ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY

OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-2

OBJECTIVE TYPE [ Marks:0X0 = 0]

Question No: 1
Who creates government and decides the powers of the regional level government?
(a) Legislative (b) Judiciary (c) Executive (d) Constitutions
Question No: 2
Choose the correct statements:
(1)Turkey was defeated in First Balkan War of 1912
(2) In 1856, Queen Victoria brought the administration of India under her direct control
(3) In 1757, The Nawab of Bengal Siraj – Ud- Daulah opposed the British attempts to use duty free
trade in Bengal
(4) German Battle Cruiser was destroyed in the battle of Baltic Sea
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Question No: 3
In which of the following countries was “Gadar Party” established?
(a) U.S.A (b) Germany (c) Spain (d) France
Question No: 4
The birth place of Maharani Laxmibai is situated at
(a) Varanasi (b) Kanpur (c) Allahabad (d) Gwalior
Question No: 5
Simon Commission came to India in
(a) 1922 (b) 1928 (c) 1930 (d) 1936
Question No: 6
The flood Legend in which a divine fish has been described as rescuing Manu occurs in detail in :
(a) Rigeveda Samhita (b) Vajasaneyi Samhita
(c) Satapatha Brahman (d) Aitareya Brahmana
Question No: 7
The number of judges in the International Court of Justice is---------
(a) 54 (b) 5 (c) 15 (d) 192
Question No: 8
In which language did Abul Fazal write the Akbarnama?
(a) Frasi (b) Arabi (c) Urdu (d) Pali
Question No: 9
Which one among the following is not true with regard to Rig Veda Samheta?
(a) There are about 300 non – Indo – European (b) There is a reference to ‘Dasarajna’
words in Rig Veda (Battle of ten kings) in the Rig Veda
(c) It is mentioned in the Rig Veda that the (d) Purus sided with Bharata in the battle of
Bharata Chief Sudas faught against a ten kings.
confederacy of ten tribes
Question No: 10
Assertion A : The early guilds were transformed into jatis.
Reason R : The guilds of artisans resided in a particular section of a town developing a close-knit
relationship.
Mark (a) if only ‘Assertion’ is correct.
Mark (b) if only ‘Reason’ is correct.
Mark (c) if both ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reason’ are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Mark (d) if both ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reason’ are correct but ‘Reason’ is not he correct explanation of
‘Assertion’.
Question No: 11
Which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct for the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of
India?
1. It was inserted by the first amendment in 1951.
2. It includes those laws which are beyond the purview of judicial review.
3. It was inserted by the 42nd Amendment.
4. The laws in the Ninth Schedule are primarily those which pertain to the matters of national
security.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 3 only
Question No: 12
Which of the following writs literally means ‘we command’?
(a) Habeas Corpus (b) Mandamus
(c) Prohibition (d) Quo-Warranto
Question No: 13
Which of the following articles of Indian Constitution enunciates fundamental duties?
(a) Article 35 (b) Article 51(A)
(c) Article 32 (d) Article 14
Question No: 14
Who painted the famous image of Bharat Mata during swadeshi movement in 1905?
(a) Bankim Chandra (b) Abanindranath (c) Rabindranath (d) Natesha Sastri
Chottopadhaya Tagore Tagore
Question No: 15
Which Statements is True:-
(a) Union list has 47 subjects, State list has 97 (b) Union list has 66 subjects, states list has 47
subjects, concurrent list has 66 subjects subjects concurrent list has 97 subjects
(c) Union list has 97 subjects, state list has 66 (d) Union list has 47 subjects, State list has 66
subjects, concurrent list has 47 subjects subjects concurrent list has 97 subjects
Question No: 16
Let us took at some of the key features of federalism.
A. There are two or more levels (Or tiers) of government.
