CLASS-9TH

CBSE AITS – 2
ANSWER KEY
Section-I
PHYSICS
1. (C) 6. (C) 11. (B) 16. (D) 21. (C)
2. (A) 7. (C) 12. (A) 17. (C) 22. (A)
3. (A) 8. (B) 13. (C) 18. (A) 23. (A)
4. (A) 9. (C) 14. (B) 19. (B) 24. (B)
5. (C) 10. (B) 15. (A) 20. (C) 25. (D)

CHEMISTRY
26. (B) 31. (D) 36. (A) 41. (C) 46. (C)
27. (C) 32. (D) 37. (A) 42. (D) 47. (A)
28. (B) 33. (A) 38. (C) 43. (B) 48. (D)
29. (C) 34. (B) 39. (C) 44. (B) 49. (A)
30. (A) 35. (B) 40. (D) 45. (B) 50. (C)

BIOLOGY
51. (B) 56. (C) 61. (C) 66. (C) 71. (B)
52. (A) 57. (C) 62. (C) 67. (D) 72. (A)
53. (B) 58. (D) 63. (B) 68. (C) 73. (B)
54. (B) 59. (C) 64. (D) 69. (A) 74. (C)
55. (A) 60. (A) 65. (C) 70. (B) 75. (A)

Section-II
MATHEMATICS
76. (C) 85. (A) 94. (C) 103. (B) 112. (C)
77. (A) 86. (C) 95. (D) 104. (D) 113. (B)
78. (C) 87. (B) 96. (B) 105. (C) 114. (A)
79. (A) 88. (D) 97. (A) 106. (C) 115. (C)
80. (B) 89. (D) 98. (B) 107. (A) 116. (D)
81. (D) 90. (A) 99. (A) 108. (B) 117. (B)
82. (A) 91. (C) 100. (D) 109. (B) 118. (C)
83. (C) 92. (C) 101. (C) 110. (B) 119. (A)
84. (B) 93. (C) 102. (C) 111. (C) 120. (A)

[1]
 CLASS 9th

CBSE Hints & Solutions

DATE: 05/01/2025

PHYSICS C: Uniform acceleration results in a parabolic curve

on the displacement-time graph, reflecting the
1. (C) When a train moves with constant velocity, its
increasing speed over time.
acceleration is zero (since there is no change in
velocity), implying that its rate of change of velocity D: Uniform deceleration will show a straight line
is zero. According to Newton's first law, for an object sloping downward, indicating a decrease in
to continue in motion with constant velocity, the net velocity with time.
external force acting on it must be zero, meaning the
forces acting on the train are balanced. 5. (C) When an object moves at a constant speed in a
straight line, its velocity does not change. Since
2. (A) For non-uniform motion, the slope at any point acceleration is the rate of change of velocity, a
on a distance-time graph represents the instantaneous constant velocity means no acceleration, so the
velocity, which is the rate of change of distance at that acceleration is zero.
particular moment in time. While average speed
describes the overall motion, the slope at any point 6. (C) Newton’s third law states that for every action,
gives the velocity at that specific instance. there is an equal and opposite reaction. These forces
are of the same magnitude and act in opposite
3. (A) We can use the second equation of motion to directions, but they always act on different objects,
calculate the distance covered: not the same object. Hence, they cannot cancel each
other out.
1
s = 0 × 4.5 + × 3.6 × ( 4.5 )
2
2
7. (C) While the cyclist’s speed remains constant, they
1
s = 0 + × 3.6 × 20.25 are indeed experiencing acceleration because their
2
direction is constantly changing. This type of
1
s = × 3.6 × 20.25 acceleration is called centripetal acceleration, which
2 is directed towards the center of the circular path. The
=
s 1.8 × 20.25 reason provided is incorrect because it ignores the fact
S = 36. 45 m that acceleration can also be caused by a change in
direction, not just a change in speed. Hence, the
assertion about constant speed is correct, but the
4. (A)
reason fails to account for the role of direction in
Graphs represent motion types based on the object's
producing acceleration.
velocity and acceleration.
F
A: The object at rest corresponds to a constant 8. (B) According to Newton’s second law = ,
m
position, shown as a flat horizontal line in the
acceleration is inversely proportional to mass. If the
displacement-time graph.
mass is tripled while the force remains constant, the
B: The object moving at a uniform velocity will
acceleration will decrease by a factor of 3. Therefore,
show a straight upward sloping line on the x−t
the new acceleration will be one-third of the original
graph, indicating constant speed.
acceleration.

