AP BIOLOGY Test Booklet

unit 6

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance
to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar
plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized
below. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

1. Plates I and III were included in the experimental design in order to

(A) demonstrate that the E. coli cultures were viable
(B) demonstrate that the plasmid can lose its ampr gene
(C) demonstrate that the plasmid is needed for E. coli growth
(D) prepare the E. coli for transformation

2. Arctic foxes typically have a white coat in the winter. In summer, when there is no snow on the ground, the foxes
typically have a darker coat.

Which of the following is most likely responsible for the seasonal change in coat color?
The decrease in the amount of daylight in winter causes a change in gene expression, which results in the
(A)
foxes growing a lighter-appearing coat.
The diet of the foxes in summer lacks a particular nutrient, which causes the foxes to lose their white coat
(B)
and grow a darker-colored coat.
Competition for mates in the spring causes each fox to increase its camouflage with the environment by
(C)
producing a darker-appearing coat.
The lower temperatures in winter denature the pigment molecules in the arctic fox coat, causing the coat to
(D)
become lighter in color.

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3. Arsenic is a toxic element found in both aquatic and terrestrial environments. Scientists have found genes that allow
bacteria to remove arsenic from their cytoplasm. Arsenic enters cells as arsenate that must be converted to arsenite
to leave cells. Figure 1 provides a summary of the arsenic resistance genes found in the operons of three different
bacteria. E. coli is found in environments with low arsenic levels. Herminiimonas arsenicoxydans and
Ochrobactrum tritici are both found in arsenic‑rich environments.

Figure 1. Operons found in three selected bacteria for arsenic removal

Researchers claim that bacteria that live in environments heavily contaminated with arsenic are more efficient at
processing arsenic into arsenite and removing this toxin from their cells. Justify this claim based on the evidence
shown in Figure 1.
There are multiple operons controlling the production of proteins that process and remove arsenite from cells
(A)
in both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici. In contrast, E. coli has only one operon devoted to arsenic removal.
Both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici contain the gene that codes for a repressor that turns on the
(B)
operon to eliminate arsenite from the cell.
Both O. tritici and E. coli contain the gene, which codes for a protein that helps remove arsenite from
(C)
the cell.
(D) Both H. arsenicoxydans and O. tritici. have more arsenic resistance genes than has E. coli.

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4. A model that represents a process occurring in a cell of a particular organism is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Process occurring in a cell

Which of the following correctly explains the process shown in Figure 1 ?

replication is occurring because replication is semi-conservative and the new strand is a copy of the
(A)
template strand.
Initiation of transcription is occurring because a strand of is being produced from a template
(B)
strand.
(C) Translation is occurring because the two strands have separated and a new strand is being produced.
Alternative splicing of is occurring because the strand is being synthesized from only one
(D)
strand of .

5. Which of the following best describes a characteristic of that makes it useful as hereditary material?
(A) There are many different types of nucleotide bases that can be incorporated into .
(B) The nucleotide bases can also be used to provide the energy needed for reproduction.
(C) Nucleotide bases can be randomly replaced with different nucleotide bases to increase variation.
(D) Nucleotide bases in one strand can only be paired with specific bases in the other strand.

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6. The following the DNA sequence is a small part of the coding (nontemplate) strand from the open reading frame of
β-hemoglobin gene. Given the codon chart listed below, what would be the effect of a mutation that deletes the G at
the beginning of the DNA sequence?

5'- GTT TGT CTG TGG TAC CAC GTG GAC TGA - 3'

(A) The mutation precedes the gene, so no changes would occur.

(B) Lysine (lys) would replace glutamine (gln), but there would be no other changes.
(C) The first amino acid would be missing, but there would be no other change to the protein.
(D) The reading frame of the sequence would shift, causing a change in the amino acid sequence after that point.

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The following questions refer to the following DNA strand and table of codons.

