MOLECULAR BASIS OE INHERITANC

1. Which of the following statements is corret?

(NEET 2020) 5. What are the structures called that give an
(a) Adenine pairs with thymine through two H appearance as 'beads-on-string' in the
bonds. chromosomes when viewed under electron
microscope?
(b) Adenine pairs with thymine through one H
bond. (2011)
(a) Genes
(c) Adenine pairs with thymine through three H.
bonds. (b) Nucleotides
(d) Adenine does not pair with thymine. (c) Nucleosomes
(d) Base pairs

2. Purines found both in DNA and RNA are 6. Which one of the following does not follow the
(NEET 20M9) central dogma of molecular biology?
(a) cytosine and thymine (2010)
(b) adenine and thymine (a) Pea
(c) adenine and guanine (b) Mucor
(d) guanine and cytosine. (c) Chlamydomonas
(d) HIV
3. The association of histone H1with a
nucleosome 7. The 3'.5' phosphodiester linkages inside a
indicates that polynucdeotide chain serve to join
(NEET 2017) (Main 2010)
(a) DNA replication is occurring (a) one DNA strand with the other DNA strand
(b) the DNA is condensed into a chromatin fibre (b) one nucleoside with another nucleoside
(c) the DNA double helix is exposed (c) one nucleotide with another nucleotide
(d) transcription is occurring. (d) one nitrogenous base with pentose sugar.

4. In sea urchin DNA, which is double stranded, 8. Which one of the following statements about
the
17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
The particular entity is true ?
(Main 2010)
percentages of the other three bases expected
to be (a) Centromere is found in animal cels, which
present in this DNA are produces aster during cell division.
(2015 Cancelled) (b) The gene for producing insulin is present in
(a) G 17%, A 33%, T 33% every body cell.
(b) G 8.5%, A 50%, T 24.5% (c) Nucleosome is formed of nucleotides.
(c) G 34%, A 24.5%, T 24.5% (d) DNA consists of core of eight histones.
(d) G 17%, A 16.5%,T 32.5%.
9. In the DNA molecule,
(a) one strand turns clockwise
(2008)
(b) one strand turns anti-clockwise
(a) the proportion of adenine in relation to
thymine (c) the phosphate groups of two DNA
varies with the organism strands, at heir ends, share the same
(b) there are two strands which run position
antiparallel-one in 5' +3 direction and other (d) the phosphate groups at the start of two
in DNA strands are in opposite position (pole).
3+5'
(c) the total amount of purine nucleotides
13. Which one of the following makes use of RNA
and
template to synthesise DNA?
pyrimidine nucleotides is not always equal (2005)
() there are two strands which run parallel (a) DNA polymerase
in the
5'+3' direction. (b) RNA polymerase
(c) Reverse transcriptase
(d) DNA dependant RNA polymerase
10. Which one of the following pairs of
nitrogenous
bases of nucleic acids, is wrongly matched 14. Which one of the following hydrolyses internal
with the phosphodiester bonds in a polynucleotide chain?
category mentioned against it? (2005)
(2008) (a) Lipase
(a) Guanine, Adenine- Purines (b) Protease
(b) Adenine, Thymine- Purines (c) Endonuclease
(c) Thymine, Uracil - Pyrimidines (d) Exonuclease
(c) Uracil, Cytosine- Pyrimidines
15. In a DNA percentage of thymine is 20% then what
11. One turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is will be percentage of guanine?
approximately (2002)
(2006) (a) 20%
(a) 2 nm (b) 40%
(b) 20 nm (c) 30%
(d) 60%
(c) 0.34 nm
(d) 3.4 nm.
16. Length of one loop of B-DNA
12.Antiparallel strands of a DNA molecule (2000)
means that (a) 3.4 nm
(2006) (b) 0.34 nm
(c) 20 nm
(d) 10 nm.
 (b) it should be able to generate its replica
17. The experimental proof for semi-conservative (c) it should be unstable structurally and
replication of DNA was first shown in a chemically
(NEET 2018) (d) it should provide the scope for slow changes
(a) fungus that are required for evolution.
(b) bacterium
(c) plant 22. Transformation was discovered by
() virus.) (a) Meselson and Stahl (b) Hershey and Chase
(c) Griffith
18. Select the correct match.
(d) Watson and Crick.
(NEET 2018)
(2014)
(a) Ribozyme
23. The unequivocal proof of DNA as the genetic
- Nucleic acid material
(b) F2 * Recessive parent- Diybrid cross came from the studies on a
(c) T.H. Morgan (a) bacterium
Transduction
(b) fungus
() G. Mendel (c) viroid
- Transformation
(d) bacterial virus.
(Main 2011)
19. The final proof for DNA as the genetic material 24. Semi-conservative replication of DNA was first
came from the experiments of demonstrated in
(NEET2017)
(a) Escherichia coli
(a) Hershey and Chase
(b) Avery, MacLeod and McCarty (b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
(c) Salmonella typhimurium
(c) Hargobind Khorana
(d) Drosophila melanogaster.
() Griffith.
(2009)
25. Transformation experiment was first performed
20.Taylor conducted the experiments to prove on
semiconservative mode of chromosome which bacteria?
replication on (a) E. coli
(NEET-II 2016)
(a) Vinca rosea (b) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(c) Salmonella
(b) Vicia faba
(c) Drosophila melanogaster (d) Pasteurella pestis
() E. coli. 26. DNA synthesis can be specifically measured by
estimating the incorporation of radio-labelled
21. A molecule that can act as a genetic material (a) thymidine
must (b) deoxyribose sugar
fulfill the traits given below, except (c) uracil
(NEET-I| 2016) () adenine.
(a) it should be able to express itself in the form of (1997)
'Mendelian characters'
 31. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of
DNA
27. Which one of the following is not applicable to helix during transcription.
RNA?
(NEET 2020)
(2015)
(a) Heterocyclic nitrogenous bases (a) DNA ligase
(b) DNA helicase
(b) Chargaff 's rule
(c) Complementary base paiing (c) DNA polymerase
(d) 5' phosphoryl and 3' hydroxyl ends () RNA polymerase