[2]
9. (C) Frictional force opposes the relative motion • Orbital Speed of Satellites: The orbital speed
between two surfaces in contact, such as your shoes is the rate at which a satellite moves in orbit,
and the road. This force resists sliding and helps you influenced by the gravitational pull of the planet
grip the surface better. (option B).
• Gravitational Potential Energy: Gravitational
10. (B) For the box to remain at rest, the frictional force potential energy depends on the mass of the
must exactly cancel out the applied force. Therefore, object and its height from the Earth's surface
the frictional force is exactly 50N, which keeps the (option C).
box stationary. • Gravitational Acceleration (g): The
acceleration due to gravity is inversely
11. (B) Gravitational force is a fundamental force that proportional to the square of the distance
acts between any two masses, regardless of size. It is between the object and Earth's center, and it is
always attractive and follows the inverse-square law,
typically around 9.8 m/s ² on Earth's surface
decreasing in magnitude as the distance between
(option A).
objects increases. It cannot be blocked or shielded by
any known material.
16. (D)
The formula for potential energy is:
12. (A) The acceleration due to gravity at the surface is
PE = mgh
GM
given by g = 2 . Here, G is the gravitational Rearranging to solve for height (h):
R
PE
constant, M is the planet’s mass, and R is the planet’s h=
mg
 R
radius. If the radius is halved  R →  , the value of Substituting the values:
 2
220 220
g becomes. = h = ≈ 4.49 m
5 × 9.8 49
GM GM
g=' =
2
× 4= 4g
R R2
  17. (C) The SI unit of energy is the joule (J), which is
2 numerically equivalent to the unit of work. This is
Thus, the surface gravity increases by a factor of 4 because energy and work are both measured in joules,
when the radius is halved, keeping the mass and work is defined as the transfer of energy through
constant. force applied over a distance.

13. (C) The pressure exerted by a liquid at a certain 18. (A) Gravitational force acts between masses (B),
point is directly proportional to the depth at that point. elastic force is exerted by a spring (A), magnetic force
The equation P = hρg expresses this relationship, works between magnets (C), and frictional force
where P is the pressure, h is the depth, ρ is the density opposes relative motion (D).
of the liquid, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.
19. (B) To calculate the power output, use the formula:
14. (B) The Moon’s motion is significantly influenced W
P=
by Earth's gravitational force. This gravitational t
attraction keeps the Moon in orbit around the Earth, Where:
preventing it from flying off into space. The Moon’s • W = 4800 J (work done)
motion, therefore, is entirely dependent on this • t = 8 minutes = 8 × 60 = 480 seconds
interaction. Now substitute the values:
4800
15. (A) = P = 10W
480
• Gravitational Force between two objects: The Thus, the power output of the machine is 10 W,
gravitational force is the force that attracts corresponding to option (b).
objects towards the center of the Earth
(option D). 20. (C) This statement is incorrect. According to the law
of conservation of energy, energy cannot be created

[3]
 or destroyed; it can only be transformed from one CHEMISTRY
form to another. It is not possible to create energy 26. (B)
from nothing. Therefore, the idea of energy being Mass of solution = Mass of benzene + Mass of baron
produced spontaneously is not supported by scientific tetrachloride = 22g + 122g = 144g
principles. Mass of benzene
Mass percentage of benzene =
Mass of solution
21. (C) The loudness of a sound depends on the
22g
amplitude of the sound wave. A larger amplitude ×100 = × 100 = 15.28%
corresponds to more energy being carried by the 144g
wave, resulting in a louder sound. Frequency, speed, Mass of CCl4
Mass percentage of CCl4 =
and wavelength do not directly affect loudness. Mass of solution
122
22. (A) Sound requires a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) ×100 = × 100 = 84.72%
144
to propagate. In space, where there is a vacuum, there
are no particles to transmit the vibrations, and hence 27. (C)
sound cannot travel. H3PO4 - 98 u
NO2- 46 u
23. (A) The relationship between the speed of sound, CH3COOH - 60 u
frequency, and wavelength is given by: SO2 - 64 u
v= f ×λ
Rearranging to find the wavelength (λ): 28. (B)
v The Kinetic Energy of a molecule is directly
λ=
f proportional to its temperature. As the temperature of
Substitute the given values: a substance increases, the kinetic energy of its
340 molecules increases.
λ=
425
Perform the division: 29. (C)
λ =0.8m
Assertion is true: For most solid solutes, solubility
increases with increasing temperature.
24. (B) The human ear can typically detect sound waves
Reason is false: Higher temperatures actually cause
with frequencies ranging from 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
the solvent particles to move more rapidly, not
Sounds below 20 Hz are called infrasonic, and those
slowly. The increased movement helps to break the
above 20,000 Hz are ultrasonic, both of which are
bonds between the solute particles, allowing more
inaudible to humans but may be heard by certain
solute to dissolve in the solvent.
animals.

