1.

ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk cloth,

(A) silk cloth will lose electrons to glass rod (C) glass rod acquires negative charge
(B) glass rod will lose electrons to the silk cloth (D) silk acquires positive charge
2. The electric field at a distance ‘r’ from infinitely long straight uniformly charged wire is
(A) inversely proportional to r (C) inversely proportional to square of r
(B) inversely proportional to cube of r (D) independent of r
3. Which one of the following charges is NOT possible?
(A) 1.602 × 10-19 C (B) 3.204 × 10-19 C (C) 5.607 × 10-19 C (D) 6.408 × 10-19 C
4. The electrostatic force between the two charges in vacuum is given by = where k is
(A) 9 × 10 Nm2/ C2 (B) 9 × 10 NC2/ m2 (C) 9 × 10 Nm2/ c2 (D) 9 × 10 N
5. The force on any charge due to a number of other charges is the vector sum of all the forces on
that charge due to the other charges. This statement is called
(A) quantization principle of charges (C) principle of homogeneity
(B) principle of superposition of electric forces (D) additivity of charges
6. The direction of electric field vector at a point on the equatorial line of a dipole is
(A) in the same direction of dipole moment (C) towards negative charge
(B) in the opposite direction to the dipole moment (D) towards positive charge
7. Dipole moment is a vector quantity, which is pointing from
(A) –q to +q along the axis of an electric dipole. (C) infinity to +q
(A) +q to – q along the axis of an electric dipole. (D) +q to infinity.
8. Name the physical quantity which has the dimensional formula [LTA]
(A) line charge density (B) capacitance (C) dipole moment (D) charge
9. __________ placed in an electric field experiences a force in the direction opposite to the electric
field.
(A) An electron (B) A positive charge (C) A neutron (D) A proton.
10. When a free electric dipole placed in a non-uniform electric field, the dipole will experience
(A) both force and torque (C) only torque but not force
(B) only force but not torque (D) neither torque nor force
11. Electrostatic field lines can never form closed loops. This is due to
(A) Conservation of charges. (C) Quantization of electric charges
(B) Conservation of momentum. (D) Conservative nature of electrostatic field
12. SI unit of electric flux is
(A) NC-1 (B) Weber (C) NC-1m2 (D) Nm-2C
13. Electric field intensity at a distance r from center of uniformly charged sphere outside the sphere
is E. Which one of the following is correct?
(A) α and α (B) and α (C) α and (D) α and α
14. The electric field due to an electric dipole at any point on its axis, which is at distance r (r >> length
of dipole) from its center varies according to
(A) α (B) α (C) α (D) α
15. Some physical quantities are listed in column 1 and the SI UNITS are listed in column 2. Identify
the correct match
COLUMN 1 COLUMN 2
(i) Electric field (a) C2N-1m-2
(ii) Electric flux (b) Vm-1
(iii) Permittivity (c) Vm
(A) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a) (C) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
(B) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c) (D) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b)
16. Statement (1): The electric field lines never cross each other.
Statement (2): If electric field linescross each other, the field at the point of intersection will not
have a unique direction, which is not possible.
(A) Both statements are correct Statement (2) is the correct explanation for Statement (1)
(B) Both statements are correct Statement (2) is not the correct explanation for Statement (1)
(C) Statement (1) is correct but Statement (2) is wrong.
(D) Statement (2) is correct but Statement (1) is wrong.
17. Four charges are placed at the corners of a
square PQRS as shown in the figure. The
direction of the resultant electric field at the
intersection of the diagonals is
(A) Towards P
(B) Towards Q
(C) Towards R
(D) Towards S
18. The following figure shows the electric field around
the two charges where,
(A) q1 is positive, q2 is negative
(B) q1 is negative, q2 is positive
(C) both charges are positive
(D) both charges are negative
19. Which one of the following shows the electric field lines due to an electric dipole?

20. The given figure is related to Gauss’s law in

electrostatics: = , where q is equal to
(A) + 2 μC (C) – 8 μC
(B) – 6 μC (D) + 6 μC

