denizens of
Park the Silent Valley National Park include the lion-tailed
(c) Bhitar Kanika - Jharkhand macaque (one of the most endangered primates of
National Park India), the Nilgiri Tahr, barking deer, elephant, tiger
(d) Bison National Park - Tripura and over a 100 species of birds. Above 1,500 m, the
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I evergreen forests begin to give way to stunted forests,
Ans. (c) : Bhitarkanika National Park is in Odisha. called sholas, interspersed with open grassland.
Bhitarkanika is India’s second largest mangrove 33. Which one of the following States is related to
ecosystem after the Sunderbans. Bhitarkanika ‘Silent Valley Project’?
National park is essentially a network of creeks and (a) Uttarakhand (b) Himachal Pradesh
canals, which are inundated with waters from rivers (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu
Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra and Patasala forming a
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
unique ecosystem. Bhitarkanika is home to the largest
congregation of the endangered Salt Water Crocodile UP Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2008
in India. The other unique phenomenon is the Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Bagagahana or the heronry near Surajpore creek. question.
Thousands of birds colonize the creek for nesting and 34. Valley of flowers is situated in-
the aerial acrobatics performed prior to the mating (a) Kerala (b) Jammu and Kashmir
makes for an impressive sight. Rests are correctly (c) Uttarakhand (d) Himachal Pradesh
matched. UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2002
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Ans: (c) Valley of Flowers National Park is located in 38. Arrange the following National Parks in their
the Chamoli district, Uttarakhand. It was established chronological order from the earliest to the
as a National Park in the year 1982. Total area of the latest and select the correct answer from the
park is 87.50 sq km. The park is also a part of World code given below:
Heritage Site. Valley of Flowers lies completely in Parks:
temperate alpine zone. The park is known for its 1. Silent Valley 2. Jim Corbett
meadows of endemic alpine flowers and the variety of 3. Kaziranga 4. Kanha
flora. The Valley of Flowers has gained importance as Code:
a region containing a diversity of alpine flora, (a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3
representative of the Western Himalayan alpine shrub
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
and meadows eco region. The valley has three sub-
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016
alpine between 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit
for trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and 3,700m Ans: (d)
and higher alpine above 3,700m. More than 650 National Park Year of establishment
species of flowers including Brahma kamal, Blue Jim Corbett 1936
Poppy and Cobra Lily can be found in the park. This Kanha 1955
lush region is also home to some rare and endangered Kaziranga 1974
animal species including the Asiatic black bear, Snow Silent Valley 1984
leopard, Musk deer, Brown bear, Red fox, Blue sheep 39. Which of the following pairs is NOT correctly
etc. The park is also a suitable habitat for birds like matched?
Himalayan monal, Himalayan golden eagle, Snow (a) Bandipur National Park–Karnataka
partridge, Himalayan snow cock, Himalayan monal, (b) Manas Wildlife Sanctuary–Assam
Snow pigeon etc. (c) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary–Kerala
35. Which one of the following National Parks lies (d) Simlipal National Park–Madhya Pradesh
completely in the temperate alpine zone? UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
(a) Manas National Park Ans: (d) Simlipal National Park is situated in
(b) Namdapha National Park Mayurbhanj district of Odisha. Rest is correctly
(c) Neora Valley National Park matched.
(d) Valley of Flowers National Park 40. Which of the following National Parks of India
IAS (Pre) 2019 are declared as World Heritage by UNESCO?
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1. Keoladeo National Park
question. 2. Sundarbans National Park
36. Brahma Kamal (Saussurea obvallata) is 3. Kaziranga National Park
naturally found in- 4. Ranthambore National Park
(a) Kaziranga forests (b) Nilgiri forests
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Silent Valley (d) Valley of flowers below
UP Lower (Pre) Spl. 2008 (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
question.
CDS (Pre) G.S 2018
37. Arrange the following national parks in the
Ans: (b) UNESCO has inscribed nine natural sites of
earliest chronological order and choose the
India as World Heritage Site-
correct answer from code give below the park.
1. Great Himalayan National Park Conservation
1. Silent Valley 2. Jim Corbett
Area (2014)
3. Kaziranga 4. Kanha
2. Kaziranga National Park (1985)
Code:
3. Keoladeo National Park (1985)
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3
4. Manas Wildlife Sanctuary (1985)
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
5. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve (1988)
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2016
6. Valley of Flowers National Parks (2005)
Ans: (d) Chronological order of the National Parks is -
Jim Corbett (1936), Kanha (1955), Kaziranga (1974) 7. Sundarbans National Park (1987)
and Silent Valley (1984). Hence, option (b) is the 8. Western Ghats (2012)
correct. 9. Kanchanjunga National Park (2016)

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41. Which of these National Parks of India is not Ans. (c) : Geological Survey of India (GSI) declares
recognized as 'World Heritage Site' by Geo-Heritage Sites/ National Geological Monuments
UNESCO? for their protection and maintenance.
(a) Sunderban (b) Keoladeo National Fossil Food Park is situated in Tiruchirappalli,
(c) Gir (d) Kaziranga Tamil Nadu.
TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017 Shivalik Park is situated in Sirmaur district of Himachal
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Pradesh.
question. Bhojunda Stromatolite Park is located near Bhojunda
42. The UNESCO declared which one of the village, south-west of Chittaurgarh city of Rajasthan.
following National Park of India as the World Lonar Lake, also known as Lonar crater, is located in
Heritage Site in July, 2016? Buldhana district of Maharashtra.
(a) Kaziranga National Park Geological heritage sites/ National Geological
(b) Kanchanjunga National Park Monuments
(c) Corbett National Park S. Geological heritage site /
(d) Valley of flowers National Park No National Geological Monument
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 1 Volcanogenic bedded Barytes, Mangampeta,
question. Cuddapah Dist., Andhra Pradesh
43. Which of the following is a ‘World Heritage’ 2 Eparchaean Unconformity, Chittor Dist.,
Site? Andhra Pradesh
(a) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve 3 Natural Geological Arch, Tirumala Hills,
(b) Corbett National Park Chittor Dist., Andhra Pradesh
(c) Rajaji National Park 4 Erra Matti Dibbalu- the dissected and
(d) Gir Forest stabilized coastal red sediment mounds located
UPPCS (Mains) 2005 between Vishakhapatnam and
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008 Bhimunipatnam, Andhra Pradesh.
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 5 Laterite near Angadipuram PWD rest house
question. premises, Malapuram Dist., Kerala
44. Which of the following National Parks/ 6 Varkala Cliff Section, Thiruvanatapuram Dist.,
Sanctuary is known as ‘World Natural Kerala
Heritage’? 7 Fossil wood near Tiruvakkarai, South Arcot
(a) Ranthambore National Park Dist., Tamil Nadu
(b) Keoladeo National Park 8 National fossil wood park, Sattanur,
(c) Desert National Park Tiruchirapalli Dist., Tamil Nadu
(d) Tal Chhapar Sanctuary
9 Charnockite, St. Thomas Mount, Madras,
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 1992 Tamil Nadu
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Badlands of Karai Formation with Cretaceous
10
question. fossils along Karai – Kulakkalnattam Section,
45. Match the following geological heritage sites Perambalur District, Tamil Nadu
with their locations:
11 Sedimentary Structures – Eddy Markings,
Geological Heritage Sites Locations Kadan Dam, Panch Mahals Dist., Gujarat
(a) National Fossil (i) Buldhana
12 Sendra Granite, Pali Dist., Rajasthan
Wood Park
(b) Shivalik Park (ii) Chittaurgarh 13 Barr Conglomerate, Pali Dist., Rajasthan
(c) Stromatolite Park (iii) Tiruchirappalli 14 Stromatolite Fossil Park, Jharmarkotra Rock
(d) Lonar Lake (iv) Sirmaur Phosphate deposit, Udaipur Dist., Rajasthan
(a) (b) (c) (d) 15 Gossan in Rajpura-Dariba Mineralised belt,
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) Udaipur Dist. Rajasthan
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 16 Stromatolite Park near Bhojunda, Chittaurgarh
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) Dist., Rajasthan
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) 17 Akal Fossil Wood Park, Jaisalmer Dist.,
Chhattisgarh PSC Pre Paper–I- 2021 Rajasthan
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18 Kishangarh Nepheline Syenite, Ajmer Dist., Ans: (b) The Keibul Lamjao National Park is located
Rajasthan in Manipur. Keibul Lamjao conservation area
19 Welded Tuff, Jodhpur Dist., Rajasthan comprises of a core area of Keibul Lamjao National
20 Jodhpur Group – Malani Igneous Suite Park and a buffer of Loktak Lake and Pumlen Pat. The
Contact, Jodhpur Dist., Rajasthan Loktak Lake has a unique ecosystem called "Phumdi"
(a Manipuri word meaning floating mats of soil and
21 Great Boundary Fault at Satur, Bundi Dist.,
vegetation). The largest area of the Phumdi in the
Rajasthan
Loktak Lake is in the Keibul Lamjao National Park,
22 Lonar Lake, Buldana Dist., Maharashtra which is home to Manipur brow-antlered deer,
23 Lower Permian Marine bed at Manendragarh, popularly known as the Sangai. The habitat
Surguja Dist., Chhattishgarh exclusively consists of floating meadows and an
24 Columnar Lava, St Mary Island Udupi Dist., elevated strip of hard ground that dissects the park into
Karnataka northern and southern zones.
25 Pillow lavas near Mardihalli, Chitradurga 48. Keibul Lamjao National Park is located in
Dist., Karnataka which lake?
26 Peninsular Gneiss, Lalbagh, Banglore, (a) Kolleru (b) Dal
Karnataka (c) Wular (d) Loktak
27 Pyroclastics & Pillow lavas, Kolar Gold fields, UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
Kolar Dist., Karnataka Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
28 Siwalik Fossil Park, Saketi, Sirmur Dt., question.
Himachal Pradesh 49. Which one of the following National Parks has
29 Pillow Lava in lron ore belt at Nomira, a climate that varies from tropical to
Keonjhar dist., Odisha subtropical, temperate and arctic?
30 Plant Fossil bearing Inter-trappean beds of (a) Khangchendzonga National Park
Rajmahal Formation, upper Gondwana (b) Nandadevi National Park
sequence around Mandro, Sahibganj dist., (c) Neora Valley National Park
Jharkhand (d) Namdapha National Park
31 Nagahill Ophiolite Site near Pungro, Nagaland IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
32 Stromatolite bearing Dolomite / Limestone of Ans: (d) Namdapha National Park is the largest
Buxa Formation at Mamley, near Namchi, protected area in the eastern Himalaya biodiversity
South district., Sikkim hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh. It is also
46. Which of the following is a marine national the third largest national park in India in terms of area.
park? Namdapha lies along the turbulent Noa-Dihing River
at the international border between India and
(a) Bhitarkanika (b) Sundarban
Myanmar. The park is located between the Dapha bum
(c) Gahirmatha (d) Gulf of Mannar
range of the Mishmi Hills and the Patkai range, with a
UPPCS (Pre) (Re-Exam) G.S 2015 wide altitudinal range between 200 m and 4571 m
Ans: (d) With its rich biodiversity of about 4223 above the sea level. The habitat changes with
species of various flora and fauna, part of Gulf of increasing altitude from Tropical moist forests to
Mannar has been declared as a Marine National Park montane forests, temperate forests and at the higher
in 1986 by the Government of Tamil Nadu and later as elevations, to Alpine meadows and perennial snow.
the first Marine Biosphere Reserve of India in 1989 by Therefore, the climate of Namdapha National Park
the Government of India. varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and
47. Which of the following National Parks is arctic due to its geographical position.
unique in being a swamp with floating 50. Consider the following pairs:
vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity? National Park River flowing
(a) Bhitarkanika National Park through the Park
(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park 1. Corbett National Park : Ganga
(c) Keoladeo Ghana National Park 2. Kaziranga National Park : Manas
(d) Sultanpur National Park 3. Silent Valley National Park : Kaveri
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
Manipur PSC - 2013 matched?
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(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only Ans: (c) Correct match is-

(c) 1 and 3 (d) None Intanki Nagaland
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013 Betla Jharkhand
Ans: (d) The Ramganga river along with its Sirohi Manipur
significant tributaries Sonanadi, Palain and Mandal Gundai Tamilnadu
forms the prominent hydrological resource for the 53. Match List - I with List - II and choose the
Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand. Hence 1 is not correct answer from the codes given below:
correctly matched. The river Kosi also flows by
List - I List - II
Corbett National Park and serves as the significant
(National Park) (Location)
water resources for the nearby area. The Kaziranga
National Park (Assam) area is circumscribed by the A. Kaziranga 1. Chikmagalur
Brahmaputra river, which forms the northern and B. Kudremukh 2. Palghat
eastern boundaries. Hence, 2 is also not correctly C. Silent Valley 3. Nagpur
matched. Other notable rivers within the Kaziranga D. Pench Valley 4. Golaghat- Nawgaon
National Park are the Diphlu and Mora Dhansiri. River Codes:
Kunthi flows through Silent Valley National Park, A B C D
Kerala. Hence, 3 is also not correctly matched. (a) 3 4 2 1
51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (b) 4 1 2 3
answer using the code given below lists- (c) 2 4 1 3
List-I List-II (d) 1 3 4 2
(National Park) (State) UP (Lower) (Pre) G.S 2013
A. Manas 1. Haryana
Ans: (b) Correct match is-
B. Valmiki 2. Jammu and Kashmir
Kaziranga Golaghat- Nawgaon
C. Salim Ali 3. Bihar Kudremukh Chikmagalur
D. Sultanpur 4. Assam Silent Valley Palghat
Code: Pench Valley Nagpur
A B C D 54. Which one of the following pairs is correctly
(a) 1 2 3 4 matched?
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) Great Himalayan National Park - Manali
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) Rajaji National Park - Chamoli
(d) 4 3 2 1
(c) Keoladeo National Park - Bharatpur
UPPSC ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
(d) Van Vihar National Park - Jabalpur
Ans: (d) Correct match is- UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009
A. Manas 1. Assam
Ans: (c) Great Himalayan National Park was
B. Valmiki 2. Bihar
constituted in 1984 and was formally notified as a
C. Salim Ali 3. Jammu and Kashmir national park in 1999. It was awarded UNESCO
D. Sultanpur 4. Haryana World Heritage Site status in 2014 in recognition of its
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct outstanding significance for biodiversity conservation.
answer using the code given below- It is spread over an area of app. 1171 sq Km. it is
List-I List-II located in Banjaar Sub-Division of Kullu District of
(National Park) (State) Himachal Pradesh. Named after famous freedom
A. Intanki 1. Jharkhand fighter and first Governor General of India, Sri C.
B. Betla 2. Tamilnadu Rajgopalachari (also known as Rajaji), Rajaji National
C. Sirohi 3. Nagaland Park is situated in Uttarakhand. In the year 1983,
D. Gundai 4. Manipur Rajaji Wildlife Sanctuary was merged with Motichur
Code: and Chilla wildlife sanctuaries and made into Rajaji
A B C D National Park. Rajaji National Park is spread over
(a) 2 1 3 4 Pauri Garwal and Dehradun district of Uttarakhand
and Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh. Formerly
(b) 4 3 2 1
known as the Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary, the Keoladeo
(c) 3 1 4 2
National Park, Bharatpur, Rajasthan is recognized as
(d) 3 4 1 2
one of the world’s most important bird breeding and
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017
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feeding grounds. In 1982, Keoladeo was declared a 59. Which one of the following is located is located
national park and then later listed as a World Heritage in the Bastar region?
Site by UNESCO in 1985. Van Vihar National Park is (a) Bandhavgarh National Park
located in Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh. Therefore, (c) is (b) Dundeli Sanctuary
correctly matched.
(c) Rajai National Park
55. Which of the following national parks/ (d) Indravati National Park
sanctuaries of H.P. occupy 1171 sq. km. of
IAS (Pre) G.S 2007
area?
UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) Pin Valley National Park
(b) The Great Himalayan National Park Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(c) Renuka Santury question.
(d) Manali Sanctury 60. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct
Himanchal PCS (Pre) G.S 2018 answer using the codes given below:
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above List - I List - II
question. (National Park) (State)
56. Great Himalayan National Park, which has A. Dochigam 1. Andhra Pradesh
been accorded the UNESCO World Heritage B. Papikonda 2. Jammu and Kashmir
Site status, is located in: C. Sariska 3. Rajasthan
(a) Uttarakhand D. Bandipur 4. Karnataka
(b) Himachal Pradesh Codes:
(c) Jammu and Kashmir A B C D
(d) Nagaland (a) 3 1 2 4
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2012 (b) 2 1 3 4
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 1 2 4 3
question. (d) 3 4 2 1
57. Rajiv Gandhi National Park is located in: UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
Ans: (b) Correct match is-
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Karnataka Dochigam - Jammu and Kashmir
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2002 Papikonda - Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (d) Nagarhole National Park is also known as Sariska - Rajasthan
"Rajiv Gandhi National Park". It is spread between Bandipur - Karnataka
Kodagu and Mysore districts of Karnataka.
61. Which one of the following protected areas is
Nagarahole river flows through the park and gradually
well known for the conservation of a sub-
joins the Kabini river, which also is a boundary
species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha)
between Nagarahole and Bandipur.
that thrives well on hard ground and is
58. Which one of the following is located in
exclusively graminivorous?
Chhattisgarh?
(a) Kanha National Park
(a) Anshi National Park
(b) Betla National Park (b) Manas National Park
(c) Indravati National Park (c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
(d) Gugamal National Park (d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016 IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Ans: (c) Indravati National Park is located at Bastar Ans: (a) The lush sal and bamboo forests, grassy
region in Bijapur district of Chhattisgarh. It derives its meadows and ravines of kanha provided inspiration to
name from the nearby Indravati river. It is home to one Rudyard Kipling for his famous novel ‘Jungle Book’.
of the last populations of rare wild buffalo. Betla The Kanha National Park in Madhya Pradesh came
National Park is located in the Chota Nagpur Plateau into being in 1955 and forms the core of the Kanha
of the Latehar district of Jharkhand. It was declared as Tiger Reserve, created in 1974 under Project Tiger.
a National Park in the year 1986. Anshi National Park The Park's landmark achievement is the preservation
is located in Karnataka while Gugamal National of the rare hard ground Swamp Deer (Barasingha),
Park is located in the Amravati district of Maharashtra. saving it from near extinction.

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62. One of the better achievements of Kanha 67. Which one of the following is not correctly
National Park is: matched?
(a) Conservation of tiger from near extinction National Park State
(b) Conservation of swamp deer from near (a) Bandipur Karnataka
extinction (b) Rajaji Uttarakhand
(c) Conservation of Gaur from near extinction (c) Simipal Odisha
(d) Conservation of bison from near extinction (d) Pin Valley Jammu and Kashmir
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans: (d) Pin Valley National Park is located in Lahaul
question. and Spiti district of Himachal Pradesh. It was declared
63. Which one of the following is not correctly National Park in the year 1987. Rest is correctly
matched? matched.
(a) Kaziranga National Park- Assam 68. The Yellowstone National Park is located in-
(b) Corbett National Park- Uttarakhand (a) Canada (b) New Zealand
(c) Bandipur National Park- Tamil Nadu (c) South Africa (d) U.S.A
(d) Sanjay National Park- Madhya Pradesh UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2004, 2011
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010 UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2004, 2010
Ans: (c) Bandipur National Park is in Karnataka. Rest Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2005, 2006
is correctly matched.
Ans: (d) Yellowstone National Park is America’s first
64. Rani Jhansi Maritime National Park was national park which was established in 1872.
founded in- Yellowstone National Park is the site of America’s
(a) 1994 (b) 1995 greatest concentration of geysers and hot springs.
(c) 1996 (d) 1997 69. Read the list of National Parks and Animals
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017 housed for conservation -
Ans: (c) Rani Jhansi Marine National Park is located National Park Wildlife
in the Andaman district of Andaman and Nicobar (A) Bandipur (i) Tiger reserve
Islands. Rani Jhansi Marine National Park was (B) Kaziranga (ii) Elephant sanctuary
established in the year 1996. The natural habitats of
(C) Sundarban (iii) One horned rhinoceros
the park include lagoons, coral reefs, beaches, lowland
evergreen rain forest, semi-evergreen rain forest and (D) Similipal (iii) Biosphere and Tiger
mangrove forests. reserve
Which one of the following is correctly matched?
65. Salim Ali National Park is located in-
(a) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iv), (C)–(i), (D)–(iii)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) (A)–(i), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(ii)
(b) Jammu and Kashmir
(c) Madhya Pradesh (c) (A)–(iv), (B)–(i), (C)–(iii), (D)–(ii)
(d) Andhra Pradesh (d) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2005 RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S, 2013
Ans: (b) Salim Ali National Park is located in Ans: (b) Bandipur National Park, Karnataka was
the Srinagar district of Jammu and Kashmir. The park brought under Project Tiger in the year 1973.
is also known as City Forest National Park. It Kaziranga National Park, Assam is inhabited by the
was named in the honour of Salim Ali, the famous world’s largest population of one horn Rhinoceros. As
Indian ornithologist. part of Man and Biosphere Program (MAB), entire
9630 sq. km area of Sundarban has been declared as
66. Where is Salim Ali Bird Sanctuary located?
Biosphere reserve. It spans a vast area covering 4264
(a) Goa
sq. km in India alone. It is the largest Tiger Reserve
(b) Srinagar
and National Park. The Similipal-Kuldiha-Hadgarh
(c) Odisha Elephant Reserve popularly known as Mayurbhanj
(d) Maharashra Elephant Reserve in the Odisha was notified in the
(e) None of the above/More than one of the above year 2001.
66th BPSC Re- Exam- 2020 70. Where is wild ass sanctuary?
Ans. (a): Salim Ali Bird sanctuary is one of smallest (a) U.P (b) Assam
protected area of Goa. It is located on the island of (c) Gujarat (d) Rajasthan
chorao in the Mandovi River.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010
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Ans: (c) The Wild Ass Sanctuary of the Little Rann of (c) Yellow-throated Marten
Kutch, Gujarat, spreading across nearly 5000 square (d) Hangul or Kashmir Stag
kilometers of the Little Rann is the only place on UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
earth, where the endangered Indian Wild Ass, known Ans: (d) Dachigam National Park is located 22 km
locally as the ghudkhar, still lives. from Srinagar in Jammu and Kashmir. The name
71. Sanctuary famous for Rhinoceros: literally stands for "Ten villages". It was declared as a
(a) Kaziranga (b) Gir national park in 1981. The Park harbors the last viable
(c) Ranthambore (d) Corbett population of the endangered Hangul or Kashmir Stag.
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2013 76. Which one of the following is not correctly
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012 matched?
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2010 (a) Rajaji National Park: Elephant
Ans: (a) Kaziranga National Park, Assam is a World (b) Periyar National Park: Hangul
Heritage Site. The park hosts two-thirds of the world’s (c) Manas National Park: Elephant
Great One-horned rhinoceros. Kaziranga also boasts (d) Dudhwa National Park: Tiger
the highest density of tigers among the protected areas UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
in the world and was declared a Tiger Reserve in Ans: (b) Periyar National Park, Kerala is a Tiger
2006. Reserve and has a significant population of Indian
72. Kaziranga National Park is famous for: elephants. Therefore, (b) is not correctly matched.
(a) Tigers (b) Rhinoceros Kashmiri Stag or Hangul are found in Dachigam
(c) Elephants (d) Birds National Park, Jammu and Kashmir.
NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018 77. The Periyar Game Sanctuary is famous for-
Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above (a) Lions (b) Spotted Deer
question. (c) Tigers (d) Wild Elephants
73. One horned rhinoceros is found in the UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2011
following States- Ans: (d) Periyar Game Sanctuary is in Kerala. Though
(a) Arunachal Pradesh and Tripura it is a Tiger Reserve, tourists come here to view the
(b) West Bengal and Assam Indian elephants in the act of ablution and playfulness
(c) Arunachal Pradesh and Assam by the Periyar Lake.
(d) West Bengal and Tripura 78. Where is the home of the Asiatic Lion?
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008 (a) Gir Forest (b) Kanha
Ans: (b) The Great one horned rhino is commonly (c) Corbett Park (d) Dudhwa
found in Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan and India. In India, it MPPCS (Pre) G.S 1998
is found in two States namely Assam and West Ans: (a) Besides Africa, Gir National Park in Gujarat
Bengal. is the only place in the world, where lions can be
74. For what is the Manas Sanctuary in Assam spotted roaming free in the wild. The Government of
known? India notified the large geographical extent of Sasan
(a) Bears (b) Tigers Gir as wildlife sanctuary on 18th September, 1965 in
(c) Elephants (d) Birds order to conserve the Asiatic Lion.
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2010 79. Which of the following sanctuaries is not
Ans: (b) In 1989, Manas Sanctuary, Assam acquired correctly matched with the specified protected
the status of a Biosphere Reserve. It extends over an species?
area of 2837 Sq. Km from Sankosh river in the west to (a) Jim Corbett - Tiger
Dhansiri river in the east. The river Manas flows into (b) Ghana - Lion
the national park from the gorges of Bhutan and split (c) Kaziranga - Rhinoceros
into two major streams of which the main water course (d) Periyar - Elephants
comes out of the national park about 30 km UP (Lower) (Pre) G.S 2009
downstream, is known as ‘Beki’. Manas Sanctuary is Ans: (b) Formerly known as the Bharatpur Bird
very rich in the population of Royal Bengal Tigers. Sanctuary, the Keoladeo Ghana National Park is
75. Dachigam National Park is associated with recognized as one of the world’s most important bird
which of the following? breeding and feeding grounds. Therefore (b) is not
(a) Musk Deer correctly matched. Rest all the options are correctly
(b) Golden Oriole matched.
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80. Consider the following areas: endangered species of tiger in the country. According
1. Bandipur 2. Bhitarkanika to Wildlife Institute of India, as on February 2022,
3. Manas 4. Sunderbans total number of Tiger Reserves in India was 52.
Which of the above are Tiger Reserves? Highest number of Tiger Reserves are found in
(a) 1 and 2 only Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra (6 each). Largest
Tiger Reserve is Nagarjunasagar Srisailam in Andhra
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Pradesh/ Telangana. Smallest Tiger Reserve is Orang
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
in Assam. The highest number of Tigers are found in
(d) l, 2, 3 and 4 Corbett Tiger Reserve (231) followed by Nagarhole
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 (127) and Bandipur (126). List of 52 Tiger Reserve in
Ans: (b) Project Tiger was launched by the India is given below:-
Government of India in the year 1973 to save the
Sl. No. Name of Tiger Reserve State
1 Nagarjunsagar Srisailam Andhra Pradesh
2 Namdapha Arunachal Pradesh
3 Kamlang Tiger Reserve Arunachal Pradesh
4 Pakke Arunachal Pradesh
5 Manas Assam
6 Nameri Assam
7 OrangTiger Reserve Assam
8 Kaziranga Assam
9 Valmiki Bihar
10 Udanti-Sitanadi Chattisgarh
11 Achanakmar Chattisgarh
12 Indravati Chhattisgarh
13 Palamau Jharkhand
14 Bandipur Karnataka
15 Bhadra Karnataka
16 Dandeli-Anshi Karnataka
17 Nagarahole Karnataka
18 Biligiri Ranganatha Temple Karnataka
19 Periyar Kerala
20 Parambikulam Kerala
21 Kanha Madhya Pradesh
22 Pench Madhya Pradesh
23 Bandhavgarh Madhya Pradesh
24 Panna Madhya Pradesh
25 Satpura Madhya Pradesh
26 Sanjay-Dubri Madhya Pradesh
27 Melghat Maharashtra
28 Tadoba-Andhari Maharashtra
29 Pench Maharashtra
30 Sahyadri Maharashtra
31 Nawegaon-Nagzira Maharashtra
32 Bor Maharashtra
33 Dampa Mizoram
34 Similipal Odisha
35 Satkosia Odisha