B. Different tiers of government govern the same citizens, but each tier has its own jurisdiction.
C. The existence and authority of each tier of government is constitutionally guaranteed.
D. All states in the Indian Union have identical powers.
Which facts are correct regarding Indian Federalism:
(a) B and C (b) A and D (c) A, B and C (d) A, B, C and D
Question No: 17
Which article of the Constitution laid down that state shall take steps to organize village
panchayats?
(a) Article 36 (b) Article 73
(c) Article 24 (d) Article 40
Question No: 18
Which of the following Article of Indian Constitution mentions the ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’?
(a) Article 200 (b) Article 301
(c) Article 310 (d) Article 311
Question No: 19
Read the following statement and select the correct option
Assertion (A) : The Governor of a state cannot be dismissed by the Chief Minister.
Reason (R) : The Governor of a state is not elected.
(a) Both (A) and(R) are true and (R) is the (b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
correct explanation correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false (d) (R) is true but (A) is false
Question No: 20
What does the term “Suffrage” mean?
(a) Right to freedom (b) Right to Live
(c) Right to education (d) Right to vote
Question No: 21
Which of the following Fundamental Rights is / are available to non-citizens?
1. Equality before Law
2. Right against Discrimination
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 2 and 3
Question No: 22
The Vacancy of the office of the President must be filled up within
(a) Ninty days (b) Six months
(c) Nine Months (d) One year
Question No: 23
According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in
charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in
charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following
States is not covered by the article?
(a) Jharkhand (b) Punjab
(c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Odisha
Question No: 24
The proposal for farming of the Constitution of India by an elected Constituent Assembly was made
by
(a) Simon Commissions (b) Government of India Act, 1935
(c) Cripps Mission (d) British cabinet Delegation
Question No: 25
Which of the following statement is not true about President of India?
(a) President is Constitutional Head of India (b) President presides over the joint session of
Indian Parliament
(c) President is indirectly elected (d) Presidents tenure is 5 years
Question No: 26
What is the name given to an economy which has no relation with rest of the world?
(a) Capitalist Economy (b) Mixed Economy
(c) Socialist Economy (d) Closed Economy
Question No: 27
In 2016 Human Development Report published by UNDP, India has been placed at _____________
(a) 130th position with 0.609 score (b) 135th position with 0.608 score
(c) 131th position with 0.624 score (d) 132th position with 0.624 score
Question No: 28
PAN card issued by the Income Tax Department can’t be used for which of the following purpose?
(a) proof of address (b) proof of identity
(c) proof of registered tax payer (d) proof of date of birth
Question No: 29
The “Dual Economy” is a mixture of?
(a) traditional agriculture sector and modern (b) industrial sector and manufacturing
industrial sector sectors
(c) state ownership of the means of production (d) industrial sector and trading of goods
obtained through imports
Question No: 30
Devaluation of currency leads to
(a) expansion of export trade (b) contraction of import trade
(c) expansion of import substituting (d) all of the above
Question No: 31
What kinds of unemployment is found in the rural areas?
(a) Educated unemployment (b) Seasonal and Disguished unemployment
(c) Both (A) and (b) (d) None of the above
Question No: 32
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the countries having Foreign Exchange
Reserve from high to low?
(a) China-Russia-India-France (b) china- France- India- Russia