28.Similarity in DNA and RNA is that 32. What will be the sequence of mRNA
(2000) produced by
the following stretch of DNA?
(a) both are polymer of nucleotides
(b) both have similar pyrimidine (Odisha NEET 2019)
3ATGCATGCATGCATG5TEMPLATE STRAND
(c) both have similar sugar
(d) both are genetic material. 5' TACGTACGTACGTAC3' CODING STRAND
(a) 3'AUGCAUGCAUGCAUGS'
(b) 5'UACGUACGUACGUAC 3

29. During DNA replication, Okazaki fragments are (c) 3' UACGUACGUACGUAC 5'
used to elongate (d) 5' AUGCAUGCAUGCAUG 3'
(NEET 2017) 33. Select the correct statement.
(a) the lagging strand towards replication fork (NEET 2018)
(b) the leading strand away from replication fork (a) Franklin Stahl coined the term "linkage".
(c) the lagging strand away from the replication fork (b) Punnett square was developed by a British
scientist.
(d) the leading strand towards replication fork.
(c) Spliceosomes take part in translation.
30. During replication of a bacterial chromosome (d) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman.
DNA
synthesis starts from a replication origin site and 34. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
(2004) strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
(a) RNA primers are involved sequence of the transcribed mRNA?
(b) is facilitated by telomerase (NEET 2018)
(c) moves in one direction of the site (a) AGGUAUCGCAU (b) UGGTUTCGCAT
(d) moves in bidirectional way. (c) ACCUAUGCGAU(d) UCCAUAGCGUA