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

[neutral, negative , positive, maximum, zero, infinity]
1. The electric field lines due to a single positive charge end at __________.
2. The electric field inside a uniformly charged spherical shell is __________.
 2. ELECTROSTATIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Name the physical quantity whose SI unit is joule per coulomb.
(A) Power (B) electric field (C) electric potential (D) dipole moment
2. _______ is a unit of energy.
(A) V (B) Vm (C)Vm-1 (D) eV
3. Equal charges are given to the two spheres of different radii. The potential will:
(A) Be more on bigger sphere (B) Be more on smaller sphere
(C) Be equal on both the spheres (D) Depend on the nature of the materials of the spheres
4. For linear dielectrics, the ratio of dielectric polarisation to the applied electric field is equal to
(A) Mobility (B) Dipole moment (C) ϵo × Susceptibility (D) Permittivity
5. The dimension of electric polarisation is given by
(A) [L-2AT] (B) [LAT] (C) [ML2A-1T-3] (D) [M-1L-2A2T-4]
6. The electric potential at the surface of a charged spherical shell of radius 10 cm is 20 V. The electric
potential at the center of the shell is
(A) Zero (B) 10 V (C) 20 V (D) 30 V
7. The electric field at a point which is very close to the surface of a charged conductor with surface
charge density σ is
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D) =
8. The energy density between the plates of a charged capacitor is given by
(A) (B) (C) (D)
9. The potential energy of an electric dipole placed in a uniform electric field is
(A) – ⃗. ⃗ (B) – ⃗ × ⃗ (C) CV (D) ∈ E
10. An electric dipole is placed in a uniform electric field. The dipole moment makes an angle θ with
the electric field. For what angle θ is the potential energy of the dipole maximum?
(A) θ = 0o (B) θ = 45o (C) θ = 90o (D) θ = 180o
11. Capacitance of a capacitor is defined as C = q/V. A factor on which capacitance of the capacitor
depends is:
(A) Charge q (C) Geometry of the conductor
(B) Potential deference V (D) all of the above
12. Capacity of a parallel plate capacitor can be increased by
(A) increasing the distance between the plates
(B) increasing the thickness of the plates
(C) decreasing the area of the plates
(D) decreasing the distance between the plates
13. The potential energy of a capacitor is stored in the ___________ between the plates of the
capacitor.
(A) electric charges (B) electric field (C) magnetic field (D) current
14. Which of the following correctly describes the behavior of polar and nonpolar dielectrics in an
electric field?
(A) Both polar and nonpolar dielectrics have permanent dipole moments, but only nonpolar dielectrics
align in an external field.
(B) Polar dielectrics align their dipole moments with the external field, while in the case of nonpolar
dielectrics a dipole moment is induced in response to the field.
 (C) Nonpolar dielectrics align their permanent dipole moments in an external field, while polar
dielectrics remain unaffected.
(D) Polaectrics and nonpolar dielectrics behave identically in the presence of an electric field, showing
no difference in polarization.
15. An electric dipole is placed inside an insulating spherical shell. Pick the wrong statement.
(A) Net charge enclosed by the shell is zero
(B) Sphere acts as equipotential surface.
(C) Electric flux through the sphere is zero.
(D) Electric field is not uniform across the surface of the spherical shell.
16. The following graphs show the variations of two physical quantities with distance ‘r’ from the
center of a uniformly charged spherical shell. Identify the graphs.
(A) First graph shows variation of E versus r and second is V
versus r
(B) First graph shows variation of V versus r and second is E
versus r
(C) Both graphs shows the variation of V versus r
(D) Both graphs shows the variation of E versus r
17. Statement 1: The electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Statement 2: All the charges reside only on the surface of the conductor.
(A) Both statements are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for the Statement 1.
(B) Both statements are correct and Statement 2 is not correct explanation for the Statement 1.
(C) Statements 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong
(D) Statements 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct
18. An imaginary sphere radius R is drawn around a charge Q,
keeping the charge Q at its center. The work required to move
a test charge q from point A to point B is
(A) q(2R) (C) zero
(B) qVA (D) qVB
19. Consider the following statements:
Statement 1: The equipotential surface at a point is always normal to the electric field at that point.
Statement 2: If the electric field were not normal to the equipotential surface, work has to be done
in moving a test charge on the surface.
(A) Both statements are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for the Statement 1.
(B) Both statements are correct and Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for the Statement 1.
(C) Statements 1 is correct and Statement 2 is wrong
(D) Statements 1 is wrong and Statement 2 is correct
20. The equivalent capacitance of the combination is
(A) + (C)

(B) (D)

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

[zero, constant, dielectric constant, electric dipole, point charge, maximum]
1. The electric potential at the surface of a charged spherical shell is………….
2. The potential energy of an electric dipole, when dipole moment ⃗ is perpendicular to electric field ⃗
is………………
 3. CURRENT ELECTRICITY
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The SI unit of current is
(A) coulomb (B) ampere (C) newton (D) farad
2. When no current is passed through a conductor,
(A) the free electrons do not move
(B) the average speed of a free electron over a large period of time is not zero
(C) the average velocity of a free electron over a large period of time is zero
(D) the average of the velocities of all the free electrons at an instant is non zero
3. In the absence of an electric field, the mean velocity of free electrons in a conductor at absolute
temperature (T) is
(A) Zero (B) independent of T (C) proportional to T (D) proportional to T2
4. Ohm’s law is valid when the temperature of conductor is
(A) very low (B) very high (C) constant (D) varying
5. In the equation AB = C, A is the current density, C is the electric field, Then B is
(A) resistivity (B) conductivity (C) resistance (D) potential difference
6. Which of the following is non-ohmic resistance?
(A) Lamp filament (B) Copper wire (C) Carbon resistor (D) Diode
7. The relaxation time in conductors
(A) increases with the increase of temperature (B) decreases with the increase of temperature
(C) it does not depend on temperature (D) all of sudden changes at 400 K
8. With increase in temperature the conductivity of
(A) semiconductors increases and metals decreases.
(B) metals increases and of semiconductor decreases.
(C) in both metals and semiconductors increases.
(D) in both metal and semiconductor decreases.
9. Drift velocity of electrons is due to
(A) motion of conduction electrons due to random collisions.
(B) motion of conduction electrons due to electric field E
(C) repulsion to the conduction electrons due to inner electrons of ions.
(D) collision of conduction electrons with each other.
10. Constantan wire is used for making standard resistance, because it has
(A) high melting point (B) low specific resistance
(C) high specific resistance
(D) negligible temperature coefficient of resistance
11. The resistivity of a wire
(A) increases with the length of the wire
(B) decreases with the area of cross-section
(C) decreases with the length and increases with the cross-section of wire
(D) none of the above statement is correct
12. n identical cells of each emf E and internal resistance r are connected in series. An external
resistance R is connected in series with this combination. The current through R is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
13. If the terminals of a cell are connected to an external resistance then the potential difference across
its terminals is
(A) more than emf of the cell (B) less than emf of the cell
(C) equal to emf of the cell (D) equal to potential drop across its internal resistance
14. Kirchhoff’s first law, i.e., ∑ I = 0 at a junction, deals with the conservation of
(A) Energy (B) Momentum (C) Charge (D) angular momentum
15. If in the experiment of Wheatstone bridge, the positions of cell and galvanometer are interchanged,
then balance point will
(A) Change
(B) Remain unchanged
(C) Depend on the internal resistance of cell and resistance of galvanometer
(D) None of these
16. Column-I gives certain physical terms associated with flow of current through a metallic conductor.
Column-II gives some mathematical relations involving electrical quantities. Match Column-
I and Column-II with appropriate relations.