25. (D) 30. (A)

i - d: Compression refers to the regions where the A – Ice
particles of the medium are closest together in a sound B – Ice + Water
wave. C – Water
ii - b: Rarefaction is the region where the particles are
D – Water + Water vapour
spread apart, creation low pressure region.
E – Water vapour
iii - c: Sound in air propagates as longitudinal waves,
with the particles of air moving parallel to the
direction of wave travel.
iv - a: Loudness of sound depends on the amplitude 31. (D)
of the sound wave, with higher amplitudes producing Addition of impurity into water lowers the freezing
louder sounds. point and increases the boiling point of water.

[4]
32. (D) • Total mass of solution = 20g + 200g
Q
Elements P
Valencies 3 2 } compound is P Q 2 3
= 220g
 20 
Mass percent   × 100 ≈ 9.09%
Q  220 
Elements P
Valencies 5 2
} compound is P Q 2 5
(II)
• Solute: 15g of sugar
33. (A)
• Solvent: 160g of water
Mass of Proton - 1.67 × 10−27 kg • Total mass of solution = 15g + 160g
Charge on electron - −1.6 × 10−19 C = 175g
Mass of electron - 9.1 × 10−28 C  15 
Mass percent=   × 100 ≈ 8.57%
 175 
Charge on proton - 9.1 × 10−28 C
(III)
• Solute: 60g of potassium permanganate
34. (B)
• Solvent: 200g of water
A compound contains different elements in a fixed
ratio by mass. • Total mass of solution = 60g + 200g = 260g
 60 
= 
Mass percent  × 100 ≈ 23.08%
35. (B)  260 
Isoelectronic species have the same number of (IV)
electrons. • Solute: 20g of sodium carbonate
H is not isoelectronic with Li⁺, Be²⁺, B³⁺.
• Solvent: 90g of water
• Total mass of solution = 20g + 90g = 110g
36. (A)
 20 
Both assertion and reason are correct, and the reason Mass percent=   × 100 ≈ 18.18%
is the correct explanation of the assertion.  110 

37. (A) 39. (C)

The true solution is a homogeneous mixture in which Statement 1: In Rutherford's scattering experiment,
any solute and solvent particles do not settle down at most of the alpha particles passed through the gold
the bottom. Through this state, the light passes foil without deflection, which suggested that the atom
conveniently without scattering. is mostly empty space.
When a Colloidal solution is allowed to stand for a Statement 2: While Rutherford concluded that the
considerable time, then particles do not settle down atom has a dense, positively charged nucleus, he did
and when a beam of light passes through it, the path not propose that electrons are in fixed orbits (this idea
of light becomes visible. came later with the Bohr model). Rutherford's model
The particles of suspension are visible to the naked only included a central nucleus with electrons
eye and when this mixture is allowed to stand for surrounding it, without specifying their orbits.
some time, its particle settles at the bottom of the
beaker. 40. (D)
Water does not undergo sublimation at ordinary
temperature. Sublimation refers to the direct change
38. (C)
from a solid to a gas (like dry ice), while water
 Mass of Solute  generally evaporates to form water vapours when
=
Mass percent   × 100
 Mass of Solution  heated or exposed to air, which is a process of
(I) vaporization, not sublimation.
• Solute: 20g of sodium chloride
• Solvent: 200g of water

[5]
41. (C) 47. (A)
Carbon-12 and Carbon-14 are isotopes of carbon. To convert a temperature from Fahrenheit (°F) to
They have the same number of protons but different Celsius (°C), we use the formula:
5
× ( F – 32 )
numbers of neutrons.
C=
9
42. (D) 5
C =× ( 300 − 32 )
The solubility of sodium nitrate at 70°C is 140 g per 9
100 g of water, and at 25°C, it is 100 g per 100 g of 5
C= × 268
water. This means that at 70°C, a saturated solution 9
can hold 140 g of NaNO3, and when cooled to 25°C, C = 148.89
it can only hold 100 g.
When the solution is cooled from 70°C to 25°C, the 48. (D) Air, tincture of iodine, and sugar solution are
difference in solubility will give us the amount of homogeneous mixtures because their components are
sodium nitrate that crystallizes out: uniformly distributed and cannot be distinguished.
Crystalized NaNO3 = Solubility at 70º C Butter is a heterogeneous mixture because it has a
– Solubility at 25ºC = 140g – 100g = 40 g non-uniform composition with different phases.
We know that 140 g of NaNO3 yields 40 g of crystals.
We need to find out how much NaNO3 is required to 49. (A) During the burning of a candle, both chemical
obtain 70 g of crystals. We can set up a proportion: changes and physical changes occur.
140gNaNO3 xg NaNO3
= 50. (C)
40g crystals 70g crystals
Electronic configuration of A: 2, 7
140 × 70 = 40 × x
Electronic configuration of B: 2, 8
x = 245 g
Electronic configuration of C: 2, 8, 2
‘C’ will form a cation because a cation is formed by
43. (B) the loss of one or more electrons by an atom.
Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal
BIOLOGY
and a non-metal, and their composition can vary.
51. (B)
Chromosome numbers in daughter cells are reduced
44. (B)
to half of the mother cells. This division occurs in
Cathode rays are independent of the nature of the gas
reproductive cells in meiosis.
in the discharge tube, because cathode rays are made
up of electrons and electrons are universal 52. (A)
constituents meaning they are the same for every gas. Growth of plants is indefinite.