35. Which of the following RNAs should be most

abundant
in animal cell?
(NEET 2017)
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) miRNA
(d) rRNA
36. Spliceosomes are not found in cells of
(NEET 2017) 41. If one strand of DNA has the nitrogenous base
(a) fungi sequence as ATCTG, what would be the
(b) animals complementary RRNA strand sequence?
(c) bacteria (2012)
() plants. (a) TTAGU
(b) UAGAC
37. The equivalent of a structural gene is (c) AACTG
(NEET-I| 2016) (d) ATCGU
(a) muton 42. Ribosomal RNA is actively synthesised in
(b) cistron
(2012)
(c) operon (a) lysosomes
(d) recon. (b) nucleolus
(c) nucleoplasm
38. Which of the following rRNAs acts as structural (d) ribosomes.
RNA as well as ribozyme in bacteria?
(NEET-II 2016) 43. Which one of the following is not a part of a
(a) 5S rRNA
transcription unit in DNA?
(b) 18S rRNA (2012)
(c) 23S rRNA (a) The inducer
() 5.8S rRNA (b) A terminator
(c) A promoter
39. DNA-dependent RNA polymerase catalyses (d) The structural gene
transcription on one strand of the DNA which is
called the
44. Removal of RNA polymerase ll from
(NEET-I| 2016) nucleoplasm
(a) template strand will affect the synthesis of
(b) coding strand (2012)
(c) alpha strand (a) tRNA
(d) antistrand. (b) hnRNA
(c) mRNA
40. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a (d) rRNA.
defined
45. Which one of the following also acts as a
order during transcription is called
catalyst in
(2012, 20o9)
(a) looping a bacterial cell?
(b) inducing (2011)
(a) 5S rRNA
(c) slicing
(d) splicing. (b) snRNA
(c) hnRNA
(d) 23S rRNA
 51. During transcription, if the nucleotide
46. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing sequence of
and
RNA capping take place inside the the DNA strand that is beingg coded is ATACG
(Main 2010) tthenthe nucleotide sequence in the mRNA
would be
(a) ribosomes
(2004)
(b) nucleus (a) TATGC
(c) dictyosomes (b) TCTGG
(d) ER. (c) UAUGC
(d) UATGC.
47. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was
52. During transcription, the DNA site at which
postulated by RNA
(2006)
polymerase binds is called
(a) Beadle and Tatum (b) R. Franklin
(2003)
(c) Hershey and Chase (d) A. Garrod. (a) promoter
(b) regulator
48. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a
(c) receptor
(2005)
() enhancer.
(a) simple protein
(b) RNA
53. Which of the following reunites the exon
(c) ribonucleoprotein
(d) repetitive DNA. segments
after RNA splicing?
49. During transcription holoenzyme RNA
(2002)
polymerase
(a) RNA polymerase
binds to a DNA sequence and the DNA assumes
(b) RNA primase
a saddle like structure at that point. What is that
(c) RNA ligase
sequence called? (d) RNA proteoses
(2005)
(a) AAAT box 54. Exon part of mRNAs have code for
(b) TATA box (2002)
(a) protein
(c) GGTT box
(b) lipid
(d) CAAT box
(c) carbohydrate
() phospholipid.
50. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling
clover leaf? 55. mRNA is sythesised on DNA template in
which
(2004) direction?
(a) rRNA
(b) hnRNA (2001)
(a) 5'+ 3
(c) mRNA (b) 3' ’ 5
(d) tRNA
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Any
 61. The maximum formation of mRNA occurs in
56. Gene and cistron words are sometimes used (1996)
synonymously because (a) ribosome
(2001) (b) nucleoplasm
(a) one cistron contains many genes (c) cytoplasm
(b) one gene contains many cistrons (d) nucleolus.
(c) one gene contains one cistron 62. H the distance between two consecutive base