Column I Column II
(a)
17. Relaxation Time
(b)
18. Drift Velocity
19. Current Density (c)
20. Electrical Resistivity
(d)

(A) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a) (B) (i)-(c), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(b)
(C) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c) (D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
17. The resistance of a wire is R Ω. If it is melted and stretched to n times its original length, its new
resistance will be
(A) (B) (C) (D)
18. Statement I: When a wire is not connected to battery, then no current flows.
Statement II: In the absence of electric field free electrons moves randomly or does not move in
particular direction.
(A) Both Statements I and Statement II are true and the Statement II is a correct explanation of the
Statement I.
(B) Both Statements I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not a correct explanation of the
Statement I.
(C) Statement I is true but the Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I and Statement II both are false.
19. Which of the following is different from the others?
(A) volt2ohm-1 (B) ampere²ohm (C) volt-ampere (D) joule second-2
20. When a steady current flows through a metal conductor of non-uniform cross-section, then drift
velocity is
(A) Independent of area of cross-section
(B) Directly proportional to the area of cross-section
(C) Inversely proportional to the area of cross- section
(D) Inversely proportional to the square of area of cross-section
21. Consider a thin square sheet of side L and thickness t, made of a material of
resistivity ρ. The resistance between two opposite faces, shown by the shaded
areas in the figure is
(A) Directly proportional to t (B) Directly proportional to L
(C) Independent of t (D) Independent of L
11. Calculate the power dissipated in 10 Ω resistor in the given circuit.
[0.625 W]

12. In the given circuit, calculate the current through the galvanometer (Ig)
[Ig = 0.0652 A]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
B C A C A D B A B D D A B C B B D A D C D

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. zero 2. mobility 3. electrical resistivity 4. superconductivity 5. Energy

***************************************************************************************

4: MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Who concluded that moving charges or currents produces a magnetic field?
(A) J. C. Maxwell (B) H. C. Oersted (C) J. A. Fleming (D) J. C. Bose
2. When a magnetic compass needle is carried nearby to a straight wire carrying current, then
(I) the straight wire cause a noticeable deflection in the compass needle.
(II) the alignment of the needle is tangential to an imaginary circle with straight wire as its centre
and has a plane perpendicular to the wire
(A) (I) is correct (B) (II) is correct
(C) both (I) and (II) are correct (D) neither (I) nor (II) is correct
3. If a current I is flowing in a straight wire parallel to x axis and magnetic field is there along the y
axis then
(A) The wire experiences force in x direction (B) The wire experiences force in y direction
(C) The wire experiences no force (D) The wire experiences force in z direction
4. A strong magnetic field is applied on a stationary electron. Then the electron
(A) moves in the direction of the field. (B) remains stationary.
(C) moves perpendicular to the direction of the field (D) moves opposite to the direction of the field.
5. The radius of the circle described by a charged particle moving perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field depends on
(A) its mass only (B) its velocity only
(C) both mass and velocity (D) neither mass nor velocity
6. The frequency of rotation of the charge particle in a uniform magnetic field is independent of
(A) velocity of the particle (B) charge of the particle
(C) mass of the particle (D) strength of the magnetic field
7. Which of the following statements is not true regarding Biot-Savart’s law,
(A) the magnetic field is proportional to the length of the current element,
(B) the magnetic field is proportional to the current through the current element
(C) the magnetic field is inversely proportional to the distance of the point
(D) the magnetic field is proportional to the sine of the angle between the current direction and the line
joining the current element and the point
8. The value of permeability of free space is
(A) 4 × 10-7 H/m (B) 9 × 109 Nm2/C2 (C) 8.854 × 10-12 F/m (D) 3 × 108 m/s
9. A long straight wire carrying a current induced magnetic induction at any place that is
(A) proportional to the distance from the wire
(B) independent of distance.
(C) inversely proportional to the distance from the wire
(D) inversely proportional to the square of the distance from the wire
10. An electron is projected with uniform velocity along the axis of a current carrying long solenoid.
Which of the following is true?
(A) The electron will be accelerated along the axis.
(B) The electron path will be circular about the axis.
(C) The electron will experience a force at 45° to the axis and hence execute a helical path.
(D) The electron will continue to move with uniform velocity along the axis of the solenoid.
11. If the beams of electrons and protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they
(A) Attract each other
(B) Repel each other
(C) No relation
(D) Neither attracts nor repel.
12. A rectangular coil carrying current is placed in a non-uniform magnetic field. On the coil the total
(A) force is non-zero (B) force is zero (C) torque is zero (D) none of these
13. A conducting circular loop of radius r carries a constant current I. It is placed in a uniform
magnetic field B, such that B is perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The magnetic force acting
on the loop is
(A) Ir2B (B) 2πrIB (C) Zero (D) πr2IB
14. In a moving coil galvanometer the deflection (Φ) on the scale by a pointer attached to the spring
is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
15. Resistance of an ideal ammeter is
(A) Infinity (B) 100 Ω (C) Zero (D) 1 Ω
16. A charged particle moves in a gravity free space without change in its velocity. Which of the
following is not possible?
(A) E = 0, B = 0 (B) E ≠ 0, B = 0 (C) E = 0, B ≠ 0 (D) E ≠ 0, B ≠ 0
 17. A positive charge is moving in combined gravitational and magnetic field. The charge moves
without any change in velocity. If the velocity of charge is along east, then the direction of magnetic
field is along
(A) North (B) South (C) Upwards (D) Downwards
18. A charge q, mass m is moving in uniform circular motion under action of a magnetic field B. If the
radius of circle is 'R', then the magnetic moment associated with the charge is given by
(A) (B) (C) (D)
19. Statement I: A current carrying wire is placed parallel to magnetic field. The force on it due the
magnetic field is zero.
Statement II: The net charge on current wire is zero.
(A) Both Statements I and Statement II are true and the Statement II is a correct explanation of the
Statement I.
(B) Both Statements I and Statement II are true but Statement II is not a correct explanation of the
Statement I.
(C) Statement I is true but the Statement II is false.
(D) Statement I and Statement II both are false.
20. Match the physical quantities of Column I with their units in Column II
Column I Column II
(i) Current Sensitivity (a)
(ii) Intensity of Magnetic Field (b) Am2
(iii) Magnetic Dipole Moment (c) div A-1

