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Quantum Physics Homework Analysis

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17 views10 pages

Quantum Physics Homework Analysis

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rannyyev
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© © All Rights Reserved
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Quantum Physics

Homework II

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619)


November 8, 2024

Department of Physics
Middle East Technical University
[Modified December 27, 2024]
PHYS300 ■ Homework II 1/9

Question 1
Solution. (a) There are several conditions that the wave function Ψ must satisfy in order to be acceptable for the
infinite square well.
1) The wave function Ψ must be normalizable:
∫ ∞
|Ψ|2 𝑑𝑥 = 1
−∞
The wave function is given by  𝜋 
2𝜋
 
Ψ = 𝑁 sin 𝑥 + 2 sin 𝑥
𝐿 𝐿
Its complex conjugate is 
2𝜋 𝜋   

Ψ = 𝑁 sin 𝑥 + 2 sin 𝑥
𝐿 𝐿
The normalization condition is then
𝐿 𝜋  𝜋 
2𝜋 2𝜋
∫     
2 2
|𝑁| sin 𝑥 + 4 sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + 4 sin2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 1
0 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
Let’s break down the integral into three parts:
𝐿 𝜋  𝐿 𝜋  𝐿
2𝜋 2𝜋
∫ ∫   ∫   
|𝑁|2 sin2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 4 sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 4 sin2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 = 1
0 𝐿 0 𝐿 𝐿 0 𝐿
Using the identites given in the problem, we have
( 𝐿  𝐿  𝐿 )
𝑥 𝐿 2𝜋 𝐿 𝜋  𝐿 3𝜋 𝑥 𝐿 4𝜋
    
2
|𝑁| − sin 𝑥 +4 sin 𝑥 − sin 𝑥 +4 − sin 𝑥 =1
2 4𝜋 𝐿 0 2𝜋 𝐿 6𝜋 𝐿 0 2 8𝜋 𝐿 0

Evaluating each term, we obtain


𝐿 4𝐿
 
|𝑁|2 −0+ =1
2 2
The normalization constant is
r
2
𝑁=
5𝐿
Therefore, the wave function is normalizable, and the first condition is satisfied.
2) The wave function Ψ must be continuous everywhere.
• In the interval (−∞, 0), the wave function is zero. Therefore, it is continuous in that interval.
• In the interval (0, 𝐿), the wave function is a linear combination of two sine functions, each of which is
continuous in that interval. Therefore, the wave function is continuous in that interval.
• In the interval (𝐿, ∞), the wave function is zero. Therefore, it is continuous in that interval.
• The wave function must vanish at the boundaries of the well:

ΨII (0, 0) = 𝑁 [sin(0) + 2 sin(0)] = ΨI (0, 0) = 0


ΨII (𝐿, 0) = 𝑁 [sin(𝜋) + 2 sin(2𝜋)] = ΨI (𝐿, 0) = 0

Hence, the wave function is continuous at the boundaries.


Therefore, the wave function is continuous everywhere, and the second condition is satisfied.

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


Question 1 2/9

3) The derivative of the wave function must be continuous everywhere except at points where the potential
is infinite. The derivative of the wave function is
𝑑Ψ 𝑁𝜋 𝜋  2𝜋
  
= cos 𝑥 + 4 cos 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿

• In the interval (−∞, 0), the derivative of the wave function is zero. Therefore, it is continuous in that
interval.
• In the interval (0, 𝐿), the derivative of the wave function is a linear combination of two cosine
functions, each of which is continuous in that interval. Therefore, the derivative of the wave function
is continuous in that interval.
• In the interval (𝐿, ∞), the derivative of the wave function is zero. Therefore, it is continuous in that
interval.
• The derivative of the wave function at the boundaries is
𝑑ΨII 𝑁𝜋 5𝑁𝜋 𝑑ΨI
= [cos(0) + 4 cos(0)] = ≠ =0
𝑑𝑥 (0,0) 𝐿 𝐿 𝑑𝑥 (0,0)
𝑑ΨII 𝑁𝜋 3𝑁𝜋 𝑑ΨI
= [cos(𝜋) + 4 cos(2𝜋)] = − ≠ =0
𝑑𝑥 (𝐿,0) 𝐿 𝐿 𝑑𝑥 (𝐿,0)

