AIR REGULATION: RULE OF AIR, ORGANIZATIONS & ATS
HOUSE TEST DURATION: 60 MINUTES
1. The lower limit of a Control Area shall be established at a height above the ground level or water
of not less than:
A) 150 meters
B) 200 meters
C) 300 meters
2. The Approach Control Service is an air traffic control service:
A) Provided for the arriving and departing controlled flights
B) For IFR flights arriving and departing
C) Provided for IFR traffic within a Control Zone
3. The units providing Air Traffic Services are:
A) Area Control Center, Advisory Center, Flight Information Center, Approach Control Office,
and Tower
B) Area Control Center, Flight Information Center, Approach Control Office, Aerodrome
Control Tower, and Air Traffic Services Reporting Office
C) Area Control Center, Approach Control Office, and Aerodrome Control Tower only
4. Air traffic control service is provided for the purpose of:
A) Avoiding collisions between all aircraft and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
B) Preventing collisions between aircraft, between aircraft and obstacles on the maneuvering
area, and expediting and maintaining an orderly flow of air traffic
C) Preventing collisions between controlled air traffic and expediting and maintaining an
orderly flow of air traffic
5. To perform a VFR flight in airspace classification E:
A) A clearance and/or two-way radio communication is required
B) A clearance is required
C) Two-way radio communication is not required
6. Which statement is correct?
A) The lower limit of an UIR may coincide with an IFR cruising level
B) The lower limit of a TMA shall be established at a height of at least 700 ft AGL
C) The upper limit of a CTR shall be established at a height of at least 3000 ft AMSL
7. What is the speed limit (IAS) in an airspace class E?
A) 250 kt VFR and IFR, all levels
B) 250 kt for IFR and VFR up to FL 100
C) 250 kt only for IFR up to FL 100
8. The speed limitation for IFR flights inside ATS airspace classified as C, when flying below 3050m
(10,000 ft) AMSL, is:
A) 250kt IAS
B) Not applicable
C) 250kt TAS
9. RCP 10 means:
A) 10 is the number of seconds it takes for an instruction to travel from the ground to aircraft and
acknowledgment back to the ground.
B) 10 is the maximum number of minutes it takes for an instruction to be executed by an aircraft.
C) Aircraft must communicate with ATC every 10 minutes.
10. An ATS airspace where IFR and VFR flights are permitted, all flights are subject to air traffic
control service and are separated from each other is classified as
A) Airspace C
B) Airspace B
C) Airspace D
11. Where State has not established minimum IFR altitudes, the minimum height of an aircraft above
the highest obstacle over high terrain, or in mountainous areas shall be for an IFR flight:
A) At least 2000ft within 8km of the estimated position
B) At least 1000ft within 8km of the estimated position
C) At least 2000ft within 5km of the estimated position
12. Aircraft wishing to conduct IFR flight within advisory airspace, but not electing to use the air
traffic advisory service:
A) Need to file a flight plan
B) Shall nevertheless submit a flight plan but changes made thereto are not necessary to be notified
C) Shall nevertheless submit a and notify changes made thereto to the ATS unit providing that service
13. The white dumb-bell with black perpendicular bar indicates that:
A) Taxiing need to be confined to the taxiways
B) Glider flying is performed outside the landing area
C) Landing, take-off and taxiing is allowed on runway and/or taxiway only
14. Your aircraft is intercepted by a military aircraft. The signals given by this aircraft conflict with ATC
instructions. You should:
A) Select code 7500 on your transponder
B) Follow ATC instructions
C) Follow the instructions of the intercepting aircraft
15. An aircraft which is being subject to unlawful interference ("hijacked") and is forced to divert
from the cleared track or cruising level without being able to communicate with ATS shall try to:
A) Fly the emergency triangle
B) Continue at an altitude that differs from the semicircular rule with 1000ft when above FL 290 and
500ft when lower than FL 290
C) As soon as possible commence emergency descent in order to minimize the difference between
cabin pressure and outside pressure
16. An aircraft maneuvering in an airport’s circuit receives a series of red flashes from the control
tower. This signifies that the aircraft must:
A) Not land for the moment regardless of previous instructions
B) Return to land and that clearance to land will be communicated in due course
C) Not land because the airport is not available for landing
17. Whilst flying in an aerodrome’s traffic circuit, an aircraft receives a series of green flashes from
the tower. The aircraft:
A) Is cleared to land
B) Must land immediately and clear the landing area
C) Must come back to land and the landing clearance will be sent in due time
18. Except when a clearance is obtained from an ATC unit, a VFR flight can not enter or leave a
control zone when ceiling is less than:
A) 2000ft or visibility is less than 5km
B) 1000ft or visibility is less than 5km
C) 1500ft or visibility is less than 5km
19. Which of the following flights has the greatest priority to land?
A) Emergency aircraft
B) Military aircraft
C) VIP (Head of state) aircraft
20. An aircraft flying above the sea between 4500ft MSL and 9000ft MSL outside controlled airspace
under VFR, must remain on principle at least:
A) 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility
B) Clear of clouds and in sight of the surface; 8km visibility
C) 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5km visibility
21. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "B" above 10000ft MSL are:
A) 2000m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility
B) Clear of clouds; 8km visibility
C) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility
22. The VMC minima for an airspace classified as "G" above 10000ft MSL are:
A) 1500m horizontally, 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility
B) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 8km visibility
C) 1 nautical mile horizontally and 1000ft vertically from clouds; 5km visibility
23. Minimum vertical distance from cloud for VFR flight within controlled space is.
A) 1000 ft
B) 500 ft
C) 1000 m
24. Green flashes from Tower, this signal means that the aircraft:
A) May continue to taxy towards the take-off area
B) Must return to its point of departure
C) Must stop
25. Which of the following actions shall be taken in case of a controlled flight deviates from the
track?