(d) one gene contains no cistron. pairs is
0.34 nm and the total number of base pairs of a
57. Types of RNA polymerase required in DNA
nucleus of
double helix in a typical mammalian cell is 6.6 x
eukaryotes for RNA synthesis
109
(2001) bp, then the length of the DNA is approximately
(a) 1 (NEET 2020)
(b) 2 (a) 2.0 meters
(c) 3 (b) 2.5 meters
() 4.
(c) 2.2 meters
(d) 2.7 meters.
58. Anticodon occurs in
(2000) 63. Under which of the following conditions there
(a) tRNA will be
(b) mRNA no change in the reading frame of following
(c) rRNA mRNA?
() DNA. 5' AACAGCGGUGCUAUU 3
(a) Deletion of GGU from 7th, 8th and 9th
59. In three dimensional view the molecule of
positions
tRNA is (NEET 2019)
(2000) (b) Insertion of G at 5th position
(a) L-shaped (c) Deletion of G from 5th position
(b) S-shaped (d) Insertion of A and G at 4th and 5th position
(c) Y-shaped respectively
() E-shaped.
64. Which of the following features of genetic
60. Genes that are involved in turning on or off code
the does allow bacteria to produce human insulin by
transcription of a set of structural genes are recombinant DNA technology?
called (NEET 2019)
(1998) (a) Genetic code is specific.
(a) redundant genes (b) Genetic code is not ambiguous.
(b) regulatory genes (c) Genetic code is redundant.
(c) polymorphic genes
(d) Genetic code is nearly universal.
(d) operator gees.
65. If there are 999 bases in an RNA that code
(a) Hershey and Chase
for a protein with 333 amino acids, and the base
(b) Morgan and Sturtevant
at position 901 is
(c) Beadle and Tatum
deleted such that the length of the RNA (d) Nirenberg and Mathaei
becomes 998
bases, how many codons will be altered? 70. What is not true for genetic code?
(NEET 2017) (2009)
(a) 11 (a) It is nearly universal.
(b) 33 (b) It is degenerate.
(c) 333 (c) It is unambiguous.
(d) 1 () A codon in mRNA is read in a non-contiguous
fashion.
66. Which one of the following is the starter
codon? 71. Which one of the following pairs of codons is
(NEET-1 2016) correctly matched with their function or the
(a) UAA signal
(b) UAG for the particular amino acid?
(c) AUG (2008)
(d) UGA (a) AUG, ACG- Start/methionine
67. Which of the following is not a property of (b) UUA, UCA- Leucine
the (c) GUU, GCU- Alanine
genetic code?
(d) UAG, UGA- Stop
(Karnataka NEET 2013)
(a) Non-overlapping 72.Aftera mutation at a genetic locusthe
(b) Ambiguous character of
(c) Degeneracy an organism changes due to change in
iversal
one aspect which is not a salient (2004)
feature of (a) protein structure
genetic code, is its being (b) DNA replication
(2010) (c) protein synthesis pattern
(a) degenerate () RNA transcription pattern.
(b) ambiguous
(c) universal 73.In mutational event, when adenine is
(d) specific. replaced by
guanine, it is a case of
69. Whose experiments cracked the DNA (2004)
and discovered unequivocally that a genetic (a) frame shift mutation
code isa (b) transcription
"triplet"? (c) transition
(2009) () transversion.
74. One gene-one enzyme hypothesis was (a) mutagen
postulated by (b) mutation
(2006) (c) recombination
(a) Beadle and Tatum (b) R. Frankdin (d) translation.
(c) Hershey and Chase (d) A. Garrod.
80.Which of the following is initiation codon?
75. Telomerase is an enzyme which is a (2000)
(2005) (a) UAG
(a) simple protein (b) AUC
(b) RNA (c) AUG
(c) ribonucleoprotein (d) repetitive DNA. (d) ccU

