AIBE Question and Answer

1. Indemnity contract is defined under

a) Section 124 of the Indian Contract Act
b) Section 67 of the Indian Contract Act
c) Section 127 of the Indian Contract Act
d) Section 128 of the Indian Contract Act

2. Peek Vs. Gurney is a famous case related to

a) Coercion
b) Fraud
c) Mistake of fact
d) Mistake of law

3. The Supreme Court invoked the principle of ‘Transformative

Constitutionalism’ in the case of
a) Navtej Singh Johar Vs Union of India (2018)
b) Suresh Kumar Koushal Vs Naz Foundation(2010)
c) Naz Foundation Vs Government of NCT of Delhi, (2009)
d) Aruna Roy Vs Union of India, (2002)
4. The provisions of Indian Penal Code apply also to any offence committed
by
a) any citizen of India in any place without and beyond India;
b) any person on any ship or aircraft registered in India wherever it may be
c) any person in any place without and beyond India committing offence
targeting a computer resource located in India.
d) All of the above
5. Under the Patent Act which of the following are not patentable?
a) a method of agriculture or horticulture
b) a presentation of information
c) topography of integrated circuits
d) All of the above
6. World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO) has replaced pre- existing
a) GATT
b) BIRPI
c) TPRM
d) PCT
7. Anuradha Bhasin Vs Union Of India on 10 January, 2020 relates to a
challenge under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an
appropriate writ
a) for setting aside orders of the Government by which all modes of
communication including Internet have been shut down in J&K
b) for setting aside orders of the Government by which private property was
sought to be acquired in J&K
c) for setting aside orders of the Government by which J&K was constituted as
a UT
d) for setting aside orders of the Government by which Ladakh was separated.
8. Section 66A of the Information Technology Act was struck down under Art.
19(1) (a) read with Article 19 (2) in the case of
a) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy Vs Union of India
b) Kharak singh Vs State of U.P.
c) Govinda Vs State of M.P.
d) Shreya Singhal Vs Union of India
9. Article 145(3) of the Indian Constitution states that The minimum number
of Judges who are to sit for the purpose of deciding any case involving a
substantial question of law as to the interpretation of this Constitution or for
the purpose of hearing any reference under Article 143 shall be….
a) Two
b) Three
c) Five
d) Nine

10. M.C. Mehta Vs Union of India 1986 Shriram food and Fertilisers case
relates to
a) Olieum Gas leak
b) Ganga water cleaning
c) Child labour
d) Bonded labour

11. A. K.Kraipak Vs Union of India relates to

a) Likelihood of Bias
b) Delegated Legislation
c) Administrative Discretion
d) Notice
12. Judicial control of Delegated Legislation may be exercised on the ground
of
a) Doctrine of Ultravires
b) Malafides
c) Exclusion of Judicial Review
d) All of the above
13. On and from the commencement of the Hindu Succession (Amendment)
Act, 2005 , in a Joint Hindu family governed by the Mitakshara law,
conferring on daughter coparcenary status by substituting new section for
a) Section 6
b) section 10
c) Section 11
d) Section 13

14. Section 5 of Hindu Marriage Act relates to

a) Void marriages
b) Voidable marriages
c) Ceremonies of Hindu marriage
d) Conditions of Hindu marriage

15. A marriage between a girl of 22 years marries her maternal uncles son of
23 years in accordance with the Special Marriage Act. Such marriage is
a) Valid
b) Voidable
c) Void
d) Valid only in north India

16. The principle of Res Judicata is dealt under Section ---- of CPC
a) 9
b) 10
c) 11
d) 12
17. Section 14 of the C.P.C. deals with
a) Presumption as to decisions of tribunals
b) Presumption as to foreign judgments
c) Presumption as to judgments of the lower court
d) Presumption as to judgments of High Court

18. A, residing in Delhi, publishes in Kolkata statements defamatory of B. B

may sue A
a) Only in Delhi
b) Only in Kolkata
c) in both the place of Delhi and Kolkata
d) either in Kolkata or in Delhi.
19. Which provision under Criminal procedure Code, 1973 deals with the
procedure to be adopted by the Magistrate to record confessions and
statements?
a) Section 162
b) Section 164
c) Section 163A
d) Section 165

20. Attachment of property of person absconding can be done under Section

---- of Cr.P.C.
a) 83
b) 82
c) 85
d) 86
21. Magistrate may dispense with personal attendance of accused under
Section ------ of Cr.P.C
a) 201
b) 204
c) 205
d) 200