(c) France- China-Russia- India (d) France- China- India- Russia
Question No: 33
Match the List I with List II and select answer using the appropriate code from among the following
alternatives.
List I List II
A. Disparities in income in a developing economy (I) Trickle-down theory
B. Economic development benefits the poor (II) Change in occupational structure
C. Shifting of labour from agricultural to non (III) Less redistribution of income in favour
agricultural sector of poor
D. Increase in the capabilities of people (IV) Human development
(a) A- II, B-III, C-I, D-IV (b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV (d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Question No: 34
Which one of the following Co-operative societies is responsible for the production of fertilizers?
(a) NAFED (b) IFFCO
(c) NCDC (d) TRI FED
Question No: 35
In terms economics, the total value of the output (goods and services) produced and income
received in a year by a domestic resident of a country put together is called
(a) Net National product (b) Gross National product
(c) Gross National Income (d) National income
Question No: 36
What is happening with the import of Chinese toys in India?
(a) Indian toys are selling more (b) Indian consumers are buying less
(c) Indian consumers are getting more choice (d) Chinese consumers are falling short of
at cheaper rates choice
Question No: 37
Consider the following statements:
(1) Higher growth in GDP and population can occur together.
(2) Per capita income always decreases with high population growth.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question No: 38
The ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is prepared and Published by
(a) World Trade Organization (b) World Bank Group
(c) United Nations (d) European Nations
Question No: 39
Highest animal Growth Rate in India was recorded in these decades
(a) 1981, 1971, 1991 (b) 1991, 2001, 1971
(c) 1971, 2001, 1991 (d) 1961, 1971, 1981
Question No: 40
Consider the following statements about Indian Agriculture :
1. The area under foodgrains has declined in the last two decades.
2. The average farm size in the country is very small and declining over the years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question No: 41
A glaring evidence of the art of dance in Harappan culture comes from:
(a) Lothal (b) Harappa
(c) Mohenjodaro (d) Kalibangan
Question No: 42
“New Deal” was formulated by
(a) Woodrow Wilson (b) Harry S. Truman
(c) Franklin. D. Roosevelt (d) Herbert Hoover
Question No: 43
Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists:
List -I List-II
(Harappan Site) (Modern Name)
A. Dholavira 1. Saurashtra
B. Rakhigarhi 2. Hisar
C. Bhirrana 3. Kadir Island
D. Bhogavo 4. Haryana
(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3 (b) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
(c) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1 (d) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
Question No: 44
Name of the Mahajanapada, which was a confederacy of eight republic clans?
(a) Vatsa (b) Magadha
(c) Vajji (d) Malla
Question No: 45
The Vedic river Vitasta has been identified with :
(a) Ravi (b) Jhelum
(c) Chenab (d) Beas
Question No: 46
Which one of the following was supreme God of Greeks?
(a) Hera (b) Apollo
(c) Zeus (d) Venus
Question No: 47
Who of the following Gods was considered as War-God in the Vedic Pantheon?
(a) Varuna (b) Indra
(c) Mitra (d) Agni
Question No: 48
Which of the following sites of Harappa culture gives evidence of ‘Sindoor’?
(a) Harappa (b) Mohenjodaro
(c) Naushero (d) Balakote
Question No: 49
Which rock – shelter in India bears largest number of paintings?
(a) Ghagharia (b) Bhimbetka
(c) Lekhahia (d) Adamgarh
Question No: 50
Which of the following cannot be considered Proto-Harappa culture?
(a) Sothi culture (b) Jornie culture
(c) Kot-Diji culture (d) Amri culture
 ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY

OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-2

OBJECTIVE TYPE [ Marks:0X0 = 0]

Question No: 51
Consider the following statements:
1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to
allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N.M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Question No: 52
Match the following
A. Salt water lake in India 1. Barren Island
B. Active volcano in India 2. Pitli island
C. Island which is uninhabited 3. Majuli
D. A river Island situated in river 4. Chilka
Brahmputra
Codes
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3 (b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 2 1 3 4
Question No: 53
Write the factor that does not help in the formation of soil.
(a) Wind and Water (b) Decomposed plants and animals
(c) Rocks and temperature (d) Water accumulation
Question No: 54
Which of the following soils is more fertile?
(a) Bangar (b) Khadar (c) laterite (d) Red Soil
Question No: 55
Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of
weathered material?
(a) Coal (b) Bauxite
(c) Copper (d) Iron
Question No: 56
Which of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large
area?
(a) Shifting Agriculture (b) Plantation Agriculture
(c) Horticulture (d) Intensive Agriculture
Question No: 57
Match the following animals with their category of existence and select the correct answer using the
code given below:
Animals Category of existence
A. Black buck 1. Extinct
B. Asiatic Lion 2. Endangered
C. Andaman Wild Pig 3. Vulnerable
D. Pink Head Duck 4. Endemic
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 3 2 1 4
Question No: 58
Which of the following lake lies on the Equator?
(a) Lake Victoria (b) Lake Malavi
(c) Lake Nasser (d) None of these
Question No: 59
Which one of the following causes rainfall during winter in N.W. parts of India?
(a) Cyclonic depression (b) Retreating monsoons
(c) Western disturbances (d) South-West monsoon
Question No: 60
Black soils in India form in this region
(a) Upper Gondwana region (b) Deccan Traps
(c) Bundelkhand (d) West coastal plains
Question No: 61
Which type of drainage patterns is formed when the river channel follows the slope of the terrain?
(a) Radial (b) Rectangular
(c) Trellis (d) Dendritic
Question No: 62
Which of the following is not correctly related to Jowar?
(a) Jowar is a Karif crop (b) Jowar is the third most important food crop
with respect to area and production
(c) Maharashtra is the largest producer of (d) None of the above
Jowar
Question No: 63
Cold Humboldt current flows along the coast of
(a) Peru (b) California
(c) Newfoundland (d) Australia
Question No: 64
Which of the following statements is/are not true for the category of the Overseas Citizens of India
(OCI) inserted by the amendment to the Citizenship Act of India in 2003?
1. It given dual citizenship to Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) who are citizens of another country.
2. It gives Persons of Indian Origin(PIO) who are citizens of another country, an OCI card without
citizenship.
3. It permits the OCI to vote in general elections in India.
4. It allows the OCI to travel to India without visa.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only (d) 2 and 4
Question No: 65
Maternity Assistance Scheme was launched in
(a) 2014 (b) 2015
(c) 2016 (d) 2017
Question No: 66
Consider the following statements about positive results of MGNREGA:
1. Substantial increase in purchasing power of rural poor.
2. Reduction in bargaining power of labourers.
3. Reduction in migration to cities.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) Only 1 and 3 are correct (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct
(c) Only 2 and 3 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
Question No: 67
The ministry of Environment and forest declared India’s first marine eco. sensitive zone in -
(a) Gulf of kutch (b) Palk strait
(c) Gulf of khambat (d) Gulf of Mannar
Question No: 68
As an ecosystem, wetlands are useful for which of the following?
(a) For nutrient recovery and cycling (b) For releasing heavy metals through
absorption by plants.
(c) The maintain the rivers and control floods. (d) All the above
Question No: 69
What is the primary source of food for marine life?
(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton
(c) Sea weed (d) Grass
Question No: 70
Which of the anthropogenic activity accounts for more than 2/3rd of global water consumption?
(a) Agriculture (b) Hydropower generation
(c) Industry (d) Domestic and Municipal usage
Question No: 71
Solar radiation place the most important role in the
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Oxygen cycle
(c) Water cycle (d) Nitrogen cycle
Question No: 72
Iron ore mining companies are expanding into the deep forests of Orissa where native populations
of indigenous people have lived of the land for many centuries. In order to resolve the growing
conflicts between the natives and the mining companies, they have been urged by the Government
officials to bring together all of the interested parties. The mining company operations in the forest
will likely lead to the loss of ecosystem services, such as:
(a) the depletion of iron ore from the ground (b) the shift from logging to mining
(c) sources of freshwater (d) the construction of new roads
Question No: 73
The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries
transition towards greener and more inclusive economics, emerged at
(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable (b) The United Nations Conference on
Development 2002, Johannesburg Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de
Janerio
(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on (d) The World Sustainable Development
Climate Change 2015, Paris Summit 2016, New Delhi
Question No: 74
Higher order biotic level includes
(a) population (b) cells
(c) genes (d) tissues
Question No: 75
In a given food chain if frog has 100J of energy then the energy available with plants and snake
respectively will be
Plants-> Insect-> Frog-> snake
(a) 1000J and 10J (b) 10000J and 10J
(c) 10J and 1000J (d) 1000J and 100J
Question No: 76
A body is thrown up vertically upwards with a velocity u. It covers a maximum height of h. If air
resistance is neglected, h is given by (Take g = acceleration due to gravity)
(a) (b) (c) 2ug (d)

Question No: 77
A ray of light passes from denser medium to rarer medium, if thickness of the denser medium is
doubled, then the emerging angle is
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
Question No: 78
A man is sitting in a boat which is floating in pond. If the man drinks some water from the pond, the
level of water in the pond will
(a) rise a little (b) fall a little
(c) remain stationary (d) None of these
Question No: 79
A person throws a ball with a velocity v from top of a building in vertically upward direction. The
ball reaches the ground with a speed of 3v. The height of the building is
(a) (b)