76.Degeneration of a genetic code is attributed to 81.The first phase of translation is

the (NEET 2020)
(2003) (a) binding of mRNA to ribosome
(a) first member of a codon (b) recognition of DNA molecule
(b) second member of codon (c) aminoacylation of tRNA
(c) entire codon (d) recognition of an anti-codon.
(d) third member of a codon.
82. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
T7.In the genetic code dictionary, how many mRNA to
codons
form multiple copies of a polypeptide
are used to code for all the 20 essential amino ssimultaneously.Such strings of ribosomes are
acids? termed as
(2003) (NEET 2018)
(a) 20 (a) polysome
(b) 64 (b) polyhedral bodies
(c) 61 (c) plastidome
(d) 60 (d) nucleosome.

78. Out of 64 codons, 61 codons code for 20 types 83.A complex of ribosomes attached to a single
strand
amino acid. It is called of RNA is known as
(2002)
(a) degeneracy of genetic code (NEET-I 2016)
(b) overlapping of gene (a) polypeptide
(c) wobbling of codon (b) Okazaki fragment
(d) universility of codons. (c) polysome
(d) polymer.
79. Change in sequence of nucleotide in DNA is
called
(2002)
 84.Amino acid sequence, in protein synthesis is
87. Match the following genes of the Lac operon with
decided
their respective products.
by the sequence of (A) i gene (i) B-galactosidase
(2006) (B) Zgene (ii) Permease
(a) rRNA (C) a gene (ii) Repressor
(b) tRNA (D) y gene (iv) Transacetylase
(c) mRNA Select the correct option.
(d) cDNA. (A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (iüi) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) () (iüi) (ii) (iv)
85. Using imprints from a plate with complete (c) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
medium (NEET 2019)
(d) (iüi) (i) (iv) (i)
and carrying bacterial colonies, you can select
streptomycin resistant mutants and prove that 88.All of the following are part of an operon
such
except
mutations do not originate as adaptation. (NEET 2018)
These
(a) an operator
imprints need to be used (b) structural genes
(2005) (c) an enhancer
(a) on plates with and without streptomycin (d) a promoter.
(b) on plates with minimal medium
(c) only on plates with streptomycin 89. Which of the following is required as
() only on plates without streptomycin. inducer(s) for
the expression of Lac operon?
86.Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs (NEET-1 2016)
(2005) (a) Lactose
(a) only on the ribosomes present in cytosol (b) Lactose and galactose
(b) only on ribosome attached to the nucdear (c) Glucose
envelope and endoplasmic reticulum (d) Galactose
(c) on ribosome present in the nucleolus as
well as
90.Gene regulation governing lactose operon of
in cytoplasm E.coli
() on ribosomes present in cytoplasm as well that involves the lac I gene product is
as in
(2015 Cancelled)
mitochondria. (a) negative and repressible because repressor
protein prevents transcription
(b) feedback inhibition because excess of
B-galactosidase can switch off transcription
 94.The lac operon consists of
(c) positive and inducible because it can be induced (Main 2010)
by lactose (a) four regulatory genes only
(d) negative and inducible because repressor (b) one regulatory gene and three structural
protein prevents transcription. genes
(c) two regulatory genes and two structural
genes
91. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (d) three regulatory genes and three structural
(a) Transcription - Writing information from DNA genes.
to tRNA.
(b) Translatio 95.Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to
(2014)n- Using information in mRNA to (a) novel DNA sequences
make protein. (NEET 2019)
(c) Repressor protein - Binds to operator to stop (b) genes expressed as RNA
enzyme synthesis.
(c) polypeptide expression
(d) Operon - Structural genes, operator and () DNA polymorphism.
promoter.
96.ldentify the correct order of organisation of
92.Which enzyme will be produced in a cell if there genetic
is a material from largest to smallest.
nonsense mutation in the lacY gene? (2015)
(NEET 2013) (a) Genome, chromosome, gene, nucleotide
(a) Transacetylase (b) Chromosome, genome, nucleotide, gene
(b) Lactose permease and transacetylase (c) Chromosome, gene, genome, nucleotide
(c) B-galactosidase (d) Genome, chromosome, nucleotide, gene
(d) Lactose permease
97. Satelite DNA is important because it
93.In an inducible operon, the genes are (2015)
(Karnataka NEET 2013) (a) does not code for proteins and is same in
all
(a) usually not expressed unless a signal turns
them"on". members of the population
(b) usually expressed unless a signal turns them (b) codes for enzymes needed for DNA
"off. replication
(c) never expressed (c) codes for proteins needed in cell cycle
(d) always expresser. (d) shows high degree of polymorphism in
population
and also the same degree of polymorphism in
an

individual, which is heritable from parents to

children.
98.Which of the following is not required for any (c) techniques used for molecular analysis of
of the different specimens of DNA
techniques of DNA fingerprinting available at (d) techniques used for identification of
present?
fingerprints
(NEET-I 2016) of individuals.
(a) Restriction enzymes
102. DNA elements, which can switch their
(b) DNA-DNA hybridisation
() Polymerase chain reaction position, are called
(1998)
() Zinc finger analysis
(a) cistrons
99.One of the most frequently used techniques (b) transposons
in DNA (c) exons
fingerprinting is (d) introns.
(Karnataka NEET 2013) 103.Which antibiotic inhibits interaction between
(a) VNTR
tRNA
(b) SSCP
and mRNA during bacterial protein synthesis?
(c) SCAR
(d) AFLP. (a) Tetracycline
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Neomycin
100.What is it that forms the basis of DNA
(d) Streptomycin (2006)
finger-printing?
(Mains 2012)
(a) The relative proportions of purines and 104. During translation initiation in prokaryotes, a
Pyrimidines GTP molecule is needed in
in DNA. (2003)
(b) The relative difference in the DNA (a) formation of formyl-met-tRNA
occurrence in (b) binding of 30S subunit of ribosome with mRNA
blood, skin and saliva. (c) association of 30S mRNA with formy-mettRNA
(c) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and (d) association of 50S subunit of ribosome with
grooves of the fingerprints. initiation complex.
(d) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated
short 105. Select the two correct statements out of the
DNA segments. four
((- iv) statements given below about lac operon
101. DNA fingerprinting refer to 2010]
(2004)
(a) molecular analysis of profiles of DNA
samples
(b) analysis of DNA samples using imprinting
devices
(i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the
repressor
109.The wild type E.coli cells are growing in normal
and inactivate it.
medium with glucose. They are transferred to a
(i) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds medium containing only lactose as sugar. Which of
with the operator region.
the following changes take place?
(ii)The z-gene codes for permease. (1995)
(iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and (a) The lac operon is induced.
Jacques Monod.
(b) E.coli cells stop dividing.
The correct statements are
(c) The lac operon is repressed.
(a) (ii) and (ii) (d) All operons are induced.
(b) () and (ii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
110.Jacob and Monod studied lactose metabolism
(d) (i) and (ii).
in