Since the potential is infinite at the boundaries, the derivative of the wave function is not required to
be continuous at the boundaries.
Therefore, the derivative of the wave function is continuous everywhere except at points where the
potential is infinite, and the third condition is satisfied.
4) The second derivative of the wave function must exist. The second derivative of the wave function is

𝑑2 Ψ 𝑁𝜋2 𝜋  2𝜋
  
= − sin 𝑥 + 8 sin 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2 𝐿 2 𝐿 𝐿
Hence, the second derivative of the wave function exists, and the fourth condition is satisfied.
In conclusion, the given wave function Ψ is acceptable for the infinite square well.

ˆ if it satisfies the time-independent


(b) The wave function Ψ is an eigenfunction of the total energy operator 𝐻
Schrödinger equation, which is given by
ˆ = 𝐸Ψ
𝐻Ψ

where 𝐸 is the eigenvalue of the total energy. We have


2 2
ˆ =−ℏ 𝑑 Ψ
𝐻Ψ
2𝑚 𝑑𝑥 2
𝑁ℏ2 𝜋2 𝜋 2𝜋
    
= sin 𝑥 + 8 sin 𝑥
2𝑚𝐿2 𝐿 𝐿
≠ 𝐸Ψ

ˆ
Therefore, the wave function Ψ is not an eigenfunction of the total energy operator 𝐻.

(c) The expectation value of the energy of the particle is given by


∫ ∞
Ψ∗ 𝐻ˆ Ψ 𝑑𝑥
 
⟨𝐸⟩ =
−∞

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


PHYS300 ■ Homework II 3/9

where 𝐻ˆ is the total energy operator. The the total energy operator inside the well is given by

ℏ2 𝑑 2
𝐻ˆ = −
2𝑚 𝑑𝑥 2
The expectation value is then
ℏ2 ∞
𝑑2 Ψ

⟨𝐸⟩ = − Ψ∗ 𝑑𝑥
2𝑚 −∞ 𝑑𝑥 2
The complex conjugate of the wave function is
r
2 𝜋  2𝜋
  

Ψ (𝑥, 0) = sin 𝑥 + 2 sin 𝑥
5𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
The second derivative of the wave function is

𝑑2 Ψ 𝜋2  𝜋  8𝜋2
r
2 2𝜋
  
= − 2 sin 𝑥 − 2 sin 𝑥
𝑑𝑥 2 5𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
2 𝜋2
r 𝜋  2𝜋
  
=− sin 𝑥 + 8 sin 𝑥
5𝐿 𝐿2 𝐿 𝐿

Substituting the wave function and its second derivative into the expectation value, we have
𝐿
𝜋 2 ℏ2 𝜋  2𝜋 𝜋  2𝜋
∫      
⟨𝐸⟩ = sin 𝑥 + 2 sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥 + 8 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
5𝑚𝐿3 0 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
𝐿 𝐿 𝐿
𝜋 2 ℏ2 𝜋  𝜋  2𝜋 2𝜋
∫ ∫   ∫   
2 2
= sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 10 sin 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 + 16 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
5𝑚𝐿3 0 𝐿 0 𝐿 𝐿 0 𝐿
𝜋 2 ℏ2 𝐿 16𝐿
 
= + 10 (0) +
5𝑚𝐿3 2 2
17𝜋2 ℏ2
=
10𝑚𝐿2
The ground state energy of the particle is given by

𝜋 2 ℏ2
𝐸1 =
2𝑚𝐿2
Therefore, the expectation value of the energy expressed in terms of the ground state energy is