45. (B) 53. (B)

The atomic number of an element represents the P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
number of protons in an atom. Since the atomic
number is 13, there are 13 protons. 54. (B)
In a neutral atom, the number of electrons is equal to X- Cell wall, Y- Nucleolus, Z-Vacuole
the number of protons. Therefore, the atom also has
13 electrons.
The mass number of an atom is the total number of
protons and neutrons in the nucleus. Given the mass
number is 27 and there are 13 protons, the number of
neutrons can be calculated as:
Number of neutrons = 27 – 13 = 14

46. (C)
White gold is a homogeneous mixture (or alloy) of
gold and palladium. White gold is a metallic alloy,
and its composition can vary.
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55. (A) • It is made up of compactly arranged dead cells
The meristem which occurs between mature tissues is containing suberin, which makes it waterproof
known as intercalary meristem. This tissue promotes and protective.
the longitudinal growth of plants by increasing 65. (C)
internodal elongation. These occur in grasses and This statement is incorrect because the availability
regenerate parts removed by the grazing herbivores. and type of flowers significantly determine the quality
and taste of the honey.
56. (C)
The Murrah breed is indeed known for its high milk 66. (C)
production (1800-2500 liters), but it is commonly The given diagram is of columnar epithelium and it
found in Haryana and Punjab, not Gujarat, and its forms the lining of the stomach, small intestine and
horns are short and curved, not sickle-shaped. colon, forming mucous membranes.

57. (C) 67. (D)

P is transverse section of sclerenchyma whereas Q is Macronutrients: Nitrogen, Phosphorus, Potassium,
longitudinal section of sclerenchyma. Calcium, Magnesium, Sulphur, Carbon, Hydrogen
Oxygen.
58. (D) Micronutrients: Iron, Manganese, Boron, Zinc,
80S ribosomes occurs in the cytoplasm of the Copper, Molybdenum, Chlorine.
eukaryotic cell. It consists of two subunits, larger
subunit is 60S and smaller subunit is 40S. 68. (C)
The vascular tissue system comprises the complex
59. (C) tissues of xylem and phloem, collectively forming
In plant cells, vacuoles are large and occupy 50–90% vascular bundles. In dicotyledonous stems, the
of the cell volume. presence of cambium between phloem and xylem
allows for the potential formation of secondary xylem
60. (A) and phloem, resulting in what is known as open
This given diagram is xylem vessels and in vascular bundles. Conversely, in monocotyledons,
angiosperms, it serves as of the primary pathway for vascular bundles lack cambium, leading to the
water conduction. absence of secondary tissues, and they are therefore
termed closed.
61. (C)
Inland fisheries generally have lower yields compared 69. (A)
to marine fisheries. While aquaculture can increase Chromoplast (coloured plastids): These are yellow
productivity, marine fisheries capture larger numbers and red coloured, fat soluble plastids which contain
of fishes at a time due to the vastness of marine water carotenoids pigments such as carotene, xanthophylls,
sources and advanced capturing techniques. and others. These plastids are mainly present in the
coloured part of plants like fruits and flowers.
62. (C)
The given organelle is the chloroplast and it traps light 70. (B)
energy of the sun and converts it into the chemical • Pits are thin portions found in the cell wall of
energy in the form of glucose. sclerenchyma.
• The cambium is a thin layer of cells found in the
63. (B) area between xylem and phloem.
Viral disease – Bird flu disease, Ranikhet
Bacterial disease – Tuberculosis, Cholera 71. (B)
Fungal disease – Aspergillosis, Candiasis Milch: They are milk producing female animals. e.g.,
Gir, Red Sindhi etc.
64. (D) Draught: They are used in farm labour. e.g., Malvi,
• Cork is not part of the ground tissue system; it is Nagori, etc.
a dead secondary meristem derived from the
cork cambium.
[7]
72. (A) 78. (C)
The given organelle X is the Golgi body, and it is Fixed charge for 1st hour = ₹x
made up of four parts which includes cisternae, Charge for every extra hours = ₹y
tubules, vacuoles and vesicles. According to question
=x + ( 7 − 1) y =600
73. (B) =x + 6y =600
X – Squamous, Y – Cuboidal, Z - Columnar