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36 Ranthambore Rajasthan
37 Ramgarh Vishdhari Rajasthan
38 Sariska Rajasthan
39 Mukandra Hills Rajasthan
40 Kalakad-Mundanthurai Tamil Nadu
41 Anamalai Tamil Nadu
42 Mudumalai Tamil Nadu
43 Sathyamangalam Tamil Nadu
44 Srivilliputhur Megamalai Tamil Nadu
45 Kawal Telangana
46 Amrabad Telangana
47 Dudhwa Uttar Pradesh
48 Pilibhit Uttar Pradesh
49 Amangarh (Buffer of Corbett Tiger Reserve) Uttar Pradesh
Corbett Uttarakhand
50 Rajaji Tiger Reserve Uttarakhand
51 Sunderbans West Bengal
52 Buxa West Bengal
Source: Wildlife Institute of India(As on February, 2022)
81. ‘Project Tiger’ in India was started in- Ans. (a): Amangarh Tiger Reserve is located in
(a) 1970 (b) 1973 Amangarh area of Bijnor district of Uttar Pradesh. It has
(c) 1981 (d) 1984 been declared the buffer zone of Corbett Tiger Reserve.
MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008, 2012 Whereas, Bandhavgarh, Kanha and Sanjay-Dubari
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2002 Tiger Reserves are located in Madhya Pradesh.
84. With reference to the detailed report of Tiger
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Census 2018 released by Government of India
question.
in July 2020, which of the following
82. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one statement(s) is/are correct?
has the largest area under “Critical Tiger 1. India has 70% of total global tiger's
Habitat”? population.
(a) Corbett 2. Nearly 30% of India's tigers live outside tiger
(b) Ranthambore reserve.
(c) Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam Select the correct answer using the codes given
(d) Sunderbans below:
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 Codes:
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011 (a) Only 1 is correct
Ans: (c) The Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve (b) Only 2 is correct
(3296.31sq km), which is spread over Nalgonda and (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
Mahabubnagar district is the largest Tiger reserve in (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
India. After the reorganization of the Andhra Pradesh, UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam Tiger Reserve lies in both Ans: (a) Despite 2.5 percent of global land, 4 percent
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. of global rainfall and 16 percent of world’s human
population, India is home to 8 percent of world’s
83. Which of the following Tiger Reserves is not
biodiversity which includes 70 percent of world’s tiger
situated in Madhya Pradesh?
population. Hence, statement 1 is correct. A survey
(a) Amangarh
conducted by Union Environment Ministry revealed
(b) Bandhavgarh that the 17 of India’s then 50 Tiger Reserves are
(c) Kanha approaching their peak carrying capacity. In fact,
(d) Sanjay Dubri nearly a third of the country’s tigers today live outside
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021 protected areas. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
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85. Buxa Tiger Reserve which was in news recently 89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
for relocation of Tigers is situated in answer using the code given below the Lists:
(a) Assam List-I List-II
(b) Madhya Pradesh (Tiger Reserve) (State)
(c) Chhattisgarh A. Bandipur 1. Assam
(d) West Bengal B. Manas 2. Arunachal Pradesh
MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017 C. Namdapha 3. Karnataka
Ans. (d): Buxa Tiger Reserve was in news because of D. Simlipal 4. Orissa
the relocation of tigers situated in the Alipurduar Code :
subdivision of Jalpaiguri West Bengal. It was A B C D
established in 1983. This region was once famous for (a) 3 1 2 4
dolomite mining, later on, converted to National Park in
(b) 1 2 3 4
1992. The Northern boundary of Buxa Tiger Reserve
runs along the, international border with Bhutan. The (c) 3 1 4 2
Sinchula hill range lies all along the northern side of (d) 4 3 2 1
Buxa National Park and Eastern boundary touches that UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2006
of the Assam state. The main rivers flowing across the Ans: (a) Correct match is-
Tiger Reserve are are Sankosh, Raidak, Jayanti, Bandipur - Karnataka
Churnia, Turturi, Phashkhawa, Dima and Nonani. Manas - Assam
86. Which of the following Tiger Reserve of India Namdapha - Arunachal Pradesh
is located in Mizoram? Simlipal - Orissa
(a) Melghat (b) Buxa 90. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) Dampha (d) Bhadra answer using the code given below the Lists:
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2012 List-I List-II
Ans: (c) Dampa Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife (Tiger reserve) (State)
sanctury of Mizoram. It occupies an area of 500 sq. A. Bandipur 1. West Bengal
km. The rich rainforests of Dampa harbour several B. Melghat 2. Karnataka
species such as the swamp deer, tiger, leopard, C. Buxa 3. Arunachal Pradesh
elephant and hoolock gibbon. Dampa Tiger Reserve is
D. Pakhui 4. Maharashtra
probably one of the last few safe havens for the tiger
Codes:
and a host of other animal and bird species.
A B C D
87. Tiger Reserve of Sariska is located in which
(a) 3 4 2 1
State?
(b) 2 4 1 3
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Rajasthan
(c) 2 3 1 4
(c) Uttarakhand (d) Madhya Pradesh
(d) 1 2 4 3
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2012
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2008
Ans: (b) Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in Aravali
hills and forms a part of the Alwar District of Ans: (b) Correct match is-
Rajasthan. Sariska was declared a wildlife sanctuary in Bandipur - Karnataka
1955 and was declared the tiger reserve later in 1978, Melghat - Maharashtra
making it a part of India's Project Tiger. The Reserve Buxa - West Bengal
is immensely rich in flora and fauna and is famous for Pakhui - Arunachal Pradesh
Royal Bengal Tiger. The park has populations of 91. Which of the following is not a Project Tiger
leopards, Nilgai, Sambar, chital etc. Reserve in India?
88. Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for (a) Dudhwa (b) Chilka
which of the following animals? (c) Kanha (d) Manas
(a) Lion (b) Deer RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2012
(c) Tiger (d) Bear Ans: (b) Chilka Lake in Odisha is Asia’s largest
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2010 brackish water lagoon and is recognized as one of the
Ans: (c) Sariska and Ranthambore are the reserves for most important wetlands in the world because it is
Tigers, located in Alwar and Sawai Madhopur district home to a phenomenal variety of birds. Rest of the
in Rajasthan respectively. given options is Tiger Reserve.

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92. Which one of the following pairs is not and Ecological Status) developed by the Wildlife
correctly matched? Institute of India, Dehradun was used for the first time.
Tiger reserve - State M-STRiPES app aims to assist in effective patrolling
(a) Buxa - Bihar and protection, evaluate status and trends of carnivores
and ungulates at regular intervals, monitor habitat
(b) Dampha - Mizoram
change, evaluate human pressures and generate reports
(c) Nameri - Assam
to provide quantitative information for management
(d) Namdapha - Arunachal Pradesh effectiveness assessment and decision making.
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2010 97. The most important strategy for the
Ans: (a) Buxa Tiger Reserve is in West Bengal while conservation of biodiversity together with
rest of the option is correctly matched. traditional human life is the establishment of
93. Which of the following Tiger Reserve lies in (a) Biosphere reserves
two States? (b) Botanical gardens
(a) Kanha (b) Manas (e) National parks
(c) Pench (d) Sariska (d) Wildlife sanctuaries
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2008 IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
Ans: (c) Pench Tiger Reserve lies in two States Ans: (a) For the conservation of biodiversity together
namely Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra. with human activities, Biosphere Reserves are the best
strategy as biosphere reserves are areas comprising
94. Which of the following has been recently
terrestrial, marine and coastal ecosystems. Biosphere
declared as ‘Tiger Reserve’? Reserve promotes economies that are based on the
(a) Balpakram National Park sustainable and wise use of regional natural and
(b) Rajaji National Park human resources. Each reserve promotes solutions
(c) Betala National Park reconciling the conservation of biodiversity with its
(d) Kaziranga National Park sustainable use. Biosphere reserves are ‘science for
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2015 sustainability support sites’. These are special places
for testing interdisciplinary approaches to
Ans: (b) In April 2015, The National Tiger
understanding and managing changes and interactions
Conservation Authority (NTCA) accorded final between social and ecological systems including
approval to two National Parks for being declared as conflict prevention and management of biodiversity.
Tiger Reserve namely Rajaji National Park in There are 701 biosphere reserves in 124 countries,
Uttarakhand and Kudermukh National Park in among them, 18 biosphere reserves are in India.
Karnataka. 98. Which one of the following is not a Biosphere
95. ‘International Tiger Day’ is observed on- Reserve?
(a) 24th July (b) 29th July (a) Agasthyamali (b) Nallamalai
(c) 20th July (d) 25th July (c) Nilgiri (d) Panchmarhi
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014 IAS (Pre) G.S 2005
Ans: (b) Every year, July 29 is celebrated as the Ans: (b) Biosphere reserves are sites established by
International Tiger Day to raise awareness about the countries and recognized under UNESCO's Man and
endangered big cats. It was created when 13 countries the Biosphere (MAB) Program to promote sustainable
came together in 2009 and pledged to double the development based on local community efforts and
world’s Tiger population by 2022. sound science. The program of Biosphere Reserve was
initiated by UNESCO in 1971. The purpose of the
96. The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in
formation of the biosphere reserve is to conserve in
the news in the context of
situ all forms of life along with its support system in
(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna its totality so that it could serve as a referral system for
(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves monitoring and evaluating changes in natural
(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System ecosystems. The first biosphere reserve of the world
(d) Security of National Highways was established in 1979, since then the network of
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 biosphere reserves has increased to 701 in 124
Ans: (b) For the fourth All-India Tiger Estimation, countries across the world. Presently, there are 18
conducted in 2018, an app named M-STRiPES notified biosphere reserves in India. List of Biosphere
(Monitoring System For Tigers-Intensive Protection Reserves in India is given below:

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S. No. Name Date of Location (State)

Notification
1 Nilgiri 01.09.1986 Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka
2 Nanda Devi 18.01.1988 Uttarakhand
3 Nokrek 01.09.1988 Part of Garo hills in Meghalaya.
4 Great Nicobar 06.01.1989 Andaman and Nicobar Islands
5 Gulf of Mannar 18.02.1989 Indian part of Gulf of Mannar between India and Sri Lanka
(Tamil Nadu).
6 Manas 14.03.1989 Assam
7 Sunderbans 29.03.1989 Part of delta of Ganges and Brahmaputra river system in
West Bengal.
8 Simlipal 21.06.1994 Orissa
9 Dibru-Saikhowa 28.07.1997 Assam
10 Dehang-Dibang 02.09.1998 Part of Siang and Dibang Valley in Arunachal Pradesh.
11 Pachmarhi 03.03.1999 Madhya Pradesh
12 Khangchendzonga 07.02.2000 Parts of Khangchendzonga hills and Sikkim.
13 Agasthyamalai 12.11.2001 Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuaries and
their adjoining areas in Kerala.
14 Achanakamar - 30.3.2005 Covers parts of Anupur and Dindori districts of Madhya
Amarkantak Pradesh and parts of Bilaspur districts of Chhattisgarh.
15 Kachchh 29.01.2008 Gujarat
16 Cold Desert 28.08.2009 Pin Valley National Park and surroundings; Chandratal and
Sarchu&Kibber Wildlife Sanctuary in Himachal Pradesh
17 Seshachalam Hills 20.09.2010 Andhra Pradesh
18 Panna 25.08.2011 Madhya Pradesh
Source: Wildlife Institute of India (As on 23 June, 2021)
99. MAB is an international biological intervention Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
of UNESCO. What is full form of MAB? question.
(a) Mammals and Biosphere 102. The ‘Man and Biosphere Programme’ was
(b) Manmade Biosphere Programme launched by:
(c) Man and Biosphere Programme (a) UNICEF (b) UNESCO
(d) Marine Biological Programme (c) I.M.F (d) W.H.O
Manipur PSC-2016 ACF (Pre) G.S. 2017
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
question.
103. ‘Man and Biosphere Program’ (MAB) by
100. How many Biosphere Reserves are there in UNESCO was started in-
India? (a) 1991 (b) 1970
(a) 12 (b) 18 (c) 1972 (d) 1986
(c) 26 (d) 32 RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2013
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2014 Ans: (*) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Ans: (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above question.
question. 104. In which State Nanda devi Biosphere Reserve
is located?
101. Biosphere Reserves are areas to preserve:
(a) Grassland (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Assam
(b) Agriculture produces (c) Himachal (d) Uttarakhand
(c) Atmospheric balance Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2011
(d) Genetic diversity Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UP Lower (Pre) G.S 2004 question.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 1999
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105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 108. Seshachalam Hills Bio-Sphere Reserve is
answer from the code given below the lists. located in which of the following States?
List-I List-II (a) Kerala (b) Andhra Pradesh
Bio-reserve Sector State (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Telangana
A. Manas 1. Madhya Pradesh Tripura PSC (NCS) Pre- 2020
B. Sundarbans 2. Uttar Pradesh Ans. (b): The Seshachalam Hills Biosphere Reserve is
C. Nanda Devi 3. Assam situated in the Seshachalam Hills, which is a part of the
D. Pachmarhi 4. West Bengal Eastern Ghats in Andhra Pradesh. It covers the parts of
Chittoor and Kadapa districts of Andhra Pradesh.
Codes
109. Which Biosphere Reserve in India becomes the
A B C D
11th Biosphere Reserve from India to be
(a) 3 4 2 1
included in the UNESCO designated World
(b) 4 3 2 1 Network of Biosphere Reserves?
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
(d) 2 1 3 4 (b) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 (c) Nicobar Biosphere Reserve
Ans. (*) : Manas Biosphere Reserve Assam (d) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve
Sundarbans West Bengal Karnataka PCS -2020
Nanda Devi Uttarakhand
Ans. (a) : In 2018, the Khangchendzonga Biosphere
Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh
Reserve became the 11th Biosphere Reserve from India
106. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct that had been included in the UNESCO designated
answer using the codes given below the lists. World Network of Biosphere Reserve (WNBR).
List-I List-II 110. Panchmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in:
(Biosphere) (Location) (a) Jharkhand (b) Chhattisgarh
(A) Similipal 1. Uttrakhand (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Pachmarhi 2. Meghalaya
TS PSC Group-I & II Pre-2017
(C) Nanda Devi 3. Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (c): Pachmarhi Biosphere Reserve is located in
(D) Nokrek 4. Odisha
Madhya Pradesh, lies in the center of the Satpura
Codes Range.
A B C D Pachmarhi comprises three protection sites: Bori
(a) 4 3 2 1 Sanctuary, Satpura National Park and Panchmali
(b) 4 3 1 2 Sanctuary (Satpura Tiger Reserve).
(c) 1 3 4 2 Important species include Psilotum triquetra (whisk
(d) 3 4 1 2 fern) and Ophioglossum nudicaule (Adder’s-tongue
UPPCS (Pre.) 2021 ferns).
Ans. (b): The correct match is- 111. The Government of India has established some
(Biosphere) (Location) biosphere reserves. Which of the following
Similipal Odisha reserves was established first?
Pachmarhi Madhya Pradesh (a) Gulf of Mannar (b) Sundarban
Nanda Devi Uttarakhand (c) Nilgiri (d) Nandadevi
Nokrek Meghalaya RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 1992
107. In which of the following States is the Nanda Ans: (c) First biosphere reserve of India is Nilgiri,
Devi Biosphere Reserve situated? which was established in the year 1986. Nilgiri
(a) Bihar (b) Uttarakhand Biosphere Reserve exemplifies the tropical forest
(c) Uttar Pradesh (d) Odisha biome and falls within the Western Ghats (Tamil
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I Nadu, Kerala and Karnataka). Wide range of
Ans. (b) : Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve, located in ecosystems and species diversity is found in this
the Himalayan mountains of Uttarakhand includes core region.
areas of Nanda Devi and Valley of Flowers National 112. The first biosphere reserve in India was
Parks, which are World Heritage site. Nanda Devi established in 1986 at-
National Park has remained intact because of its (a) Nilgiri
inaccessibility. (b) Nanda Devi
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(c) Ram of Kutch 116. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in-

(d) Sunderbans (a) Tamilnadu (b) Odisha
Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I (c) Assam (d) Meghalaya
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above UP Lower (Pre.) G.S. 2016
question.
Uttarakhand Lower (Pre) G.S. 2016
113. Which one of the following Biosphere Reserves
is spread over three states in India? Ans: (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Manas (b) Pachmarhi question.
(c) Agastyamalai (d) Nilgiri 117. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I answer from the codes given below the lists:
Ans. (d) : Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is spread over List-I List-II
three states of India namely Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and
Kerala. (Biosphere sites) (Year of setting up)
A. Nilgiri 1. 2000
114. Which of the following are in Agasthyamalai
Biosphere Reserve? B. Nanda Devi 2. 1989
(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife C. Sunderban 3. 1988
Sanctuaries: and Kalakad Mundanthura D. Kanchanjunga 4. 1986
Tiger Reserve Codes:
(b) Mudumalai , Sathyamangalam and wayanad A B C D
Wildife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley (a) 1 2 3 4
National Park (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and (c) 3 4 1 2
Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries: and (d) 2 3 1 4
Mukurthi National Park
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife
Sancturaries: and Nagarjunasagar-Srisailam Ans: (b) Correct match is-
Tiger Reserve Biosphere sites Year of setting up
IAS (Pre) 2019 Nilgiri 1986
Nanda Devi 1988
Ans:(a) The Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve was
Sundarban 1989
established in 2001 and lies within the Tirunelveli and
Kanniyakumari districts of Tamil Nadu and the Kanchanjunga 2000
Thiruvananthapuram and Kollam districts of Kerala. 118. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara, answer from the codes given below the lists:
Neyyar and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger reserve are List-I List-II
included in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve. (Biosphere Reserve) (Location)
115. Which of the following Biosphere Reserve of A. Norkek 1. Kerala
India is spread over Garo Hills? B. Manas 2. Assam
(a) Norkek C. Dehang Debang 3. Meghalaya
(b) Agasthyamalai D. Agasthyamalai 4. Arunachal Pradesh
(c) Dehang Debang Codes:
(d) Nanda Devi A B C D
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014
(a) 2 3 1 4
Ans: (a) The Nokrek National Park and Biosphere (b) 3 2 4 1
Reserve is in Meghalaya. Nokrek is the highest peak (c) 4 1 3 2
in Garo Hills and home to different species of wild (d) 1 4 2 3
animals including Elephants and Hoolock Gibbons.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2013
The Nokrek National Park has been established at
Nokrek and it abounds in various wildlife including Ans: (b) Correct match is-
herds of wild elephants, rare varieties of birds and Biosphere Reserve Location
pheasants, beside rare orchids. The park is also home Norkek Meghalaya
to a very rare species of citrus-indica endemic to this Manas Assam
place which the locals call memang narang ('orange of Dehang Debang Arunachal Pradesh
the spirits'). Agasthyamalai Kerala

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119. Which one of the following pairs is not Ans: (d) Correct match is-
correctly matched? Biosphere Reserve State
(Biosphere Reserve) (Location) Simlipal Odisha
(a) Manas - Meghalaya Dihang-Dibang Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Nanda Devi - Uttarakhand Norkek Meghalaya
(c) Kanchanjunga - Sikkim Cold Desert Himachal Pradesh
(d) Agasthyamalai - Kerala 123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2013 answer by using the codes given below:
Ans: (a) Manas Biosphere Reserve is in Assam while List-I List-II
rest of the Biosphere Reserves is correctly matched. (Biosphere Reserve) (State)
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha
120. Which one of the following pairs is not
properly matched? B. Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh
Biosphere Reserve State C. Panchmarhri 3. Tamil Nadu
(a) Simlipal - Odhisha D. Simlipal 4. Assam
(b) Norkek - Meghalaya Codes:
(c) Agasthyamalai - Kerala A B C D
(d) Kanchanjunga - Himachal Pradesh (a) 3 2 4 1
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2012 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 3 4 2 1
Ans: (d) Kanchanjunga Biosphere Reserve is in
(d) 1 2 4 3
Sikkim. Rest is correctly matched.
CDS (Pre) G.S 2012
121. Which of the following pairs is correctly
matched? Ans: (c) Correct match is-
Biosphere Reserve State
(a) Simlipal Assam
Nilgiri Tamil Nadu
(b) Norkek Meghalaya
Manas Assam
(c) Dehang- Debang Sikkim Panchmarhri Madhya Pradesh
(d) Agasthyamalai Karnataka Simlipal Odisha
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2007 th
124. The 16 Biosphere Reserve of India ‘Cold
Ans: (b) Correct match is- Desert’ lies in-
Biosphere Reserve State (a) Arunachal Pradesh
Simlipal Odhisha (b) Himachal Pradesh
Norkek Meghalaya
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
Dehang- Debang Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand
Agasthyamalai Kerala
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2010
122. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Ans: (*) The Cold Desert is situated in the Himalayas
answer by using the codes given below: and stretches from Ladakh in the north to Kinnaur
List-I List-II (Himachal Pradesh) in the south. The region
(Biosphere Reserve) (State) constitutes a Cold Desert biome with harsh climatic
A. Simlipal 1. Himachal Pradesh conditions, which can be attributed to two factors. One
B. Dihang-Dibang 2. Uttarakhand is its location on the leeward side of the Himalayas,
C. Norkek 3. Arunachal Pradesh which makes it a rain-shadow zone inaccessible to the
D. Cold Desert 4. Odisha annual southeastern monsoon winds, thus creating
desert conditions with low levels of precipitation.
5. Meghalaya
Second is its very high elevation (3000–5000m) that
Codes: adds to the coldness in its environment.
A B C D
125. Out of all the Biosphere Reserves in India, four
(a) 1 3 5 4 have recognized on the World Network by
(b) 1 5 2 4 UNESCO. Which one of the following is not
(c) 4 5 2 1 one of them?
(d) 4 3 5 1 (a) Gulf of Mannar
UPRO/ARO (Pre) G.S 2016 (b) Khangchendzonga