(A) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a) (B) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b)

(C) (i)-(a), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b) (D) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c)
21. An ammeter and a milli-ammeter are converted from identical galvanometers. Which one has
smaller resistance?
(A) Ammeter (B) Milliammeter (C) Both have equal resistances
(D) The resistance of ammeter may be more than or equal to that of milli-ammeter depending upon
its range

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(Ampere’s circuital law, infinity, Lorentz force, Laplace’s law, Right hand thumb rule, magnetic dipole)
1. When the charged particles move in a combined magnetic and electric field, then the force acting is
known as _________.
2. The direction of the magnetic field due to a current loop is found using the_________.
3. The alternative form of Biot-Savart’s law is ________.
4. Current carrying circular coil is equivalent to _________.
5. Resistance of an ideal voltmeter is _________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the expression for magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field
and explain the terms.
2. When is the force on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field (a) maximum and (b) minimum?
3. Does a moving charge always experience a force in a magnetic field? Explain.
4. A proton and an electron enter a magnetic field at the same angle and with the same speed. Do they
experience the same force? Justify your answer.
5. What is Lorentz force? Write the expression representing this force.
6. Is any work is done by a magnetic field on a moving charge? Justify your answer.
7. Does a charged particle gain kinetic energy as it enters a magnetic field? Justify your answer.
 5. MAGNETISM AND MATTER
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I: Magnetic field lines do not intersect each other.
Statement _ II: If the magnetic field lines intersect, the magnetic field would not be unique at the
point of intersection.
With reference to the above statements:
(A) both statement - I and statement - II are true and statement - II is the correct explanation of the
statement - I.
(B) both statement - I and statement - II are true and statement - II is not correct explanation of the
statement - I.
(C) statement - I is true and statement - II is false.
(D) both statement – I and statement – II are false.
2. When the angle between the magnetic moment of a small compass needle and the uniform
magnetic field in which it is placed is θ = 180°:
(A) the torque on the needle is maximum. (B) the needle is in stable equilibrium.
(C) the potential energy of the needle is zero. (D) the needle in unstable equilibrium.
3. A magnetized needle placed in a uniform magnetic field, in general, experiences:
(A) both force and a torque. (B) a force but no torque.
(C) a torque but no force. (D) neither a force nor a torque.
4. When freely suspended, a magnet comes to rest in the direction:
(A) North- South (B) East –West (C) South – East (D) South – West
5. According to Gauss law in magnetism:
(A) magnetic flux through a closed surface may be non-zero.
(B) magnetic monopoles do not exist.
(C) there can be sources or sinks of magnetic field.
(D) the magnetic flux through any surface is zero..
6. The dimensional formula for magnetic intensity is:
(A) [LA] (B) [L-1A] (C) [LA-1] (D) [L-1A-1]
7. If the magnetic susceptibility of a material is 100, its relative permeability is:
(A) 100 (B) 99 (C) 101 (D) 10
8. For which one of the following substances, the magnetic susceptibility low and positive?
(A) Bismuth (B) Copper (C) Iron (D) Sodium
9. In the following table, column – I lists magnetic substances and column – II lists some magnetic
properties of substances.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(a) Diamagnetic Substances (p) <
(b) Paramagnetic substances (q) Domain formation
(c) Ferromagnetic substances (r) >
The best match between column – I and column – II is:
(A) (a) → (p), (b) → (q), (c) → (r) (B) (a) → (p), (b) → (r), (c) → (q)
(C) (a) → (q), (b) → (r), (c) → (p) (D) (a) → (r), (b) → (p), (c) → (q)
10. The atoms in which kind of magnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment?
(A) only diamagnetic substances (B) only paramagnetic substances
(C) only ferromagnetic substances (D) both para- and ferromagnetic substances
 11. Which magnetic property is a strong effect?
(A) Paramagnetism (B) Diamagnetism
(C) Ferromagnetism (D) Both paramagnetism and ferromagnetism
12. If a magnetic substance is kept in a magnetic field, then which of the following substance moves
out of the magnetic field?
(A) Diamagnetic substance (B) Paramagnetic substance
(C) Ferromagnetic substance (D) Both diamagnetic & paramagnetic substance
13. The ratio between magnetization and magnetic intensity:
(A) is called permeability (B) is called relative permeability
(C) is a dimensionless quantity (D) is the reciprocal of susceptibility
14. A compass needle of magnetic moment m is placed in a uniform magnetic field of B such that the
angle between them is θ. The ratio magnitude of the torque on the needle to the potential energy
of the needle is proportional to:
(A) sin θ (B) cos θ (C) tan θ (D) sec θ
15. The following figure shows a small magnetized needle P placed at a point O. The arrow shows the
direction of its magnetic moment. The other arrows show different positions (and orientations of
the magnetic moment) of another identical magnetized needle Q.