Expectation value of 17
⟨𝐸⟩ = 𝐸1
total energy 5

Question 2
Solution. Recall that the expectation value of the position 𝑥 is given by
∫ ∞
⟨𝑥⟩ = Ψ∗ [𝑥] Ψ 𝑑𝑥
−∞
where Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡) is the state of the particle at time 𝑡.
(a) The first wave function is given by
r
2 𝜋  𝑖𝐸1 𝑡
 
Ψ1 = cos 𝑥 exp −
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


Question 2 4/9

where 𝐸1 = ℏ2 𝜋2 / 2𝑚𝐿2 . Its complex conjugate is




r
2 𝜋  𝑖𝐸1 𝑡
 
Ψ∗1 = cos 𝑥 exp
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ
Hence, we have
𝐿/2
2 𝜋 

⟨𝑥⟩ = 𝑥 cos2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2 𝐿
Note that the integrand is an odd function:
𝜋  𝜋 
𝑓 (−𝑥) = (−𝑥) cos2 (−𝑥) = −𝑥 cos2 𝑥 = − 𝑓 (𝑥)
𝐿 𝐿
Therefore, the integral is zero, and the expectation value is
Expectation value of
position for Ψ1
⟨𝑥⟩ = 0

The second wave function is given by


r
2 2𝜋 𝑖𝐸2 𝑡
   
Ψ2 = sin 𝑥 exp −
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ
where 𝐸2 = 4ℏ2 𝜋2 / 2𝑚𝐿 . Its complex conjugate is
2


r
2 2𝜋 𝑖𝐸2 𝑡
   
Ψ∗2 = sin 𝑥 exp
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ
Hence, we have
𝐿/2
2 2𝜋
∫  
2
⟨𝑥⟩ = 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2 𝐿
Note that the integrand is an odd function:

2𝜋 2𝜋
   
2
𝑓 (−𝑥) = (−𝑥) sin (−𝑥) = −𝑥 sin2 𝑥 = − 𝑓 (𝑥)
𝐿 𝐿
Therefore, the integral is zero, and the expectation value is
Expectation value of
position for Ψ2
⟨𝑥⟩ = 0

The third wave function is given by

1 𝜋  𝑖𝐸1 𝑡 2𝜋 𝑖𝐸2 𝑡
      
Ψ = √ cos 𝑥 exp − + sin 𝑥 exp −
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ 𝐿 ℏ
Its complex conjugate is

1 𝜋  𝑖𝐸1 𝑡 2𝜋 𝑖𝐸2 𝑡
      

Ψ = √ cos 𝑥 exp + sin 𝑥 exp
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ 𝐿 ℏ
To simplify the calculation, let’s make the following substitutions:

𝜋 2𝜋 𝑖𝑡
= 𝛼, = 2𝛼, =𝛽
𝐿 𝐿 ℏ
Hence, we have
𝑥
Ψ∗ [𝑥] Ψ = cos(𝛼𝑥) exp −𝐸1 𝛽 + sin (2𝛼𝑥) exp −𝐸2 𝛽 cos(𝛼𝑥) exp 𝐸1 𝛽 + sin(2𝛼𝑥) exp 𝐸2 𝛽
     
𝐿
𝑥
cos2 (𝛼𝑥) + cos(𝛼𝑥) sin(2𝛼𝑥) exp −𝐸1 𝛽 + 𝐸2 𝛽 + exp −𝐸2 𝛽 + 𝐸1 𝛽 + sin2 (2𝛼𝑥)
   
=
𝐿

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


PHYS300 ■ Homework II 5/9

The expectation value is then


𝐿/2
1

⟨𝑥⟩ = 𝑥 cos2 (𝛼𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2
𝐿/2
1 

exp −𝐸1 𝛽 + 𝐸2 𝛽 + exp −𝐸2 𝛽 + 𝐸1 𝛽 𝑥 cos(𝛼𝑥) sin(2𝛼𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
 