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(c) Nanda Devi lagoons. The core area serves as a refuge for migratory
(d) Sundarbans and resident bird species and is one of the few areas
IAS (Pre) G.S 2008 where both of the crocodile species (Crocodilus
Ans: (*) In the year 2008, when the question was palustris and Crocodilus porosus) present in Sri Lanka
asked, Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve was not can be found.
in the list. Khangchendzonga Biosphere reserve was 129. Which one of the following is (regarding area)
added to the list in 2018. List of Biosphere Reserves in
the largest UNESCO approved Biosphere
India recognized by UNESCO is given below along
Reserve of India?
with the year in which it was recognized by the
UNESCO: (a) Nilgiri (b) Nanda Devi
1. Nilgiri (2000) (c) Sundarban (d) Gulf of Mannar
2. Gulf of Mannar (2001) UPRO/ ARO (Pre) G.S 2013
3. Sundarban (2001) Ans: (d) In terms of area, the largest UNESCO
4. Nanda Devi (2004) approved Biosphere Reserve in India is Gulf of
5. Nokrek (2009)
Mannar (10,500 sq. Km). Among all the Biospheres in
6. Pachmarhi( 2009)
India, Kutch (12,454 sq. Km) is the largest Biosphere
7. Similipal( 2009)
8. Achanakmar-Amarkantak( 2012) Reserve of India in terms of area.
9. Great Nicobar (2013) 130. Most of the wildlife protected areas in India
10. Agasthyamala( 2016) are surrounded by-
11. Khangchendzonga (2018) (a) Dense forest
126. Which one of the following does not find a (b) Rivers and lakes
place in UNESCO network of Biosphere (c) Human settlements
Reserve?
(d) Mountains and hills
(a) Sundarban
(b) Gulf of Mannar Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2006
(c) Rann of Kutch Ans: (a) Protected areas are those in which human
(d) Nilgiri occupation or at least the exploitation of resources is
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009 limited. The definition that has been widely accepted
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above across regional and global frameworks has been
question. provided by the International Union for Conservation
of Nature (IUCN) in its categorization guidelines for
127. Which of the following bio-sphere reserves of
India have been recognized by the UNESCO? protected areas. Protected areas in India include
Select the correct answer from the codes given National Parks, Wildlife Sanctuaries and Conservation
below: and Community reserves. Most of the wildlife
1. Nilgiri 2. Nanda Devi protected areas in India are surrounded by dense
3. Manas 4. Similipal forest.
Codes : 131. Consider the following pairs:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve: Garo Hills
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range
UPPCS (Main) G.S. Ist 2008 3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills
Ans: (*) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
matched?
question.
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 and 3 Only
128. Where is Bundala Biosphere Reserve which (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
has been recently added to the UNESCO's Man (e) None of the above
and Biosphere (MAB) network, located? GOA PSC, 2022
(a) Russia (b) India Ans. (a): Nokrek Biosphere Reserve-
(c) Sri Lanka (d) Bangladesh It is located in the Garo Hills district of Meghalaya.
The biosphere reserve derives its name from the
IAS (Pre) G.S 2006
Nokrek hill, the highest peak of the Garo Hills.
Ans: (c) The Bundala Biosphere Reserve is located on Loktak Lake-
the southeast coast of Sri Lanka. The core area, which It is a freshwater lake located in Manipur and is
is also a national park, includes four brackish water famous for the phumdis floating over it.
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Keibul Lamjao National Park, the only floating 2018. This makes Singphan Elephant Reserve as the
national park in the world is situated on this lake. 30th elephant reserve in the country. It is located in
Namdapha National park- Mon district of Nagaland. It is strategically located in
It is located in the changeling district of Arunachal contiguity with the Abhaypur Reserve Forest of Assam.
Pradesh and binds a place between the Dapha bum The creation of reserve will give better protection and
range and the patkal range. conservation of elephants in the state and spreads over
Noa Dihing river crosses the national park from east an area of 5825 acres (2357 hac). As per recent census
to west. report (2017), Nagaland has population of around 446
Barail Range- elephants.
It is a tertiary mountain range located in the dima 134. Which of the following Wildlife Sanctuaries of
hasao district of Assam, between the Brahmaputra U.P. was established in 1975?
and Barak basins. (a) Kishanpur (b) Katarniaghat
Dafla hills- (c) Raipur (d) Chambal
It is located in Arunachal Pradesh and is bounded by UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
the broad range in the east and Aka hill on the west. Ans. (*) : In the official website of Uttar Pradesh
The Dafla tribe inhabits it. government, it has been written that Katarniaghat
132. Match the items in List-I with List-II and select Wildlife Sanctuary was established in 1975 but on
the correct answer from the codes given below: ENVIS Center on Wildlife and Protected area site, it has
List-I List-II been written that Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary was
A. Bandli Sanctuary 1. Mandi established in 1976.
B. Daranghati 2. Upper catchment 135. The Chakrashila Wildlife Sanctuary is located
Sanctuary areas of Tirthan Sainj in:
and Jiva rivers (a) Assam (b) Tripura
C. Gamgul Siahbehi 3. Shimla (c) Meghalaya (d) Uttar Pradesh
Sanctuary OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I
D. Lippa Asrang 4. Chamba Ans. (a) : Chakrashila wildlife sanctuary is a wildlife
Sanctuary sanctuary falling under Kokrajhar district and some
5. Kinnaur adjacent area of Dhubri district of Assam. It is famous
Codes : for the Golden Langur and is the second protected
(A) (B) (C) (D) habitat for Golden Langur in India.
(a) (5) (2) (1) (4) • Chakrashila Hill was first declared as reserve forest in
(b) (1) (3) (2) (5) 1966 and on 14 July 1994 it was recognized with the
status of sanctuary by the Government of Assam.
(c) (1) (3) (4) (5)
(d) (1) (2) (4) (5) • A local environmental activist group, Nature's Beckon
Himachal Pradesh PSC (HPAS) Pre 2021 played a vital role for this recognition.
Ans. (c) : The correct match is- 136. In India, Project Elephant was launched in the
year-
List-I (Sanctuary) List-II (Location)
(a) 1968 (b) 1970
Bandli sanctuary Mandi
(c) 1972 (d) 1974
Daranghati Sanctuary Shimla
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2007
Gamgul Siahbehi
Ans: (*) Project Elephant, a centrally sponsored
Sanctuary Chamba
scheme, was launched in February 1992 to provide
Lippa Asrang Sanctuary Kinnaur
financial and technical support to major elephant
133. Singphan Wildlife Sanctuary (23.57 Sq.kms), bearing States in India for protection of elephants,
which is much bigger than Rangapahar wildlife their habitats and corridors. It also seeks to address the
Sanctuary, is located in: issues of human-elephant conflict and welfare of
(a) Tuensang District (b) Longleng district domesticated elephants. The Project is being
(c) Peren District (d) Mon District implemented in 13 States namely Andhra Pradesh,
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Jharkhand, Karnataka,
Ans. (d) : The Nagaland government has declared the Kerala, Meghalaya, Nagaland, Orissa, Tamil Nadu,
Singphan Wildlife Sanctuary as an elephant reserve Uttaranchal, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
with the approval of Government of India in August Additionally, there are only 17 States in India in which

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elephants exist in the wild state. Project Elephant has 29. Anamudi Elephant Reserve Kerala
declared 33 elephant reserves in 12 States to protect
30. Periyar Elephant Reserve Kerala
elephant populations in the wild and develop their
habitat. 31. Srivilliputhur Elephant
Tamil Nadu
Elephant Reserves in India Reserve
S.N. Elephant Reserve State 32. Shivalik Elephant Reserve Uttarakhand
1. Mayurjharna Elephant 33. Uttar Pradesh Elephant
West Bengal Uttar Pradesh
Reserve Reserve
2. Singhbhum Elephant Reserve Jharkhand 137. Which of the following statement regarding
Project Elephant launched by Government of
3. Mayurbhanj Elephant
Orissa India is NOT correct?
Reserve
(a) It was launched in 1991-92
4. Mahanadi Elephant Reserve Orissa (b) It addressed issues of man-animal conflict
5. Sambalpur Elephant Reserve Orissa (c) Welfare of only wild elephants is taken care
6. Baitami Elephant Reserve Orissa off
7. South Orissa Elephant (d) It was launched as a centrally sponsored
Orissa scheme
Reserve
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2017
8. Lemru Elephant Reserve Chhattishgarh
Ans: (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
9. Badalkhol - question.
Tamorpingla Elephant Chhattishgarh
Reserve 138. In which of the following State of India is the
'Kameng Elephant Reserve' situated?
11. Arunachal
Kameng Elephant Reserve (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam
Pradesh
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya
12. Sonitpur Elephant Reserve Assam UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
13 Dihing-Patkai Elephant Ans. (a) : Kameng Elephant Reserve situated in
Assam
Reserve Arunachal Pradesh.
14. South Arunachal Elephant Arunachal 139. In which of the following National Parks of
Reserve Pradesh India, Rhinoceros rehabilitation is being done?
15. Kaziranga-Karbi (a) Corbett National Park
Assam
Anglong Elephant Reserve (b) Dudhwa National Park
16. Dhansiri-Lungding Elephant (c) Kanha Natinal Park
Assam
Reserve (d) Kaziranga National Park
17. Intanki Elephant Reserve Nagaland UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2004
18. Chirang-Ripu Elephant Ans: (b) The first rhinoceros rehabilitation program
Assam
Reserve was initiated in April 1984 in Dudhwa National Park,
19. Eastern Dooars Elephant Lakhimpur Kheri district of Uttar Pradesh. Dudhwa
West Bengal National Park launched its second rhinoceros
Reserve
20. Garo Hills Elephant Reserve Meghalaya rehabilitation program in 2018.
140. Dudhwa National Park is situated in which of
21. Khasi-hills Elephant Reserve Meghalaya
the following districts of Uttar Pradesh?
22. Mysore Elephant Reserve Karnataka (a) Sitapur (b) Lakhimpur Kheri
23. Wayanad Elephant Reserve Kerala (c) Pilibhit (d) Bahraich
24. Nilgiri Elephant Reserve Tamil Nadu UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
25. Rayala Elephant Reserve Andhra Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
26. Nilambur Elephant Reserve Kerala
141. Recently there was a proposal to translocate
27. Coimbatore Elephant
Tamil Nadu some of the lions from their natural habitat in
Reserve
Gujarat to which one of the following sites?
28. Anamalai Elephant Reserve Tamil Nadu (a) Corbett National Park
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(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary Code:

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary A B C D
(d) Sariska National Park (a) 4 1 5 2
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 (b) 5 2 3 1
Ans: (b) In 2013, The Supreme Court of India ruled in (c) 4 2 5 1
favour of translocation of the Asiatic lion from their
(d) 5 1 3 2
natural habitat in Gujarat to Kuno Palpur Wildlife
Sanctuary, Madhya Pradesh in the interest of the IAS (Pre) G.S 2006
genetic stability of the species. Ans: (c) Chandraprabha Wild Life Sanctuary is
142. In which one of the following States is Pakhui located in Chandauli district of Uttar Pradesh. It is
Wildlife Sanctuary located? near to the Varanasi city. Karera Bird Sanctuary is
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Manipur located in Madhya Pradesh and is about 55 kilometers
(c) Meghalaya (d) Nagaland from Shivpuri. Jaisamand Sanctuary is situated at a
IAS (Pre) G.S 2018 distance of 51 km south east of Udaipur. The
Ans: (a) Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary lies in the foothills Jaisamand sanctuary is situated besides an artificial
of the Eastern Himalaya in the East Kameng District lake, which is popularly referred to as Dhevar Lake.
of Arunachal Pradesh. It was declared a sanctuary in Nahargarh Biological Park, a part of the Nahargarh
1977 and was earlier part of the Khellong Forest sanctuary is located about 12 km from Jaipur on the
Division. It has been declared a Tiger Reserve in 2002. Jaipur-Delhi highway.
143. Which of the following is not correctly 146. Match List I with List II and select the correct
matched? answer using the code given below the lists:
Wildlife Sanctuary State List-I List-II
(a) Mukambika Karnataka
(Sanctuary) (State)
(b) Dalma Jharkhand
A. Garmpani 1. Andhra Pradesh
(c) Neyyar Chhattisgarh
(d) Kotigaon Goa B. Nam Dafa 2. Arunachal Pradesh
MPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 C. Pakhal 3. Assam
Ans: (c) Mukambika wildlife sanctuary is situated in D. Sariska 4. Rajasthan
Udupi district of Karnataka. Dalma Wildlife Sanctuary Codes :
is located on the ranges of Dalma Hills and is around A B C D
13 kms from Jamshedpur, Jharkhand. Neyyar wildlife (a) 2 3 1 4
sanctuary is located at Thiruvananthapuram district of (b) 4 3 1 2
Kerala. Kotigaon wildlife sanctuary is located in Goa. (c) 1 2 4 3
Hence, (c) is not correctly matched.
(d) 3 2 1 4
144. Which of the following States has the ideal
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2003
habitat for the Siberian crane?
(a) Rajasthan (b) Arunachal Pradesh Ans: (d) Correct match is-
(c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Odisha Sanctuary State
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2010 Garmpani - Assam
Ans: (a) Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan is Nam Dafa - Arunachal Pradesh
recognized as one of the world’s most important bird Pakhal - Andhra Pradesh
breeding and feeding grounds. It is also known as the Sariska - Rajasthan
breeding ground for the rare and elusive to spot 147. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Siberian crane. answer using the code given below the lists:
145. Match List I with List II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer using the code given below the lists: (Park/Sanctuary) (State)
List-I List-II A. Dochigam Wildlife 1. Madhya Pradesh
(National Park/ (Nearby Town)
Sanctuary
Wildlife Sanctuary)
A. Chandra Prabha 1. Jaipur B. Keoladeo Ghana- 2. Rajasthan
B. Karera 2. Jhansi Bird Sanctuary
C. Jaisamand 3. Agra C. Kanha National Park 3. Kerala
D. Nahargarh 4. Varanasi D. Periyar Wildlife 4. Jammu and Kashmir
5. Udaipur Sanctuary
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Codes: Barail is the highest hill range in Assam. The Barail

A B C D Range is the watershed between the Brahmaputra and
(a) 4 2 1 3 Barak rivers. Therefore pair 2 is not correctly
(b) 1 3 2 4 matched. Namdapha National Park is the largest
(c) 2 1 4 3 protected area in the Eastern Himalaya biodiversity
(d) 3 4 2 1 hotspot and is located in Arunachal Pradesh.
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2014 Namdapha National Park is nestled between the Patkai
range and Dapha bum range of Mishmi Hills.
Ans: (a) Correct match is-
Therefore pair 3 is also not correctly matched.
Sanctuary State
Dochigam Wildlife Jammu and Kashmir 150. Which one of the following is also known as
Sanctuary Top Slip?
Keoladeo Ghana- Bird Rajasthan (a) Simlipal National Park
Sanctuary (b) Periyar Wilddlife Sanctuary
Kanha National Park Madhya Pradesh (c) Manjira Wildlife Sanctuary
Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary Kerala (d) Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary and
148. Recently, for the first time in our country, National Park
which of the following State has declared a (I.A.S. (Pre) G.S. 2007)
particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? Ans: (d) Indira Gandhi National Park and Indra
(a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Himachal Pradesh Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary (formerly called Anamalai
(c) Karnataka (d) Maharashtra Wildlife Sanctuary) widely known as Top Slip is
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016 located in the Coimbatore district of Tamil Nadu.
Ans: (d) Maharashtra became the first State in India to Anamalai Wildlife Sanctuary was established in the
have a "State butterfly". Maharashtra declared the year of 1976. Indira Gandhi Wildlife Sanctuary was
Blue Mormon ( Papilio polymnestor) as the State declared a Project Tiger sanctuary in 2008.
butterfly. The Blue Mormon is a large, swallowtail 151. The garden of five seasons is located near-
butterfly found primarily in Sri Lanka and India, (a) Dal Lake (b) Mehrauli
mainly restricted to the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, (c) Silent Valley (d) Ooty
South India and coastal belts. It is reportedly the
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009
second largest butterfly found in India, just smaller
than the southern birdwing. Ans: (b) The garden of five seasons is not just a park;
it is a space with a variety of activities, inviting public
149. Consider the following pairs:
interaction and exploration. The twenty-acre garden
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve : Garo Hills
of five seasons site is located at Said-Ul-Azaib village,
2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake : Barail Range close to the Mehrauli heritage area in New Delhi. The
3. Namdapha National Park : Dafla Hills Garden was inaugurated in February 2003.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
152. Consider the following pairs- Protected area -
matched? Well- known for
(a) 1 only 1. Bhiterkanika, Orissa : Salt Water Crocodile
(b) 2 and 3 only 2. Desert National Park, Rajasthan
(c) 1, 2 and 3 : Great Indian Bustard
(d) None of these 3. Eravikulam, Kerala : Hoolak Gibbon
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly
IAS (Pre) G.S 2013
matched?
Ans: (a) Nokrek is the highest peak in Garo Hills and (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
home to different species of wild animals including (c) 2 only (d) 1,2 and 3
Elephants and Hoolock Gibbons. The Nokrek National IAS (Pre) G.S 2010
Park has been established at Nokrek. Therefore pair 1 Ans: (b) Bhiterkanika National Park, Orissa is well
is correctly matched. Loktak Lake, located near
known for its salt water crocodile and Desert National
Moirang in Manipur is the largest freshwater (sweet)
Park, Rajasthan is famous for its Great Indian
lake in North -East India, also called the only Floating
lake in the world due to the floating phumdis Bustard while Eravikulam National Park, Kerala is
(heterogeneous mass of vegetation, soil and organic home to famous Nilgiri Tahr, locally called as ‘Cloud
matters at various stages of decomposition) on it. Goats’.

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153. The ‘Cloud Goats’ of the Nilgiri are found in- Ans: (c) Correct match is-
(a) Eravikulam National Park Sanctuary State
(b) Mann Forest Sharavati Valley Karnataka
Satkosia Gorge Odisha
(c) Periyar Reserve
Pirotan Island Gujarat
(d) Silent Valley Bhagwan Mahavir Goa
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2005 157. Megapode Sanctuary was in the news recently.
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Where is it located?
question. (a) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
(b) Uttar Pradesh
154. At which place India’s first Butterfly Park has
(c) Uttarakhand
been established?
(d) Rajasthan
(a) Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru J & K PSC 2021 Paper-(I)
(b) National Zoological Park, Kolkata Ans. (a): Megapode sanctuary was located in Andaman
(c) Kaziranga National Park and Nicobar islands. In January 2021, the National
(d) None of the above Board for Wildlife (NBWL) de-notified Megapode
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2008 wildlife sanctuary in the Nicobar Islands. The decision
was taken because the Megapode Island had gone
Ans: (a) India’s first butterfly park was established at underwater post the catastrophic tsunami of 2004. The
Bannerghatta Biological Park, Bengaluru. In 2018, island had ceased to exist. The Megapode wildlife
Butterfly Park was also opened in Kanpur, Uttar sanctuary was removed from the list of protected areas
Pradesh. of India.
155. Which of the following is not correctly 158. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the
district of-
matched? (a) Almora (b) Chamoli
(a) Mahuatai Sanctuary - Palamu (c) Uttarkashi (d) Pithoragarh
(b) Topchanchi Sanctuary - Dhanbad Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2003
(c) Udhwa Bird Sanctuary - Kodarma Ans: (d) Askot Wildlife Sanctuary is one of the
(d) Lavalong Sanctuary - Chatra India’s most famous wildlife sanctuary and is known
as the "Green Paradise of India". Askot Wildlife
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2003 Sanctuary is located in the Pithoragarh district of
Ans: (c) Udhwa Bird Sanctuary is located about 40 Uttarakhand.
Kms away from Sahebganj town in Jharkhand. Rest is 159. The first Marine Sanctuary in India with coral
correctly matched. reefs, mollusks, dolphins, tortoises and various
156. Match List-I with List-II and choose the kinds of sea birds within its bounds has been
established in:
correct answer from the codes given below:
(a) Sundarbans (b) Chilka Lake
List-I List - II (c) Gulf of Kachchh (d) Lakshadweep
(Sanctuary) (State) IAS (Pre) G.S 1999
A. Sharavati Valley 1. Gujarat Ans: (c) Marine National Park, Jamnagar is the first
B. Satkosia Gorge 2. Goa National Marine Park of India. Marine National Park
(Gulf of Kutch) is situated on the southern coast of the
C. Pirotan Island 3. Odisha
Gulf of Kachchh in the Jamnagar district of Gujarat.
D. Bhagwan Mahavir 4. Karnataka There are 42 islands on the Jamnagar coast in the
Codes: Marine National Park, most of them surrounded by
A B C D reefs. Out of which, 33 islands have coral reef. Major
ecosystem types available are coral reefs, mangroves,
(a) 2 1 3 4 mudflats, creeks, sea grass and sea weeds, estuaries,
(b) 4 1 3 2 sandy strands to saline grasslands, marshy areas and
(c) 4 3 1 2 rocky shores. All ecosystems support rich marine and
bird life. Gangetic Dolphins, giant Crabs, Ray Fish,
(d) 2 3 1 4 rarely found Balooga whales, giant Leather Back
CDS (Pre) G.S 2015 Turtles, Horn Fish are the dominant fauna found here.

