27/01/2022 FSR-G1
CODE-A1
Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
MM : 180 UNIT TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.
for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023
Test – 12
Topics covered
Physics : Waves
Chemistry : Equilibrium, Environmental Chemistry
Mathematics : Trigonometric Functions Part-II
Instructions :
(1) Duration of Test is 1½ hrs.
(2) The Test booklet consists of 45 questions. The maximum marks are 180.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 15 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 12 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-II : This section contains 3 questions. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical
value ranging from 00 to 99 without being given any option. Each question carries
4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative marking for wrong answer.
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First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-12 (FSRG1_Code-A1)
SECTION - I 5. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains fundamental frequency f. The tube is dipped
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has
vertically in water so that half of its length is
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
ONE is correct. inside the water. The new fundamental
1. Two trains A and B approach a stationary frequency is
detector from opposite sides with speeds (1) f/4 (2) f/2
10 m/s and 20 m/s. If both blow horns at
(3) f (4) 2f
frequency 1000 Hz and the speed of sound in
air is 330 m/s. The number of beats detected 6. Two waves of wavelength 24 cm having
by the detector in one second will be intensities I0 and 9I0 interfere at a point where
path difference between them is 8 cm. The
(1) 13 (2) 64
intensity at that point is
(3) 30 (4) 95
(1) I0 (2) 3I0
2. A sine wave is travelling in a medium. The
(3) 5I0 (4) 7I0
minimum distance between the two particles,
always having same speed is 7. A string of mass 2.5 kg is under a tension of
200 N. The length of the stretched string is
(1) (2) 20.0 m. If the transverse jerk is struck at one
4 3
end of the string, the disturbance will reach the
(3) (4) other end in
2
3. An observer moves with velocity v, towards a (1) 1 s (2) 0.5 s
stationary source of sound, emitting waves of (3) 2 s (4) 1.5 s
frequency . If vs is the speed of sound in air 8. Two identical wires under same tension emit a
then wavelength of sound waves observed by note of frequency 100 Hz. If tension in one of
the observer is the wire is changed by 4%, the beat frequency
vs vs is
(1) Equal to (2) Greater than
(1) 2 Hz (2) 4 Hz
v v
(3) Less than s (4) Twice of s (3) 6 Hz (4) 3 Hz
4. A sound wave starting from source S, follows 9. A person is standing between two vertical
two paths AOB and ACB to reach the detector walls. He heard the echo of his sound after
D. If ABC is an equilateral triangle of side l and t = 1 s and t = 1.5 s. Distance between walls is
there is silence at point D. The maximum (velocity of sound in air = 330 ms–1)
wavelength () of sound wave must be (1) 412.5 m (2) 206.25 m
(3) 825 m (4) 1650 m
10. Calculate the velocity of the transverse wave
in a string which is stretched by a load of
15 kg. The mass of string is 3 × 10–2 kg and its
length is 2 m.
(1) l (2) 2l (1) 100 m/s (2) 95 m/s
(3) 3l (4) 4l (3) 90 m/s (4) 92 m/s
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Unit Test-12 (FSRG1_Code-A1) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023
11. A whistle giving out 450 Hz approaches a
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
stationary observer at a speed of 33 m/s. The X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
frequency heard by the observer (in Hz) is
(velocity of sound v = 333 m/s) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(1) 400 Hz
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(2) 429 Hz Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(3) 517 Hz
(4) 500 Hz 13. Two waves of amplitude A and 2A interfere at
12. A 100 cm string fixed at both ends produces
a point, with a phase difference of . The
successive resonance frequency 384 Hz and 3
288 Hz. Wave speed in string is phase difference between the resultant wave
3
(1) 192 m/s and the wave of amplitude A is tan–1 .
x
(2) 144 m/s
Find the value of x.
(3) 168 m/s
14. Third overtone of a closed organ pipe
(4) 120 m/s resonates with fourth harmonic of an open
SECTION - II organ pipe. The ratio of length of closed and
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section 7
open pipe is . Find the value of n.
contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging n
from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be 15. A uniform string of length 60 cm is suspended
appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the from the ceiling. The instant, a transverse
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer wave pulse is propagated from lower end of
string, a particle is dropped from the point of
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and
suspension. Then find the distance from lower
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR end (in cm), where the wave pulse will pass
respectively. the particle.