22. Section 265A to 265L, Chapter XXIA of the Criminal Procedure Code deals
with the concept of
a) Unlawful Assembly
b) Arrest without warrant
c) search and seizures
d) Plea bargaining

23. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders is dealt under
a) Section 109 of Cr.P.C.
b) Section 110 of Cr.P.C
c) Section 111 of Cr.P.C.
d) None of the above

24. Section 105 (H) of Cr.P.C deals

a) Forfeiture of property in certain cases.
b) Notice of forfeiture of property
c) Management of properties seized or forfeited
d) Identifying unlawfully acquired property
25. Bar to taking cognizance after lapse of the period of limitation – is dealt
under
a) Section 178 of Cr. P.C.
b) Section 469 of Cr. P.C.
c) Section 478 of Cr. P.C.
d) Section 168 of Cr. P.C.

26. “decree-holder” means

a) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order
capable of execution has been made
b) any person in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order
incapable of execution has been made
c) any Citizen in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order
capable of execution has been made
d) any corporation in whose favour a decree has been passed or an order
capable of execution has been made
27. Voluntarily throwing or attempting to throw acid is an offence punishable
under
a) Section 326 B of the Indian Penal Code
b) Section 120 B of the Indian Penal Code
c) Section 509 of the Indian Penal Code
d) Section 295B of the Indian Penal Code
28. A is at work with a hatchet; the head flies off and kills a man who is
standing by. Here, if there was no want of proper caution on the part of A, his
act is
a) An Offence of murder
b) An offence of Culpable homicide
c) Not an offence
d) An Offence of causing grievous hurt
29. A, with the intention of causing Z to be convicted of a criminal conspiracy,
writes a letter in imitation of Z's handwriting, purporting to be addressed to
an accomplice in such criminal conspiracy, and puts the letter in a place which
he knows that the officers of the police are likely to search – A has committed
an Offence under
a) Section 256 of IPC
b) Section 192 of IPC
c) Section 195 A of IPC
d) Section 201 of IPC
30. Under Section 70 of the Indian Contract Act, Where a person lawfully
does anything for another person, or delivers anything to him, not intending
to do so gratuitously, and such other person enjoys the benefit thereof, the
latter is bound to make compensation to the former in respect of, or to
restore, the thing so done or delivered. This principle is known as
a) A Contract of Uberrimae fide
b) Implied Agency
c) Quantum meruit
d) De nova contract
31. Agreement is
a) a promise or set of promises forming consideration to each other
b) enforceable by law
c) enforceable contract
d) Un enforceable by law
32. Under the Land Acquisition Act, the expression “land” includes
a) benefits to arise out of land
b) things attached to the earth
c) things permanently fastened to anything attached to the earth
d) All of the above
33. Temporary occupation of waste or arable land, procedure when difference
as to compensation exists is provided under
a) Section 32 of Land Acquisition Act
b) Section 30 of Land Acquisition Act
c) Section 35 of Land Acquisition Act
d) Section 31 of Land Acquisition Act
34. X,Y, Z jointly promise to pay A an amount of Rs. 50,000/- Subsequently
X,Y became untraceable. Can A compel Z to pay ?
a) A can, under Section 43 Para 1
b) A can under Section 49 Para 1
c) A cannot and will have to wait till X,Y become traceable
d) Z can be compelled only for one third

35. Delivery of goods by one person to another for some purpose upon a
contract that they shall, when the purpose is accomplished, be returned or
disposed of according to the directions of the person delivering them. This
process is termed as
a) Agency
b) Bailment
c) Guarantee
d) Contingency
36. Section 14A inserted by the THE SPECIFIC RELIEF (AMENDMENT) ACT,
2018, relates to
a) Power of the Courts to engage experts
b) Establishment of Special Court
c) Expeditious disposal of case
d) Specific performance with regard to contracts
37. In which of the following case the offence of sedition was in issue
a) Queen Empress Vs Bal Gangadhar Tilak
b) Niharendu Dutt Mazumdar Vs Emperor
c) Kedar Nath singh Vs State of Bihar
d) All of the above
38. Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage religious feelings of
any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs. – is an offence under
a) Section 295
b) Section 295A
c) Section 265A
d) Section 276
39. Under Section 29 of Cr.P.C. The Court of a Chief Judicial Magistrate may
passany sentence authorized by law except
a) A sentence of death
b) Imprisonment for life
c) Imprisonment for a term exceeding seven years.
d) All of the above
40. Provision regarding filing of suits by an alien under the Code of Civil
procedure is dealt under
a) Section 21A
b) Section 15
c) Section 21B
d) Section 83
41. An order issued by court under Civil Procedure Code 1908 as per order
XXI, rule 46, for recovery of amount due to judgment creditor – is known as
a) IT Order
b) Garnishee Order
c) Decree Holder order
d) Bank Order

