1.
General Coding Questions:
General Diagnosis coding
1. Unequal pupil diameter – 379.41
2. Childhood asthma – 493.00
3. Hepatitis C – 070.70
4. Increased TSH – 242.80
5. COPD with exacerbation – 491.21
6. Swallowed foreign body – 938
7. Acute and chronic frontal sinusitis – 461.1, 473.1
8. Head injury with LOC – 850.5
9. Respiratory distress in a 2 days old child – 770.89
10. John a diabetic patient encountered today to check his foot ulcer - 250.80, 707.15
Procedural Coding
1. In the CPT manual, what is the distinction between "starred" procedures
(indicated with an asterisk following the code) and "non starred" procedures?
2. Is CPT code 94640 the appropriate code to use for nebulizer treatment for
bronchospasm?
3. Which diagnosis codes should be used to designate services resulting from a
motor vehicle accident?
4. What types of cancer arise in the bones?
5. How would you code an anterior spinal fusion of L5-S1 with cages and bone
grafting if performed by a spinal surgeon and general surgeon?
6. If the general surgeon assists the spinal surgeon for the entire case (Scenario
Question no 05), how would the coding change?
7. What modifier should be placed on the E/M when reported with a procedure?
8. Can we bill for postoperative suture removals?
9. Can 20670 be billed in multiple units in regard to the number of rods or pin or
wire removed? If yes, Justify? If no, Justify?
10. What is the column 1/column 2 correct coding edit table?
11. When is it appropriate to use codes 20900 and 20902 for bone grafts?
12. A surgeon is harvesting bone from a patient's chin and grafting it to her maxillary
sinus. The operative report describes this procedure as a "sinus lift". What is the
most appropriate way to report this procedure to a medical carrier?
13. What does RPE stand for and how is it coded?
14. What is QW modifier and where do you report a QW modifier?
15. What is the ICD code for MOD?
16. What is the ICD code for SDH?
17. Can Splinting procedures be billed separately in addition to fracture care? If so,
when it can be billed?
18. Can cosmetic services be billed separately to the insurance?
19. What is modifier AS and where this is reported?
20. Can 29877 & 29881 be billed together? If yes, Justify? If no, Justify?
21. What is the purpose of modifier and What is Q6 modifier?
22. What is F5 and what service does 21(POS) provide?
23. When do we use category III codes?
24. What are the three key components in selecting the level of E/M service?
25. For which sections in the CPT manual you will append the professional
component?
Radiology:
Diagnostic Radiology: Pick up the appropriate codes.
1. What is the code for operative Cholangiogram
2. How will you code for E.R.C.P of bile and pancreatic ductile system.
3. MRI of right knee and ankle are performed with contrast.
1. 15 year old boy complaints of pain in right knee and ankle
2. IMP-Tear of posterior horn lateral meniscus of knee
a. Tear of lateral ligament of ankle.
3. 4.How will you code for screening mammogram of single breast?
4. How will you code metastatic survey of axial and appendicular skeleton
5. RFE-Prostate cancer
6. IMP- No evidence of metastasis.
Diagnostic Ultrasound:
7. What is the code for Ultrasound axilla
8. What is the code for biophysical profile
9. How will you code the following scenario?
10. RFE: Amniotic Fluid Check
11. Exam: Ultrasound to evaluate amniotic fluid index.
12. Imp: Lower level than the normal limit
Nuclear Medicine:
13. What is code for Meckel,s scan
14. What is the code for Milk scan
15. Kidney imaging with vascular flow and function.
16. Multiple studies performed with Lasix.
17. RFE- ARF.
18. IMP- Medical renal disease.
Interventional radiology:
1. Injection procedure for discography at L1-L2 andL2-L3 is performed.
RFE- LBP. Imp: Tear of L1 and L2 disc and disc degeneration of L1 and L3.
2. Vertebroplasty of L1 and L2 are performed under fluoroscopic guidance RFE-
compression fracture, back pain. Imp- Disc degeneration and pathological
compression fracture of L1 and L2.
3. Right femoral artery is accessed. Selective catheterization of right and left renal
artery. Abdominal aortogram is performed. Angiograms of both renal arteries are
performed. RFE- HTN. IMP- Both Renal artery stenosis.