7. The mRNA transcribed from the DNA would read

(A) 5’ TAG TTC AAA CCG CGT AAC AAT 3’
(B) 5’ ATC AAG TTT GGC GCA TTG TAA 3’
(C) 5’ AUC AAG UUU GGC GCA UUG UAA 3’
(D) 5’ AAU CAA UGC GCC AAA CUU GAU 3’
(E) 5’ AUU GUU ACG CGG UUU GAA CUA 3’

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Figure 1. Protein synthesis in a prokaryotic cell

8. Which of the following best describes a characteristic of the process shown in Figure 1 that is unique to
prokaryotes?
(A) The is synthesized in a to direction.
(B) A single strand of the is being used as a template for the transcription of the .
(C) The translation of the is occurring while the is still being transcribed.
(D) The enzyme that is transcribing the is polymerase.

9.

Cystic fibrosis is a recessively inherited disorder that results from a mutation in the gene encoding CFTR chloride
ion channels located on the surface of many epithelial cells. As shown in the figure, the mutation prevents the
normal movement of chloride ions from the cytosol of the cell to the extracellular fluid. As a consequence of the
mutation, the mucus layer that is normally present on the surface of the cells becomes exceptionally dehydrated and
viscous.

An answer to which of the following questions would provide the most information about the association between
the CFTR mutation and the viscous mucus?

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(A) Is the mucus also secreted from the cells through the CFTR proteins?
(B) How does the disrupted chloride movement affect the movement of sodium ions and water by the cell?
(C) How does the mutation alter the structure of the CFTR proteins?
(D) What is the change in nucleotide sequence that results in the CFTR mutation?

10. The human gene encodes members of the tropomyosin family of cytoskeletal proteins. Which of the
following best explains how different proteins can be made in different cell types from the one gene?
(A) Different introns are selectively converted to exons.
(B) Different exons are retained or spliced out of the primary transcript.
(C) The cap is selectively added to and activates different exons.
(D) Different portions of the primary transcript remain bound to the template .

11. Figure 1 shows some relevant details of a model of how a deoxynucleotide, in this case , is added to a
growing strand of .

Figure 1. Model showing details of adding a deoxythymidine monophosphate ( ) nucleotide to a growing

strand of

The features of this model provide evidence for which explanation of why all growing strands are synthesized in a
to direction?
(A) The two strands need to be antiparallel to bond properly.
(B) Thymine and adenine would not bond properly if the strand grew from to .
The translation of occurs in the to direction; therefore, the growing strand must also
(C)
grow in the to direction.
The phosphate group, attached to the carbon of the , forms a covalent bond with the oxygen atom
(D)
attached to the carbon of the growing strand.

12.

Which of the following best describes an event during step 2 in the simplified model above?

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(A) A new RNA molecule is synthesized using a DNA template.

(B) A new polypeptide is synthesized using an RNA template.
(C) Thymine nucleotides in an RNA molecule are replaced with uracil nucleotides.
(D) Noncoding sequences are removed from a newly synthesized RNA molecule.

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Dystrophin is a protein that is expressed in certain muscle cells. In combination with other cellular proteins, dystrophin
strengthens protein fibers in muscle cells to allow muscles to contract without injury.

Nucleotide deletions in the gene that encodes dystrophin are associated with the genetic disorder Duchenne Muscular
Dystrophy ( ). Individuals with do not produce functional dystrophin and, as a result, the protein fibers, and
then entire muscle cells, become damaged.

The history of for three generations of a family is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1. Pedigree showing instances of in a family

Individuals and plan to have children and wish to first determine whether individual is a carrier of
. Individual undergoes genetic testing to determine whether individual carries a particular allele for the
mutated dystrophin that is associated with the disorder in this family. The results of gel electrophoresis analysis of the
individual’s dystrophin alleles and the alleles of several family members are shown in Figure 2.

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Figure 2. Gel electrophoresis showing the dystrophin alleles present in five members of the family

13. Which of the following best explains how the dystrophin protein is synthesized by certain muscle cells of an
individual but not by other cell types?
(A) Each cell has different genes as a result of changes that occur during development and cell specialization.
(B) The presence of different transcription factors in different cell types results in differential gene expression.
A cell can only translate mRNA transcripts that have gene-specific sequences that are recognized by the
(C)
ribosomes.
The promoter region of the gene is necessary for expression to occur, and this region is only present in
(D)
certain cell types.