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160. The Marine National Park is located in – Ans: (c) The Dampa Tiger Reserve lies in west
(a) Gulf of Kutch Mizoram in northeastern India along the border
(b) Sunderbans between India and Bangladesh. Therefore first pair is
(c) Chilka Lake correctly matched. Gumti is the largest wildlife
(d) None of the above sanctuary of the Tripura. Hence pair 2 is not correctly
UPPCS (Main) G.S. 2016 matched. Standing at an altitude of 3841 m, Saramati
Ans: (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above is the highest peak in the Nagaland. This peak is
question. located on the Nagaland-Myanmar border. Therefore
161. Which of the following statement(s) is (are) pair 3 is correctly matched.
correct with reference to Marine National 164. Consider the following pairs :
Parks? Wetlands : Confluence of rivers
1. Marine National Park in Gulf of Kutch is 1. Harike Wetlands : Confluence of Beas
situated on the southern shore of the Gulf in and Satluj/Sutlej
the Devbhumi Dwaraka District of Gujarat and 2. Keoladeo Ghana : Confluence of Banas
it is the first National Marine Park of India. National Park and Chambal
2. Gahirmatha is the first and the only Marine 3. Kolleru Lake : Confluence of Musi
Sanctuary of Orissa, where Olive Ridely sea and Krishna
turtles migrate in huge numbers.
Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
(a) Only 1 (b) and 2
matched?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c) : Marine National Park in the Gulf of Kutch is
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
situated on the southern shore of the Gulf of kutch in
the Devbhumi Dwarka district of Gujarat. Marine Ans: (a) Harike Wetlands is situated on the
National park is the first National Marine Park of India. confluence of the river Beas and Sutlez in Punjab.
The Marine National Park was established in 1982 Therefore pair 1 is correctly matched. Keoladeo
under the provision of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1927 Ghana National Park is situated at the confluence of
of India. river Gambhir and Banganga. Hence pair 2 is not
Gahirmatha Beach is in Kendrapara district of Odisha. correctly matched. Kolleru Lake, Andhra Pradesh is
The beach separates the Bhitarkanika Mangrove from the largest fresh water lake and is located between
the Bay of Bengal and is the world's most important Krishna and Godavari delta. Therefore pair 3 is not
nesting beach for Olive Ridely sea turtles. The beach is correctly matched.
part of Gahirmatha Marine Wildlife Sanctuary, which 165. Two important rivers- one with its source in
also includes the adjacent portion of the Bay of Bengal. Jharkhand (and known by a different name in
162. Suklaphanta Wildlife Reserve is located in- Odisha), and another, with its source in
(a) Nepal (b) Myanmar Odisha- merge at a place only a short distance
(c) Bhutan (d) Sri Lanka from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2016 into sea. This is an important site of wildlife
Ans: (a) The Suklaphanta National Park and Wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which
Reserve, Nepal is named after the dazzling open one of the following could be this?
grassland, which is called ‘Phanta’ in Nepali. The (a) Bhitarkanika
National Park has the largest grassland in the far (b) Chandipur- on- sea
western terai. It is also home to Nepal’s (probably
(c) Gopalpur- on –sea
Asia’s) largest population of swamp deer.
(d) Simlipal
163. Consider the following pairs-
1. Dampa Tiger Reserve: Mizoram IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
2. Gumti Wildlife Sanctuary: Sikkim Ans: (a) Bhitarkanika wetland is represented by as
3. Saramati Peak: Nagaland many as three protected areas namely ‘Bhitarkanika
Which of the above pairs is /are correctly National Park’, ‘ Bhitarkanika Wildlife Sanctuary’ and
matched? ‘Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary’. Bhitarkanika is a
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only unique habitat of mangrove forests criss-crossed with
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 numerous creeks and mud flats located in Kendrapara
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
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district of Odisha. It is one of the largest mangrove eco 168. Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary is situated in-
systems in India. It is located in the estuary of (a) Chandigarh
Brahmani, Baitarani, Dhamra and Mahanadi river
(b) Bharatpur
systems. The Brahmani river, known as ‘South Koel’
(c) Gurgaon
in its upper reaches, rises in Jharkhand. The Baitarni
river, rises near Dumuria village in the hill ranges of (d) Gandhi Nagar
Kendujhar district of Odisha. The river is known as BPSC (Pre) G.S 2015
‘Dhamra’ in its lower reaches. Brahmani and Baitarni Ans: (c) Sultanpur National Park & Bird Sanctuary is
form common delta area before out falling into the
located in Gurgaon district of Haryana.
Bay of Bengal. Bhitarkanika wetland is situated at this
delta. Hence (a) is the correct answer. 169. Chinar Wildlife Sanctuary is located in-
166. From the ecological point of view, which one of (a) Jammu and Kashmir
the following assumes importance in being a (b) Kerala
good link between the Eastern Ghats and the (c) Sikkim
Western Ghats? (d) Tamil Nadu
(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2005
(b) Nallamala Forest
Ans: (b) Chinnar Wildlife Sanctuary in Idukki, Kerala
(c) Nagarhole National Park
(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve is home to the Great Grizzled Squirrel of India.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 Numbering less than 200, they are among the most
endangered species of earth.
Ans: (a) Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant
wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve 170. Mahuadanr is located in which district of
between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Jharkhand?
Ghats and a genetic link between the four other (a) Palamu
protected areas which it adjoins, Billigiriranga Swamy
(b) Kodarma
Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai
National Park and Bandipur National Park. (c) Chatra
(d) Latehar
167. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists- Jharkhand PCS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2016
List-I List-II Ans: (d) Mahuadanr Sanctuary is located at Latehar
(National Parks/ (State) district of Jharkhand.
Wildlife Sanctuary) 171. The largest Botanical Garden of the world is
A. Bondla Wildlife Sanctuary 1. Odisha at-
B. Kangerghat National Park 2. Assam
(a) Kew (England)
C. Orang Sanctuary 3. Chhattisgarh
(b) Paris (France)
D. Ushakothi Wildlife 4. Goa
Sanctuary (c) Howrah (India)
5. Tripura (d) Tokyo (Japan)
Code: UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
A B C D Ans: (a) A botanical garden is a garden dedicated to
(a) 2 1 5 3 the collection, cultivation and display. Gardens in
(b) 4 3 2 1 London, England has the world’s largest collection of
(c) 2 3 5 1 living plants (more than 30,000 different species of
(d) 4 1 2 3 plants).
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2005
172. Which of the following countries has more than
Ans: (b) Correct match is-
30% of its total area under National Park?
Bondia Wildlife Sanctuary - Goa
Kangerghat National Park - Chhattisgarh (a) Israel (b) Bhutan
Orang Sanctuary - Assam (c) Iceland (d) Gabon
Ushakothi Wildlife Sanctuary - Odisha UPPCS (Pre) (Re- Exam) G.S 2015

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Ans: (b) The protected areas of Bhutan are its national 174. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
parks, nature preserves and wildlife sanctuaries. Most answer using the code given below-

of these protected areas were first set aside in the List-I List-II
(WildlifeReserve) (District)
1960s, originally covering most of the northern and
A. Jodibid Gadwal 1. Jhunjhunu
southern regions of Bhutan. Today, protected areas
B. Guda Bishnoi 2. Nagor
cover more than 42% of the Bhutan, mostly in the
C. Gogelav 3. Jodhpur
northern regions. National Parks in Bhutan covers
D. Beed 4. Bikaner
33.66% of the total geographical area of the country.
Code b:
173. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using code given below: (a) 4 3 1 2
List-I List-II (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 4 2
(Protected areas of India) (Number in year 2018)
(d) 1 2 3 4
A. Community Reserves (i) 103
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S, 2016
B. Conservation Reserves (ii) 46 Ans: (b) Correct match is-
C. National Parks (iii) 544 List-I List-II
D. Wild life Sanctuaries (iv) 76 WildlifeReserve District
Codes : Jodibid Gadwal 1. Bikaner
A B C D
Guda Bishnoi 2. Jodhpur
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
Gogelav 3. Nagor
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
Beed 4. Jhunjhunu
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
175. Bakhira Bird Sanctuary is situated in-
(d) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i) (a) Basti
RAS/RTS (Pre) 2018 (b) Faizabad
Ans: (*) As per National Wildlife Database (May (c) Gonda
2022), total number of Community reserves in India is (d) Unnao
UPPCS Spl, (Pre) G.S. 2008
219, covering an area of 1446.28 km2, which is 0.04%
Ans: (a) Bird Sanctuaries of Uttar Pradesh
of the geographical area of the country. According to
1. Bakhira Bird Sanctuary Basti (Now Sant Kabir
National Wildlife Database (May 2022), there are 100 Nagar)
existing Conservation Reserves in India covering an 2. Lakhbahosi Bird Sanctuary Kannauj
area of 4927.28 km2, which is 0.15% of the 3. Patna Bird Sanctuary Etah
geographical area of the country. There are 106 4. Samaspur Bird Sanctuary Rae Bareli
5. Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar Bird Sanctuary
existing National Parks in India covering an area of
Pratapgarh
44372.42 km2, which is 1.35% of the geographical 6. Nawabganj Bird Sanctuary Unnao
area of the country (National Wildlife Database, May 7. Sandi Bird Sanctuary Hardoi
2022). There are 565 existing wildlife sanctuaries in 8. Soor Sarovar Bird Sanctuary Agra
India covering an area of 122560.85 Sq km, which is 9. Surha taal Bird Sanctuary Ballia
10. Okhla Bird Sanctuary Gautam Budh Nagar
3.73% of the geographical area of the country
11. Saman Bird Sanctuary Mainpuri
(National Wildlife Database, May 2022). 12. Vijay Sagar Bird Sanctuary Mahoba

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10.
Non Conventional Energy Sources
1. The solar energy is a: 5. Most of the sources of energy we use, represent
(a) Conventional energy source stored solar energy. Which of the following is
(b) Non-Conventional energy source NOT ultimately derived from the sun's energy?
(a) Geothermal energy (b) Nuclear energy
(c) Non-renewable energy source
(c) Wind energy (d) Biomass energy
(d) Exhaustible energy source
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2021 Paper-I
Ans. (*) : Among the given options, nuclear energy
Ans. (b): Renewable energy sources also called as non- and biomass energy are not derived from the sun's
conventional energy are sources that are continuously energy.
replenished by natural processes. For example, solar
energy, wind energy, bio-energy (bio-fuels grown 6. Which one of the following is a renewable
sustainably), hydroenergy, geothermal energy, wave and source of energy?
tidal energy are examples of renewable energy sources. (a) Coal (b) Nuclear energy
Renewable energy comes directly from sun and wind and (c) Petrol (d) Solar energy
can never be exhausted, therefore they are called MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
renewable. A renewable energy system converts the Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
energy found in sunlight, wind, falling-water, sea waves, question.
geothermal heat or biomass into a form, which can be 7. Renewable source of energy is:
used such as heat or electricity. Most important aspect of
(a) Coal (b) Fossil Fuels
renewable energy or non-conventional energy sources is
that they are pollution free energy sources. (c) Natural gas (d) Sun
However, most of the world's energy sources are derived Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
from conventional sources-fossil fuels such as coal, oil, Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and natural gases. These fuels are often termed as non- question.
renewable energy sources. Although, the available 8. Which is not renewable resource?
quantity of these fuels are extremely large, they are (a) Energy of water (b) Energy of sun
nevertheless finite and so will in principle run out at (c) Energy of earth (d) None of the above
some time in the future.
MPPSC (Pre) G.S. 2015
Renewable energy sources are essentially flows of
energy, whereas the fossil and nuclear fuels are in Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
essence, stocks of energy. question.
2. A non-renewable source of energy is: 9. Renewable energy can be obtained from
(a) Solar energy (b) Petroleum (a) Fossils (b) Radioactive elements
(c) Wind energy (d) Biogas (c) Biomass (d) Natural gas
UPPCS (Pre.) 2021 CDS (Pre) G.S 2011
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.
3. The pollutant free energy source is 10. Which of the following is a non-renewable
(a) Coal (b) Petrol energy source?
(c) Solar energy (d) Nuclear power (a) Solar (b) Wind
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (c) Nuclear reactors (d) All of the above
Ans. (c): Kindly refer the explanation of the above Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
question.
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
4. Which one of the following is conventional
question.
energy?
(a) Tidal energy (b) Geothermal energy 11. Which of the following energy source is most
(c) Biomass energy (d) Wind energy eco-friendly?
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (a) Petroleum product (b) Forest product
Ans. (*): All the sources of energy given in the option (c) Nuclear fission (d) Solar cell
are non-conventional source of energy. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
Note- Commission has considered option (c) as the UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd Paper, 2006
correct answer. UPPCS Asst. Forest Conservator Exam, 2013
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Ans. (d) Solar or photovoltaic cell is most eco-friendly 16. The online platform established by the
source among the given options as it converts sun Ministry of New and Renewable Energy for
energy to electricity without affecting environment. installation of Solar Photovoltaic:
Rest of the energy sources given in option affects (a) SPIN (b) SOLARWHIN
environment in some way or another. (c) SPINE (d) INSP
12. Which form of energy does not create KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
environment issue? Ans. (a) : The Ministry of New and Renewable energy
(a) Coal (b) Nuclear is implementing Rooftop Solar Program phase II to
(c) Petrol (d) Solar promote Rooftop Solar (RTS) in the country including
UPPCS (Lower) (Pre) 2004 rular areas. "SPIN" is an online platform developed for
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above expediting project approval, report submission and
question. monitoring progress of implementation of Rooftop
Solar projects.
13. The main role of solar energy is in-
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Oxygen cycle 17. In India the largest amount of installed grid
interactive renewable power capacity is
(c) Nitrogen cycle (d) Water cycle associated with:
UPPCS (Pre.) G.S. 2000 (a) Solar power (b) Wind power
Ans: (d) The water cycle is driven primarily by (c) Tidal power (d) Biomass power
the energy from the sun. This solar energy drives KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
the cycle by evaporating water from the oceans, lakes,
rivers and even the soil. Evaporation means water turns Ans. (b) : A total of 74.79 GW of renewable energy
from liquid to vapour or gas and then rises into capacity has been installed in India as on 31/12/2018
atmosphere. Other water moves from pores of plants to which includes 35.14 GW from Wind, 25.21 GW from
the atmosphere through the process of transpiration. Solar, 9.92 GW from Bio power and 4.52 GW from
Finally, precipitation returns this water to the earth in Small Hydro Power. Karnataka tops the list with
the form of rain, snow. This completes the water cycle. 12968.44 MW energy capacity followed by Tamil Nadu
Hence solar energy has the main role in water cycle. (11986.56 MW), Maharashtra (9300.18 MW) and
Gujarat (7894.85 MW).
14. "Consistent availability of sufficient energy in
various forms at affordable prices" is the 18. The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is
definition of: sometimes seen in the news with reference to
(a) Energy management (a) Developing solar power production in our
(b) Energy policy country
(c) Energy security (b) Granting licenses to foreign T.V. channels in
(d) Energy conservation our country
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II (c) Exporting our food products to other
Ans. (c) : "Consistent availability of sufficient energy in countries
various forms at affordable prices" is the definition of (d) Permitting foreign educational institutions to
Energy security. The International Energy Agency set up their campuses in our country
(IEA) defines energy security as the uninterrupted IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
availability of energy sources at an affordable price.
Ans. (a) It was frequently in news due to being related
Energy security has many aspects: long-term energy
security mainly deals with timely investments to supply to WTO disputes and India’s solar power ambitions.
energy in line with economic developments and The domestic content requirement (DCR) is the
environmental needs. On the other hand, short-term mandate for solar projects in India to utilize
energy security focuses on the ability of the energy domestically manufactured solar modules and cells was
system to react promptly to sudden changes in the instituted in the Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar
supply-demand balance. Mission (JNNSM) from the beginning of 2010 in an
15. The first convergence project of India to generate effort to create a healthy and robust indigenous
green-energy for agriculture and rural areas is to manufacturing base and to elevate India’s status as a
be set up in solar hub.
(a) Mumbai (b) Delhi 19. Which one of the following is not a fossil fuel?
(c) Goa (d) Bangalore (a) Coal (b) Petroleum
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper II (c) Natural gas (d) Uranium
Ans. (c): India's first convergence project to generate MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2016
green energy for rural and agricultural consumption will Ans. (d) Decomposing plants and other organisms,
rollout Goa. Energy Efficiency Services Ltd (EESL) a buried beneath layers of sediment and rock have taken
joint venture of PSU’s under the ministry of Power and million of years to become the carbon-rich deposits,
Goa government signed a memenandum of called as fossil fuels. These non-renewable fuels include
understanding for the same. coal, oil and natural gas.
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20. At present the primary energy source in the (b) Mineral oil and gas
world is: (c) Hydro-electricity
(a) Hydropower (b) Fossil fuels (d) Atomic energy
(c) Nuclear power (d) Solar power UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2012
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2014 Ans. (c) The concept of sustainable development was
Ans. (b) Fossil fuels including coal, oil and natural gas emphasized by the United Nations Conference on
are currently the world's primary energy source. Formed Environment and Development (UNCED), which
from organic material over the course of millions of defined it as: "Development that meets the need of the
years, fossil fuels have fueled world and global present generation without compromising the ability of
economic development over the past century. the future generation to meet their own needs".
21. Which of the following fuels creates the least Hydropower is fueled by water so it is a clean fuel
pollution? source. It would not pollute the air like power plants
(a) Diesel (b) Coal that burn fossil fuels, such as coal or natural gas while
(c) Hydrogen (d) Solar atomic power plants are always under threat of
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017 radiation. So hydro- electricity is the best source of
UP (Lower) (Pre) G.S 2015, 2013 generating electricity when it comes to the sustainable
Himanchal PCS (Pre) G.S 2013 development.
Ans. (c) When fossil fuels (coal, oil and natural gas) are 24. 'Saving energy and other resources for the
burned, they release carbon dioxide and other greenhouse future without sacrificing people's comfort in
gases, which in turn trap heat in our atmosphere, making the present is the definition of which of the
them the primary contributors to global following concepts?
warming and climate change. Although solar energy is (a) Economic growth
renewable source of energy and produces energy without (b) Economic development
affecting environment but it produces toxic waste in form (c) Sustainable development
of photovoltaic waste which in turn is not good for (d) Human development
environment. Hydrogen is high in energy, yet an engine
that burns pure hydrogen produces almost no pollution. UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018
NASA has used liquid hydrogen since the 1970s to Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
propel the space shuttle and other rockets into orbit. question.
22. Which of the following fuels produces least 25. Which one of the following sources of
environmental pollution? renewable energy has the greatest potential in
(a) Hydrogen India?
(b) Power alcohol (a) Solar power
(c) Petrol (b) Biomass power
(c) Small hydel power
(d) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG)
(d) Energy recovery by waste
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2017, 2015
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2011
Ans. (a) Power alcohol is also a source of fuel for
automobiles and is formed by mixing the petrol with Ans. (a) India, due to its geographical positioning with
ethyl alcohol. It produces less pollutant as compared to high availability of sun light throughout the year could
normal petrol. Compressed natural gas (CNG) is natural use solar energy as the potential renewable energy
gas under pressure which remains clear, odourless and source.
non-corrosive and can be used as a cheaper, greener and 26. Which one of the following is NOT an example
more efficient alternative to the traditional petrol and of bio-mass energy source?
diesel fuels for vehicles. CNG is comprised mostly of (a) Wood (b) Nuclear energy
methane gas. CNG engines produce less exhaust (c) Gobar (Dung) (d) Coal
emissions. Harmful emissions such as carbon
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
monoxide, carbon dioxide and nitrous oxide can be
reduced by as much as 95% when compared to Ans. (*) : Biomass resources are available on a
petrol/diesel powered vehicles. Hydrogen is one of the renewable basis and are used either directly as a fuel or
cleanest fuels, which on being burnt in air produces converted to another form or energy product are
only water as a by-product and no carbon-based commonly referred to as “feed stocks.” Biomass
emissions are released, thereby leading to zero vehicular resources include dedicated energy crops, agricultural
emissions. Hydrogen can be produced from fossil fuels crop residues, forestry residues, algae, wood processing
like natural gas or from renewable resources such as residues, municipal waste, crop wastes, forest residues,
water. Hence (a) is the correct answer. purpose-grown grasses, woody energy crops, algae,
23. Which of the following is the best source of industrial wastes, sorted municipal solid waste, urban
generating electricity in India from the wood waste and food waste. Among the given options,
viewpoint of sustainable development? both coal and nuclear energy are not example of
biomass energy.
(a) Coal
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27. Biomass gasification is considered to be one of For algae to mature as an economically viable platform
the sustainable solutions to the power crisis in to offset petroleum there are a number of hurdles to
India. In this context, which of the following overcome ranging from how and where to grow these
statements is/are correct? algae, to improving oil extraction and fuel processing.
1. Coconut shells, groundnut shells and rice The major challenges include strain isolation, nutrient
husk can be used in biomass gasification. sourcing and utilization, production management,
2. The combustible gases generated from harvesting, coproduct development, fuel extraction,
biomass gasification consist of hydrogen and refining and residual biomass utilization. Hence
carbon dioxide only. statement 2 is correct. Using the land allotted to food
3. The combustible gases generated from crops to algal biofuel reduces the amount of food
biomass gasification can be used for direct available for humans, resulting in an increased cost for
heat generation but not in internal combustion both the food and the fuel produced. This is an
engines. ecological as well as social concern. Therefore,
Select the correct answer using the codes given statement 3 is correct.
below: 29. Which of the following statements about bio-
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only fuel is not correct?
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (a) Bio-fuel is eco-friendly
KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II (b) Bio-fuel is cost-effective
IAS (Pre) G.S 2012 (c) Bio-fuel can contribute to remedy energy
Ans. (a) Biomass gasification means incomplete crisis
combustion of biomass resulting in production of (d) Bio-fuel is also made from corn
combustible gases consisting of Carbon monoxide UPPCS (Pre) Ist GS, 2014
(CO), Hydrogen (H2) and traces of Methane (CH4).
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Therefore statement 2 is incorrect. This mixture is
question.
called producer gas. Producer gas can be used to run
internal combustion engines and can be used as 30. According to India’s National Policy on
substitute for furnace oil in direct heat applications and Biofuels, which of the following can be used as
can be used to produce methanol, an extremely raw materials for the production of biofuels?
attractive chemical which is useful both as fuel for heat 1. Cassava
engines as well as chemical feedstock for industries. 2. Damaged wheat grains
Hence statement 3 is incorrect. Locally available 3. Groundnut seeds
biomass resources such as wood chips, rice husk, 4. Horse gram
coconut shells, groundnut shells, arhar stalks, cotton 5. Rotten potatoes
stalks and other agro-residues in rural areas are used for 6. Sugar beet
biomass gasification. Therefore statement 1 is correct. Select the correct answer using the code given
28. It is possible to produce algae based biofuels, below:
but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of (a) 1,2,5 and 6 only (b) 1,3,4 and 6 only
developing countries in promoting this (c) 2,3,4 and 5 only (d) 1,2,3,4,5 and 6.
industry? IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020
1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible
in seas only and not on continents. Ans. (a) As per the National Policy on Biofuels-2018,
the policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar
biofuel production requires high level of containing materials like Sugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum,
expertise/technology until the construction is Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava,
completed. Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten
3. Economically viable production necessitates Potatoes, unfit for human consumption for ethanol
the setting up of large scale facilities which production. The Policy categorises biofuels as "Basic
may raise ecological and social concerns. Biofuels" e.g First Generation (1G) bioethanol &
Select the correct answer using the code given biodiesel and "Advanced Biofuels" as Second
below: Generation (2G) ethanol, Municipal Solid Waste
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (MSW) to drop-in fuels, Third Generation (3G)
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 biofuels, bio-CNG etc. to enable extension of
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 appropriate financial and fiscal incentives under each
Ans. (b) The term biofuels describes a diverse range of category.
technologies that generate fuel with at least one 31. In the context of alternative sources of energy,
component based on a biological system. The major ethanol as a viable bio-fuel can be obtained
technologies presently employed for biofuels begin with from-
terrestrial plants and culminate with ethanol, whether (a) Potato (b) Rice
this is corn starch to sugar to ethanol or sugarcane (c) Sugarcane (d) Wheat
sugars to ethanol. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect. IAS (Pre) G.S 2009
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Ans. (c) Ethanol can be obtained from sugarcane. 35. Which of the following is a bio/diesel plant?
Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel produced by (a) Java grass (b) Ratanjot
the fermentation of sugarcane juice and molasses. (c) Guggul (d) Rosha grass
Because it is a clean, affordable and low-carbon biofuel, UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2004
sugarcane ethanol has emerged as a leading renewable Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2004
fuel for the transportation sector. Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
32. Other than Jatropha curcas, why is Pongamia question.
pinnata also considered a good option for the 36. Which one of the following is a bio-diesel crop?
production of bio-diesel in India? (a) Cotton (b) Sugarcane
1. Pongamia pinnata grows naturally in most of (c) Jatropha (d) Potato
the arid regions of India. UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
2. The seeds of Pongamia pinnata are rich in Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2004
lipid content of which nearly half is oleic
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
acid. question.
Which of the statements given above is/are
37. Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of
correct?
sustainable energy. Why?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
1. They use living organism as catalysts to
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 generate electricity from certain substrates
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010 2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as
Ans. (c) Biodiesel is a renewable, clean-burning diesel substrates
replacement that is made from a diverse mix of feed 3. They can be installed in waste water
stocks including recycled cooking oil, soybean oil and treatment plants to cleanse water and produce
animal fats. Biodiesel is made through a chemical electricity
process called transesterification whereby the glycerin Which of the statements given above is/are
is separated from the fat or vegetable oil. The process correct?
leaves behind two products namely methyl esters (the (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
chemical name for biodiesel) and glycerin. To meet the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
increasing energy needs of the country and to provide IAS (Pre) G.S. Ist 2011
energy security, India announced National Policy on
Ans. (d) Microbial fuel cells are devices that use
Biofuels in December 2009. In India, there is a vast
bacteria as the catalysts to oxidize organic and inorganic
potential for the production of biodiesel from Jatropha matter and generate current. Therefore, statement 1 is
curcas (ratanjot) and Pongamia pinnata as they occur in correct and statement 2 is incorrect. With the high
plenty in forests and wastelands. Pongamia Pinnata is energy potential of wastewater, there is significant
an important no edible oilseed tree that grows in a wide benefit in harnessing this power during treatment.
range of conditions including semi-arid regions. The Microbial Fuel Cell technology allows electricity
natural distribution of Pongamia Pinnata is along coasts generation while simultaneously treating wastewater.
and river banks in India. Therefore statement 1 is Microbial fuel cells use electrochemically active
correct. Pongamia pinnata has the rare property of bacteria to oxidize substrates and separate protons from
producing seeds of 25 to 40% lipid content of which electrons. Microbial fuel cells technology can be
nearly half is oleic acid. Oil made from the seeds, applied as a renewable energy source with applications
known as pongamia oil is an important asset of this tree in power generation, wastewater treatment and water
and has been used as lamp oil, in soap making and as a quality monitoring. Therefore, statement 3 is correct.
lubricant. Therefore statement 2 is also correct. 38. Which of the following statements about bio-
33. Which one of the following is a bio-diesel fuel is not correct?
plant? (a) Bio-fuel is eco-friendly.
(a) Jatropha (b) Java Grass (b) Bio-fuel is cost-effective.
(c) Rosha Grass (d) Guggul (c) Bio-fuel can contribute to remedy energy
UPPSC RO/ARO Mains 2021 crisis.
(d) Bio-fuel is also made from corn.
Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2014
question.
Ans. (b) Biofuels are fuels produced directly or
34. Which of the following leguminous plant is also
indirectly from organic material called biomass such as
a petro-plant? plant materials and animal waste. Overall, bio energy
(a) Pigeon-pea (b) Pea covers approximately 10% of the total world energy
(c) Gram (d) Pongam demand. Biofuels are considered to be a sustainable
UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2010 alternative to fossil fuels. However they are generally
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above more expensive than competing fossil fuels. Therefore,
question. bio- fuel is not cost effective.