4. How will you code injection of Galactogram of single duct?
5. Puncture aspiration of thigh abscess under CT guidance.
6. How will you code U.S guided percutaneous renal biopsy?
7. What is the code for IVC filter placement?
8. 8. How will you code IVC filter removal
9. The right groin was prepped and draped in the usual sterile fashion. 1% Lidocaine
was used for local anesthesia. The right common femoral vein was accessed using
a 4-French micro puncture kit. A 10-French vascular sheath was placed. A snare
was used in an attempt to snare the lower hook of the Opt Ease IVC filter.
Attempts were made to snare the IVC filter. Successful IVC filter removal.
10. What is nephrostomy tube placement
11. Thrombin injection for extremity pseudoaneurysm under CT guidance
12. Patency check for CVA under fluoroscopic guidance
13. T Tube cholangiogram with imaging.
Anesthesiology:
1. An individual who administers anesthesia is _______________________.
2. Anesthesia time begins when the surgeon starts the operation and ends when the
anesthesiologist is no longer in personal attendance. True or False.
3. Regional anesthesia produced by injection of an anesthetic agent into the epidural
space is called _________________________ block.
4. Injection of anesthesia into the subarachnoid space for diffusion throughout the
spinal canal is called _________________ anesthesia.
5. PCA stands for __________________________________________.
6. What is the formula for calculating anesthesia fees?
7. MAC service should be always accompanied by _____ modifier.
8. When multiple surgical procedures are performed during a single anesthetic
administration, the base value for the procedure with the highest unit value is the
base value for the anesthesia. True or False.
9. CRNA stands for ________________________________________.
10. Insertion of Swan-Ganz catheter is a separately reimbursable service and not
considered as part of the Anesthesia global package. True or False.
11. Arterial line placement is coded as _____________
12. Which part of the CPT book clearly illustrates the physical status modifiers and
the Qualifying circumstances in Anesthesia?
13. Name the physical status modifiers that do not carry Base units or base values?
14. _________________ Anesthesia is the inability to perceive pain due to loss of
consciousness achieved by the administration of intravenous or inhalation
anesthetics.
15. How will you bill post op pain management that falls on the subsequent dates?
16. How do you code Swan-Ganz catheter placement?
17. Code the anesthesia services for an open treatment of a complicated rib fracture
without fixation on a normal, healthy 19-year old male.
18. Code for anesthesia services during a lumbar myelogram on a patient with
displayed vertebrae.
19. Code the anesthesia services by an anesthesiologist during a total hip replacement
on a 72-year old Medicare patient with mild hypertension.
20. Provide the code to describe the services of an anesthesiologist who provided a
continuous epidural during labor and a vaginal delivery, for a healthy woman and
a baby.
EMERGENCY MEDICINE CODING:
1. How do you differentiate new patient from established patient?
2. What are the seven components to be noted in defining the levels of E/M
services? And what are the key components out of these?
3. When do you use modifier 25 and modifier 57? To which section of codes this
modifier applicable to?
4. What do you mean by Double Dipping?
5. Any emergency care service provided to a patient, irrespective of the location, is
coded with ER codes: True/False.
6. If subsequent to the completion of a consultation (OP), the consultant assumes
responsibility for management of a portion or all of the patient’s condition, do you
code that service as Consultation or with office visit codes?
7. Location is a key factor in deciding Critical care service – True/ False.
8. In critical care service what is the age limit for neonatal and pediatric critical
care?
9. What is the code for Physician direction of emergency medical systems (EMS)
emergency care, advanced life support?
10. What is the code range for an Inpatient hospital care service provided to a patient
admitted and discharged on the same date of service?
11. Interpretation of chest x-rays and vascular access procedures like 36410, 36000
are included in critical care – True/False.
12. When chest x-ray is done by a radiologist and an ER physician reviews and
interprets the report, can you bill for the x-ray service to the ER physician.
13. When two ER physicians perform the ER service to the same patient, who will
you give credit for, or how will you report the service?
14. If an ER physician renders ER service to a patient between 10 pm and 8 am, what
is the code to signify the service?
15. An E/M service for an outpatient visit that may not require the presence of a
physician. Usually the presenting problem(s) is minimal. Typically five minutes
are spent performing or supervising the service. What is the code?