79. (A)
74. (C)
Groundnut + sunflower is the example of the mixed 3x + 2 27 2x +1
×
cropping. 9 x −1 81x
3x ⋅ 32 3 (
3 2x +1)
75. (A) ⇒ ×
3( )
2 x −1
34x
Karan Swiss – Cross between Brown Swiss and
Sahiwal. 3x ⋅ 32 36x ⋅ 33
⇒ ×
Karan Fries – Cross between Holstein – Friesian and 32x ⋅ 3−2 34x
Tharparkar. ⇒ 3x − 2x ⋅ 32+ 2 × 36x − 4x ⋅ 33
⇒ 3− x ⋅ 34 × 32x ⋅ 33
MATHEMATICS
⇒ 3x + 7
76. (C)
2 3
Volume of hemisphere= πr 80. (B)
3

R=
r Given that, P ( x )= 4x 4 − 3x 3 + 2x 2 − x + 5
2
P (1) = 4 (1) − 3 (1) + 2 (1) − 1 + 5 = 4 − 3 + 2 − 1 + 5 = 7
4 3 2
3
2 2 r
V ' = π(R ) ⇒ V ' = π 
3
3 2
P ( −1) =4 ( −1) − 3 ( −1) + 2 ( −1) + 1 + 5
3 4 3 2

2 r3 1 2  = 4 + 3 + 2 + 1 + 5 = 15
V '= π × ⇒ V '=  πr 3 
3 8 8 3  P (1) − P ( −1) =7 − 15 =−8
 v
V v− 8 
V' = ⇒ % decrease =×
  100
8  v  81. (D)
 
3 4
7 Given: +
= × 100 =87.5% 6+ 2 6− 2
8

77. (A)
= =
(
3 6− 2 +4 6+ 2 ) (
3 6 −3 2 + 4 6 +4 2 )
4 6 6−2
To find: + 4
5+2 6 −2
Rationalising the denominator =
7 6+ 2
=
( 7 × 2.45=
) + 1.414 4.641
4 4
4 5–2 6 6+2
× + ×
5+2 5–2 6 −2 6+2

=
4 ( 5−2 ) + 6( 6+2 ) 82. (A)

5−4 6−4 4 2
=
0.4 =
( ) + 6( )
10 5
4 5−2 6+2
= = 4 5 −8+3 6 + 6 Let x = 0.6666... (i)
1 2
= 4 5 +3 6 −2 10x = 6.666... (ii)
Subtracting equation (i) from (ii), we get,

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 2 85. (A)
9x = 6 ⇒ x =
3 5F − 160
Given that, C =
Let y = 0.48888... (iii) 9
10y = 4.8888... (iv) For temperature to be equal C = F

100y = 48.888... (v) 5C − 160

⇒C= ⇒ 9C = 5C − 160
9
Subtracting equation (iv) from (v), we get,
⇒ 4C =
−160
90y = 44
C = −40
44 22
=
y =
90 45
86. (C)
= 0.4 + x + y
In ∆ABC,
2 2 22 14
= + + =
5 3 45 9 ∠A + ∠ABC + ∠ACB = 180º
45º + 60º + ∠ACB = 180º
83. (C) ∠ACB = 75º
When a polynomial P(x) is divided by a linear ∠ACB + ∠ACE = 180º [Linear pair]
polynomial (x–a) the remainder is the value of
75º+∠ACE = 180º
polynomial at x = a or P(a).
∠ACE = 105º
P ( x ) = ax 4 + 3x 3 − 3
Since, AD || FG
P ( 4) = a ( 4) + 3( 4) − 3
4 3
∠ACE = ∠FGH = 105º

P ( 4 ) = 256a + 192 − 3
87. (B)
P ( 4 ) = 256a + 189 = ( R1 )
Area of parallelogram = Base × Height
f ( x ) = 2x − 5x + a
2
= WZ × MX = WX × NZ

f ( 4 ) = 2 ( 4 ) − 5 ( 4 ) + a ⇒ f ( 4 ) = 32 − 20 + a
2 = WZ × 6cm =8cm × 5cm

f ( 4 ) =a + 12 =( R 2 ) =
WZ
40
= cm
20
cm
6 3
According to question
88. (D)
R1 − 3R 2 =
0 Construction: Join AC
C
256a + 189 − 3 ( a + 12 ) =
0

256a + 189 − 3a − 36 =
0 140º
A x B
−153 O
253a + 153 = 0 ⇒ a =
253
In ∆AOC
AO = OC [radius of circle]
84. (B)
So, it is isosceles triangle
P (=
x) x 103
+ 53 ⇒ ∠AOC + ∠OAC + ∠OCA =180º
= 140º +2∠OAC
= 180º
P ( −1) =( −1)
103
+ 53
2∠OAC =40º ⇒ ∠OAC =20º
P ( −1) =−1 + 53 =52 In ∆ACB,
∠CAB + ∠ACB + ∠CBA = 180º ....(i)