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39. Given below are the names of four energy (b) Thermal plant
crops. Which one of them can be cultivated for (c) Biogas plant
ethanol? (d) Hydroelectric plant
(a) Jatropha (b) Maize
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2015
(c) Pongamia (d) Sunflower
Ans. (c) Among the given options, biogas plant could
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010
provide both power and fertilizer. Apart from
Ans. (b) Maize is cultivated for ethanol while rest of the electricity, the by-product of biogas plant that looks like
given options is being cultivated for biodiesel. mud which is known as sludge contains many nutrients.
40. The first Union Territory of India to run It can be used as fertilizer for plants. The quality of
hundred percent on solar energy- residual sludge from biogas production process is better
(a) Chandigarh (b) Diu than the manure obtained directly from the cattle cage.
(c) Andaman-Nicobar (d) Puducherry 44. Production of which pollutant gases that are
UPPSC RO/ARO (Pre) 2017 emitted by use of CNG in vehicles is reduced
Ans. (b) Diu is the first Union Territory in India to run when a more green fuel HCNG is used instead?
100 percent on solar energy. The Union territory Diu (a) SO2 and CO (b) SO2 an CH4
has an area of just 42 square kilometers. Diu generates a (c) CO and H2 (d) NOx and CO2
total of 13 megawatts of electricity from solar power UPPCS (Mains) G.S 2009
generating facilities daily. Around 3 MW is generated Ans. (a) Compressed Natural Gas (CNG) is methane
by rooftop solar plants and 10 MW by its other solar (CH4) stored at high pressure. SO2 and CH4 are the
power plants. pollutants gases that are emitted by use of CNG in
41. Which of the following smart cities has become vehicles. Hydrogen-enriched CNG (HCNG) is
India’s first city to run on 100% renewable considered a cleaner source of fuel, more powerful and
energy during the daytime? offers more mileage then even CNG.
(a) Bengaluru (b) Jaipur 45. Which among the following was the first 100
(c) Indore (d) Diu percent organic state in the world?
(e) None of the above/More than one of the (a) Queensland (Australia)
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017-18 (b) California (United States of America)
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) Sikkim (India)
question. (d) Quebec
42. What is a green data center? UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
(a) A data center created by environmentalists to Ans. (c) Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic
keep record of green technology, clean State by implementing organic practices on around
production techniques 75,000 hectares of agricultural land. Organic cultivation
(b) A repository for the storage, management and is free of chemical pesticides and chemical fertilizers as
dissemination of mechanical, lighting, it tries to strike a harmonious balance with a complex
electrical and computer systems developed to series of ecosystems. In the long term, organic farming
optimize energy efficiency and environment leads in subsistence of agriculture, bio-diversity
impact conservation and environmental protection.
(c) A data center for green building for
46. Which one of the following State has been
optimizing of power consumption using
declared as the first complete organic State of
energy efficient technology
India?
(d) A repository providing information about
(a) Uttarakhand (b) Bihar
details of small scale industries adopting
energy efficiency measures (c) Sikkim (d) Chhattisgarh
CDS (Pre) G.S 2010 Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Ans. (b) A "Green Data Center" is a repository for the
storage, management and dissemination of data in 47. Which of the following states in India is on the
which the mechanical, lighting, electrical and computer way to becoming the first carbon free state?
systems are designed for maximum energy efficiency (a) Kerala (b) Himachal Pradesh
and minimum environmental impact. The construction (c) Uttarakhand (d) Arunachal Pradesh
and operation of a green data center includes advanced Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2017
technologies and strategies. Ans. (b) Himachal Pradesh has mandated all the
43. Which of the following could provide both government departments to begin environment audit, is
power and fertilizer? on its way to becoming the countries first and world’s
(a) Nuclear plant second carbon- free State after Bhutan.
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11.
Miscellaneous
1. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife 2. Consider the following statements:
protection, consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the non-profit organization that drives climate
government. action by building large networks and runs
2. When a wild animal is declared protected. them.
Such animal is entitled for equal protection
whether it is found in protected areas or 2. The International Energy Agency in
outside. partnership with the Climate Group
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal launched a global initiative "EP100".
becoming a danger to human life is 3. EP100 brings together leading companies
sufficient ground for its capture or killing. committed to driving innovation in energy
Which of the statements given above is/are efficiency and increasing competitiveness
correct? while delivering on emission reduction
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 only goals.
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 only 4. Some Indian companies are members of
UPSC IAS (Pre) G.S 2022 EP100.
Ans. (a) : According to Section 2(36) of Wildlife 5. The International Energy Agency is the
Protection Act, 1972, wild animals means any animal Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition".
specified in Schedules I to IV and found wild in nature.
Which of the statements given above are
In addition to that, Section 37(2) of Wildlife Protection
Act, 1972 defines wildlife, which says "Wildlife" correct?
includes any animal, aquatic or land vegetation, which (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5
forms part of any habitat. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
According to Section 39 of the Wildlife Protection Act, (c) 2, 3 and 5 only
1972, all the wild animals within the territory of India is (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
sole property of Government of India. Constitution of UPSC, IAS (Pre) G.S 2022
India also directs the State as well as citizens of India to
protect wildlife. According to Article 48 A (Part V, Ans. (b) : The Climate Group is an international non-
Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Constitution profit organization, which was founded in 2003 with
of India, the State shall endeavour to protect and offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam
improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and Beijing. The Climate Group builds and run
and wild life of the country. This Article is mother of all networks and joins organizations for collective action.
the Wildlife Protection Acts of India. Further, Article Hence, statement 1 is correct.
51A (g) (Fundamental Duties) of the Constitution of EP100 is a global initiative on smarter energy use led
India directs the citizens of India to protect and improve by The Climate Group in partnership with the Alliance
the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers to Save Energy. Therefore, statement 2 is not correct.
and wild life and to have compassion for living EP100 is a global initiative led by nonprofit Climate
creatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart
Section 2(24) of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 says,
"Protected Area" means a National Park, a Sanctuary, a companies, which are committed to driving innovation
Conservation Reserve or a Community Reserve. The in energy efficiency and increasing
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction
between animals found in protected areas and outside. It goals. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
provides equal protection to wild animals, irrespective In 2016, Mahindra and Mahindra became the first
of where they found. Hence, statement 2 is also correct. Indian company to join EP100 global initiative. Since
According to Section 11 of Wildlife Protection Act, then, so many Indian companies including Godrej have
1972, the Chief Wild Life Warden may, if he is joined the EP100 group. Recent addition to this list was
satisfied that any wild animal specified in Schedule I, Mahindra Holidays in April 2022. Therefore, statement
II, III and IV has become dangerous to human life or is 4 is also correct.
so disabled or diseased as to be beyond recovery, by "Under2 Collation" is the largest network of 200
order in writing and stating the reasons therefore, permit
any person to hunt such animal or cause such animal to governments, committed to reducing emission in line
be hunted. In statement 3, the word "Apprehension" has with the Paris Agreement. Climate Group is the
been used in place of "Satisfaction". Hence, statement 3 Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition. Hence, statement 5
is not correct. is not correct.

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3. "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the Nanopowders are already being used in a wide range of
emission reduction pledges of different industries and development works. There are some
countries is a: hazards to human health due to the use of nanoparticles
(a) Database created by coalition of research as they enter in to human body through environment
organizations and distribute around human body that affects human
(b) Wing of "International Panel of Climate organs. These nanoparticles also affect ground water
Change" and soil through which they enter to the food chain.
(c) Committee under "United Nations Therefore, statement 3 is also correct.
Framework Convention on Climate Change" 5. Which one of the following best describes the
(d) Agency promoted and financed by United term "greenwashing"?
Nations Environment Programme and World (a) Conveying false impression that a company's
Bank products are eco-friendly and
UPSC, IAS (Pre) G.S 2022 environmentally sound
(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental
Ans. (a) : The Climate Action Tracker is an costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a
independent scientific analysis that tracks government country
climate action and measures it against the globally
(c) Ignoring the disastrous ecological
agreed Paris Agreement aim of holding global consequences while undertaking
temperature well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to infrastructure development
limit warming to 1.5°C. The Climate Action Tracker is
(d) Making mandatory provisions for
a collaboration of two organizations namely "Climate
environmental costs in a government
Analytics" and "New Climate Institute". The Climate project/programme
Action Tracker has been providing this independent
UPSC IAS (Pre), 2022
analysis to policymakers since 2009. The Climate
Action Tracker quantifies and evaluates climate change Ans. (a) : The term green washing was coined by
mitigation targets, policies and action. The Climate environmentalist Jay Westerveld in 1986. Green
Action Tracker covers all the biggest emitters and a washing is the corporate practice of making diverting
representative sample of smaller emitters covering sustainability claims to cover a questionable
about 85% of global emissions and approximately 70% environmental record.
of global population. 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
4. Consider the following statements: answer from the code given below the lists
1. Other than those made by humans, List-I List-II
nanoparticles do not exist in nature. (Day) (Event)
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are A. April 18 1. International Tiger
used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. Day
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial B. May 22 2. World Heritage Day
products which enter the environment are C. July 29 3. World Soil Day
unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are D. December 5 4. International Day of
correct? Biodivesrity
(a) 1 only (b) 3 only Code :
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 and 3 A B C D
UPSC IAS (Pre), 2022 (a) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (d) : Nanoparticles are the particles that exist on a (b) 1 2 3 4
nanometer scale (i.e., below 100 nm in at least one (c) 2 4 1 3
dimension). Nanoparticles serve various industrial and (d) 4 3 2 1
domestic purposes. The use of nanoparticles in various UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022
industries reflects their presence in the environment and Ans. (c) : Correct match is-
the risk of potentially adverse effects in natural systems. International Tiger Day July 29
Hence, statement 1 is not correct. World Heritage Day April 18
Materials currently being produced as nanopowders World Soil Day December 5
include: metals, metal oxides, borides, carbides, nitrides International Day of Biodivesrity May 22
and sulphides and non-metal materials such as various
7. With reference to 'palm oil', consider the
forms of carbon, clay silica and silicon carbides. They
following statements:
are also used in cosmetic industry. Many of the leading
cosmetic companies use various types of nano-sized 1. The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.
materials like fullerenes, nanotubes, liposomes and 2. The palm oil is a raw material for some
quantum dots for their product. Therefore, statement 2 industries producing lipstick and perfumes.
is correct. 3. The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.
Environment & Ecology 136 YCT
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Which of the statements given above are 9. The 'Common Carbon Metric', supported by
correct? UNEP, has been developed for?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 operations around the world
UPSC (IAS) 2021 (b) Enabling commercial farming entities around
Ans. (b): Palm oil is a vegetable oil that comes from the the world to enter carbon emission trading
fruit of palm oil trees. Palm oil trees are native to Africa (c) Enabling governments to assess the overall
but were brought to South-East Asia just over 100 years carbon footprint caused by their countries
ago as an ornamental tree crop. Now, Indonesia and (d) Assessing the overall carbon footprint caused
Malaysia make up over 85% of global supply. Hence, by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a
statement 1 is not correct. unit time
Palm oil is found in pizzas, chocolates, deodorant, UPSC (IAS) 2021
shampoo, toothpaste, lipstick and perfumes. Therefore,
statement 2 is correct. Palm oil is also used in animal Ans. (a): Common Carbon Metric is a tool developed
feed and as a biofuel in many parts of the world except by United Nations Environment Programe (UNEP) for
in United Kingdom. Palm oil can be used as a raw measuring energy use and carbon dioxide emissions in
material to manufacture biodiesel. Biodiesel, which is homes and offices, which is under consideration for
extracted from palm oil by transesterification method standardization, a move that could lead to the creation
has similar properties like diesel fuel. Hence, statement of a uniform system for defining the climate impact of
3 is also correct. buildings. Common Carbon Metric is intended to create
Note- Palm oil has been and continues to be a major a uniform system for defining the climate impact of
driver of deforestation of some of the world’s most buildings through a consistent protocol, which can in
biodiverse forests, destroying the habitat of already turn help to develop international baselines for use by
endangered species. Palm oil expansion could affect architects, designers and the construction industry
54% of threatened mammals and 64% of the threatened around the globe. The buildings are currently the single
birds globally. largest contributor to greenhouse gas emissions, with an
8. With reference to the 'New York Declaration estimated one third of global energy use taking place in
on Forests', which of the following statements offices and homes.
are correct? 10. Consider the following statements:
1. It was first endorsed at the United Nations 1. The Global Ocean Commission grants licenses
Climate Summit in 2014. for seabed exploration and mining in
2. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of international waters.
forests. 2. India has received licenses for seabed mineral
3. It is a legally binding international declaration. exploration in international waters.
4. It is endorsed by governments, big companies 3. 'Rare earth minerals' are present on seafloor in
and indigenous communities. international waters.
5. India was one of the signatories at its Which of the statements given above is/are
inception. correct?
Select the correct answer using the code given (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
below.
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 5 (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 5 UPSC (IAS) 2021
UPSC (IAS) 2021 Ans. (b) : The Global Ocean Commission is concerned
Ans. (a): Influenced by the UN Secretary General’s with the conservation and sustainable management of
Climate Summit in September 2014, the New York high seas marine biodiversity and resources. United
Declaration on Forests is a non legally binding political Nation’s Internatinal Seabed Authority (ISA) issues
declaration that brings together governments, licenses for seabed exploration and mining in
companies and civil society a including indigenous international waters. International Seabed Authority
people's organizations with the common aim of halving (ISA) is a UN body set up to regulate the exploration
the loss of natural forests by 2020 and striving to end it and exploitation of marine non-living resources of
by 2030. It also calls for restoring an area of forests and oceans in international waters. Therefore, statement 1 is
croplands that is larger than India. Meeting these goals not correct.
would reduce carbon pollution by between 4.5 and 8.8 India was the first country to receive the status of a
billion tons every year. Dozens of governments have “Pioneer Investor” in 1987 and was given an area of
endorsed the Declaration. Over 30 of the world’s about 1.5 lakh sq km in the Central Indian Ocean Basin
biggest companies, and more than 50 influential civil for nodule exploration. In 2002, India signed a contract
society and indigenous organizations have also with the International Seabed Authority and after
endorsed the Declaration. India has not signed 'New complete resource analysis of the seabed 50% was
York Declaration on Forests' as India had concerns surrendered and the country retained an area of 75,000
about the linkage the declaration makes between sq km. Hence statement 2 is correct.
deforestation, infrastructure development and trade. The main aim of deep sea mission is to explore and
Environment & Ecology 137 YCT
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extract polymetallic molecules, composed of maganese, Ans. (a) Scientists expect climate change to have
nickle, cobalt,copper and iron hydroxide. These metals increasingly negative consequences for society from
can be extracted and used in electronic devices, rising sea levels to more frequent heatwaves. Moreover,
smartphones, batteries and even for solar panels. the world is already experiencing record hot
Therefore, statement 3 is also correct. temperatures around 10C above pre-industrial levels.
China, France, Germany, Japan, South Korea, Russia One way to get handle this problem is through the social
and also some small islands such as the Cook Islands, cost of carbon (SCC), which tries to add up all the
Kiribati are also active for deep sea mining. quantifiable costs and benefits of emitting one
11. In the context of India's preparation for additional tonne of CO2, in monetary terms. This value
Climate-Smart Agriculture, consider the can then be used to weigh the benefits of reduced
following statements: warming against the costs of cutting emissions.
1. The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in India 13. Which of the following are detritivores?
is a part of a project led by the Climate change, 1. Earthworms 2. Jellyfish
Agriculture and Food Security (CCAFS), an 3. Millipedes 4. Seahorses
international research programme. 5. Woodlice
2. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Select the correct answer using the code given
Consultative Group on International below:
Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in (a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
France. (c) 1, 3 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
3. The International Crops Research Institute for UPSC (IAS) 2021
the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is
one of the CGIAR's research centres. Ans: (c) Earthworms, Millipedes and Woodlice are
detritivores. Jellyfish is carnivorous and Sea horse is
Which of the statements given above are
also primarily a carnivorous animal. Detritivores are
correct?
heterotrophs that obtain their nutrition by feeding on
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only detritus i.e. dead or decaying plants or animals.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Detritivores play an important role in the breakdown
UPSC (IAS) 2021 of organic matter from decomposing animals and
Ans. (d): Climate smart agriculture means agriculture, plants. Detritivores include microorganisms such as
that sustainably increases productivity and resilience to bacteria and fungi; invertebrate insects such as mites,
environmental pressures, while at the same time reduces beetles, butterflies and flies; mollusks such as slugs
greenhouse gas emissions or removes them from the and snails; or soil-dwelling earthworms, millipedes
atmosphere, because agriculture is itself a large emitter and woodlice.
of greenhouse gases. 14. In case of which one of the following
The 'Climate-Smart Village' approach in India is a part biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks
of a project led by the Climate change, Agriculture and is the main source of release of nutrient to
Food Security (CCAFS), an international research enter the cycle?
programme led by Consortium of International (a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle
Agricultural Research Centers (CGIAR). International (c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulphur cycle
Agricultural Research Centers is a global partnership
that unites organizations engaged in research for a food UPSC (IAS) 2021
secure future. It has 18 research centers globally. Ans:(c) Phosphorus cycle is one of biogeochemical
Therefore, both statement 1 and 2 are correct. cycles in which the weathering of rocks is the main
The International Crops Research Institute for the source of release of nutrient to enter the
Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT), Patancheru, Hyderabad cycle. Phosphorus cycle is one of biogeochemical
is one of the CGIAR's research centres in India. cycle in which the weathering of rocks is the main
Therefore, statement 3 is also correct. source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle.
Phosphorus occurs in large amounts as a mineral in
12. Which one of the following statements best phosphate rocks and enters the cycle from erosion and
describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? mining activities. By the process of weathering and
It is a measure, in monetary value, of the erosion, phosphates enter rivers, streams and finally
(a) Long-term damage done by a tonne of oceans. In the ocean, phosphorus accumulates on
CO2 emissions in a given year. continental shelves in the form of insoluble deposits.
(b) Requirement of fossil fuels for a country to After millions of years, the crustal plates rise from the
provide goods and services to its citizens, based seafloor and expose the phosphates on land. After
on the burning of those fuels. more time, weathering will release them from rock,
(c) Efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to and the cycle’s geochemical phase begins again.
live in a new place. Phosphorus is the nutrient considered to be the main
(d) Contribution of an individual person to the cause of excessive growth of rooted and free-floating
carbon footprint on the planet Earth. microscopic plants (phytoplankton) in lakes (leads to
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2020 eutrophication).

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15. Which of the following have species that can 17. The “Montreaux Record” is a register of:
establish symbiotic relationship with other (a) Invasive alien species and their ecological
organisms? hazard outside their native environment
1. Cnidarians (b) Wetland sites under the threats of
2. Fungi anthropogenic activities
3. Protozoa (c) Endangered species of tropical and sub-
Select the correct answer using the code given tropical fauna
below. (d) Coastal cities under direct threat of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only consequences of global warming
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 OPSC (OCS) Pre-2020
UPSC (IAS) 2021 Ans. (b): The "Montreux Record" is a register of
Ans. (d): Symbiosis is a close biological interaction wetland sites on the List of Wetlands of International
between the individuals of two (or more) different Importance, where changes in ecological character have
species. Symbiosis defines three basic relationship types occurred, are occurring, or are likely to occur as a result
(with multiple subgroups) occurring between living of technological developments, pollution or other
entities: mutualism, where both species benefit; human interference. It is maintained as part of the
commensalism, where one organism benefits and the Ramsar List. Montreux Record should be employed to
other experiences no harm; and parasitism, in which one identify priority sites for positive national and
entity benefits, sometimes at the cost of the other. The international conservation attention. Currently, two
relationship between cnidarians and dinoflagellate algae wetlands of India are in Montreux record
is termed "symbiotic" because both the animal host and namely Keoladeo National Park (Rajasthan) and Loktak
the algae are benefiting from the association. It is a Lake (Manipur).
mutualistic interaction. Two common mutualistic 18. Which of the following in India in the
relationships involving fungi are mycorrhiza (fungi and 'Montreaux Record'?
plant roots) and lichen (fungi and either cyanobacteria (a) Keoladeo National Park
or green algae). Protozoa mostly represent a close (b) Chilka Lake
mutualistic association between a protozoan and (c) Ashtamudi Wetland
unicellular symbionts such as bacteria, cyanobacteria (d) Hokera Wetland
or/and unicellular algae or protozoans and a
OPSC (OCS) Pre 2018 Paper- I
multicellular organisms such as ruminants, lower
termites, wood-eating cockroaches, plants. Hence, Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Cnidarians, Fungi and Protozoa have species that can question.
establish symbiotic relationship with other organisms. 19. The Montreux Record is a register of _______.
16. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct 1. Wetland sites under threat of
answer using the code given below- anthropogenic activities.
List-I List-II 2. Endangered species of tropical and
(Name of the Act in India (Year) subtropical Fauna.
A. Forest Conservation Act 1. 1980 3. Coastal cities under direct threat of
B. The Environmental 2. 1986 consequences of global warming.
Protection Act (a) Only (b) Only 2
C. The Air (Prevention and 3. 1981 (c) Only 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
Control of Pollution) act Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2
D. The water Pollution Control 4. 1974 Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Act question.
Codes: 20. Which beach in India became the first beach in
A B C D Asia to get blue flag certification?
(a) 3 1 4 2 (a) Chandrabhaga beach (b) Marina beach
(b) 1 4 2 3 (c) Gopalpur beach (d) Gokarna beach
(c) 4 3 2 1 Karnataka PCS -2020
(d) 1 2 3 4
Ans. (a) : The Chandrabhaga beach on the Konark coast
UPPSC RO-ARO (Pre) 2021
of Odisha has became Asia's first beach to get the blue
Ans. (d) : Name of the Act Year flag certification. The Blue Flag tag or Blue Flag
Forest Conservation Act 1980 certification is one of the world’s most recognized
The Environmental Protection Act 1986 voluntary eco-labels. It is awarded to beaches, marinas
The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) 1981 and sustainable boating tourism operators. The
Act certification is awarded by the Denmark-based non-
The Water Pollution Control Act 1974 profit Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE).