14. Based on the information provided, which of the following describes the most likely pattern of inheritance for the
disorder?
(A) Autosomal recessive
(B) Autosomal dominant
(C) X-linked recessive
(D) Mitochondrial

15. Based on the information provided in Figures 1 and 2, which of the following best describes the chances of
individuals and passing on the mutant dystrophin allele and/or disorder to their offspring?
(A) There is a chance that an XY child will have .
(B) There is a chance that a child will have .
(C) There is a chance that any of the children will have the disorder or be carriers of the mutant allele.
There is a chance that an XY child will have but a chance that an XX child will be a carrier
(D)
of the mutant allele.

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16.

Figure 1. A model of the transcribed from a gene

Which of the following is closest to the number of amino acids encoded by the produced from the
shown in Figure 1 ?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

17. Gel electrophoresis can be used to directly determine which of the following?
(A) The amino acid sequence of a protein
(B) The number of base pairs in a fragment of
(C) The organelle in a cell toward which a protein moves after its initial synthesis
(D) Whether one allele of a gene is more subject to genetic drift than are other alleles of the same gene

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18.

Figure 1. A model of a biological process

Which of the following processes requires all of the steps represented in Figure 1 ?
(A) Cell signaling to increase gene expression in an animal cell
(B) Replication of a retrovirus after it enters a host cell
(C) Regulation of gene expression in a cell by
(D) Production of plasmids in a bacterial cell

19. Figure 1 illustrates a model of the molecules involved in replication and their placement relative to each
other.

Figure 1. Model including molecules involved in replication

Which of the following correctly explains where replication will begin on the strand oriented ,
reading from left to right?

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replication will be randomly initiated along the unwound portion of the strand since base
(A)
pairing will occur.
(B) replication cannot occur since there is already base pairing with the template strand.
replication will be initiated immediately to the left of the , since polymerase requires an
(C)
primer.
(D) replication will be initiated at the site of the topoisomerase since that is where begins to uncoil.

LAC OPERON STRUCTURE

The functions of the loci of the lac operon shown in the diagram are described in the table below.

The diagram above represents a segment of the E. coli chromosome that contains the lacI gene and part of the lac operon,
a coordinately regulated set of genes that are required for the metabolism of lactose. The presence of lactose, which causes
the repressor to be released from the operator, results in increased transcription of the lac operon.

20. Which of the following is the most likely consequence of a mutation at the operator locus that prevents binding of
the repressor protein?
(A) Expression of the structural genes will be repressed, even in the presence of lactose.
(B) Beta-galactosidase will be produced, even in the absence of lactose.
(C) RNA polymerase will attach at the Plac locus, but transcription will be blocked.
(D) The operator locus will code for a different protein and thereby prevent transcription of the structural gene.

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21. Figure 1 represents a metabolic process involving the regulation of lactose metabolism by E. coli bacteria. Lactose
is utilized for energy by E. coli when glucose is not present. Allolactose is an isomer of lactose that is in the
environment of these bacteria when lactose is present. The site prevents the binding of polymerase
when glucose is present in the environment. The , , and genes code for proteins needed for lactose
metabolism.

Figure 1. Model of lac operon, comparing repressed and active states

Which is a scientific claim that is consistent with the information provided and Figure 1 ?
(A) The presence of excess lactose blocks the functioning of polymerase in this operon.
(B) When bound to the operator, the repressor protein prevents lactose metabolism in E. coli.
(C) The binding of the repressor protein to the operator enables E. coli to metabolize lactose.
(D) Allolactose acts as an inducer that binds to the operator, allowing E. coli to metabolize lactose.

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22.

The protein regulates a cellular response to damage. Based on the diagram above, which of the
following best describes the role of in the response to damage?
(A) Phosphorylated binds to and repairs the damage.
Phosphorylated stimulates transcription of , and the resulting protein suppresses cell division
(B)
until the damage is repaired.
Phosphorylated binds complexes, and the resulting protein complex repairs the
(C)
damage.
(D) Phosphorylated activates proteins, and the proteins in turn repair the damage.