[9]
 The angle subtended at the centre of a circle is double 2
1
the angle subtended at any point on the circle’s =
π   × 14cm3
2
circumference.
14π 7 π 3
∠ACB = 90º = = cm
4 2
Now substituting the value in equation (i)
Let the height of embankment be h.
20º+90º+∠CBA=180º
7π
∠CBA = 70º Area of embankment × height of embankment =
2
7π
=π  R 2 − r 2  × h =
89. (D)   2
Let a, b, c be the sides of triangle.
7π
π ( 4.5 ) − ( 0.5 )  h =
2 2
a+b+c =
s= ... (i)   2
2
=( 4.5 + 0.5 )( 4.5 − 0.5 ) h =3.5
Area = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
= 5 × 4 × h = 3.5
If the sides are tripled then new sides are 3a, 3b and 3.5 7
3c. =
h = m
20 40
3a + 3b + 3c 3 ( a + b + c ) 7
=S' = h= × 100cm ⇒ h = 17.5cm
2 2 40
3s  From equation ( i ) 
S' =
92. (C)
A ' = S' ( S'− 3a )( S'− 3b )( S'− 3c )
The areas of rectangles in a histogram are
A' = 3s ( 3s − 3a )( 3s − 3b )( 3s − 3c ) proportional to frequency

=
A' 81s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c ) ⇒ =
A ' 9A 93. (C)

=
% increase
( 9A − A ) ×=
100 800%
P X
A

90. (A)
Q R Y Z
Given: Outer measurement of box are 40cm, 30cm
If PR = XY, the triangles will be congruent by SAS
and, 25 cm.
axiom.
So, Inner dimensions will be
Length = (40cm – 4cm) = 36cm 94. (C)
Breadth = (30cm – 4cm) = 26cm x = 3 + 10
Height = (25cm – 4cm) = 21 cm
1 1 3 − 10 3 − 10
Capacity (volume) = [ Volume of box ]I.D. ⇒ = × = = 10 − 3
x 3 + 10 3 − 10 9 − 10
Volume = (36cm × 26cm × 21cm)
3 + 10 3 + 10
Volume = (19656) cm3 y =−
3 10 ⇒
1
=
1
×
y 3 − 10 3 + 10
=
9 − 10
=− 3 + 10 ( )
Capacity = 19656 cm3
1 1
( ) + ( −3 − )
2 2
To find: 2
+= 10 − 3 10
91. (C) x y2
= 10 + 9 − 6 10 + 9 + 10 + 6 10
Volume of earth taken out = πr 2 h
= 38
4m a + b 10 = 38 ⇒ a = 38 and b = 0.
Embankment
1m

[10]
95. (D) 99. (A)
Given:
2
+
3
+
2 Given that, 3x − ( a − 2 ) y = 2a − 3 satisfies by the
3 2 1
− − −
( 625) 4 ( 343) 3 ( 243) 5 point (3, 4)
2 3 2 So, 3(3) – (a– 2)4 = 2a –3
⇒ 3
+ 2
+ 1 = 9 – 4a + 8 = 2a –3
( ) ( ) ( )
− − −
54 4 73 3 35 5 = –4a –2a = –17 – 3
10
2 3 2 ⇒ −6a = −20 ⇒ a =
⇒ −3
+ −2
+ 3
5 7 3−1
The point (3, 4) also satisfies the equation
⇒ 2 × 53 + 3 × 7 2 + 2 × 31 =403
= 5x + (1 − a ) y = 3b
96. (B)  10 
1 ⇒ 5 ( 3) +  1 −  4 =
3b
1 − 3x = 0 ⇒ x =  3
3
28
1 = 15= – 3b
Remainder = P   3
3 17 17
4 3 = = 3b ⇒ b =
1 1 1 1 3 9
P   =   − 6   + 3  − 3
3 3 3 3
1 1 2 100. (D)
P  = − +1− 3 y
 3  81 9
 1  −179 (0, 2)
P  =
3 81 2
nd
1
st

97. (A) x
(2, 0)
Given that: a 2 + b ( ) =( a3 + b )
2 3 3 2
3rd 4th

( ) + ( b2 ) ( ) ( ) + ( b3 )
3 3 2 2
= a2 + 3a 2 b 2 a 2 + b 2 = a 3 + 2a 3 b3

= a 6 + b6 + 3a 4 b 2 + 3a 2 b 4 = a 6 + b6 + 2a 3b3 101. (C)

= 3a 4 b 2 + 3a 2 b 4 = 2a 3b3 1
Given that t =
Dividing the equation by a 2 b 2 , we get, 1− 8 2
= 3a 2 + 3b 2 = 2ab Now, rationalising the denominator
a 2 b2 2 1+ 8 2 1+ 8 2
= + = 1
= ×[ ( a + b )( a − b ) = a 2 − b 2 ]
ab ab 3
1− 2 1+ 2 1− 2
8 8 4
a b 2
= + = Rationalising the denominator again,
b a 3
1+ 8 2 1+ 4 2 1+ 2 1+ 2
× =
8 4
( )( )
98. (B) 1− 4 2 1+ 4 2 1− 2