+
𝐿 −𝐿/2
𝐿/2
1

+ 𝑥 sin2 (2𝛼𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2

The first and last integrals are zero, as shown in the previous parts. The integrand of the second integral is an
even function:
𝑓 (−𝑥) = (−𝑥) cos[𝛼(−𝑥)] sin[2𝛼(−𝑥)] = 𝑥 cos(𝛼𝑥) sin(2𝛼𝑥) = 𝑓 (𝑥)

Therefore, the expectation value takes the form


𝐿/2
2

exp 𝛽 (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 ) + exp −𝛽 (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 ) 𝑥 cos(𝛼𝑥) sin(2𝛼𝑥) 𝑑𝑥
   
⟨𝑥⟩ =
𝐿 0
The integral evaluates to
𝐿/2
4𝐿2

𝑥 cos(𝛼𝑥) sin(2𝛼𝑥) 𝑑𝑥 =
0 9𝜋2
Therefore, the expectation value is
8𝐿 𝑖𝑡 𝑖𝑡
    
⟨𝑥⟩ = exp (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 ) + exp − (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 )
9𝜋2 ℏ ℏ
Note that cos(𝑎𝑥) can be expressed as
1
cos (𝑎𝑥) = exp(𝑖𝑎𝑥) + exp(−𝑖𝑎𝑥)

2
Therefore, the expectation value can be written as

16𝐿 𝑡
 
Expectation value of
⟨𝑥⟩ = cos (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 )
position for Ψ 9𝜋2 ℏ

(b) The expectation value for the Ψ1 and Ψ2 does not depend on time, whereas the expectation value for Ψ
oscillates sinusoidally with time at an angular frequency 𝜔 = (𝐸2 − 𝐸1 ) /ℏ.

(c) Recall that the uncertainty in the position of the particle is given by
p
𝜎𝑥 = ⟨𝑥 2 ⟩ − ⟨𝑥⟩ 2

The uncertainty in 𝑥 2 for the ground state wave function is


∫ ∞
2
Ψ∗1 𝑥 2 Ψ1 𝑑𝑥
 
⟨𝑥 ⟩ =
−∞
𝐿/2
2 𝜋 

= 𝑥 2 cos2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2 𝐿

Since the integrand is an even function, we can write


𝐿/2
4 𝜋 

2
⟨𝑥 ⟩ = 𝑥 2 cos2 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 0 𝐿

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


Question 3 6/9

Using the following trigonometric identity


1 1
cos2 (𝑎𝑥) = + cos(2𝑎𝑥)
2 2
we have
𝐿/2 𝐿/2
2 2 2𝜋
∫ ∫  
⟨𝑥 2 ⟩ = 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 + 𝑥 2 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 0 𝐿 0 𝐿
𝜋2 − 6 2

= 𝐿
12
Therefore, the uncertainty in the position of the particle is

Uncertainty in 𝜋2 − 6
position for Ψ1
𝜎𝑥 = √ 𝐿
2 3

The uncertainty in 𝑥 2 for the first excited state wave function is


∫ ∞
⟨𝑥 2 ⟩ = Ψ∗2 𝑥 2 Ψ2 𝑑𝑥
 
−∞
𝐿/2
2 2𝜋
∫  
2 2
= 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 −𝐿/2 𝐿

Since the integrand is an even function, we can write


𝐿/2
4 2𝜋
∫  
2 2 2
⟨𝑥 ⟩ = 𝑥 sin 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 0 𝐿
Using the following trigonometric identity
1 1
sin2 (𝑎𝑥) = − cos(2𝑎𝑥)
2 2
we have
𝐿/2 𝐿/2
2 2 4𝜋
∫ ∫  
⟨𝑥 2 ⟩ = 𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 − 𝑥 2 cos 𝑥 𝑑𝑥
𝐿 0 𝐿 0 𝐿
𝜋2 + 6