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Note- Currently, 10 beaches in India have received 24. Consider the following statements regarding
the Blue Flag Tag- SAFAR System inaugurated recently:
1. Eden Beach (Puducherry) [Latest addition in 2021] (a) It s a very advanced air quality and weather
2. Kovalam Beach (Tamil Nadu) [Latest addition in forecast system.
2021] (b) It was developed indigenously by Indian
3. Golden Beach (Odisha) Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune.
4. Shivrajpur Beach (Gujarat) (c) It will not measure sun's UV-Index.
5. Kappad Beach (Kerala) Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
6. Ghoghla Beach (Diu) Choose the correct answer from the options
7. Kasarkod Beach (Karnataka) given below:
8. Radhanagar Beach (Andaman and Nicobar Islands) (1) A only (2) A and C only
9. Rushikonda Beach (Andhra Pradesh) (3) A and B only (4) A, B and C
10. Padubidri Beach (Karnataka) Karnataka PCS -2020
21. How many beaches recommended by the Ans. (3) : SAFAR stands for "System of Air Quality
Government of India was awarded the and Weather Forecasting and Research". It is first
International 'Blue Flag' certification in indigenous framework developed by Indian Institute of
October, 2020? Tropical Meteorology, Pune to forecast air quality in
Delhi, Mumbai, Pune and Ahmadabad. This project is
(a) 2 (b) 4 under the Ministry of Earth Sciences and received a
(c) 8 (d) 16 global nod. SAFAR’s forecasting model is comparable
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I to the framework by the United States Environmental
Ans. (*): At the time when question was asked, there Protection Agency (US-EPA). Hence, first two
were 8 "Blue Flag" certified beaches. Two more statements are correct. One of the main objectives of the
beaches were added to this list in 2021, making the SAFAR project is to be able to provide forecasting
count to 10. information on air quality. SAFAR also allows
translation of highly scientific air quality information in
22. Why Dholavira (Gujarat) was in news a simple format for easier understanding. Recently it
recently? also started to provide forecasts on weather, emissions
(a) Declared as Tiger Reserve and UV radiation in the region. Hence, third statement
(b) Recently included in UNESCO's world is not correct.
Heritage site 25. Which of the following is not a plan of JAPCC
(c) Included in the list of National Parks (Jharkhand State Action plan on Climate
(d) This site was hit by terrorist attack Change)?
RAS/RTS (PRE.) 2021 (a) Identify climate change risks in various
Ans. (b): The city of Dholavira, a Harappan era site in sectors.
Gujarat was declared as the 40th world Heritage site of (b) Develop comprehensive state level
India, during the 44th meeting of the UNESCO would vulnerability mapping on risks.
Heritage committee in July, 2021. It was discovered in (c) Assess and recommend specific measures for
1968 by archaeologist Jagat Pati Joshi. It is the first site climate change mitigation.
of the Indus valley civilisation in India to be included in (d) Start social forestry in all districts.
the prestigious list of UNESCO. Of the total 40 world JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
Heritage sites in India, 32 are cultural, 7 natural and 1 Ans. (d) : The Jharkhand state climate change action
mixed site (Khangchendzonga National Park). Notably, unit has been established to achieve the objectives of
Ramappa temple (Telangana) was the 39th world "National Action Plan on climate change" constituted
Heritage site of India. by the Government of India. Under this, identification
23. Which of the following is not a World Heritage of the most affected areas and preparation of state level
Site in India? maps of vulnerable areas affected by climate change
(a) Taj Mahal (b) Fatehpur Sikri have been included. There is a provision to assess
specific measures for climate change mitigation. Start
(c) Gateway of India (d) Qutub Minar
Social Forestry in all districts of Jharkhand is not a plan,
Manipur PSC - 2013 which has been included in Jharkhand State Action plan
Ans. (c): UNESCO World Heritage Convention, which on Climate Change.
was established in 1972 recognized various sites of 26. National plan on climate change by JAPCC was
cultural and natural importance around the world. Taj released on:
Mahal, Fatehpur Sikri, Qutub Minar are in world (a) 30th June, 2006 (b) 30th June, 2007
Heritage site in India. Whereas Gate way of India is not th
(c) 30 June, 2008 (d) 30th June, 2009
in the list of world heritage site in India. JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
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Ans. (c) : The National plan on climate change by summer rainfall will go up by the end of century and since
Government of India was released on 30 June 2008. It every unit increase corresponds to 5 days, hence the
outlines a national strategy that aims to enable India to number of rainy days during summer will go up by 10
adapt to climate change and enhance the ecological days by the end of century. For Jharkhand, there is very
sustainability of India‘s development path. It stresses high probability that the mean summer rainfall will
that maintaining a high growth rate is essential for experience a positive change. Most of the places in
increasing living standards of the vast majority of Jharkhand are expected to get more rain by the end of the
people of India and reducing their vulnerability to the century. Number of rainy days may come down but the
impacts of climate change. intensity of rain is expected to rise at most of the parts of
Under this, Eight National Missions have been India.
included- 29. Justice Madan B Lokur committee was set up
1. National Solar Mission to take steps to:
2. National Mission for Enhanced Energy Efficiency (a) Look into violation of environment rules.
3. National Mission on Sustainable Habitat (b) Prevent stubble burning
4. National Water Mission (c) Draft new water policy
5. National Mission for Sustaining the Himalayan (d) Regulate digital lending
Eco-system Haryana PSC Pre 2021 paper -I
6. National Mission for a Green India Ans. (b): The Supreme Court appointed former
7. National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture Supreme Court judge Justice Madan B. Lokur one
8. National Mission on Strategic Knowledge for member committee to monitor/prevent stubble burning
Climate Change in Uttar Pradesh, Haryana and Punjab. Stubble burning
Note- National Plan on Climate change was released by is a source of pollution in Delhi-national capital region
Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, (NCR).
Government of India, not by JAPCC (Jharkhand 30. Which one of the following is NOT correctly
Action Plan on Climate Change). matched?
27. The district that has been chosen for Green (International day) (Date)
India Mission under NAPCC is:
(a) Ranchi (b) Khunti (a) Wild life 03 March
(c) Saraikela Kharsawan (d) Hazaribag
(b) Earth 22 April
JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II
(c) Biological Diversity 22 May
Ans. (c) : Green India Mission (GIM), which is one of
the eight missions outlined under National Action Plan (d) Preservation of 16 August
on Climate Change (NAPCC) has approved annual plans ozone layer
for four States namely Kerala, Mizoram, Manipur and UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I
Jharkhand. Eighteen villages have been identified under Ans. (d) : Ozone Layer Protection Day is observed on
Union Government sponsored 'Green India Mission' for 16 September every year. In order to protect the ozone
undertaking eco-friendly development programmes in the layer from degradation, on January 23, 1995, General
areas falling under Seraikela forest division in Seraikela- Assembly of the United Nations declared 16 September
Kharswan district of Jharkhand. as International Ozone Day. The other options given in
28. The IPCC SRES emission scenario for Jharkhand the question are correctly matched.
indicates that: 31. Consider the following statements regarding
(a) Warming will be relatively greater in winter. 'Secure Himalaya'.
(b) Warming will be relatively greater in (i) It is aimed at conservation and restoration of
summer. high range Himalayan ecosystem.
(c) Warming will be relatively greater in summer (ii) It has been launched by Government of India
and winter. in association with International Union for
(d) Warming will be relatively greater in winter Conservation of Nature.
and post monsoon season. Which of the following is/are correct?
JPSC (Pre) 2021 paper-II (a) (i) only (b) (ii) only
Ans. (d) : The IPCC SRES scenario indicates a rise in (c) Both (i) and (ii) (d) Neither (i) nor (ii)
annual mean surface air temperature for all parts of India. Tripura TPCS (TCS) -2019
Temperatures are likely to rise by 2-50 C by the end of 21st Ans. (a) : The Government of India in association with
century (2071-2100), with warming more pronounced over United Nations Development Program (UNDP)
the northern parts of India. The warming is also expected launched a six year "Secure Himalaya" program to
to be relatively greater in winter and post-monsoon seasons ensure conservation of locally and globally significant
than in the summer monsoon season. Spatial pattern of biodiversity, land and forest resources in the high
rainfall change estimates a 20% rise in all India summer Himalayan ecosystem spread over four states in India. It
monsoon rainfall for the future. For Jharkhand, the includes Changthang (Jammu and Kasmir), Lahaul -

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Pangi and Kinnaur (Himachal Pradesh), Gangotri - 34. In which year was the 'Inter-governmental
Govind and Darma - Byans Valley in Pithoragarh Panel on Climate Change' was set up?
(Uttarakhand) and Kanchenjunga - Upper Teesta Valley (a) 1972 (b) 1976
(Sikkim). (c) 1980 (d) 1988
32. Which one of the following is correct about UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I
climatic interaction?
Ans. (d) : The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
(a) El Nino is the large-scale ocean-atmosphere
Change (IPCC) was established by the United Nations
climate interaction linked to a periodic
warming in sea surface temperatures across Environment Program (UNEP) and the World
the central and east-central Equatorial Pacific Meteorological Organization (WMO) in the year 1988.
of South America. It provides regular scientific assessments on climate
(b) La Nina is a climate pattern that describes the change, its implications and potential future risks, as
warming of ocean waters along the tropical well as adaptation and mitigation options. Its
east coast of North America. headquarter is located in Geneva. The IPCC currently
(c) El Nino and La Nina are not related to has 195 members.
climatic interaction. 35. India Climate Change Knowledge Portal was
(d) El Nino and La Nina do not cause any impact launched in which of the following months?
on global climate patterns. (a) December, 2020 (b) November, 2020
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 (c) October, 2020 (d) September, 2020
Ans. (a) : UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
El Nino- This is a name given to the periodic Ans. (b): India Climate Change Knowledge Portal was
development of a warm ocean current along the coast of launched in November 2020. The portal captures sector-
Peru as a temporary replacement of the cold Peruvian wise adaptation and mitigation actions that are being
current. El Nino is a Spanish word meaning "the child" taken by the various Ministries in one place including
and refers to the baby Christ, as this current starts
updated information on their implementation. The
flowing during Christmas. The presence of the El Nino
leads to an increase in sea-surface temperatures across knowledge portal will help in disseminating knowledge
the central and east-central equatorial Pacific of South among citizens about all the major steps Government is
America and weakening of the trade winds in the taking at both national and international levels to
region. address climate change issues.
La Nina- La Nina is a condition opposite of an El Nino. 36. Match List-I with the List-II and select the
In a La Nina, the tropical Pacific trade winds become correct answer from the code given below:
very strong and an abnormal accumulation of cold water List-I List-II
occurs in the central and eastern Pacific Ocean. (a) Cow dung (i) Industrial waste
33. Which one of the following is correct about (b) Fly ash (ii) Global warming
social forestry? (c) Chlorofluorocarbons (iii) Biodegradable
(a) Social forestry concept in India was first used
(d) CO2 and Methane (iv) Ozone depletion
in the year 1987.
(b) Social forestry helps in management and Code:
protection of environment, society and rural (a) (b) (c) (d)
development. (A) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(c) Social forestry projects increase the pressure (B) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
on existing forests. (C) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(d) Social forestry scheme is not related to farm (D) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
forestry, community forestry, extension NAGALAND NCS PRELIMS, 2018
forestry and agro forestry.
Ans. (d) : The correct match of List-I and List-II is
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 given by-
Ans. (b) : The term "Social Forestry" was first used in
List-I List-II
India in 1976 by the National Commission on
Agriculture, Government of India. Social forestry refers Cow dung Biodegradable
to the management of forests for the benefits of local Fly ash Industrial waste
communities. It includes aspects such as forest Chlorofluorocarbons Ozone depletion
management, forest protection and afforestation of
deforested lands with the objective of improving the CO 2 and Methane Global warming
rural, environmental and social development. The main 37. Consider the following events and arrange
goal of social forestry is to grow trees and plantations to them into chronological order
meet the growing needs of people in reference to 1. Crocodile Breeding Project
increased demand for timber, wood, food, fuel and food 2. Project Elephant
to reduce the pressure and dependency on traditional 3. Project Tiger
forest areas. 4. Van Mahotsava
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Select the correct answer using the code given 41. Beej Bacho Andolan (Save the seed) was
below: started in which State?
Code: (a) Bihar (b) Uttarakand
(a) 1, 3, 4 and 2 (b) 2, 4, 1 and 3 (c) Jharkhand (d) Uttar Pradesh
(c) 4, 2, 3 and 1 (d) 3, 4, 2 and 1 (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
UPPSC ACF RFO 2021 Mains GS Paper-I 66th BPSC Re- Exam- 2020
Ans. (*) : The correct chronological sequence of the Ans. (b) : Beej Bachao Andolan (Save the seed) was
various events given is as follows- started by farmer Vijay Jardhari and his fellow farmers
1. Van Mahotsav 1950 from a village called Jardhargaon in Tehri district of
2. Project Tiger 1973 Uttarakhand. Jardhari has dedicated his life for
3. Crocodile Breeding Project 1975 conserving traditional seeds, which otherwise would
4. Elephant Project 1992 have disappeared due to wide acceptability.
38. Where was the first Vulture Conservation 42. India's first Dolphin Observatory is being built
Centre set up in Uttar Pradesh? in-
(a) Sonbhadra (b) Banda (a) Delhi (b) Mumbai
(c) Maharajganj (d) Meerut (c) Bihar (d) Odisha
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I (e) None of the above/More than one of the above
Ans. (c) : Vulture breeding and conservation center 66th BPSC Re- Exam- 2020
"Jatayu Conservation Center" has been established in Ans. (c) : Government of Bihar is setting up India's
Maharajganj district of Uttar Pradesh. This center would first observatory for the mammals in Bhagalpur district.
be developed on the lines of the "Pinjore Conservation Construction at the Vikramshila Gangetic Dolphin
and Breeding Centre" in Haryana, India’s first center for Sanctuary (VGDS) in the Bhagalpur district of Bihar is
vultures. The vulture conservation centre in going on.
Maharajganj would be a joint project of the Bombay
Natural History Society and the Wildlife Research 43. The Central Agmark lab is located at
Institute. (a) Kolkata (b) Hyderabad
39. The first quadrennial Global Sustainable (c) Chennai (d) Nagpur
Development Report prepared by an UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I
independent group of scientists is titled as : Ans. (d): The Central Agmark laboratory is located at
(a) The Future is Today : Science for achieving Nagpur. Central Agmark laboratory is responsible for
Sustainable Development certifying the quality of agricultural goods and
(b) The Future is Now : Science for Achieving formulating standards to them. Apart from one Central
Sustainable Development Agmark Laboratory at Nagpur, there are eleven regional
(c) The Future is Tomorrow : Science for Agmark Laboratories located at Delhi, Kolkata,
Achieving Sustainable Development Mumbai, Jaipur, Amritsar, Kochi, Kanpur, Guntur,
(d) The Future is Expected : Science for Chennai, Bhopal and Rajkot, which are engaged in
Achieving Sustainable Development monitoring Agmark certification and research analysis.
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 Besides this, Agmark certification is done by 1410
Ans. (b) : "The Future is Now : Science for Achieving approved primary grading laboratories of the packers,
sustainable development" is the first global sustainable State Governments, Cooperatives and Commercial
development report prepared by the independent group establishments in India.
of scientists in 2019, appointed by the United Nations 44. The book 'Silent Spring' published in 1962
Secretary-General. The Report, requested all countries which set the tone for an environmental
to evaluate progress on the 2030 Sustainable movement in the world was written by:
Development Agenda. (a) Carolyn Merchant
40. The term Green Bonus is related with _______. (b) Karl Marx
(a) India Space Programme (c) Rachel Carson
(b) Environment and forest (d) Rajgopalan
(c) Agriculture UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
(d) Indian Military
Ans. (c) : Silent Spring book is written by Rachel
Gujarat PSC (Pre) 23.10.2018 Paper-2 Carson. It meticulously described how DDT entered the
Ans. (b) : "Green Bonus" is a new term in the food chain and accumulated in the fatty tissues of
environmental parlance denoting the money, which is to animals including human beings and caused cancer and
be given for the effort made by a country, State or genetic damage. Carson concluded that DDT and other
community for preservation of green cover. It is a pesticides had irrevocably harmed animals and had
compensation to be given to the people for the contaminated the world's food supply. The most
sacrifices, they have made in preserving the green important legacy of Silent Spring though was a new
cover, which not only benefits them but also benefits public awareness that nature was vulnerable to human
others nearby and humanity as a whole. intervention.

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45. Who is the "Forest Man of India"? 47. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy
(a) Ravishankar (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries
(b) Anna Hazare transition towards greener and more inclusive
(c) Rajendra Singh economies, emerged at-
(d) Jadav Payeng (a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable
Nagaland NCS Prelime-2019 Development 2002, Johannesburg
Ans. (d) : Jadav Payeng, who is also popularly known (b) The United Nations Conference on
as Molai Payeng, earned his name as 'The Forest Man Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de
of India' by spending 30 years of his life planting Janeiro
around 40 million trees to create a real man made forget (c) The United Nations Framework Convention
by changing a barren sandbar of Brahmaputra, Covering on Climate Change 2015, Paris
an area of 550 hectares of land which is known as Molai (d) The World Sustainable Development Summit
Kathoni. 2016, New Delhi
46. Consider the following statements: IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on Ans. (b) The Partnership for Action on Green Economy
the part of the Government of India to protect (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call
and conserve all the wetlands in the territory at Rio+20 (the United Nations Conference on
of India Sustainable Development) which was held in Brazil in
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and 2012 to support those countries wishing to embark on
Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by greener and more inclusive growth trajectories. The
the government of India based on the conference’s outcome document entitled ‘The Future
recommendations of Ramsar Convention. We Want’ was a call to action for Governments,
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and business and the UN alike to support countries
Management) Rules 2010 also encompass the interested in transition to a green economy. PAGE seeks
drainage area or catchment regions of the to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies
wetlands as determined by the authority. and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for
Which of the statements given above is/are Sustainable Development and supports nations and
correct? regions in reframing economic policies and practices
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only around sustainability to foster economic growth, create
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 income and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality and
IAS (Pre) G.S, 2019 strengthen the ecological foundations of their
economies. PAGE brings together five UN agencies
Ans. (b) According to Article 4 of the Ramsar namely UN Environment, International Labour
Convention, there is no binding provision for the parties
Organization, UN Development Program, UN Industrial
to protect and conserve the all the wetland within their
Development Organization and UN Institute for
territory. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
Training and Research. PAGE is currently working in
According to Article 2 of the Ramsar Convention, each 18 countries.
contracting party shall designate suitable wetland within
its territory for inclusion in the list of Wetlands of 48. "Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral
International Importance. The Ministry of Environment Now" is an initiative launched by-
and Forests of Government of India framed Wetlands (a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
(Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 to ensure Change
better conservation and management and to prevent (b) The UNEP Secretariat
degradation of existing wetlands in India as per (c) The UNFCCC Secretariat
recommendations of Ramsar Convention. Hence, (d) The World Meteorological Organization
statement 2 is correct. IAS (Pre) G.S, 2018
According to clause 2 (g) of the Wetlands
Ans. (c) In December 2011, the United Nations
(Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, a
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
"Wetland" means an area or of marsh, fen, peatland or
water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, secretariat launched its Momentum for Change initiative
with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or to shine a light on the enormous groundswell of
salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which activities underway across the globe that is moving the
at low tide does not exceed six meters and includes all world toward a highly resilient, low-carbon future. In
inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, September 2015, the UNFCCC secretariat launched
backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade its Climate Neutral Now initiative to urge individuals,
wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands companies and Governments to measure their climate
that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of footprint, reduce their greenhouse gas emissions as
the wetlands as determined by the authority. Hence, much as possible and offset what they cannot reduce
statement 3 is also correct. using UN-certified emissions reductions.

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49. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change corresponding tightening of environmental regulations
Alliance’, which of the following statements in the industrialized world in the 1970s and 1980s had
is/are correct? led to increasing public resistance to the disposal of
1. It is an initiative of the European Union. hazardous wastes. This in turn led some operators to
2. It provides technical and financial support to seek cheap disposal options for hazardous wastes in
targeted developing countries to integrate Eastern Europe and the developing world where
climate change into their development environmental awareness was much less developed and
policies and budgets. regulations and enforcement mechanisms were lacking.
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute It was against this background that the Basel
(WRI) and World Business Council for Convention was negotiated in the late 1980s and its
Sustainable Development (WBCSD). thrust at the time of its adoption was to combat the
Select the correct answer using the code given "toxic trade". The Basel Convention on the control of
below: Tran boundary movements of hazardous wastes and
their disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989 by the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
Conference of Plenipotentiaries in Basel, Switzerland.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
The Convention entered into force in 1992.
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
51. Which of the following statements is/are
Ans. (a) The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) correct?
was launched in 2007 by the European Commission to
Proper design and effective implementation of
strengthen dialogue and cooperation on climate change
between the European Union and developing countries UN-REDD + Program can significantly
that are most vulnerable to climate change in particular contribute to
least developed countries and Small Island developing 1. Protection of biodiversity
States which are hardest hit by the adverse effects of 2. Resilience of forest ecosystems
climate change. Therefore, statement 1 is correct. 3. Poverty reduction
The Global Climate Change Alliance acts as a platform Select the correct answer using the code given
for dialogue and exchange of experience between the below.
European Union and developing countries on climate (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
policy and on practical approaches to integrate climate (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
change into development policies and budgets. The
Global Climate Change Alliance also provides technical IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
and financial support to partner countries to integrate Ans. (d) The United Nations Collaborative Program on
climate change into their development policies and Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest
budgets and to implement projects that address climate Degradation in Developing Countries (UN-REDD
change on the ground, promoting climate resilient, low Program) was launched in 2008 and builds on the
emission development, technical and financial convening role and technical expertise of the Food and
cooperation and exchange of experience at regional and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO),
global levels. Hence, statement 2 is also correct. the United Nations Development Program (UNDP) and
The Global Climate Change Alliance is implemented by the United Nations Environment Program (UN
Directorate-General for Development and Cooperation Environment). The UN-REDD Program is supporting
– EuropeAid. The Commission proposes that European 64 countries to become “REDD+ ready”. REDD +
Union member States collectively support the Global program involves some kind of incentive for changing
Climate Change Alliance. Therefore, statement 3 is not the way forest resources are used. It offers a new way of
correct. curbing CO2 emissions through paying for actions that
50. The global agreement that deals with the prevent forest loss or degradation. These transfer
control of transboundary movements of mechanisms can include carbon trading or paying for
hazardous wastes and their disposal is called: forest management. REDD, as currently conceived,
(a) Basel Convention involves payments to developing countries that will
(b) Convention on Early Notification of a prevent deforestation or degradation that would
Nuclear Accident otherwise have taken place. The source of this funding
(c) International Convention for the Prevention can be from carbon trading, where actors in
of Pollution from Ships industrialized countries offset their own emissions by
(d) Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety transferring funds as carbon credits to developing
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016 countries. The payments then in principle, go towards
actions that enable developing countries to conserve or
Ans. (a) The overarching objective of the Basel
sustainably use their forests, when they might otherwise
Convention is to protect human health and the
environment against the adverse effects of hazardous not have been able to do so. With such objectives, UN-
wastes. Its scope of application covers a wide range of REDD Program collectively helps to protect
wastes defined as "hazardous wastes" based on their biodiversity, resilience of forest ecosystems and poverty
origin. Awakening environmental awareness and reduction. Hence (d) is the correct answer.

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52. Following are the aims of REDD+, the forest- 55. In which year was ‘Green Climate Fund’
based climate mitigation approach of the established?
United Nations : (a) 2010 (b) 2012
(1) Incentivizes a break from historic trends of (c) 2011 (d) 2014
increasing greenhouse gases emissions Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2017
(2) Creating a financial value for carbon capture Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
and storage question.
(3) Benefitting the food security 56. With reference to ‘Global Environment
(4) Promoting ecosystem services and reduction Facility’, which of the following statements
in deforestation is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) It serves as financial mechanism for
‘Convention on Biological Diversity’ and
below:
‘United Nations Framework Convention on
(a) Only (1) and (2) (b) Only (2) and (3) Climate Change’
(c) Only (3) and (4) (d) (1), (2), (3) and (4) (b) It undertakes scientific research on
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021 environmental issues at global level
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the
question. transfer of technology and funds to
underdeveloped countries with specific aim to
53. Which of the following statements is incorrect
protect their environment.
for ‘Green Climate Fund” (GCF)?
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(a) It was established in the Durban Conference
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
of Climate Change.
Ans. (a) "The Global Environment Facility" (GEF) was
(b) It would support programs and policies in established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit, is a
developing nations. catalyst for action on the environment. Through its
(c) The developed nations would provide the strategic investments, the Global Environment Facility
fund. works with partners to tackle the planet’s biggest
(d) The fund will start operating from 2014. environmental issues. The Global Environment Facility
UPPCS (Mains) G.S IInd Paper 2013 is a unique partnership of 18 agencies, which includes
United Nations agencies, multilateral development banks,
Ans. (a) "The Green Climate Fund" (GCF) is a new
national entities and international NGOs. It works with
global fund created to support the efforts of developing 183 countries to address the world’s most challenging
countries to respond to the challenge of climate change. environmental issues. The Global Environment Facility
Green Climate Fund helps developing countries to limit has a large network of civil society organizations, works
or reduce their greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and closely with the private sector around the world and
adapt climate change. It was set up by the 194 countries receives continuous inputs from an independent
who are parties to the United Nations Framework evaluation office and a world-class scientific panel. It is a
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) in 2010 at financial mechanism for five major international
Cancun, Mexico as part of the Convention’s financial environmental conventions namely Minamata
mechanism. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect. Green Convention on Mercury, Stockholm Convention on
Climate Fund launched its initial resource mobilization Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), United Nations
in 2014. Therefore, other options given are correct. Convention on Biological Diversity (UNCBD), United
Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD)
54. Which of the following statements regarding and United Nations Framework Convention on Climate
'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? Change (UNFCCC).
1. It is intended to assist the developing 57. Consider the following statements regarding
countries in adaptation and mitigation ‘Earth Hour’:
practices to counter climate change. 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, 2. It is a movement in which the participants
OECD, Asian Development Bank and World switch off the lights for one hour on a certain
Bank. day every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given 3. It is a movement to raise the awareness about
below. the climate change and the need to save the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only planet.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
question. IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
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Ans. (c) Starting as a symbolic lights out event in 60. Kyoto protocol is an international agreement
Sydney in 2007, "Earth Hour" is now the world's largest which deals with the issue of-
grassroots movement for the environment. Earth Hour is (a) Green house gases
coordinated by WWF (World Wildlife Fund) through (b) Ozone depleting substances
which, millions of people around the world turned off (c) Biological diversity
their lights for an hour (8.30 to 9.30 PM) to show their
(d) Hazardous chemicals
steadfast commitment to protecting nature. Therefore,
statement 2 and 3 are correct. The topic for Earth Hour Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021 Paper-I
2022 is "Shape Our Future". Ans. (a) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
58. What is the animal symbol of WWF (World question.
Wildlife Fund)? 61. Kyoto protocol is related to-
(a) Dolphin (b) Kangaroo (a) Air pollution
(c) Tiger (d) Giant panda (b) Greenhouse gas
(c) Climate change
Manipur PSC-2016 (d) Water pollution
Himanchal PCS (Pre) 2011 UPPCS (Mains) G.S Second Paper 2017
Ans. (d) World Wildlife Fund was conceived in April, MPPSC (Pre) G.S 2014
1961 and set up shop in September, 1961 at Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) question.
headquarters in Morges, Switzerland. Prince Bernhard 62. Regarding “Carbon Credits”, which one of the
of the Netherlands became the organization's first
following statements is not correct?
president. The giant panda becomes the logo for World
(a) The carbon credit system was ratified in
Wildlife Fund.
conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
59. Consider the following statements:
(b) Carbon credits are awarded to the countries or
1. Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year
groups that have reduced greenhouse gases
2005
below their emission quota
2. Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the
depletion of the Ozone layer (c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to
limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
3. Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful
than carbon dioxide (d) Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed from
Which of the statements given above is/are time to time by the United Nations
correct? Environment Program
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 IAS (Pre) G.S 2011
(c) 1 only (d) 3 only Ans. (d) Kyoto Protocol was proposed to address and
IAS (Pre) G.S 2005 reduce greenhouse gas emission that has led to global
RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S 2013 climate change. The carbon credit system was ratified in
Ans. (b) The Kyoto Protocol is an international conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol to set quotas on the
agreement linked to the United Nations Framework amount of greenhouse gas countries can produce, which
Convention on Climate Change, which commits its in turn set quotas for countries/ groups. Carbon credits
parties by setting internationally binding greenhouse were introduced in order to improve the scenario by
gases emission reduction targets. Therefore, statement 2 encouraging organizations to be more environments
is incorrect. friendly in conducting their business. One carbon credit
The Kyoto Protocol was adopted in Kyoto, Japan on 11 allows one tone of carbon dioxide or a corresponding
December, 1997 and entered into force on 16 February, amount of other greenhouse gases to be discharged in
2005. The detailed rules for the implementation of the the air. Businesses that are over their quotas must buy
Protocol were adopted at COP 7 in Marrakesh, Morocco carbon credits for excess emissions while those below
in 2001 and are referred to as the "Marrakesh Accords”. can sell their remaining credits. This exchange of
Hence, statement 1 is correct. credits between businesses has encouraged carbon
Methane traps up to 100 times more heat in the trading globally. Therefore, first three statements are
atmosphere than carbon dioxide, but the fact is that correct. Carbon credits are traded at a price, which is
methane also leaves the atmosphere within a decade. governed by international market at the prevailing
This makes methane a short-lived but intense climate market price. The world’s biggest carbon trading
changer. Therefore, methane warms the planet rapidly, system is the European Union Emissions Trading
but it dissipates from the atmosphere more quickly than System (EU ETS). Hence, fourth statement is not
Carbon dioxide. Therefore, statement 3 is also correct. correct.