(1 + 8 2 ) (1 + 4 2 ) × 1 +
Y
(–3, 4) 5 A” 2
A’ 4 =
3
(3, 4) 1− 2 1+ 2
2
1
= (
− 1+ 8 2 1+ 4 2 1+ 2 )( )( )
O
X –5 –4 –3 –2 –1–1 1 2 3 4 5 X
–2
102. (C)
–3 1  1
A (–3, –4) –4 Given: x 2 + − 4  x +  − 10
x2
 x
–5
1  1
Y = x2 + + 2 − 2 − 4  x +  − 10
x 2
 x
[11]
  1
2
 1 x 2 + y2
 x +  − 4  x +  − 12 = =
−1 ⇒ x 2 + y 2 =
− xy ⇒ x 2 + y 2 + xy =
0
 x  x xy

Let x +
1
=
y (
= x 3 − y3 = ( x − y ) x 2 + y 2 + xy )
x
= y − 4y − 12
2 x 3 − y3 ( x − y ) ( x 2 + y2 + xy )
= = 0
2
5 5
y – 6y + 2y – 12
= y ( y − 6) + 2 ( y − 6) 107. (A)
( y + 2 )( y − 6 )
= Given equation: 5x + 4y = 9

 1  1 
 x + + 2  x + − 6 
 x  x 

103. (B)
Circumference of circular cylinder = 24 cm
2πR =24 cm
12
R= cm In ∆AOB,
π
=
AB 2
OA 2 + OB2
2
 12  1440 2 2
Volume of cylinder =
πR 2 h =
π   × 10 = 2 9 9
π π =
AB   + 
4 5
According to question
81 81 3321
30K 1440 AB2 = + =
= = K= 48 16 25 400
π π
9 41
AB = Units
20
104. (D)
Given zeroes are 3, –1 and 2. 108. (B)
Factors are (x – 3), (x + 1) and (x – 2). A
So, (x – 3) (x2 –2x + x – 2)
(x – 3)(x2 – x – 2)
56cm 52cm
= x 3 − x 2 − 2x − 3x 2 + 3x + 6 `
= x 3 − 4x 2 + x + 6
B 60cm C
Area of triangle = s ( s − a )( s − b )( s − c )
105. (C)
a+b+c
Diameter of sphere = 8.4cm Where, s =
2
Radius = 4.2cm
56 + 60 + 52
Volume of water displaced = Volume of sphere =s = 84 cm
4 3 2
Volume of sphere= πR
3 Area= 84 ( 84 − 56 )( 84 − 60 )( 84 − 52 )
4 22
V = × × ( 4.2 ) cm3
3
Area = 1344cm2
3 7
Cost of painting per cm2 = 15 paise
Volume = 310.46cm3
Total cost = 15×1344 = 20160 paisa
106. (C) Cost = ₹201.6
x y
Given that, + =−1
y x

[12]
109. (B)
Since, AD || BC 112. (C)
∠EAB = ∠ABC = 70º Let the external radius of pipe be R and internal
In ∆ABC, radius be r.
∠BAC + ∠ABC + ∠BCA = 180º Volume of iron metal = Volume of external cylinder
= ∠BAC + 70º + 70º = 180º[∠ABC = ∠ACB] – volume of internal cylinder.
= ∠BAC = 40º = πR 2 h − πr 2 h
= ∠EAB + ∠BAC + ∠CAD = 180º[Linear pair] Where, R = 3.6cm
= 70º + 40º + ∠CAD = 180º r=
(3.6 − 0.2)cm =
3.4 cm
∠CAD = 70º ∴πR 2 h − πr 2 h = πh(R + r)(R − r)
In ∆ACD,
22
∠CAD + ∠ACD +∠ADC = 180º = × 1120 × (3.6 + 3.4)(0.2)
7
70º + 2∠ACD = 180º [∠ACD = ∠ADC] 22
= × 1120 × 7 × 0.2
= 2∠ACD = 110º 7
∠ACD = 55º = ∠ADC = 4928 cm3
∠ADC + ∠ABC 55° + 70º 9
So, = = 2.5 Required mass = × 4928 gm
50º 50° 2
= 22176 gm
110. (B) = 22.176 kg
PQ is a diameter
∠PMQ = 90º [Angle in a semi-circle is 90º] 113. (B)
In ∆PMQ, B
∠PMQ + ∠ PQM + ∠QPM = 180º
90º + 40º + ∠QPM = 180º 6
∠QPM = 50º A O
x
M
6
111. (C)
A
C
In ∆ABM and ∆ACM
AB = AC
48 m