106.The lac operon is an example of E. coli and proposed operon concept. Operon
concept
(1995)
is applicable for
(a) repressible operon
(b) overlapping genes (2002)
(c) arabinose operon (a) all prokaryotes
(d) inducible operon. (b) all prokaryotes and some eukaryotes
(c) all prokaryotes and all eukaryotes
107.An environmental agent, which triggers (d) all prokaryotes and some protozoans.
transcription
from an operon, isa 111.in E. coli, during lactose metabolism repressor
binds to
(1995)
(a) depressor (2002)
(b) controlling element (a) regulator gene
(c) regulator (b) operator gene
(d) inducer. (c) structural gene
(d) promoter gene.
108. Lac operon' in E. coli, is induced by
(1994) 112.In negative operon,
(a) "' gene (2001)
(b) promnoter gene (a) co-repressor binds with repressor
(c) B-galactosidase (b) co-repressor does not bind with repressor
(d) lactose. (c) co-repressor binds with inducer
(d) CAMP have negative effect on lac operon.
 116.The codons causing chain termination are
113.Khorana first deciphered the triplet codons (1997)
of
(a) AGT, TAG, UGA
(1992)
(a) serine and isoleucine (b) UAG, UGA, UAA
(c) TAG, TAA, TGA
(b) cysteine and valine
(d) GAT, AAT, AGT.
(c) tyrosine and tryptophan
(d) phenylalanine and methinonine.
117.Which of the following serves as a terminal
codon?
114.In the genetic dictionary, there are 64
(1996)
codons as
(a) UAG
(1990) (b) AGA
(a) 64 amino acids are to be coded
(c) AUG
(b) 64 types of tRNAS are present
(d) GCG
(c) there are 44 nonsense codons and 20 sense
codons 118.If the DNA codons are ATG ATG ATG and a
(d) genetic code is triplet. cytosine
base is inserted at the beginning, then which of
115.Genetic code consists of
the
(1988) following will result?
(a) adenine and guanine (1995)
(b) cytosine and uracil (a) CAT GAT GAT G (b) A non-sense mutation
(c) cytosine and guanine (c) CATGATG ATG (d) CA TGA TGA TG
(d) all of these.
119.Anticodon is an unpaired triplet of bases in
an
exposed position of
(1995)
(a) tRNA
(b) mRNA
(c) rRNA
(d) both (b) and (c).
120.Initiation codon of protein synthesis (in
eukaryotes)
is
(1993)
(a) GUA
(b) GCA
(c) CCA
(d) AUG.
1.A 31.D 61.D 91.A.D
2.C 32.B 62.C 92.C
3.B 33.B 63.A 93.A
4.A 34.A 64.D 94.B
5.C 35.D 65.B 95.B
6.D 36.C 66.C 96.A
7.C 37.B 67.B 97.D
8.B 38.C 68.B 98.D
9.B 39.A 69.D 99.A
10.B 40.D 70.D 100.D
11.D 41.B 71.D 101.A
12.D 42.A 72.A 102.B
13.C 43.A 73.C 103.C
14.C 44.A 74.A 104.C
15.C 45.D 75.C 105.C
16.A 46.B 76.D 106.D
17.B 47.A 77.C 107.D
18.A 48.C 78.A 108.C
19.A 49.B 79.B 109.A
20.C 50.D 80.C 110.C
21.C 51.C 81.C 111.B
22.C 52.A 82.A 112.A
23.D 53.C 83.C 113.B
24.A 54.A 84.C 114.D
25.B 55.A 85.C 115.D
26.A 56.C 86.D 116.B
27.B 57.C 87.D 117.A
28.A 58.A 88.C 118.A
29.C 59.A 89.A 119.A
30.D 60.D 90.D 120.D