= 𝐿2
12𝜋2
Therefore, the uncertainty in the position of the particle is

Uncertainty in 𝜋2 + 6
position for Ψ2
𝜎𝑥 = √ 𝐿
2 3𝜋

Question 3
Solution. (a) The commutator of 𝐻ˆ and 𝑝ˆ is
ˆ 𝑝ˆ = 𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ − 𝑝ˆ 𝐻ˆ
𝐻,
 

where the operators are given by

ℏ2 𝑑 2 𝑑
𝐻ˆ = − + 𝑉(𝑥), 𝑝ˆ = −𝑖ℏ
2𝑚 𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


PHYS300 ■ Homework II 7/9

and 𝑉(𝑥) = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑥 2 /2 is the potential energy. Let us find the commutator by applying it to a test function 𝑓 :

ˆ 𝑝ˆ 𝑓 = 𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ 𝑓 (𝑥) − 𝑝ˆ 𝐻ˆ 𝑓 (𝑥)
𝐻,
 

The first term is

𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ 𝑓 = −𝑖ℏ𝐻ˆ 𝑓 (1)
ℏ2 (3)
 
= −𝑖ℏ − 𝑓 + 𝑉 𝑓 (1)
2𝑚
𝑖ℏ3 (3)
= 𝑓 − 𝑖ℏ𝑉 𝑓 (1)
2𝑚
The second term is
ℏ2 (2)
 
𝑝ˆ 𝐻ˆ 𝑓 = 𝑝ˆ − 𝑓 +𝑉𝑓
2𝑚
ℏ2 (3)
 
= −𝑖ℏ − 𝑓 + 𝑉 (1) 𝑓 + 𝑉(𝑥) 𝑓 (1)
2𝑚
𝑖ℏ3 (3)
= 𝑓 − 𝑖ℏ𝑉 (1) 𝑓 − 𝑖ℏ𝑉 𝑓 (1)
2𝑚
Substituting the results back into the commutator, we have

3  3 
ˆ 𝑝ˆ 𝑓 = 𝑖ℏ𝑓
𝐻, (3)
𝑖ℏ𝑉
 𝑖ℏ 
(1)
𝑓 − 𝑓 (3) + 𝑖ℏ𝑉 (1) 𝑓 + 
𝑖ℏ𝑉 (1)
𝑓
 
−

2𝑚
 2𝑚

= 𝑖ℏ𝑉 (1) 𝑓
𝑑 1
 
= 𝑖ℏ 𝑓 𝑚𝜔2 𝑥 2
𝑑𝑥 2
= 𝑖ℏ𝑚𝜔2 𝑥 𝑓

Dropping the test function, we have


ˆ 𝑝ˆ = 𝑖ℏ𝑚𝜔2 𝑥ˆ
𝐻,
 

ˆ and 𝑝ˆ 2 is
(b) The commutator of 𝐻
ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 = 𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 − 𝑝ˆ 2 𝐻ˆ
𝐻,
 

Let us find the commutator by applying it to a test function 𝑓 :

ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 𝑓 = 𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 𝑓 (𝑥) − 𝑝ˆ 2 𝐻ˆ 𝑓 (𝑥)
𝐻,
 

The first term is

𝐻ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 𝑓 = −ℏ2 𝐻ˆ 𝑓 (2)
ℏ2 (4)
 
= −ℏ2 − 𝑓 + 𝑉 𝑓 (2)
2𝑚
ℏ4 (4)
= 𝑓 − ℏ2 𝑉 𝑓 (2)
2𝑚

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


Question 3 8/9

The second term is


ℏ2 (2)
 
2 2
𝑝ˆ 𝐻ˆ 𝑓 = 𝑝ˆ − 𝑓 + 𝑉(𝑥) 𝑓
2𝑚
ℏ2 (4)
 