SECTION - I Then the equilibrium constant for the reaction
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 2NH3 N2 + 3H2 will be
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY (1) 4 (2) 1
ONE is correct. (3) 0.25 (4) 0.50
18. The reaction quotient (QC) for the reaction
16. Which of the following is heterogeneous
equilibrium? (HI)2
H2 + I2 2HI is given by QC . The
(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g) H2 I2
reaction will proceed from right to left if
(2) 2NH3(g) N2(g) + 3H2(g)
(1) QC < KC (2) QC > KC
(3) CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g) (3) QC = 0 (4) QC = KC
19. Aqueous solution of NH4Cl is acidic due to
(4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
(1) Cationic hydrolysis
17. The equilibrium constant for the following
(2) Anionic hydrolysis
reaction
(3) No hydrolysis
N2 + 3H2 2NH3 is 4 (4) Both cationic as well as anionic hydrolysis
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First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023 Unit Test-12 (FSRG1_Code-A1)
20. pH of 0.1 M NaOH solution is 27. Highly polluted water could have B.O.D. value
(1) 1 (2) 10
of
(3) 13 (4) 14
21. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl and 100 mL of 0.1 M (1) 17 ppm (2) 10 ppm
NaOH are mixed. The final pH of the solution is
(3) 7 ppm (4) 5 ppm
(1) 2 (2) 5
(3) 6 (4) 7 SECTION - II
22. Which of the following is a buffer solution? Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1) 0.1 mole NaOH + 0.1 mole CH3COOH in contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
1L from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
(2) 0.2 mole HCl + 0.2 mole CH3COOH in 1 L appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
solution
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer
(3) 0.2 mole HCl + 0.3 mole NH4OH in 1 L
to question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and
(4) 0.1 mole NaOH + 0.1 mole NH4OH in 1 L
9 respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
23. pH of 0.1 M CH3COOH is (given pKa of
respectively.
CH3COOH = 4.74)
(1) 1 (2) 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(3) 2.87 (4) 1.5 X
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
–5
24. If Ka of an acid HA = 1 × 10 , the value of Kb
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
of its conjugate base at 25°C is Y
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(1) 10–5 (2) 10–7
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
(3) 10–8 (4) 10–9 Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
25. Solubility of AgCl is maximum in
(1) Pure water (2) NaCl solution 28. pH of 10–3 M HCl is
(3) AgBr (4) 0.1 M NH3 solution 29. pH of 10–5 M NaOH is
26. The layer of atmosphere which extend from
30. 0.1 mole HX and 0.1 mole NaX (salt) are
10 km to 50 km from sea level is called
present in 1 L solution. The pH of the solution
(1) Troposphere (2) Stratosphere
is (Given, Ka of HX = 10–5)
(3) Ionosphere (4) Mesosphere
SECTION - I (1) 14 (2) 10
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains (3) 6 (4) 18
12 multiple choice questions. Each question has
33. cos 2x + k sin x = k – 1, x 0, has a
4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE 2
is correct. solution for
(1) k R (2) 2 < k < 4
tan 15 1
2
(3) 0 < k < 2 (4) –2 < k < 2
31. is equal to
tan 15 1
2
tan3 1 1
34. If , then the general value of
1 1 tan3 1 3
(1) (2)
2 2 is
3 3 n 7 n 5
(3) (4) (1) ,n I (2) ,n I
2 2 3 12 3 36
32. The maximum value of the expression n 7 n 5
6 cos x + 8 sin x + 4 is (3) ,n I (4) ,n I
3 36 3 12
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Unit Test-12 (FSRG1_Code-A1) First Step for JEE (Main & Advanced)- 2023
35. Consider a triangle ABC with usual notations. If 41. If xR, then the range of function f(x) = 12sinx +
a = 3, b = 5, A = 30°, then c is a root of the 3 – 5 cosx is
equation
(1) c2 – 5c + 16 = 0 (1) [–10, 10] (2) [–10, 13]
(2) c2 5 3c 16 0 (3) [–10, 16] (4) [–16, 10]
(3) c2 5 3c 16 3 0 42. If A + B + C = 2, then cos2A + cos2B – sin2C is
(4) c2 – 5c + 4 = 0 equal to
36. Number of ordered pairs (x, y) satisfying the (1) 4sinAsinBcosC (2) 2cosAcosBsinC
equation sin(2y2 – 2) = ex + e–x is
(3) 2cosAcosBcosC (4) 2sinAsinBsinC
(1) Zero (2) 1
(3) 2 (4) Infinitely many SECTION - II
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
1 contains 3 numerical value type questions ranging
37. Solution set of the inequality tan x (n Z)
3 from 00 to 99. The answer will have to be
is appropriately bubbled in the OMR as per the
instructions given. Examples- If the correct answer to
(1) n , 2n question numbers X, Y and Z (say) are 76, 0 and 9
6
respectively, then mark 76, 00 and 09 in OMR
respectively.
(2) n , n
6 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
X
(3) n , n 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
6 2
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Y
(4) n , (n 1) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
6
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
38. If the angles of elevation of two towers from the Z
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
middle point of the line joining their feet be 45°
and 30° respectively, then the ratio of their 43. The value of
heights is
sin10 sin20 sin30 sin 40
(1) 3 :1 (2) 1 : 3 tan
cos10 cos20 cos30 cos 40
(3) 2 1: 1 (4) 2 1: 2 1 (where 0 < < 90°), then equals to
39. In a triangle ABC, acosC + ccosA is equal to 3
44. If in a triangle ABC, sin A B , a 2 and
abc 5
(1) (2) b
2 b = 1 then c2 equals
ac ac 45. The angle of elevation of the top of a hill from a
(3) (4)
2 b point on the horizontal plane passing through the
40. The value of foot of the hill is found to be 45°. After walking a
3 3 distance of 80 meters towards the top, up a
cos3 .cos sin3 .sin is
8 8 8 8 slope inclined at an angle of 30° to the horizontal
1 1 plane, the angle of elevation of the top of the hill
(1) (2)
4 2 2 becomes 75°. Then the height of the hill (in
1 1 meters) is _____.
(3) (4)
2 2
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