A) Adjust the heading of the aircraft to regain track as soon as possible
B) If VMC, maintain this condition, waiting for the ATC instructions
C) Notify ATC of the new track immediately and comply with instructions
26. An aircraft is flying under IFR in an area where the visibility is unlimited and the sky is clear (free
of clouds), when it totally loses radio communications. The procedure to be followed is:
A) Descend to En-route Minimum Safe Altitude and join closest airfield open to IFR operations
B) Land on the closest appropriate aerodrome, then advise Air Traffic Services of landing
C) Continue flight onto destination, complying with last received clearances in the filed flight plan
27. While taxiing an aircraft receives the following light signal from the control tower: series of red
flashes. This signal means that the aircraft:
A) Must vacate the landing area in use
B) May continue to taxi to the take-off area
C) Must stop
28. An aircraft intercepted by another aircraft shall immediately attempt to establish radio
communication with the intercepting aircraft on the following frequencies:
A) 121.5MHz- 282.8MHz
B) 121.5MHz- 125.5MHz
C) 121.5MHz- 243MHz
29. If radio contact with the intercepting aircraft is established but communication on a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepted aircraft to
communicate that he is unable to comply with the instructions received?
A) UNABLE TO COMPLY
B) CAN NOT
C) CAN NOT COMPLY
30. If radio communication is established during an interception but communications in a common
language is not possible, which phrase should be pronounced by the intercepting aircraft to request
the intercepted aircraft to descend for landing?
A) Descend for landing
B) Descend
C) You land
31. Which of the following is obligating for members of ICAO?
A) ICAO shall approve the pricing of tickets on international airline connections
B) ICAO must be informed about changes in the national regulations
C) ICAO must be informed about differences from the standards in any of the Annexes to the
convention
32. For aircraft flying over the high seas, which rules shall be in force?
A) The rules established by the state of the operator of the aircraft
B) The rules established by the state(s) adjacent to the high seas over flown
C) The rules established under the Convention of international civil aviation
33. Annex 14 to the convention on international civil aviation contains SARPS for:
A) Air Traffic Services
B) Aerodromes
C) Facilitation
34. The Warsaw convention and later amendments deals with:
A) Limitation of the operator’s responsibility vis-a-vis passengers and goods transported
B) Operator’s license for international scheduled aviation
C) The security system at airports
35. Annex 17 to the Convention of Chicago covers:
A) Aerodromes
B) Security
C) Facilitations
36. The State has to notify the Council of ICAO and publish such differences in the national AIP if a
state finds that it is impracticable to comply with an International Standard:
A) It shall give 45 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
B) It shall give 60 days notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
C) It shall give immediate notice to ICAO of the differences between its own practices and the
International Standard
37. The international convention defining rules relative to the responsibilities of international air
carriers for the carriage of passengers, baggage and freight is the
A) Hague Convention
B) Warsaw Convention
C) Tokyo Convention
38. The ‘Standards’ contained in the Annexes to the Chicago convention are to be considered:
A) Binding for the member states that have not notified ICAO about a national difference
B) Advice and guidance for the aviation legislation within the member states
C) Binding for all airline companies with international traffic
39. An aircraft flying over the territory of another state must:
A) Follow the rules of the Air of the State it is overflying, provided they follow ICAO rules
B) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of the Operator, if registered in other State
C) Follow the rules of the Air of the State of Registration to the extent that they do not conflict with
the rules published by the State having jurisdiction over the territory overflown
40. An airplane is planning a flight that will require a technical landing in a neighboring state. Which
freedom of the air will be exercised?
A) 3rd freedom
B) 4th freedom
C) 2nd freedom
41. The convention of Tokyo applies to damage:
A) Caused in the territory of a contracting state or in a ship or aircraft registered there in, by an
aircraft registered in the territory of another contracting state
B) Only caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft registered in the territory of
another contracting state
C) Caused in the territory of a contracting state by any aircraft regardless the registration
42. The International Civil Organisation (ICAO) was established by the international convention of:
A) Warsaw
B) Chicago
C) Montreal
43. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:
A) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface
B) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
C) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods
44. The convention on offences and certain acts committed on board aircraft, is:
A) The convention of Rome
B) The convention of Tokyo
C) The convention of Chicago
45. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has
committed or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offense against penal law
A) May not require or authorize the assistance of other crew members
B) May require the assistance of passengers to restrain such persons
C) May deliver such person to the competent authorities
46. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in
another state, which convention covers this?
A) Paris
B) Chicago
C) Rome
47. India is a signatory to THE INTERNATIONAL AIR TRANSPORT AGREEMENT, 1944?:
A) Yes
B) Yes, but it does not subscribe to Technical Freedoms
C) No
48. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to ensure adequate compensation for
persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:
A) The Paris Convention
B) The Rome Convention
C) The Warsaw Convention
49. Which Annex to the Chicago Convention covers dangerous goods carried in aircraft?
A) Annex 16
B) Annex 18
C) Annex 17
50. A signalman will ask the pilot to apply parking brakes using the following signals:
A) Arms down, palms facing inwards, moving arms from extended position inward.
B) Crossing arms extended above his head.
C) Raise arm and hand, with fingers extended, horizontally in front of body, then clinch fist.