AM = AM
O B ∠BAM = ∠CAM
14m
Hence, ∆ABM ≅ ∆ACM (By SAS)
In ∆AOB,
∠BMA = ∠CMA
AB = AO2 + OB2
∠BMA + ∠CMA = 180°
=
AB AO 2 + OB2 ⇒ ∠BMA = ∠CMA = 90°
AB = 50m In ∆ABM
Curved surface area = πrl 62 = BM2 + x2 …. (i)
22 [Let AM = x, OM = 10 – x]
⇒ × 50 × 14 m 2
7 In ∆BMO
= 2200 m2 102 = BM2 + (10 – x)2 …. (ii)
Let the length of cloth be x. Subtract (i) from (ii), we get
Area = x × 55 102 – 62 = (10 – x)2 – x2
55x = 2200 64 = (10 – x – x) (10 – x + x)
2200
=x = 40 m
55
[13]
 64 ∴ ar (∆ABC)
= 10 − 2x
= 70 × (70 − 40)(70 − 40) × (70 − 60)m
10 2
2x = 10 − 6.4 ⇒ x = 1.8
BM = 62 − 1.82 = 4.2 × 7.8 = 70 × 30 × 30 × 10 m2
42 × 78 3 = 300 7 m 2 = ar (∆ADC)
= = 91 cm
100 5 ∴ area of rhombus ABCD= 2 × 300 7 m 2
6 91 = 600 7 m 2
BC = 2BM =
5
600 7 2
∴Area of grass grazed by each cow = m
100
114. (A)
= 6 7 m2
Given that f ( x ) = 5x − 4x + 2x + 5
5 3 2

f ( x ) = 5x 5 − 4x 3 + 2x 2 + 5. 117. (B)
f ( 3) = 5 ( 3) − 4 ( 3) + 2 ( 3) + 5
5 3 2

f ( 3) = 1130

115. (C)

Let AB and CD be two parallel chords of a circle with

centre O given that AB = 12cm,
CD = 16cm. Let the radius of the circle be r cm.
Draw, OM ⊥ CD
It is given that OD = BC and OD = OB (radii) Since, AB||CD and, ON ⊥ AB
Therefore points O, M, N are collinear
⇒ OB = BC
Clearly, MN = 2cm
∠BCO = ∠BOC = 40º In ∆OMC,
Then, ∠OBC = 180º – 40º – 40º = 100º OC2 = CM2 + OM2
⇒r2 = 82 + OM2 …(i)
Also, ∠OBA + ∠OBC = 180º (linear pair )
In ∆OAN,
⇒ ∠OBA = 180º −100º = 80º = ∠OAB OA2 = ON2 + AN2
∴∠AOB
= 180º −80º −80
= º
20º ⇒ r2 = (OM + 2)2 + 62 …(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
= 180° − ∠AOB − ∠BOC
∴∠AOD 82 + OM2 = (OM +2)2 + 62
= 180º – 20º – 40º = 120º ⇒ (OM +2)2 – OM2 = 82 – 62
⇒ (OM+2 –OM) (OM + 2 + OM) = 28
116. (D) ⇒ 4 (OM + 1) = 28
40 C ⇒ (OM + 1) = 7
D
∴ OM = 6cm
From (i), r2 = 82 + 62
40 60 40 r2 = 102
∴ r = 10cm
40 B ∴ radius= 10cm.
A
∆ABC and ∆ADC are congruent
So, ar (∆ABC) = ar (∆ADC) 118. (C) Let r = inner radius of the bowl = 7cm
Let s be the semi-perimeter of ∆ABC and ∆ADC, R= outer radius of the bowl = 7.7cm
40 + 40 + 60 Volume of steel used = volume of outer hemisphere –
∴s= m = 70m volume of inner hemisphere
2

[14]
 2 3 2 3 1
= πR − πr ∴ Area of rhombus = = × d1 × d 2
3 3 2
2 22 1
= × (7.7)3 − 73  = × 24 × 18 cm 2
3 7  2
= 237. 878 cm3 = 216cm2

119. (A) Let side of rhombus, a = 15cm 120. (A)

160 Let the height of the hall be h.
here, length of one diagonal d=
1 15 × cm We have, l = 16m, b = 12m
100
= 24cm Now,
We know, Sum of the areas of the floor and roof
= Sum of the area of four walls
4a=
2
d12 + d 22
⇒ 2lb = 2 (l + b)h
⇒ 4 × 152= 242 + d 22 ⇒ lb = (l + b)h
⇒ 4 × 225= 576 + d 22 lb 16 × 12 16 × 12
∴ h == = = 6.86m
l + b 16 + 12 28
⇒ d 22 = 900 − 576 = 324
∴ d=
2 = 18 cm
324


[15]