Which one of the following statements is false for the above configuration?
(A) In configurations PQ1 and PQ2, the system is not is not in equilibrium.
(B) The system will be stable equilibrium for configurations PQ3 and PQ6.
(C) The system will be unstable equilibrium for configurations PQ4 and PQ5.
(D) PQ6 corresponds to maximum potential energy state among the given configurations.
16. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance
respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will:
(A) Attract N1 strongly but repel N2 and N3 weakly. (B) Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3
(C) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly & repel N3 weakly (D) Attract all 3 of them

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(perfect-diamagnetic, paramagnetic, diamagnetic, ferromagnetic, non-magnetic, hard ferromagnetic)
1. _________ property is present in all materials.
2. When a material is placed in a magnetic field, the field inside it is slightly enhanced. The material is a
_____________ substance.
3. A substance has a relative permeability of 1000. The material is _____________.
4. Super-conductors show ___________ behavior.
5. In some materials the magnetization persists even after the external field is removed. Such materials are
called ___________ substances.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write any two properties of a bar magnet.
2. Can two magnetic field lines intersect each other? Justify your answer.
10. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 1.5 J T–1 lies aligned with the direction of a uniform magnetic field
of 0.22 T. What is the amount of work required by an external torque to turn the magnet to align its
magnetic moment: (i) normal to the field direction, (ii) opposite to the field direction? (0.33 J, 0.66 J)
11. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area of cross-section 1.6 × 10–4 m2, carrying a current of
4.0 A, is suspended through its centre allowing it to turn in a horizontal plane.
(a) What is the magnetic moment associated with the solenoid? (b) What is the force and the magnitude
of the torque on the solenoid if a uniform horizontal magnetic field of 7.5 × 10–2 T is set up at an angle
of 30° with the axis of the solenoid? ( 1.28 Am2, Zero, 0.048 Nm)

ANSWER KEYS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
A D C A B B C D B D C A C C D C

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Diamagnetic, 2. Paramagnetic, 3. Ferromagnetic, 4. Perfect-diamagnetic, 5. Hard ferromagnetic

*********************************************************************************

6. ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The SI unit of magnetic flux is:
(A) T (B) T m-2 (C) Wb m-2 (D) Wb
2. Consider the following statements:
Statement – I: Lenz law gives the polarity of induced emf in a circuit.
Statement – II: Lenz law is in accordance with the law of conservation of energy.
Between the given two statements:
(A) both are true (B) Only statement – I is true.
(C) only statement – II is true (D) both are false.
3. In electromagnetic induction, the induced e.m.f. in a coil is independent of:
(A) change in the magnetic flux (B) time of change of magnetic flux
(C) resistance of the circuit (D) number of turns in the coil
4. An emf is induced across the ends moving conductor coil in a magnetic field. This is in accordance
with:
(A) Ampere’s law (B) Gauss law in electrostatics
(C) Gauss law in magnetism (D) Faraday’s law
5. The dimensional formula of inductance is:
(A) [ML2T2A-2] (B) [ML2T-2A-2] (C) [ML2T-2A2] (D) [ML2T2A2]
6. Inductance of a coil is independent of:
(A) the geometry of the coil. (B) the medium inside the coil.
(C) the current through the coil. (D) the number of turns in the coil.
7. The phenomena of induction of an emf in a coil due to change in current through the same coil is
called:
(A) Mutual induction (B) Self induction
(C) Motional emf (D) induction of magnetic field.
8. Which physical quantity plays the role of electrical inertia?
(A) Motional emf (B) Mutual-inductance (C) Induced current (D) Self-inductance
9. If the current flowing through a coil is doubled, the magnetic energy stored by it:
(A) is also doubled. (B) becomes halved.
(C) becomes four times. (D) becomes one-fourth the initial value.
10. Match column – I with appropriate options in column – II.
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(a) Self-induced emf (p) Motional emf
(b) EMF induced in a rod moving in a (q) Electromagnetic induction by changing
magnetic field the orientation of the loop.
(c) AC generator (r) Mutual induction
(d) Transformer (s) Back emf
(A) (a) → (s); (b) → (p); (c) → (q); (d) → (r) (B) (a) → (r); (b) → (p); (c) → (q); (d) → (s)
(C) (a) → (p); (b) → (q); (c) → (r); (d) → (s) (D) (a) → (s); (b) → (p); (c) → (r); (d) → (q)
11. In an ac generator, when the plane of the armature is parallel to the magnetic field,
(A) both the magnetic flux and emf are maximum. (B) both magnetic flux and emf are zero.
(C) the magnetic flux is zero and emf is maximum. (D) magnetic flux is maximum and emf is zero
12. The figure shows a long straight current carrying wire placed along the axis
of a circular conducting ring. When viewed from above:

(A) the induced current in the ring is clockwise if the current through the wire is
increasing.
(B) the induced current in the ring is anticlockwise if the current through the wire is increasing.
(C) the induced current in the ring is clockwise if the current through the wire is decreasing.
(D) there is no induced current in the ring even when the current through the wire is changing.
13. The following figure shows a conducting rod moving
towards left on a rectangular conduction loop. The
whole setup is placed in a perpendicular magnetic field
pointing into the plane of the paper as shown.

(A) The direction of induced current in the left part is anticlockwise and in the right part is clockwise.
(B) The direction of induced current in the left part is clockwise and in the right part is anticlockwise.
(C) The direction of induced current in both the parts is anticlockwise.
(D) There is no induced current in the left part.
14. If the angular speed of the rotating armature of an ac generator is increased:
(A) the frequency of ac increases while the peak emf remains the same.
(B) the peak emf increases while the frequency of ac remains the same.
(C) both the frequency of ac and the maximum emf increase.
(D) both the frequency of ac and the maximum emf remain the same.
15. Consider the following two statements:
STATEMENT – I: When two coils are wound on each other, the mutual induction between the
coils is maximum.
STATEMENT – II: Mutual induction does not depend on the orientation of the coils.
Between the two statements:
(A) Statement – I is false and statement – II is true. (B) Both statements are true.
(C) Statement – I is true and statement – II is false. (D) Both statements are false.
 7. ALTERNATING CURRENT
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
(A) AC can be easily and efficiently stepped up or stepped down.
(B) It is economical to transmit dc over large distances.
(C) The average value of sinusoidal alternating current or voltage over a complete cycle is zero.
(D) The average power consumed by a ac circuit over a complete cycle may not be zero.
2. In a purely capacitive circuit, if the frequency of ac is doubled, the capacitive reactance will:
(A) get doubled (B) become four times
(C) get halved (D) remain constant.
3. The phenomena of resonance exhibited by an ac circuit:
(A) only if both L & C are present in the circuit. (B) only if both L & R are present in the circuit.
(C) only if both R & C are present in the circuit. (D) only R is present in the circuit.
4. The dimensional formula of LC is (L is self-inductance and C is capacitance)
(A) [T] (B) [T2] (C) [T-1] (D) [T-2]
5. The principle behind working of a transformer is:
(A) Eddy currents (B) Self-induction (C) Mutual induction (D) Hysteresis
6. The use of laminated core in a transformer reduces energy loss due to:
(A) flux leakage (B) coil resistance (C) hysteresis (D) Eddy currents
7. The frequency of ac is increased, the impedance of a series LCR circuit:
(A) continuously increases (B) continuously decreases
(C) first increases and then decreases (D) first decreases and then increases
8. Power factor for a purely resistive circuit is:
(A) zero (B) unity (C) infinity (D) 0.5
9. At resonance, a series LCR ac circuit behaves like a:
(A) purely capacitive circuit. (B) purely resistive circuit.
(C) purely inductive circuit (D) LC circuit
10. The power factor of a series LCR circuit is maximum when:
(A) = (B) =0 (C) > (D) <
11. At resonance, the voltage across resistance is equal to:
(A) the voltage across L (B) the voltage across C
(C) the applied voltage (D) the sum of voltages across L & C
12. For a transformer, = . This means that:
(A) the output current is 100 times the input current
(B) the transformer is a step-down transformer
(C) the output power is 100 times the input power.
(D) the input current is 100 times the output current.
13. The column – I lists the component through which alternating current is passed. The column – II
lists quantities related column – I. Match column – I with appropriate options form column – II:
COLUMN – I COLUMN – II
(a) Pure resistor (p) The current leads the voltage by π /2
(b) Pure capacitor (q) The current lags behind the voltage by π /2
(c) Pure Inductor (r) Reactance of the circuit is independent of frequency of ac.
(d) A series LCR circuit (s) average power dissipated over a complete cycle is non-zero.
(A) (a) → (r); (b) → (q); (c) → (p); (d) → (s) (B) (a) → (r,); (b) → (p); (c) → (q); (d) → (s)
(C) (a) → (s); (b) → (p); (c) → (q); (d) → (r) (D) (a) → (s); (b) → (q); (c) → (p); (d) → (r)
14. A light bulb and an open coil inductor are connected to an ac source through a key as shown in
the figure.