= −ℏ2 − 𝑓 + 𝑉 (2) 𝑓 + 2𝑉 (1) 𝑓 (1) + 𝑉 𝑓 (2)
2𝑚
ℏ4 (4)
= 𝑓 − ℏ2 𝑉 (2) 𝑓 − 2ℏ2𝑉 (1) 𝑓 (1) − ℏ2𝑉 𝑓 (2)
2𝑚
Substituting the results back into the commutator, we have

4  4 
ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 𝑓 = ℏ 𝑓
𝐻, (4)
ℏ2 
𝑉 𝑓
 ℏ 
(2)
− 𝑓 (4) + ℏ2 𝑉 (2) 𝑓 + 2ℏ2𝑉 (1) 𝑓 (1) + 
ℏ2  (2)
𝑉 𝑓
 
−

2𝑚
 2𝑚
= ℏ2𝑉 (2) 𝑓 + 2ℏ2 𝑉 (1) 𝑓 (1)
𝑑2 1 𝑑 1
   
2
=ℏ 𝑓 2 𝑚𝜔2 𝑥 2 + 2ℏ2 𝑓 (1) 𝑚𝜔2 𝑥 2
𝑑𝑥 2 𝑑𝑥 2
𝑑𝑓
= 𝑚ℏ2 𝜔2 𝑓 + 2𝑚𝑥ℏ2 𝜔2
𝑑𝑥 
𝑑𝑓

2
= 𝑖ℏ𝑚𝜔 −𝑖ℏ 𝑓 − 2𝑖ℏ𝑥
𝑑𝑥
= 𝑖ℏ𝑚𝜔2 2𝑥ˆ 𝑝ˆ 𝑓 − 𝑖ℏ 𝑓


Dropping the test function, we have

ˆ 𝑝ˆ 2 = 𝑖ℏ𝑚𝜔2 2𝑥ˆ 𝑝ˆ − 𝑖ℏ
𝐻,
  

(c) Given an initial wave function at 𝑡 = 0, we can obtain the wave function at a time 𝑡 > 0 by multiplying each
𝑐 𝑛 𝜓 𝑛 (𝑥) by its respective time-dependent phase factor:

Õ
Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡) = 𝑐 𝑛 𝜓 𝑛 (𝑥)𝑒 −𝑖𝐸𝑛 𝑡/ℏ
𝑛=1
where 𝐸𝑛 is given by
1
 
𝐸𝑛 = 𝑛 + ℏ𝜔
2
In our case, we obtain
1  
Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡) = √ 𝜓0 𝑒 −𝑖𝐸0 𝑡/ℏ + 2𝑖𝜓1 𝑒 −𝑖𝐸1 𝑡/ℏ
5
which simplifies to

Wave function at 1 2𝑖
time 𝑡
Ψ(𝑥, 𝑡) = √ 𝜓0 𝑒 −𝑖𝜔𝑡/2 + √ 𝜓1 𝑒 −3𝑖𝜔𝑡/2
5 5

Therefore, if we measure the energy of the particle, we could get either 𝐸0 = ℏ𝜔/2 with probability |𝑐 0 |2 = 1/5
or 𝐸1 = 3ℏ𝜔/2 with probability |𝑐 1 |2 = 4/5. The expectation value of the total energy is given by
𝑛
|𝑐 𝑛 |2 𝐸𝑛
Õ
⟨𝐸⟩ =
𝑛=0

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024


PHYS300 ■ Homework II 9/9

In our case, we have


1 ℏ𝜔 4 3ℏ𝜔
⟨𝐸⟩ = +
5 2 5 2
ℏ𝜔 12ℏ𝜔
= +
10 10
13ℏ𝜔
=
10
Or, in terms of the ground state energy 𝐸0 ,

Expectation value of 13
⟨𝐸⟩ = 𝐸0
total energy 5

Rahmanyaz Annyyev (2604619) November 8, 2024

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