42. Section 88 read with Order XXXV of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
deals with
a) Interpleader suit
b) Interlocutory Order
c) Restitution Order
d) Attachment Order
43. The national consumer dispute redressal commission was constituted in
the year
a) 1988
b) 1998
c) 1999
d) 1997
44. What is the limitation period applicable to the three forums in
entertaining a complaint under The Consumer Protection Act,1986
a) 3 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
b) 5 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
c) 4 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
d) 2 years from the date on which the cause of action has arisen
45. "Mere illegality of the strike does not per se spell unjustifiability" - Justice
Krishna Iyer . Name the case.
a) Chandramalai Estate Vs Its workmen
b) Associated Cement Ltd., Vs Their workmen
c) Gujarat Steel Tubes Vs Gujarat Steel Tubes Mazdoor Sabha
d) Indian General Navigation of Railway Co. Ltd., Vs Their workmen
46. A workman aggrieved by the order of …………………………………. may
directly make an application to the labour court or tribunal for adjudication
of the dispute and the court/tribunal is empowered to adjudicate such
dispute as it had been referred to it by the appropriate government
a) Dismissal, discharge and retrenchment
b) Dismissal, discharge, retrenchment or otherwise termination of service
c) Discharge simpliciter exclusively
d) Dismissal and retrenchment exclusively
47. Vis major means
a) Act of God
b) Act of Individual
c) Act of other party
d) Act of plaintiff
48. According to Classical doctrine of Act of State in law of Torts means
a) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that cannot be challenged,
controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
b) an act of the Judiciary of a country, that cannot be challenged, controlled
or interfered with by municipal courts
c) an act of the sovereign power of a country, that can be challenged,
controlled or interfered with by municipal courts
d) None of the above
49. In Torts, all persons who aid, or counsel, or direct or join in the committal
of a wrongful act, are known as
a) Abettors
b) Joint tortfeasors.
c) Tort holders
d) Tort holders in common

50. A is accused of waging war against the Government of India by taking part
in an armed insurrection in which property is destroyed, troops are attacked,
and goals are broken open. The occurrence of these facts is relevant, as
forming part of the general transaction, though A may not have been present
at all of them. – under which section of the India Evidence Act.
a) Section 12
b) Section 6
c) Section 3
d) Section 5
51. Section 110 of the Evidence Act deals with
a) Documentary Evidence
b) Exclusion of Oral Evidence
c) Burden of proof as to ownership
d) Proof of guilt.
52. Section 113 (A) of the Evidence Act deals with
a) Presumption as to abetment of murder
b) Presumption as to rape and abetment of suicide by a woman
c) Presumption as to abetment of kidnap of a girl
d) Presumption as to abetment of suicide by a married woman
53. The Supreme Court has legalised living wills and passive euthanasia
subject to certain conditions in the case of
a) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug Vs Union of India (2011)
b) Common Cause Vs Union of India, (2018) 5 SCC 1.
c) Gian Kaur Vs State of Punjab (1996)
d) D Chenna Jagadeeswar Vs State of A.P. ( 1988)
54. Article 310 of the Constitution mentions about
a) Doctrine of Immunities and Instrumentalities with reference to civil servants
b) Doctrine of legitimate expectation with reference to civil servants
c) Doctrine of natural justice with reference to civil servants
d) Doctrine of pleasure with reference to civil servants is
55. Right to know the antecedents of the candidates in the election flow from
a) Article 19 (1)(a)
b) Article 20
c) Article 13
d) Article 14
56. In the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, the expression ‘liberty’ is
followed by the words
a) Of status and opportunity
b) Of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship
c) Assuring the dignity of the individual
d) Justice, social economic and political
57. The Plea Bargaining is applicable only in respect of those offences for
which punishment of imprisonment is up to a period of
a) 7 years.
b) 10 years
c) 11 years
d) 14 years
58. “From a plain reading of Section 195 Cr.P.C. it is manifest that it comes
into operation at the stage when the Court intends to take cognizance of an
offence under Section 190(1) Cr PC.; and it has nothing to do with the
statutory power of the police to investigate into an F.I.R. which discloses a
cognizable offence….In other words, the statutory power of the Police to
investigate under the Code is not in any way controlled or circumscribed by
Section 195 Cr.P.C.” – This was held by the Supreme Court in the case of
a) Nalini Vs State of Tamilnadu
b) Raj Singh Vs State [(1998)]
c) Shamsher Singh Vs State of Punjab
d) State of Himachal Pradesh Vs Tara Dutta
59. The question is, whether A owes B rupees 10,000. Which of the following
statements are relevant under Evidence Act;
a) The facts that A asked C to lend him money,
b) D said to C in A’s presence and hearing–– “I advise you not to trust A, for
he owes B 10,000 rupees,”
c) A went away without making any answer
d) All of the above
60. So much of such information, whether it amounts to a confession or not,
as relates distinctly to the fact thereby discovered by the police may be
proved under
a) Section 25 of the Evidence Act
b) Section 26 of the Evidence Act
c) Section 27 of the Evidence Act
d) Section 29 of the Evidence Act
61. When the Court has to form an opinion upon a point of foreign law or of
science, or art, or as to identity of handwriting, or finger impressions, the
opinions upon that point of persons specially skilled in such foreign law,
science or art, or in questions as to identity of handwriting or finger
impressions are relevant facts. – this is under ------------------ of the Evidence
Act
a) Section 42
b) Section 45
c) Section 50
d) Section 55

62. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to
A, and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes
the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that, at the
time of the sale, he had no title. He will not be allowed to prove his want of
title.- Which Section of the Evidence Act is applicable?
a) Section 92
b) Section 124
c) Section 115
d) Section 101
63. The Arbitration Act 1996 repeals
a) The Arbitration Act, 1940,
b) The Arbitration (Protocol and Convention) Act, 1937
c) the Foreign Awards (Recognition and Enforcement) Act, 1961.
d) All of the above
64. Parliament may by law establish Administrative Tribunals under
------------------- of the Constitution
a) Article 323B
b) Article 323A
c) Article 233
d) Article 323
65. The Bar Council of India has to lay down the standards of professional
conduct and etiquette for the Advocates under
a) Section 3 of the Advocate Act, 1961
b) Section 7 (1) (b) of the Advocate Act, 1961
c) Section 17 of the Advocate Act, 1961
d) Section 18 of the Advocate Act, 1961

66. According to Section 49 of the Advocate Act of 1961 the bar Council of
India has power to make rules
a) qualifications for membership of a Bar Council and the disqualifications for
such membership
b) the class or category of persons entitled to be enrolled as advocates
c) the standards of legal education to be observed by universities in India and
the inspection of universities for that purpose.
d) All of the above
67. India, that is Bharat, shall be a
a) Federation of States
b) quasi federal
c) Union of states
d) Unitary state of a special type
68. In M.C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR 1987 SC1086 (Sri Ram Fertilizers
case) the court held that
a) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to
compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is not
subject to anyof the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of
strict liability.
b) In escape of a dangerous animal the owner is strictly and absolutely liable
to compensate all those who are affected by the accident and such liability is
notsubject to any of the exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious
principle of strict liability.
c) In escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly liable to compensate all those
who are affected by the accident and such liability is subject to any of the
exceptions which operate vis-a-vis the tortious principle of strict liability
d) A company or a corporation is not a state and hence not liable for leak of
toxic gas affecting the health of the people