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63. The concept of 'Carbon credit' originated from 66. In the context of CO2 emission and Global
(a) Earth Summit, Rio-de-janerio Warming, what is the name of a market driven
(b) Kyoto Protocol device under the UNFCCF that allows
(c) Montreal Protocol developing countries to get funds/incentives
(d) G-8 Summit, Heiligendam from the developed countries to adopt better
technologies that reduce greenhouse gas
UPPCS (Pre.) 2021
emissions?
Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2011
(a) Carbon Footprint
Ans. (b): Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) Carbon Credit Rating
question.
(c) Clean Development Mechanism
64. Consider the following statements: (d) Emission Reduction Norm
1. Clean Development Mechanism (CDM) in IAS (Pre) G.S 2009
respect of carbon credits in one of the Kyoto
Protocol Mechanisms. Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
2. Under the CDM, the projects handled pertain
only to the Annex-I countries. 67. A new chapter on sustainable development and
Which of the statements given above is/are climate change was first introduced in the
Economic Survey of-
correct?
(a) 2004–05 (b) 2011–12
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 Only
(c) 2012–13 (d) 2013–14
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
UPPCS (Pre.) Re–exam. 2015
IAS (Pre) G.S 2008
Ans. (b) A chapter on Sustainable Development and
Ans. (c) "The Clean Development Mechanism" (CDM)
Climate Change had been introduced for the first time
allows developed countries to implement emission-
in the annual Economic Survey 2011-12. This new
reduction projects in developing countries to earn
chapter reflects the growing challenges of sustainable
certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each
development and climate change. Pressures on land, air,
equivalent to one tone of CO2. These certified emission
water, forests and loss of plant and animal habitant are
reduction could be traded and sold and used by
growing. The survey cautions that a warming planet is
developed countries to a meet a part of their emission
already causing adverse effects, such as more frequent
reduction targets under the Kyoto Protocol. The Clean
extreme weather events. It comments that the science
Development Mechanism is the main source of income
and evidence of climate change are compelling.
for the UNFCCC (United Nations Framework
Convention on Climate Change) Adaptation Fund, 68. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
which was established to finance adaptation projects is constituted under the
and programs in developing country parties to the (a) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
Kyoto Protocol that are particularly vulnerable to the (b) Geographical Indications of Goods
adverse effects of climate change. The clean (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999
development mechanism was designed to meet a dual (c) Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
objective to help developed countries to fulfill their (d) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
commitments to reduce emissions and to assist IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
developing countries in achieving sustainable Ans. (c) The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
development. Developing countries comes under (GEAC) functions under the Ministry of Environment,
Annex-I while developed countries comes under Forest and Climate Change. It is responsible for
Annex-II of Clean Development Mechanism. Hence, appraisal of activities involving large scale use of
both statement 1 and 2 are correct. hazardous microorganisms and recombinants in
65. Consider the following pairs: research and industrial production from the
Terms sometimes their origin seen in the news environmental angle. The committee is also responsible
1. Annex—I Countries : Cartagena Protocol for appraisal of proposals relating to release of
2. Certified Emissions : Nagoya Protocol genetically engineered (GE) organisms and products
into the environment including experimental field trials.
Reductions
It is the apex body which regulates manufacturing, use,
3. Clean Development : Kyoto Protocol import, export and storage of hazardous micro-
Mechanism organisms or genetically engineered organisms and cells
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly in the country.
matched? 69. With reference to the Agreement at the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 the following statements is/are correct?
IAS (Pre.) GS ,2016 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above countries of the UN and it will go into effect
question. in 2017.
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2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse Ans. (b) : Under the leadership of Secretary of
gas emissions so that the rise in average Environment, forest and climate change, Environment
global temperature by the end of this century ministry established a high level Inter ministry
does not exceed 2 °C or even 1.5 °C above committee for the implementation of Paris Agreement,
pre-industrial levels. in "Walk the Talk" program on climate change. In this
3. Developed countries acknowledged their committee, members from 14 ministries have been
historical responsibility in global warming included.
and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year 73. The headquarters of the Green Peace
from 2020 to help developing countries to International is located at-
cope with climate change. (a) Amsterdam (b) Canberra
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Ottawa (d) Nagasaki
below. UPPCS (Mains) 2005
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only Ans.(a) Greenpeace international organization dedicated
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 to preserving endangered species of animals, preventing
environmental abuses and heightening environmental
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
awareness through direct confrontations with polluting
Ans. (b) The Paris Agreement came out of the COP21. corporations and governmental authorities. It is
COP21 is the 21st Conference of Parties (COP) of the headquartered in Amsterdam, Netherlands.
UNFCCC (United Nations Framework Convention on 74. What is Green Peace?
Climate Change), held in Paris from November 30th to (a) An agriculture related institution
December 12th, 2015. The agreement was adopted on (b) An International peace army
December 12th, 2015. The Paris Agreement, like the (c) An International organization of environment
Kyoto Protocol and the Doha Amendment, falls under supporters
the framework of the United Nations Framework (d) None of the above
Convention on Climate Change. The central aim of BPSC (Pre) 1995
Paris Agreement is to strengthen the global response to
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
the threat of climate change by keeping a global
question.
temperature rise during this century well below 2
degrees Celsius above pre-industrial levels and to 75. In context of environment, the term "dirty
pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase even dozen" refers to:
further to 1.5 degrees Celsius. Additionally, the (1) 12 ozone layer depleting substances
agreement aims to strengthen the ability of countries to (2) 12 persistent organic pollutants
deal with the impacts of climate change. Therefore, only (3) 12 most harmful greenhouse
statement 2 is correct. (4) 12 most degraded ecosystems
Select the correct answer using the codes given
70. The Paris Agreement of the UN Framework
below:
Convention on Climate Change is to limit
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
global warming well below (benchmark of Pre
(c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Industrial level)
Himanchal PCS Pre 2017
(a) 1.0 *C (b) 2.0 *C
Ans. (c) Persistent organic pollutants (POPs) are toxic
(c) 2.5 *C (d) 3.0 *C
chemicals that adversely affect human health and the
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre- 2021 environment around the world. Because they can be
Ans. (b): See the explanation of the above question. transported by wind and water, most persistent organic
71. United Nations Conference on climate change, pollutants generated in one country can and do affect
COP21 was held in: people and wildlife far from where they are used and
(a) Moscow (b) Paris released. They persist for long periods of time in the
environment and can accumulate and pass from one
(c) Berlin (d) Tokyo species to the next through the food chain. To address
UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2018 this global concern, the United States joined hands with
Ans. (b) Kindly refer the explanation of the above 90 other countries and the European Community to sign
question. a groundbreaking United Nations Treaty in Stockholm,
72. High Level Minister Committee for Sweden. The Convention was adopted on May 22, 2001
and entered into force on May 17, 2004. India ratified
implementation of Paris Agreement constituted
the Convention on January 13, 2006. Under the treaty,
by Government of India in December 2020 has
known as the Stockholm Convention, countries agreed
members from how many ministries? to reduce or eliminate the production, use, release of 12
(a) 07 (b) 14 key persistent organic pollutants (aldrin, chlordane,
(c) 21 (d) 28 DDT, dieldrin, dioxins, endrin, furans, heptachlor,
UP PSC ACF/RFO (Mains) 2020 Paper I hexachlorobenzene, mirex, polychlorinated biphenyls,
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toxaphene) and specified under the Convention a 78.

Consider the following statements in respect of
scientific review process that has led to the addition of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in
other POPs chemicals of global concern. Initially, 12 Commerce (TRAFFIC):
chemicals have been listed as POPs under the 1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations
Stockholm Convention. Environment Program (UNEP).
Note- The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate 2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that
Change had notified the Regulation of Persistent trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat
Organic Pollutants Rules, on March 5, 2018 under the
to the conservation of nature.
provisions of Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. The
regulation prohibited the manufacture, trade, use, Which of the above statements is/are correct?
import and export seven chemicals namely (i) (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
Chlordecone, (ii) Hexabromobiphenyl (c) Both 1 and 2
(iii) (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Hexabromodiphenyl ether and IAS (Pre) G.S 2017
Heptabromodiphenylether (Commercial octa-BDE) (iv) Ans. (b) Created in 1976, TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade
Tetrabromodiphenyl ether and Pentabromodiphenyl monitoring network is a joint program of WWF (World
ether (Commercial penta-BDE) (v) PentachlorobenzeneWildlife Fund) and IUCN (International Union for
(vi) Hexabromocyclododecane (vii)
Conservation of Nature). Therefore, statement 1 is
Hexachlorobutadiene, which were already listed as
POPs under Stockholm Convention. incorrect.
TRAFFIC focuses on leveraging resources, expertise
76. India ratified the Stockholm Convention for
and awareness of the latest globally urgent species trade
protecting human health and the environment
issues such as tiger parts, elephant ivory and rhino horn.
from persistent organic pollutants in:
Large scale commercial trade in commodities like
(a) 2005 (b) 2006 timber and fisheries products are also addressed and
(c) 2002 (d) 2010 linked to work on developing rapid results and policy
Himachal PSC (Pre) 2016
improvements. Therefore, TRAFFIC works to ensure
that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to
Ans. (b) India had ratified the Stockholm Convention
on January 13, 2006 as per Article 25(4), which enabled
the conservation of nature. Therefore, statement 2 is
it to keep itself in a default "opt-out" position such that
correct.
amendments in various Annexes of the convention 79. Consider the following statements:
cannot be enforced on it unless an instrument of 1. The International Solar Alliance was
ratification/ acceptance/ approval or accession is launched at the United Nations Climate
explicitly deposited with UN depositary. Change Conference in 2015.
77. Match the items given in column–I and 2. The Alliance includes all the member
Column–II and choose the correct answer from countries of the United Nations.
the codes given below: Which of the statements given above is/are
Column-I Column-II correct?
P. The Montreal Protocol i. 1992 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q. The Paris Agreement ii. 1995 IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
Ans. (a) Vision and mission of the International Solar
R. The Rio Summit iii. 1987 Alliance is to provide a dedicated platform for
cooperation among solar resource rich countries lying
S. First UN IPCC Conference iv. 2015
fully or partially between the Tropics of Cancer and
Capricorn who are seeking to massively ramp up solar
Codes: energy, thereby helping to bend the global greenhouse
(P) (Q) (R) (S) emissions curve whilst providing clean and cheap
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) energy. Five key focus area of International Solar
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) Alliance are; promote solar technologies, new business
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) models and investment in the solar sector to enhance
(d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) prosperity, formulate projects and programs to promote
Himanchal PCS 2018 solar applications, develop innovative financial
mechanisms to reduce cost of capital, build a common
Ans. (c) Correct match is- knowledge e-Portal, facilitate capacity building for
The Montreal Protocol 1987 promotion and absorption of solar technologies and
The Paris Agreement 2015 research and developement among member countries.
The Rio Summit 1992 The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change
First UN IPCC Conference 1995 Conference in Paris at the end of 2015 by then President
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of France and the Prime Minister of India. Therefore, Ans. (b) The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs)
statement 1 is correct. The ISA Framework Agreement were first introduced at the United Nations Conference
was opened for signature during the COP-22 at on Sustainable Development in Rio de Janeiro in 2012.
Marrakesh on 15th November, 2016. 106 countries have The objective was to produce a set of universal goals
signed the ISA Framework Agreement (Till May 2022) that meet the urgent environmental, political and
while 86 countries have signed and ratified the ISA economic challenges. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
Framework Agreement (Till May 2022). Therefore, The Sustainable Development Goals are the blueprint to
statement 2 is incorrect. achieve a better and more sustainable future for all.
They address the global challenges including those
80. The United Nations Framework Convention on
related to poverty, inequality, climate, environmental
Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international
degradation, prosperity and peace and justice. These are
treaty drawn at
seventeen ‘global goals’ with 169 targets among them.
(a) United Nations Conference on the Human The Goals are interconnected and have to be achieved
Environment, Stockholm, 1972 by 2030. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
(b) UN Conference on Environment and Develo-
pment, Rio de Janeiro, 1992 83. Sustainable Development Goals and targets are
to be achieved by:
(c) World Summit on Sustainable Development,
(a) 2020 (b) 2025
Johannesburg, 2002
(c) 2030 (d) 2050
(d) UN Climate Change Conference, Copen-
hagen, 2009 Himanchal PCS 2018
IAS (Pre) G.S 2010 Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Ans. (b) The United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) is an international 84. In June 2012, according to Rio+20
environmental treaty produced at the United Nations declarations, Sustainable Development Goals
Conference on Environment and Development (SDG’s) were decided. Which of the following
(UNCED), informally known as the Earth Summit held features was/ were not decided?
in Rio de Janeiro from June 3 to 14, 1992. The objective 1. Poverty eradication, fight against inequality,
of the treaty is to stabilize greenhouse gas gender equality
concentrations in the atmosphere at a level that would 2. Health and education reforms, ocean and
prevent dangerous anthropogenic interference with the forest protection.
climate system. The treaty itself set no mandatory limits 3. World partnership for sustainable
on greenhouse gas emissions for individual countries development and effective structure for
and contains no enforcement mechanisms. In that sense follow-up and review.
the treaty is considered legally non-binding. Instead, the 4. Ban on terrorist organizations and attack on
treaty provides for updates called "Protocols" that their countries.
would set mandatory emission limits. The principal Answer options:
update is the Kyoto Protocol, which has become much (a) Only 3 and 4 (b) Only 1, 2 and 3
better known than the UNFCCC itself. (c) Only 4 (d) Only 1
81. The United Nations Framework Convention on Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2019
Climate Change deals with-
Ans. (c) 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
(a) Reduction of fossil fuel usage provides a shared blueprint for peace and prosperity for
(b) CO2 emissions mitigation people and the planet, now and into the future. At its
(c) Reduction in Uranium production heart are the 17 Sustainable Development Goals
(d) Green house gases emissions mitigation (SDGs), which are an urgent call for action by all
(e) None of the above/more than one of the above countries in a global partnership. They recognize that
BPSC (Pre) G.S. 2017 ending poverty and other deprivations must go hand-in-
Ans. (d) Kindly refer the explanation of the above hand with strategies that improve health and education,
question. reduce inequality and spur economic growth for all
while tackling climate change and working to preserve
82. Consider the following statements:
our oceans and forests.
1. The Sustainable Development Goals were
The 17 Sustainable Development Goals are:
first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank
called ‘Club of Rome’ 1. No poverty,
2. The Sustainable Development Goals has to be 2. Zero hunger,
achieved by 2030 3. Good health and well being,
Which of the statements given above is/are 4. Quality education,
correct? 5. Gender equality,
(a) 1 Only (b) 2 only 6. Clean water and sanitation,
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 7. Affordable and clean energy,
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016 8. Decent work and economic growth,
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9. Industry, innovation and infrastructure, 88. The term 'Intended Nationally Determined
10. Reduced inequalities, Contributions' is sometimes seen in the news in
11. Sustainable cities and communities, the context of
12. Responsible consumption and production, (a) Pledges made by the European countries to
13. Climate action, rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected
14. Life below water, Middle East
15. Life and land, (b) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the
world to combat climate change
16. Peace, justice and strong institutions,
(c) Capital contributed by the member countries
17. Partnerships for the goals.
in the establishment of Asian Infrastructure
Ban on terrorist organizations and attack on their Investment Bank
countries is not mentioned in the goals.
(d) Plan of action outlined by the countries of the
85. Which one of the following is NOT a world regarding Sustainable Development
'Sustainable Development Goal' (SDG) target Goals
to be achieved by 2030?
IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
(a) Zero Hunger
(b) Quality Education Ans. (b) Countries across the globe adopted an historic
International Climate Agreement at the U.N.
(c) Gender Equality
Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
(d) Space Research Conference of the Parties (COP21) in Paris in
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 December 2015. In anticipation of this moment,
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above countries publicly outlined what post-2020 climate
question. actions they intended to take under the new
86. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct international agreement, known as their Intended
answer from the code given below the lists. Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs). The
List-I List-II climate actions communicated in these Intended
Sustainable Related with Nationally Determined Contributions largely determine
Development Goal whether the world achieves the long-term goals of the
(SDG) Paris Agreement to hold the increase in global average
temperature to well below 2°C, to pursue efforts to limit
A. SDG 10 1. Climate change
the increase to 1.5°C and to achieve net zero emissions
B. SDG 13 2. Life on land in the second half of this century.
C. SDG 14 3. Reduce inequalities 89. Global warming is observed century-scale rise
D. SDG 15 4. Life below water in the______of the Earth's climate system.
(a) Maximum temperature
Codes:
(b) Minimum temperature
A B C D
(c) Average temperature
(a) 3 1 4 2
(b) 2 3 1 4 (d) Temperature at the time of record
(c) 3 2 4 1 Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I
(d) 1 2 3 4 Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
UPPCS (Pre) G.S 2022 question.
Ans. (a) : SDG 10 - Reduce inequalities 90. How much has the global average temperature
SDG 13 - Climate change risen in the last century?
SDG 14 - Life below water (a) 3.0o F (b) 1.8o F
o
SDG 15 - Life on land (c) 3.4 F (d) 2.4o F
87. Which of the following Sustainable RAS/RTS (PRE.) 2021
Development Goal (SDG) will target to water Ans. (b): The global average surface temperature has
availability for all and its permanent risen about 20 F (1.80 F) during the last century, a
management up to 2030 in India? change driven largely by increased carbon dioxide and
(a) SDG-6 (b) SDG-7 other human-made emissions into the atmosphere.
(c) SDG-8 (d) SDG-9 91. Consider the following international
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 agreements:
Ans. (a) Sustainable Development Goal- 6 (SDG-6) of 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
the United Nations is related to clean water and Resources for Food and Agriculture
sanitation. It emphasizes to ensure availability and 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat
sustainable management of water and sanitation for Desertification
all. One of its prime targets is to ensure water 3. The World Heritage Convention
availability for all and its permanent management up Which of the above has / have a bearing on the
to 2030 in India. biodiversity?
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(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only in combating desertification and land degradation. The
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between
IAS (Pre) G.S 2014 developed and developing countries, particularly around
knowledge and technology transfer for sustainable land
Ans. (d) The International Treaty on Plant Genetic
management. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Resources for Food and Agriculture was adopted by the
thirty-first session of the Conference of the Food and As the dynamics of land, climate and biodiversity are
Agriculture Organization of the United Nations on 3rd intimately connected, the UNCCD collaborates closely
November, 2001. The Treaty aims at recognizing the with the other two Rio Conventions; the Convention on
enormous contribution of farmers to the diversity of Biological Diversity (CBD) and the United Nations
crops that feed the world, establishing a global system Framework Convention on Climate Change
to provide farmers, plant breeders and scientists with (UNFCCC), to meet these complex challenges with an
access to plant genetic materials, ensuring that integrated approach and the best possible use of natural
recipients share benefits they derive from the use of resources. The new UNCCD 2018-2030 Strategic
these genetic materials with the countries where they Framework is the most comprehensive global
have been originated. Established in 1994, the United commitment to achieve Land Degradation Neutrality
Nations Convention to Combat Desertification (LDN) in order to restore the productivity of vast
(UNCCD) is the sole legally binding international expanses of degraded land, improve the livelihoods of
agreement linking environment and development to more than 1.3 billion people and reduce the impacts of
sustainable land management. The Convention drought on vulnerable populations to build.
addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub- 93. The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally
humid areas, known as the drylands where some of the Important Agricultural Heritage System
most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found. (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems.
Created in 1972, the primary mission of The World What is the overall goal of this initiative?
Heritage Convention is to identify and protect the 1. To provide modern technology, training in
world's natural and cultural heritage considered to be of modern farming methods and financial
outstanding universal value. Therefore, all the given support to local communities of identified
international agreements are related to biodiversity. GIAHS so as to greatly enhance their
Hence, statement (d) is correct. agricultural productivity
92. What is/are the importance/importance of the 2. To identify and safeguard eco-friendly
'United Nations Convention to Combat traditional farm practices and their associated
Desertification'? landscapers, agricultural biodiversity and
1. It aims to promote effective action through knowledge systems of the local communities
innovative national programmes and 3. To provide Geographical Indication status to
supportive inter-national partnerships all the varieties of agricultural produce in
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia such identified GIAHS
and North Africa regions, and its Secretariat Select the correct answer using the code given
facilitates the allocation of major portion of below.
financial resources to these regions (a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
3. It is committed to bottom-up approach, (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
encouraging the participation of local people IAS (Pre.) GS, 2016
in combating the desertification Ans. (b) Globally Important Agricultural Heritage
Select the correct answer using the code given System (GIAHS) is a program of the United Nations
below- Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO), founded as a
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only UN partnership initiative for sustainable development in
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 2002. It aims to identify, support and safeguard globally
IAS (Pre.) G.S, 2016 important agricultural heritage systems and their
livelihoods, agricultural and associated biodiversity,
Ans. (c) United Nations Convention to Combat knowledge systems, cultures and landscapes around the
Desertification (UNCCD) was established in 1994. It is world. GIAHS sites are not living museums but places
the sole legally binding international agreement, linking where people practice ‘dynamic conservation’. They
environment and development to sustainable land retain the best of the past to build a sustainable future.
management. The convention addresses specifically the Hence, only statement 2 is correct. In 2021, there were 62
arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the GIAHS sites in 22 countries. There are 3 GIAHS sites in
drylands where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems India-
and peoples can be found. The convention’s 197 parties 1. Saffron Heritage of Kashmir (2011)
work together to improve the living conditions for
people in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil 2. Koraput (Odisha) Traditional Agriculture (2012)
productivity and to mitigate the effects of drought. The 3. Kuttanad (Kerala)-Below Sea Level Farming System
UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up (2013)
approach, encouraging the participation of local people Source- Telangana Today

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94. Which of the following best describes/ describe 97. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen
the aim of 'Green India Mission' of the in the news, consider the following statements:
Government of India? 1. It is a global action plan for sustainable
1. Incorporating environment all benefits and development.
costs into the Union and State Budgets 2. It originated in the World Summit on
thereby implementing the `green accounting' Sustainable Development held in
2. Launching the second green revolution to Johannesburg in 2002.
enhance agricultural output so as to ensure Which of the statements given above is/are
food security to one and all in the future correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
responding to climate change by a
combination of adaptation and mitigation IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
measures Ans. (a) "Agenda 21" is a comprehensive action plan
Select the correct answer using the code given for sustainable development to be taken globally,
nationally and locally by organizations of the United
below-
Nations system, Governments and major groups in
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only every area in which human impacts on the environment.
(c) 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Hence, statement 1 is correct.
IAS (Pre.) GS, 2016 Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration on environment and
Ans. (c) Green India Mission, launched in 2015, is one development and the statement of principles for the
of the eight missions launched under the National sustainable management of forests were adopted by
Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), on India’s more than 178 Governments at the United Nations
Intended Nationally Determined Contribution (NDC), Conference on Environment and Development
submitted to the United Nations Framework Convention (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in June 1992.
on Climate Change. The Green India Mission, aimed at Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
‘protecting, restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing The full implementation of Agenda 21, the program for
further Implementation of Agenda 21 and the
forest cover and responding to climate change’. The
commitments to the Rio principles were strongly
objective of the mission is to increase green cover to the
reaffirmed at the World Summit on Sustainable
extent of 5 million hectares and improve quality of Development (WSSD) held in Johannesburg, South
existing green cover on another 5 million hectares, Africa in September 2002.
improve eco-system services like carbon sequestration,
98. Agenda 21 refers to-
hydrological services and biodiversity and provisioning
(a) An agreement between 20 developing
services like fuel, fodder and timber and non-timber
countries of the world on climate change
forest produces. It also has to increase forest-based
(b) A free trade agreement between 7 developed
livelihood income for about 3 million households. countries of the world
Hence, only statement 3 is correct.
(c) A non-binding, voluntarily implemented
95. ‘Earth Summit’ was held at: action plan of the United Nations with regard
(a) Cairo (b) Rio to sustainable development
(c) Durban (d) Kyoto (d) An agreement of all nations under United
Uttarakhand UDA/LDA (Pre) G.S 2003 Nations with regards to maintaining peace
and security
Ans. (b) In 1992, more than 100 heads of State met in
Rio de Janeiro, Brazil for the first international Earth Mizoram PSC (CCE) Pre-2021, 2017 Paper-I
Summit convened to address urgent problems of Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
environmental protection and socio-economic question.
development. The assembled leaders signed 99. Which one of the following is the correct
the Convention on Climate Change and the Convention definition of Agenda-21?
on Biological Diversity, endorsed the Rio (a) It is an action plan of U.N.O for protecting
Declaration and the Forest Principles and human rights
adopted Agenda 21, a 300 page plan for achieving (b) It is a book of 21 chapters on nuclear
sustainable development in the 21st century. disarmament
(c) It is an action plan for the conservation of
96. The first ‘Earth Summit was held at?
global environment in 21th century
(a) Washington (b) Geneva (d) It is an agenda for the election of the
(c) Rio de Janeiro (d) Buenos Aires President in the next meeting of SAARC
MPPCS (Pre) 1998 UPPCS (Pre) GS, 2013
Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above Ans. (c) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question. question.