16. If a patient is admitted to the hospital in inpatient status on the same day that he
was placed in observation, all services rendered for that date should be
1. Bundled into the appropriate level of initial hospital care / 2. Coded separately as
observation and inpatient service since it is two different modes of services.
17. Out of the following series of codes, which are not time based codes?
18. Hospital Discharge service (99238-99239)
Critical care service
Case management service.
General Surgery: Pick up the appropriate procedural codes.
1. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy with attempted Cholangiogram –
2. Diagnostic laparoscopic followed by surgical laparoscopic biopsy of the
abdominal mass
3. Appendectomy with diagnostic laparoscopic of abdomen
4. The procedure “Billroth Type I anastomosis” is coded as
5. Para colostomy hernia repair with mesh placement
6. Completion thyroidectomy bilateral following recent partial thyroidectomy –
7. Postoperative abdominal Hematoma removal –
8. Abdominal abscess drainage with S&I – 49021, 75989
9. Removal of 18 skin tags
10. Simple repair – face 2.5 cm, ears 1 cm, Intermediate repair of neck 3cm
11. Excision of breast mass
12. Biopsy of back mass
13. Arthroscopy knee chondroplasty
14. Intubation
15. PICC line placement in a 46 year old patient
16. Revision of AV fistula
17. G-tube
18. Fistulectomy
19. recurrent Inguinal hernia repair with mesh placement
20. Laparoscopic umbilical hernia
21. What is TRUSP with biopsy of prostate?
22. Laser vaporization of cervix
23. What is the code for EGD with AV Malformation?
24. Excision of infected AV graft of extremity?
25. Code for face lift-15828
26. Expand TURP and what is the CPT?
27. Expand ERCP and what is the CPT?
28. What is D&C and what is the code?
29. What is TKR and what is the CPT?
30. What is the code for knee arthroscopy with medial meniscectomy?
31. Thoracoscopy with Lobectomy
32. I &D of pilonidal cyst
33. What is the code for CABGX3 veins?
34. What is the code for Myringoplasty.
35. What is the code for External Hemorrhoidectomy?
ORTHO, OB/GYN & PODIATRY:
1. If patient is in global period and return to the operating room for unrelated E/M
service by same physician during the postoperative period, what modifier should
be appended?
2. What modifier should be appended for the below scenario:
Patient presents to the operating room for manipulation of his right knee. Discharge
summary states “The patient underwent a second total knee replacement and now the
patient was admitted for manipulation” and the patient is in global period for total
knee replacement.What is the ICD for ulcer of plantar aspect of left foot?
3. What does the term “Global period” means?
4. Give the procedure code for the following:
(a) Bilateral repair of inguinal hernia?
(b) Give the procedure code for repair of 3 incisional hernia was done?
©What is the CPT for removal of vaginal graft?
(d) Repair of perineal laceration?
(e) CPT for arthrocentesis of knee joint?
(f) Drainage of hand abscess?
(g) Removal of nephrostomy tube?
(h) I&D of perirectal abscess?
(i) Excision of Morton Neuroma?
(j) Treatment of vertebral process fracture?
6. What does the term manipulation mean?
7. Abbreviation of TAHBSO?
8. Postpartum care includes __________ and ____________ visits following vaginal
or cesarean section delivery.
9. What are the types of fractures?
10. What does the term arthrodesis mean?
11. What does the term lithotripsy mean?
PATHOLOGY:
Pick up the appropriate procedural codes:
1. Code for Intradermal Tuberculosis test
2. Code for bronchial brushings Gross pathological examination of epidermal cyst.
3. Code for complete CBC automated analysis
4. Code for Dipstick Urinalysis
5. Code for peripheral Blood smear
6. Code for bone marrow biopsy with decalcification
7. Code for vaginal Pap smear.
8. Code for Frozen section of single specimen
9. Code for Guaiac study.
10. What are the broad classifications of pathology .Explain?
Pick up the appropriate diagnoses codes:
1. Code for VIN II
2. Code for complex endometrial hyperplasia without atypia
3. Code for Follicularis Keratosis .Patient has vitamin A deficiency.
4. Code for White Sponge Nevus
5. Code for inadequate sample of cervical smear
6. Code for Viral Gastroenteritis
7. Code for Bartholin’s cyst
8. Code for LGSIL
9. Screening for mucoviscidosis
10. Code for Placental infarct