(c) (d)

Question No: 80
Formula of a metallic oxide is M2O3. Upon reduction with hydrogen the metallic oxide gives pure
metal and water. 0.112 g metal is produced by 6 mg of hydrogen after complete reduction. Atomic
mass of the metal is
(a) 28 (b) 160 (c) 56 (d) 8
Question No: 81
When 0.01 kg of CaCO3 is decomposed the CO2 produced occupies a volume at S.T.P
(a) 2.2414 dm3 (b) 22.414dm3 (c) 22414dm3 (d) 224014dm3
Question No: 82
Chlorine atom does not differ from the chloride ion in which of the following context?
(a) Electron (b) Volume
(c) Proton (d) Chemical activity
Question No: 83
Which of the following polymers contains fluorine?
(a) Neoprene (b) PVC (c) Teflon (d) Polyester
Question No: 84
Place of gold in modern periodic table is
(a) s- block (b) p- block (c) d- block (d) f- block
Question No: 85
BMD testing is done to diagnose
(a) Dengue (b) Malaria
(c) Osteoporosis (d) AIDS
Question No: 86
Which of the following is not a true fish?
(a) Silverfish (b) Sea horse
(c) Flying fish (d) Eel
Question No: 87
Which of the following is not scalar quantity?
(a) Time (b) Volume
(c) Density (d) Momentum
Question No: 88
The camel's hump is composed of a tissue. It is a type of
(a) skeletal tissue (b) areolar tissue
(c) adipose tissue (d) muscular tissue
Question No: 89
Match the List-I with List-II:
List –I List – II
(Disease) (Meanings)
A. Jaundice 1. Allergic inflammation of nose
B. Stenosis 2. Loss of motor functions
C. Rhinitis 3. Defect of heart values
D. Paralysis 4. Increase in bile pigments in the blood
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
1 4 2 3 3 2 4 1
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D
4 3 1 2 2 1 3 4
Question No: 90
The cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights because
(a) clouds prevent escape of radiation of heat (b) absorb sunlight in the day and radiate the
from the ground and the air. same in night.
(c) clouds make the atmosphere damp and (d) clouds obstruct the movement of air which
generate heat. creates heat.
Question No: 91
A Woman desires to clean the surface of her gold ornaments by a chemical approach. For this she
requires to use
(a) aqua-regia (b) concentrated H2SO4
(c) Concentrated NaOH (d) sodium thiosulphate solution
Question No: 92
Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
List – I List – II
A. Vitamin B12 1. Magnesium
B. Haemoglobin 2. Cobalt
C. Chlorophyll 3. Copper
D. Brass 4. Iron
(a) A B C D (b) A B C D
2 4 1 3 2 1 3 4
(c) A B C D (d) A B C D
4 1 2 3 3 4 2 1
Question No: 93
The salt Satyagraha called by Mahatma Gandhi saw the
1. violation of salt laws along coastal India
2. participation of women
3. upward swing when it came to the working class joining in
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Question No: 94
With which one of the following movements was Aruna Asaf Ali associated?
(a) Khilafat Movement (b) Non –Cooperation Movement
(c) Civil Disobedience Movement (d) Quit India Movement
Question No: 95
The international Liguapax award is given on
(a) Mother language day (b) Human rights Day
(c) Non-violence Day (d) Computer Literacy Day
Question No: 96
The coastal plain south of river Tapti till Southern Goa is known as
(a) Plain of Gujarat (b) Malabar coastal plain
(c) Konkan coastal plain (d) Coromandal coastal plain
Question No: 97
Which of the following is the main form of degradation in the irrigated areas?
(a) Gully erosion (b) Wind erosion
(c) Siltation of land (d) Salinisation of soils
Question No: 98
F.C.I. purchases the grains from farmers on:
(a) Local rate (b) Wholesale price
(c) Intimation rate (d) Minimum support rice
 ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY
OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-2
GENERAL STUDIES
Maximum Marks : 200 Time Duration : 2 Hour