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100. Agenda-21 is related to which field? Ans. (b) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
(a) Sustainable development question.
(b) Nuclear disarmament 105. What is Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in
(c) Patent conservation the news?
(d) Agriculture related delivery (a) It is the United Nations Conference on
UP RO/ARO (Pre) G.S. 2014 Sustainable Development
Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above (b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade
question. Organization
101. The Earth Summit +5 was held in (c) It is a Conference of the Inter-governmental
(a) 2005 (b) 2000 Panel on Climate Change
(c) 1999 d) 1997 (d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of
the Convention on Biological Diversity
UPPSC (Mains) 2016
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
Ans. (d) Earth Summit +5 was a special session of
United Nations General Assembly to review and Ans. (a) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable
appraise the implementation of Agenda 21 in New York Development (UNCSD), also known as the Rio+20
in June 1997. conference was held in June, 2012 in Rio de Janeiro,
Brazil. It marked the 20th anniversary of the original
102. In the year 1997, the World Environment 1992 Rio Earth Summit that framed the three pillars of
conference was organized in sustainable development (Economic, Social and
(a) Reo-de-Janeiro (b) Nairobi Environmental) through the Agenda 21 outcome
(c) Kyoto (d) New York document.
Uttarakhand PSC (Pre) 2016 106. The number of sustainable development goals
Ans. (c) World Environment conference, 1997 was held adopted by all United Nations Member States
in Kyoto, Japan. During this conference, "Kyoto to be attained by 2030 is :
Protocol" was adopted, which is an international (a) 10 (b) 15
agreement linked to the United Nations Framework (c) 17 (d) 19
Convention on Climate Change (UNFCC), which
commits its countries by setting internationally
Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
binding emission reduction targets. It entered into force Ans. (c) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
on 16 February 2005. The detailed rules for the question.
implementation of the Protocol were adopted at COP 7 in 107. Which one of the following is not the
Marrakesh, Morocco in 2001 and are referred to as the ingredient of sustainable development?
‘Marrakesh Accords’. Its first commitment period started (a) Intergeneration transferability
in 2008 and ended in 2012. In Doha, Qatar in 2012, the (b) Social justice
‘Doha Amendment to the Kyoto Protocol’ was adopted. (c) Inter-regional transferability
103. The Earth Summit of 1992 at Rio de Janeiro (d) Non-optimal resource utilization
resulted into a Convention on Biodiversity, Arunachal PSC (GS) 26-11-2021
which came into force in which of the following
Ans. (d) : Kindly refer the explanation of the above
date?
question.
(a) 19th December 1993 (b) 1st April 2000
108. What was the title of the Rio+20 declarations?
(c) 5th June 1992 (d) 29th December 1993
(a) The future we want (b) The future we seek
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S 2019
(c) The future we have (d) The future we see
Ans. (d) The Convention on Biological Diversity (e) None of the above
(CBD) was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in
Chhattisgarh PSC (Pre) G.S 2015
Rio de Janeiro on 5 June, 1992 and entered into force on
29 December, 1993. Components of biodiversity are all Ans. (a) United Nations Conference on Sustainable
the various forms of life on earth including ecosystems, Development held at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil endorsed
animals, plants, fungi, microorganisms and genetic the outcome document entitled ‘the future we want’.
diversity. The Secretariat of the Convention on 109. International Conference held in Rio de
Biological Diversity (SCBD) is based in Montreal, Janeiro was:
Canada. (a) United Nations Conference on Sustainable
104. The Convention on Biological Diversity was Development
(CBD) was signed at the- (b) Environment and pollution summit
(a) Rio Summit 2002 (c) International new economics
(b) Rio Summit 1992 (d) None of these
(c) Nagoya Summit 2010 MPPCS (Pre) G.S 1992
(d) Nairobi Summit 2000 Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
Mizoram PSC CCE Pre 2018 Paper I question.

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110. Which of the following statements is correct? (d) Climate change

(a) The first meeting of the Parties (MOP 1) to Jharkhand PSC (Pre) G.S 2016
the Cartagena Protocol on Biodiversity was Ans. (a) Kindly refer the explanation of the above
held in Philippines in the year 2004. question.
(b) India is not a signatory to the Biosafety 114. Which of the following is not correctly
Protocol/Convention on Biological Diversity. matched?
(c) The Biosafety Protocol deals with genetically (a) First World Climate Conference - 1979
modified organism.
(b) First Earth Summit - Agenda-21
(d) The United States of America is a member of (c) Earth Summit Plus 5 - 1997
the Biosafety Protocol/ Convention on
Biological Diversity. (d) Carbon Trading - Montreal Protocol
IAS (Pre) G.S 2005 MPPCS (Pre) G.S 2017
UPPCS (Pre) (Re-Exam) G.S 2015
Ans. (c) The first meeting of Cartagena Protocol on
Bio-safety was held at Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia (23-27 Ans. (d) The first world climate change conference was
February, 2004). Hence, statement (a) is incorrect. India held on 12-23 February, 1979 in Geneva. The conference
has acceded to the Bio-safety Protocol on 17th January mostly focused on how climate change might affect
2003. Hence, statement (b) is also incorrect. Cartagena human beings. In 1992, the United Nations Conference
Protocol on Bio-safety governors the movement of for Environment and Development (UNCED) in Rio de
living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from Janeiro was the first large international conference
modern biotechnology from one country to another. focused on global environmental questions known as the
Therefore, statement (c) is correct. United States of ‘Earth Summit’. The conference presented and
America is not party to the Cartagena Protocol on Bio- introduced the concept of sustainable development as a
safety. Hence, statement (d) is also incorrect. strategy for the future to the world public and developed
the action program ‘Agenda 21’, both milestones on the
111. Which one of the following Union Ministries path towards sustainability. Earth Summit plus 5 was
implements the Cartagena Protocol on Bio- held at New York in June 1997 to review and appraise
safety? the implementation of Agenda 21. Carbon trading, as set
(a) Ministry of Science and Technology out in Article 17 of the Kyoto Protocol, allows countries
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare that have emission units to spare emissions permitted
(c) Ministry of Environment and Forests them but not used to sell this excess capacity to countries
(d) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers that are over their targets. Hence (d) is not correctly
IAS (Pre) G.S 2009 matched.
Ans. (c) The Cartagena Protocol on Bio-safety to the 115. With reference to the International Union for
Convention on Biological Diversity is an international Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources
treaty governing the movements of living modified (IUCN) and the Convention on International
organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna
biotechnology from one country to another. It was and Flora (CITES), which of the following
adopted on 29 January 2000 as a supplementary statements is/are correct?
agreement to the Convention on Biological Diversity 1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and
and entered into force on 11 September 2003. Currently CITES is an international agreement between
171 countries are Parties to the Protocol. India has governments.
acceded to the Bio-safety Protocol on 17th January 2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around
2003. In India, Ministry of Environment, Forest and the world to better manage natural
Climate Change implements Cartagena Protocol. environments.
112. Which among the following 3. CITES is legally binding on the States that
Protocols/Convention is dedicated for have joined it, but this Convention does not
protecting biodiversity from the potential risks take the place of national laws.
caused by living modified Organisms (LMO) Select the correct answer using the code given
from Modern technology? below.
(a) Cartagena Protocol (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) Nagoya Protocol (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Bonna Convention IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
(d) Vienna Convention Ans. (b) International Union for Conservation of Nature
Assam PSC (CCE) Pre- 2021 (IUCN) was established in 1964. The IUCN Red List is
Ans. (a) : See the explanation of the above question. a critical indicator of the health of the world’s
113. Cartagena Protocol is related to- biodiversity. IUCN maintains a formally accredited
(a) Bio- safety agreement permanent observer mission to the United Nations in
(b) Pollution New York and it is not an organ of United Nations.
(c) Ozone depletion Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

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Thousands of field projects and activities around the (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
world are implemented by IUCN members and partners (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
together with the Secretariat. Hence, statement 2 is IAS (Pre) G.S 2014
correct. Ans. (b) Wetlands International is a global not-for-
CITES (The Convention on International Trade in profit nongovernmental organization, dedicated to the
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an conservation and restoration of wetlands whereas
international agreement between Governments. Its aim Ramsar Convention is the intergovernmental treaty that
is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild provides the framework for the conservation and wise
animals and plants does not threaten their survival. use of wetlands and their resources. Hence statement 1
CITES was conceived in the spirit to regulate the trade is not correct. Wetlands International is deeply
of wild animals and plants across the international concerned about the loss and deterioration of wetlands
borders of the countries. CITES was drafted as a result such as lakes, marshes and rivers. It is headquartered in
of a resolution adopted in 1963 at a meeting of members Netherlands. Wetlands International work at the field
of IUCN (The World Conservation Union). It entered level to develop and mobilize knowledge and use this
in force on July 1st, 1975. CITES is an international practical experience to advocate for better policies.
agreement to which States and regional economic Hence, statement 2 is correct.
integration organizations adhere voluntarily. Although 118. With reference to an initiative called ‘The
CITES is legally binding on the parties but it does not Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity
take the place of national laws. Hence, statement 3 is (TEEB)’, which of the following statements
also correct. Currently 184 countries are member to is/are correct?
CITES. It’s headquarter is at Geneva, Switzerland. 1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and
116. With reference to Bombay Natural History World Economic Forum.
Society (BNHS), consider the following 2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing
statements: attention to the economic benefits of
1. It is an autonomous organization under the biodiversity.
Ministry of Environment and Forests 3. It presents an approach that can help decision-
2. It strives to conserve nature through action- makers recognize, demonstrate and capture
based research, education and public the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.
awareness Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
3. It organizes and conducts nature trails and
camps for the general public (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? KERALA (KAS) PSC 2020 PAPER-II
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Ans. (c) In March 2007, environment ministers from the
G8+5 countries meeting in Potsdam, Germany,
IAS (Pre) G.S. 2014
proposed to initiate the process of analyzing the global
Ans. (c) In 1883, eight nature-loving residents of economic benefit of biological diversity, the costs of the
Bombay decided to exchange notes and exhibit loss of biodiversity and the failure to take protective
interesting specimens of natural history. They came measures versus the costs of effective conservation. In
together and on September 15, 1883, constituted the response to this proposal, a global study was jointly
Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS). Of them, two initiated on same year by the German Federal Ministry
were Indians. Bombay Natural History Society primary for the Environment and the European Commission led
goal is to spread awareness about nature through by Pavan Sukhdev (Pavan Sukhdev is an Indian
science-based research, conservation advocacy, scientist who is head of the United Nations ‘Green
education, scientific publications, nature tours and other Economy Initiative’). The study of Pavan
programs. It organizes and conducts nature trails and Sukhdev resulted in the establishment of ‘The
camps for the public. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’.
while statement 2 and 3 are correct. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
117. With reference to a conservation organization The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)
called ‘Wetlands International’, which of the is a global initiative focused on ‘making nature’s values
visible’. Its principal objective is to mainstream the
following statements is/are correct?
values of biodiversity and ecosystem services into
1. It is an intergovernmental organization decision-making at all levels. It aims to achieve this
formed by the countries which are signatories goal by following a structured approach to valuation
to Ramsar Convention. that helps decision-makers recognize the wide range of
2. It works at the field level to develop and benefits provided by ecosystems and
mobilize knowledge, and use the practical biodiversity, demonstrate their values in economic
experience to advocate for better policies. terms and where appropriate, suggest how
Select the correct answer using the code given to capture those values in decision-making. Hence, both
below. statements 2 and 3 are correct.
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119. With reference to an organization known as 121. What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’?
‘Birdlife International’, which of the following (a) It is an international accounting tool for
statements is/are correct? government and business leaders to
1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation understand, quantify and manage greenhouse
Organizations. gas emissions
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to
originated from this organization. offer financial incentives to developing
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’. and to adopt eco-friendly technologies
Select the correct answer using the code given (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified
below. by all the member countries of the United
(a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 to specified levels by the year 2022
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives
Ans. (c) "Bird Life International" is a global hosted by the World Bank
partnership of conservation organizations (NGOs) that IAS (Pre) G.S 2016
strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global Ans. (a) Greenhouse Gas Protocol establishes
biodiversity, working with people towards sustainability comprehensive global standardized frameworks to
in the use of natural resources. Hence, statement 1 is measure and manage greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions
correct. from private and public sector operations, value chains
Together there are 121 Bird Life partners worldwide. and mitigation actions. Building on a 20-year
The Bird Life partnership has 6 regional Bird Life partnership between World Resources Institute (WRI)
coordination offices throughout the world and a global and the World Business Council for Sustainable
office in Cambridge, UK, known as ‘The Bird Life Development (WBCSD), Greenhouse Gas Protocol
International Secretariat’. The British biologist Norman works with Governments, industry associations, NGOs,
Myers coined the term ‘biodiversity hotspot’ in 1988 as businesses and other organizations. Therefore (a) is the
a biogeographic region characterized both by correct answer.
exceptional levels of plant endemism and by serious
levels of habitat loss. Conservation International (CI) 122. With reference to 'Forest Carbon Partnership
adopted Myers’ hotspots as its institutional blueprint in Facility', which of the following statements is/
1989. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. are correct?
The Bird Life Partnership has worked collectively to 1. It is a global partnership of governments,
identify, document and protect the places of greatest businesses, civil society and indigenous
significance for the conservation of the world’s birds peoples.
called ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas (IBAs)’. 2. It provides financial aid to universities,
Hence, statement 3 is correct. individual scientists and institutions involved
Bird Life is recognized throughout the world as a leader in scientific forestry research to develop eco-
in conservation and the acknowledged authority on the friendly and climate adaptation technologies
world’s birds and bird conservation. Bird Life for sustainable forest management.
International is solely responsible for compiling the 3. It assists the countries in their 'REDD+
world’s official Red List of bird species threatened with (Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and
extinction. Forest Degradation+)' efforts by providing
120. 'BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable them with financial and technical assistance.
Forest Landscapes' is managed by the Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Asian Development Bank below.
(b) International Monetary Fund (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) United Nations Environment Program (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) World Bank IAS (Pre) G.S 2015
IAS (Pre) G.S 2015 Ans. (c) The Forest Carbon Partnership Facility is a
Ans. (d) The BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable global partnership of Governments, businesses, civil
Forest Landscapes (ISFL) is a multilateral fund, society and indigenous peoples focused on reducing
supported by donor Governments and managed by the emissions from deforestation and forest degradation,
World Bank. It promotes reducing greenhouse gas forest carbon stock conservation, the sustainable
emissions from the land sector, from deforestation and management of forests and the enhancement of forest
forest degradation in developing countries (REDD+) carbon stocks in developing countries ,activities
and from sustainable agriculture as well as smarter land- commonly referred to as REDD+. The four strategic
use planning, policies and practices. The BioCarbon objectives of the Forest Carbon Partnership Facility are:
Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes to assist countries in their REDD+ efforts by providing
supports programs in Colombia, Ethiopia, Indonesia, them with financial and technical assistance in building
Mexico and Zambia. their capacity to benefit from possible future systems of
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positive incentives for REDD+, to pilot a performance- Which of the following is correctly matched?
based payment system for REDD+ activities with a (a) (A)–(iii), (B)–(i), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iv)
view to ensuring equitable benefit sharing and (b) (A)–(iv), (B)–(ii), (C)–(iii), (D)–(i)
promoting future large scale positive incentives for (c) (A)–(i), (B)–(iv), (C)–(ii), (D)–(iii)
REDD+, within the approach to REDD+ to test ways to
(d) (A)–(ii), (B)–(iii), (C)–(iv), (D)–(i)
sustain or enhance livelihoods of local communities and
to conserve biodiversity, to disseminate broadly the RAS/RTS (Pre) G.S., 2013
knowledge gained in the development of the facility and Ans. (a) Correct match is-
the implementation of Readiness Preparation Proposals Wildlife Protection 1972
(RPPs) and Emission Reductions Programs (ERPs). Environment Protection 1986
Therefore both statement 1 and 3 are correct while Tribes and Other Traditional
statement 2 is not correct. Forest Dwellers
123. Consider the following statements: (Recognition of Forest Rights) 2006
1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Forest Protection 1980
Reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a 125. Match the following:
unique initiative of G20 group of countries. List-I List- II
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon (Environment Legislation) (Years)
and hydro fluorocarbons. A. Environment Protection Act I. 1991
Which of the statements given above is/are B. Scheme of labeling of II. 2000
correct? environment friendly products
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only C. Biomedical Waste III. 1986
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Management Rules
IAS (Pre) G.S 2017 D. Municipal Solid Wastes IV. 1998
Management Rules
Ans. (b) The Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC)
A B C D
is a voluntary partnership of Governments,
(a) IV II III I
intergovernmental organizations, businesses, scientific
(b) III IV I II
institutions and civil society organizations committed to
(c) III I II IV
improving air quality and protecting the climate through
(d) III I IV II
actions to reduce short-lived climate pollutants. In 2012,
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2018
the Governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana,
Mexico, Sweden and the United States along with the Ans. (d) Correct match is-
United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) came Environment Protection Act 1986
together to initiate efforts to treat short-lived climate Scheme of labeling of environment
pollutants as an urgent and collective challenge. friendly products 1991
Together they formed the Climate & Clean Air Biomedical Waste Management Rules 1998
Coalition (CCAC) to support fast action and deliver Municipal Solid Wastes Management Rules 2000
benefits on several fronts at once such as climate, public 126. Arrange the following events in chronological
health, energy efficiency and food security. Hence, order of their commencement and select
statement 1 is incorrect. correct answer from the codes given below:
The Coalition takes action through initiatives, which are I. Wild Life (Protection) Act
partner-led and designed to provide transformative II. Biological Diversity Act
action in sectors or as cross-cutting efforts to reduce III. Project Tiger
methane, black carbon and hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs). IV. Project elephant
Therefore, statement 2 is correct. Codes:
(a) I, II, III, IV (b) I, III, IV, II
124. Read the list of ecological concerns in India and
(c) II, III, IV, I (d) II, III, I, IV
year of laws passed related to them-
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019
Protection Act-3 Year of
Ans. (b) Correct chorological order is-
passing
Wild Life (Protection) Act - 1972
(A) Wildlife Protection (i) 1986
Project Tiger - 1973
(B) Environment Protection (ii) 2013 Project elephant - 1992
(C) Tribes and Other (iii) 1972 Biological Diversity Act - 2002
Traditional Forest
127. Arrange the following projects in the order in
Dwellers (Recognition which they were launched:
of Forest Rights) 1. Lion Project
(D) Forest Protection (iv) 1980 2. Tiger Project
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3. Crocodile Breeding Project 131. What is the title of the Brundtland Report
4. Rhino Conservation Project published in 1987?
(a) 2, 1, 3, 4 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4 (a) Our Environment
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) Our Common Future
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2016 (c) Sustainable Development
Ans. (b) Correct chorological order is- (d) Our One Planet (Earth)
Lion Project - 1965 UPPCS (Pre) G.S. 2020
Tiger Project - 1973 Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2016
Crocodile Breeding Project - 1975 Ans. (b) In 1987, the World Commission on
Rhino Conservation Project - 2005 Environment and Development (WCED), which had
128. Match the following Pollutants and their been set up in 1983, published a report entitled "Our
Mediums as per UNEP documents: common future". The document came to be known as
Pollutants Medium the "Brundtland Report" after the Commission's
A. Nitrogen oxides I. Sea chairperson, Gro Harlem Brundtland. It developed
guiding principles for sustainable development.
B. Petroleum hydrocarbons II. Food
C. Fluorides III. Air 132. Which of the following reports is directly
D. Mycotoxins IV. Fresh water associated with the conceptualization of
Sustainable Development?
Answer Options:
(a) Brundtland Report
A B C D
(b) World Development Report
(a) I II III IV
(c) Global Hunger Index Report
(b) IV III II I
(c) III I IV II (d) Global Assessment Report
(d) III I II IV MIZORAM PCS CCE PRE-2017
Maharashtra PSC (Pre) G.S, 2018 Ans. (a): Kindly refer the explanation of the above
question.
Ans. (c) As per United Nations Environment Program
(UNEP) documents, nitrogen oxide is released from air, 133. Match the following:
sea is source of Petroleum hydrocarbons, fluorides are Column I Column II
extracted from fresh water while food is source of (Waste Disposal Method) (Meaning)
mycotoxins. A. Sanitary landfills I. Burning of waste
129. Which of the following is NOT correctly B. Incineration II. Deposit the refuse
matched? and compost it with
(a) Cartagena Protocol Biosafety bulldozers
(b) Stockholm Convention Persistent organic C. Pulverizing III. Combustion in
pollutant absence of oxygen
(c) Montreal Protocol Ozone layer D. Pyrolysis IV. Spreading the waste
(d) Kyoto Protocol Save water on fields
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 Answer Options :
Ans. (d) Kyoto Protocol is related to green house gas A B C D
emission while other are correctly matched. (a) II I III IV
130. Who has propounded the concept of ‘Limit to (b) II I IV III
Growth’? (c) I II III IV
(a) Club of Rome (b) UNESCO (d) IV III II I
(c) Brundtland Commission (d) Agenda 21 Ans. (b) Sanitary landfills are sites where waste is
UPPCS (Pre) G.S, 2019 isolated from the environment until it is safe. It is
Ans. (a) The "Club of Rome" is an organization of considered when it has completely degraded
individuals, who share a common concern for the biologically, chemically and physically (waste is
future of humanity and strive to make a difference. Its deposited in thin layers and compacted by heavy
members are notable scientists, economists, machinery like bulldozers). Incineration is waste
businessmen, top civil servants and former heads of management technology, which includes the
State from around the world. The Club of Rome combustion of waste for recovering energy. Pulverizing
conducts research and hosts debates, conferences, is the method where collected solid waste is powdered
lectures, high-level meetings and events. The Club by grinding machines thereby changing its volume and
also publishes a limited number of peer-reviewed characteristic. Pyrolysis is defined as a process of
"Reports of Club of Rome", the most famous of which temperature decomposition of organic material in the
is "The Limits to Growth". absence of oxygen that brings many industrial benefits.

Environment & Ecology 160 YCT