69. According to Environmental Protection Act, 1986, ‘environmental

pollutant’ means
a) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as
may be, or tend to be, helpful to environment
b) only gaseous substance present in such concentration as may be, or
tend to be, injurious to environment
c) any solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in such concentration as
may be, or tend to be, injurious to environment
d) any solid, liquid present in such concentration as may be, or tend to be,
injurious to environment
70. National Green Tribunal cannot exercise its Jurisdiction with reference to
a) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972
b) Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of
Forest Rights) Act, 2006
c) The Public Liability Insurance Act, 1991
d) both A & B
71. An attempt to acquire sensitive information such as usernames,
passwords, and credit card details (and sometimes, indirectly, money) by
masquerading as a trustworthy entity in an electronic communication – is
known as
a) Pharming
b) Smishing
c) Phishing
d) Didling
72. Under Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code, nothing is an offence which is
done by a child under the age of.
a) 14 years
b) 7 years
c) 18 years
d) 21 years
73. R. V. Dudley & Stephen stands for the principle that
a) Killing an innocent life to save his own is not a defence and necessity cannot
be pleaded as a defence against murder
b) Necessity can be pleaded as a defence against murder, killing an innocent life
to save his own may become inevitable
c) Killing out of mercy is a defence and necessity cannot be pleaded as a
defence against murder.
d) None of the above
74. The utility of Public Interest Litigation
a) Liberalised locus standi
b) The proceedings are Non-Adversarial
c) Procedural requirements are liberalized
d) All of the above
75. The petitioner, a professor of political science who had done substantial
research and deeply interested in ensuring proper implementation of the
constitutional provisions, challenged the practice followed by the state of
Bihar in repromulgating a number of ordinances without getting the approval
of the legislature. The court held that the petitioner as a member of public
has ‘sufficient interest’ to maintain a petition under Article 32 – This relates
to the case of
a) Parmanand Katara Vs Union of India - AIR 1989, SC 2039
b) D.C.Wadhwa Vs State of Bihar, AIR 1987 SC 579
c) Neeraja Choudhari Vs State of Madhya Pradesh AIR 1984SC1099
d) Chameli Singh Vs State of U.P. AIR 1996,SC1051
76. Where a legal wrong or a legal injury is caused to a person or to a
determinate class of persons by reason of violation of any constitutional or
legal right or any burden is imposed in contravention of any constitutional or
legal provision or without authority of law or any such legal wrong or legal
injury or illegal burden is threatened and such person or determinate class of
persons by reasons of poverty, helplessness or disability or socially or
economically disadvantaged position unable to approach the court for relief,
any member of public can maintain an application for an appropriate
direction, order or writ in the High Court under Article 226 and in case any
breach of fundamental rights of such persons or determinate class of persons,
in this court under Article 32 seeking judicial redress for the legal wrong or
legal injury caused to such person or determinate class of persons.” – Justice
Bhagwati in the case of
a) Peoples Union for Democratic Rights Vs Union of India
b) Ashok Kumar Pandey Vs State of West Bengal
c) S. P. Gupta Vs Union of India
d) Janata Dal Vs H. S. Chowdhary
77. Imposition of compensatory costs in respect of false or vexatious claims
or defences is dealt under
a) Section 33 of CPC
b) Section 35A of CPC
c) Section 30 of CPC
d) Section 35 of CPC
78. Which provision under the Code of Civil Procedure deals with substituted
service of summons upon the defendant
a) O.5 R.19A
b) O.5 R.19
c) O.5 R.20
d) O.5 R.21
79. Among other things, the Function of Bar council of India includes laying
down standards of professional conduct and etiquette for advocates. – Under
which section of the Advocates Act
a) Section 7
b) Section 8
c) Section 9
d) Section 6
80. According to Justice ‘Abbot Parry’ what are the “Seven Lamps of
Advocacy”.
a) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) professionalism (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi)
Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
b) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment and
(vii) Fellowship.
c) (i) influence (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) Wit (v) Eloquence, (vi) Judgment
and (vii) Fellowship.
d) (i) Honesty (ii) Courage (iii) Industry (iv) seriousness (v) Eloquence, (vi)
Judgment and (vii) Fellowship.
81. Minimum number of Directors in a Public company
a) 3
b) 10
c) 12
d) 5
82. An associate company, in relation to another company, means
a) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but
which is a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and
includes a joint venture company
b) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but
which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and
includes a joint venture company
c) a company in which that other company has a significant influence, but
which is not a subsidiary company of the company having such influence and
does not include a joint venture company
d) a company in which that other company has full shares, and is a subsidiary
company of the company having such influence and includes a joint venture
company