Answer Key

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8

c b a a b c c a

9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16

d c a b b b c c

17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24

d c b d b b b d

25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32

b d c a a d b a

33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

c b b c c b a c

41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48

c c c c b c b c

49 50

b b
 SOLUTIONS

Question No: 1
Executive
Question No: 2
1 and 3 are correct
Question No: 3
U.S.A
Question No: 4
Varanasi
Question No: 5
1928
Question No: 6
Satapatha Brahman
Question No: 7
15
Question No: 8
Frasi
Question No: 9
Purus sided with Bharata in the battle of ten kings.
Question No: 10
if both ‘Assertion’ and ‘Reason’ are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
Question No: 11
1 and 2
Question No: 12
Mandamus
Question No: 13
Article 51(A)
Question No: 14
Abanindranath Tagore
Question No: 15
Union list has 97 subjects, state list has 66 subjects, concurrent list has 47 subjects
Question No: 16
A, B and C
Question No: 17
Article 40
Question No: 18
Article 310
Question No: 19
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
Question No: 20
Right to vote
Question No: 21
1 and 4 only
Question No: 22
Six months
Question No: 23
Punjab
Question No: 24
British cabinet Delegation
Question No: 25
President presides over the joint session of Indian Parliament
Question No: 26
Closed Economy
Question No: 27
131th position with 0.624 score
Question No: 28
proof of address
Question No: 29
traditional agriculture sector and modern industrial sector
Question No: 30
all of the above
Question No: 31
Seasonal and Disguished unemployment
Question No: 32
China-Russia-India-France
Question No: 33
A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Question No: 34
IFFCO
Question No: 35
Gross National product
Question No: 36
Indian consumers are getting more choice at cheaper rates
Question No: 37
Both 1 and 2
Question No: 38
World Bank Group
Question No: 39
1981, 1971, 1991
Question No: 40
Both 1 and 2
Question No: 41
Mohenjodaro
Question No: 42
Franklin. D. Roosevelt
Question No: 43
A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
Question No: 44
Vajji
Question No: 45
Jhelum
Question No: 46
Zeus
Question No: 47
Indra
Question No: 48
Naushero
Question No: 49
Bhimbetka
Question No: 50
Jornie culture
 ODISHA VIDYA ACADEMY
OPSC OMAS GS MOCK-2
GENERAL STUDIES
Maximum Marks : 200 Time Duration : 2 Hour

Answer Key

51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58

b b d b b b a a

59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66

c b d d a c d a

67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74

a d a a c c b a

75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82

b a c c a c a c

83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90

c c c a d c c a

91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98

a a d d a c d d
 SOLUTIONS

Question No: 51
2 only
Question No: 52
4 1 2 3
Question No: 53
Water accumulation
Question No: 54
Khadar
Question No: 55
Bauxite
Question No: 56
Plantation Agriculture
Question No: 57
2 3 4 1
Question No: 58
Lake Victoria
Question No: 59
Western disturbances
Question No: 60
Deccan Traps
Question No: 61
Dendritic
Question No: 62
None of the above
Question No: 63
Peru
Question No: 64
3 only
Question No: 65
2017
Question No: 66
Only 1 and 3 are correct
Question No: 67
Gulf of kutch
Question No: 68
All the above
Question No: 69
Phytoplankton
Question No: 70
Agriculture
Question No: 71
Water cycle
Question No: 72
sources of freshwater
Question No: 73
The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janerio
Question No: 74
population
Question No: 75
10000J and 10J
Question No: 76

Question No: 77

Question No: 78
remain stationary
Question No: 79

Question No: 80
56
Question No: 81
2.2414 dm3
Question No: 82
Proton
Question No: 83
Teflon
Question No: 84
d- block
Question No: 85
Osteoporosis
Question No: 86
Silverfish
Question No: 87
Momentum
Question No: 88
adipose tissue
Question No: 89
A B C D
4 3 1 2
Question No: 90
clouds prevent escape of radiation of heat from the ground and the air.
Question No: 91
aqua-regia
Question No: 92
A B C D
2 4 1 3
Question No: 93
1, 2 and 3
Question No: 94
Quit India Movement
Question No: 95
Mother language day
Question No: 96
Konkan coastal plain
Question No: 97
Salinisation of soils
Question No: 98
Minimum support rice