The switch is closed and after sometime, an iron rod is inserted into the interior of the inductor.
As the iron rod is inserted, the glow of the light bulb:
(A) decreases. (B) increases (C) is unchanged (D) may increase or decrease
15. The following figure represents the variation of voltage and current of an ac with time. The solid
line represents the instantaneous voltage while the dashed line represents the instantaneous
current.

From the figure, we can infer that the circuit is:

(A) purely resistive (B) purely inductive.
(C) a series LCR circuit with > . (D) a series LCR circuit with <

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(equal to unity, less than unity, greater than unity, zero, π/2, π)
1. The phase difference between voltage and current in the case of ac through a pure capacitor is
__________.
2. The power factor of a series LCR circuit at resonance is ____________.
3. At resonance of series LCR circuit, the voltage across combination of L and C is ______.
4. In a series LCR ac circuit, the current leads the voltage by π/3. The ratio between the inductive reactance
and the capacitive reactance for the circuit is ____________.
5. For a step-down transformer, the ratio of primary current to secondary current is __________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is the phase difference between the current and the voltage in the case of a (i) purely resistive
circuit and (ii) purely capacitive circuit?
2. What is the average power dissipated over a complete cycle of ac in the case of (i) purely resistive circuit
(ii) purely inductive circuit?
3. Write any two differences between inductive reactance and capacitive reactance.
4. An AC source of voltage is connected to a resistor. Draw phasor diagram and the sinusoidal voltage –
current waveforms for the circuit.
5. An AC source of voltage is connected to an ideal capacitor. Draw phasor diagram and the sinusoidal
voltage – current waveforms for the circuit.
6. An AC source of voltage is connected to an ideal inductor. Draw phasor diagram and the sinusoidal
voltage – current waveforms for the circuit.
7. What is capacitive reactance? How does it vary with the frequency of ac?
8. What is inductive reactance? How does it vary with the frequency of ac?
9. What is resonance of a series LCR circuit? Mention one application of resonance in series LCR circuits.
10. Draw impedance diagram for a series LCR circuit. Write the expression for the phase difference between
the current and the voltage.
11. What is a transformer? What is its working principle?
12. Give any two differences between step- up transformer and step- down transformer.
 8. ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Displacement current is produced due to
(A) Constant electric field (B) constant magnetic field
(C) Changing electric field (D) changing magnetic field
2. The expression for displacement is
∅ ∅ ∅ ∅
(A) id = (B) id = 0 ∈0 (C) id = 0 (D) id = ∈0
3. Electromagnetic wave theory was proposed by
(A) Michael Faraday (B) Luis de’Broglie (C) J C Maxwell (D) Albert Einstein
4. Choose the false statement.
(A) Electromagnetic waves are produced by accelerated charged particles.
(B) For electromagnetic waves = c where Eo and Bo are electric and magnetic field amplitudes.
(C) Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
(D) Electromagnetic waves can be deflected by electric field and magnetic field.
5. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by
E = E0sin (kx – ωt), B = B0 sin (kx – ωt) then
(A) E0B0 = ωk (B) E0ω = B0k (C) E0k = B0ω (D) = ωk
6. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating electromagnetic
wave?
(A) A chargeless particle (B) An accelerating charge
(C) A charge moving at constant velocity (D) A stationary charge
7. Which electromagnetic wave used in long range communication?
(A) Gamma rays (B) IR-rays (C) Radio waves (D) Micro waves
8. The increasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet and gamma rays (γ-rays)
is
(A) microwave, infrared, ultraviolet, γ- rays (B) γ- rays, ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
(C) microwaves, γ- rays, infrared, ultraviolet (D) infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, γ- rays
9. The ultraviolet region of the electromagnetic spectrum lies between
(A) x-ray region and visible region (B) gamma ray region and x-ray region
(C) visible region and microwave region (D) IR region and radio wave region
10. The wavelength range of x-rays is
(A) < 10–3 nm (B) 1 nm - 10–3 nm (C) 400 nm to 1nm (D) 0.1 m to 1 mm
11. The electromagnetic waves suitable for RADAR systems used in aircraft navigation are
(A) Gamma rays (B) Ultraviolet rays (C) Microwaves (D) Infrared waves
12. Statement i: Displacement current goes through the gap between the plates of a capacitor when
the charge on the plates of the capacitor does not change.
Statement ii: The displacement current arises in the region in which the electric field is constant
with time.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
13. Statement i: Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature.
Statement ii: The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are perpendicular to each
other and to the direction of propagation.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
14. Statement i: The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic properties of
the medium.
Statement ii: Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
15. Statement i: Infrared radiation plays an important role in maintaining the average temperature
of earth.
Statement ii: Infrared radiations are sometimes referred to as heat waves.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
16. Statement i: Microwaves are used in microwave ovens
Statement ii: The frequency of microwaves are matched with the resonant frequency of
water molecules.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the expression for displacement current and explain the terms.
2. Write Ampere-Maxwell’s equation and explain the terms.
3. What is displacement current? Write the expression for speed of light in vacuum in terms of permittivity
and permeability.
4. Give any two properties of electromagnetic waves.
5. How are electromagnetic waves formed? Explain.
6. Give any two applications of x-rays.
7. Give any two applications of uv-rays.
8. Give any two applications of IR-rays.
9. Give any two uses of micro waves.
10. Mention any two uses of radio waves.
11. Name the electromagnetic waves used for the following applications.
(a) The radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(b) The remote switches of household electronic systems such as TV.