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is a technique used to copy a target sequence. Researchers often use polymerase from Thermus
aquaticus, a bacteria species that lives around hydrothermal vents.

23. Which of the following best explains why the polymerase from the species T. aquaticus is often used for ?
(A) T. aquaticus polymerase has an optimal temperature of .
(B) T. aquaticus polymerase does not denature at high temperatures.
(C) T. aquaticus polymerase can be used more than once without degrading.
(D) T. aquaticus polymerase adds nucleotides to both the and ends of .

24. Figure 1 represents part of a process that occurs in eukaryotic cells. There are untranslated regions ( ) in this
sequence.

Figure 1. Cellular process involving nucleic acids

Which of the following best explains the process represented by Figure 1 ?

(A) The synthesis of in the to direction from
(B) The modification of a protein to produce a functional form of that protein
(C) The translation of an molecule into a polypeptide
(D) The enzyme-regulated processing of pre‑ into mature

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A scientist adds a chemical to a culture of dividing cells in order to disrupt replication. The replicated
produced by the cells is double-stranded, but sections of it lack covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides (Figure 1).

Figure 1. Replicated produced after a chemical is introduced

25. Which of the following claims is best supported by the data?

(A) The chemical prevents the formation of primers.
(B) The chemical inhibits ligase.
(C) The chemical blocks polymerase.
(D) The chemical disrupts hydrogen bonding.

26. Which of the following describes the most direct effect of a mutation in the that encodes a cell’s ?
(A) The cell’s ability to transport the amino acids needed for translation will be reduced.
(B) The cell’s ability to transcribe transcripts that will be translated will be reduced.
(C) The cell’s ability to properly assemble ribosomes and initiate translation will be reduced.
(D) The cell’s ability to modify proteins after they have been assembled will be reduced.

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27. Figure 1 illustrates processes related to control of transcription and translation in a cell.

Figure 1. Model of a relationship between a transcription factor and selected genes

Which of the following scientific claims is most consistent with the information provided in Figure 1 ?
(A) Gene codes for a transcription factor required for transcription of gene .
(B) A single transcription factor regulates transcription similarly, regardless of the specific gene.
(C) Transcription of genes , , and is necessary to transcribe gene .
(D) Different genes may be regulated by the same transcription factor.

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28. Sickle-cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder in which one of the hemoglobin subunits is replaced with a
different form of hemoglobin. Partial sequences of the gene for normal hemoglobin and for sickle-cell
hemoglobin are shown in Figure 1.

Partial sequence for normal hemoglobin:

Partial sequence for sickle-cell hemoglobin:

Figure 1. Comparison of partial sequences for normal hemoglobin and hemoglobin with a sickle-cell
mutation

Which of the following best describes the type of mutation shown in Figure 1 that leads to sickle-cell anemia?
(A) Insertion
(B) Deletion
(C) Substitution
(D) Frameshift

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In prokaryotes, the genes of the operon encode enzymes used in the synthesis of tryptophan. The genes of the
operon are actively expressed (Figure 1A) unless abundant tryptophan is present in the environment. When tryptophan is
abundant, some tryptophan binds to the repressor protein, which in turn causes the repressor to bind to the operator
and block transcription of the genes (Figure 1B). The repressor protein is encoded by the gene which is not a part of
the operon.

Figure 1A. When tryptophan is absent, the operon is active.

Figure 1B. When tryptophan is abundant, the operon is inactivated by the binding of the repressor protein to the operator.

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29. A scientist claimed that an E. coli strain had either a mutated gene or a mutated operator. Which of the
following observations most likely supports the claim?
(A) Transcription from the operon occurred only in the presence of abundant tryptophan.
The strain of E. coli required more tryptophan for its metabolic processes than does a strain of E. coli with
(B)
typical tryptophan regulatory controls.
Enzymes required for the synthesis of tryptophan were continuously produced whether tryptophan was
(C)
absent or present in large quantities.
(D) The cells died when they were grown in nutrient medium that lacked tryptophan.

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