83. Section 66A of Information Technology Act was held unconstitutional in
the case of
a) Justice K. S. Putta swamy Vs Union of India
b) M P Sharma Vs Satish Chandra
c) Shreya Singhal Vs Union Of India
d) Gagan Harsh Sharma Vs The State of Maharashtra
84. A Teacher is not a workman within the purview of Industrial Disputes Act,
held in the case of
a) The Workmen Vs Greaves Cotton & Co. Ltd. & Ors
b) John Joseph Khokar Vs Bhadange B. S. & ors
c) A. Sundarambal Vs Government of Goa
d) Dinesh Sharma and Ors. Vs State of Bihar
85. According to Factories Act
a) "child" means a person who has not completed his fifteenth year of age;
b) "child" means a person who has not completed his fourteenth year of age
c) "child" means a person who has not completed his eighteenth year of age
d) "child" means a person who has not completed his sixteenth year of
age
86. According to Income Tax Act "zero coupon bond" means a bond
a) issued by any infrastructure capital company or infrastructure capital fund or
public sector company or scheduled bank on or after the 1st day of June, 2005;
b) in respect of which no payment and benefit is received or receivable before
maturity or redemption from infrastructure capital company or infrastructure
capital fund or public sector company or scheduled bank
c) which the Central Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette,
specify in this behalf.
d) All of the above
87. Provisions relating to GST are inserted in the Constitution by
a) The Constitution (one hundred and first) Act 2016
b) The Constitution (one hundred and second) Act 2016
c) The Constitution (eighty fourth) Act 2016
d) The Constitution (seventy seven) Act 2016
88. Suits by indigent persons is dealt under
a) Order 44 of C.P.C
b) Order 33 of C.P.C
c) Order 55 of C.P.C
d) Order 22 of C.P.C
89. Res gestae, Relevancy of facts forming part of same transaction is dealt
under
a) Section 6 of the Evidence Act
b) Section 17 of the Evidence Act
c) Section 18 of the Evidence Act
d) Section 20 of the Evidence Act
90. The definition of ‘money’ under GST law does not include
a) Letter of Credit
b) Currency held for numismatic value
c) Pay order
d) Traveler cheque
91. Under Article 279A GST Council is constituted by
a) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
b) Respective Governors of the State
c) The President
d) A collective body of Union and States
92. The definition of Contract is defined under
a) Section 2(a) of the Indian Contract Act.
b) Section 2(h) of the Indian Contract Act.
c) Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act.
d) Section 2(g) of the Indian Contract Act.
93. The Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act (HSAA) 2005 provides for
women:
a) coparcenary rights at par with men;
b) inheritance rights in agricultural land from her parents at par with her
brothers;
c) inheritance of the self-acquired agricultural land of her deceased
husband
d) All of the above
94. Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act provides for
a) Custody of the Children
b) Permanent alimony and maintenance
c) Maintenance Pendente lite
d) Division of matrimonial property
95. A Hindu wife had been living with her children and all the children had
been brought up by her without any assistance and help from the husband
many years. The wife was entitled to separate residence and maintenance
under
a) Section 18 (2) (f) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
b) Section 18 (2) (d) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
c) Section 18 (2) (a) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
d) Section 18 (2) (g) of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
96. Requisites of a valid adoption : no adoption shall be valid unless- (i) the
person adopting has the capacity, and also the right, to take in adoption; (ii)
the person giving in adoption has the capacity to do so; (iii) the person
adopted is capable of being taken in adoption; and (iv) the adoption is made
in compliance with the other conditions mentioned in this Chapter. –
mentioned under
a) Section 6 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
b) Section 8 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
c) Section 12 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
d) Section 10 of Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act
97. According to the Muslim women(protection of right son marriage) act,
2019, any pronouncement of talaq as defined under the Act by a Muslim
husband upon his wife, by words, either spoken or written or in electronic
form or in any other manner whatsoever, shall be
a) Void
b) Cognizable
c) compoundable
d) All of the above
98. The UNCITRAL Model Law and Rules do not become part of the
Arbitration Act so as to become an aid to construe the provisions of the Act.-
held in the case of
a) Union of India Vs East Coast Boat Builders and Engineers Ltd.,
b) Union of India Vs M.C. Mehta
c) Tata Press Ltd Vs Union of India
d) Union of India Vs Indian Change Chrome Ltd
99. According to Section 7(4) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, an
arbitration agreement is in writing if it is contained in—
a) a document signed by the parties;
b) an exchange of letters, telex, telegrams or other means of
telecommunication which provide a record of the agreement;
c) an exchange of statements of claim and defence in which the existence of
the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.
d) All of the above
100. Waiver of right to object deviance from arbitration agreement is
mentioned under --------- of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
a) Section 7
b) Section 4
c) Section 20
d) Section 22