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16
C D C D C B C B A B C D A B A A

********************************************************
 9. RAY OPTICS AND OPTICAL INSTRUMENTS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. In reflection of light, the angle of reflection is
(A) More than incident angle (B) less than incident angle
(C) Equal to angle of incidence (D) more or less than incident angle
2. Focal length of a spherical mirror depends on
(A) Object distance (B) image distance
(C) both object and image distances (D) radius of curvature
3. When an object is placed at infinity from a spherical mirror, the image is formed at
(A) infinity (B) principal focus (C) at centre of curvature (D) pole
4. The focal length of a spherical mirror is
(A) equal to radius of curvature (B) two times the radius of curvature
(C) half of the radius of curvature (C) not depends on radius of curvature
5. For reflection in spherical mirrors, all distances are measured from the
(A) pole (B) principal focus (C) centre of curvature (D) from object
6. In refraction of light
(A) =1 (B) = constant (C) × sin r = constant (D) = constant
7. For total internal reflection of light
(A) light should travel from rarer medium to denser medium
(B) light should travel from denser medium to rarer medium
(C) light should incident along the normal
(D) the angle of incidence should be equal to 90⁰.
8. An object of finite height is placed in front of a concave mirror within its focus. It forms
(A) a real enlarged image (B) a real diminished image
(C) a virtual enlarged image (D) a virtual diminished image
9. The speed of light in a medium depends on
(A) angle of incidence (B) angle of refraction
(C) refractive index (D) its mass density
10. Refractive index of a medium depends on
(A) thickness of the medium (B) angle of incidence
(C) mass density of the medium (D) none of above
11. When a light ray travels from rarer medium to denser medium, its
(A) velocity increases (B) velocity decreases
(C) wavelength increases (D) frequency decreases
12. Snell’s law fails in the case of
(A) when light travel from denser to rarer (B) oblique incidence
(C) when light travel from rarer to denser (D) normal incidence
13. The principle of optical fibres is
(A) reflection of light (B) refraction of light
(C) dispersion of light (D) total internal reflection
14. The focal length of a lens is depends on
i) refractive index of the material
ii) radii of curvature of two surfaces
iii) diameter of the aperture
 (A) only option i) is correct (B) only option i) and ii) are correct
(C) only ii and iii are correct (D) option i, ii and iii are correct
15. Two thin lenses of focal lengths f1 and f2 are in contact. The power of the combination is
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16. The angle of minimum deviation of a prism is depends on
(A) only angle of the prism (B) only refractive index of the prism
(C) angle of incidence (D) both angle of the prism and its refractive index
17. A ray of light is incident on glass-air interface at an angle greater than the critical angle for the
pair of media. Then the ray undergoes
(A) refraction only (B) partial reflection and partial refraction
(C) total internal reflection (D) grazes the surface at the interface of the two media
18. The magnification of a refracting telescope is
(A) (B) (C) fo + fe (D) fo.fe
19. A lens of large focal length and large aperture is best suited as an objective of an astronomical
telescope since
(A) a large aperture contributes to the quality and visibility of the images.
(B) a large area of the objective ensures better light gathering power.
(C) a large aperture provides a better resolution
(D) all of the above.
20. Statement i: A convex mirror is preferred over a plane mirror in vehicles to observe traffic coming
from behind.
Statement ii: Convex mirrors have large field of view and images of real objects formed by convex
mirrors are erect.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
21. Statement i: The image forms formed by total internal reflections are much brighter than those
formed by mirrors or lenses.
Statement ii: In total internal reflection, the light is completely reflected and there is no loss of
intensity of light.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Both the statements are wrong.
22. Statement i: The focal length of equiconvex lens of refractive index 1.5 placed in air is equal to
radius of curvature of either face.
Statement ii: For equi-convex lens radius of curvature of both the faces is same.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
23. Statement i: If a glass prism is immersed in water its angle of minimum deviation is increases.
Statement ii: Angle of minimum deviation of a prism is increases with increase in the refractive
index of the prism.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
 (B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
24. Statement i: In a simple microscope, the object is placed at distance slightly less than the focal
length of the objective lens.
Statement ii: When the object is placed within the focal point of a convex lens, enlarged, erect
image is formed.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
25. Statement i: In compound microscope, the focal length of objective lens is large whereas the focal
length of eyepiece is small.
Statement ii: The magnification of compound microscope varies inversely to the focal lengths of
both objective lens and eye lens.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not a correct explanation for statement i
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.
26. Statement i: In refracting telescope, the focal length of objective lens is large whereas the focal
length of eyepiece is small.
Statement ii: The magnification of refracting telescope directly proportional to the focal length of
objective lens and varies inversely with the focal length of eye lens.
(A) Statements i and ii both are correct and statement ii is a correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Statements i and ii both are correct but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statements i is correct but ii is wrong.
(D) Statements i is wrong but ii is correct.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(inversely , normal shift, parallel, critical angle, directly, total internal reflection)
1. The bottom of a swimming pool appears to be raised above is due to ____________.
2. Optical fibres are working on the principle of ___________.
3. For total internal reflection of light, the angle of incident must be greater than ___________.
4. At minimum deviation position, the refracted ray inside the prism is ________ to the base of the prism.
5. The magnification of compound microscope is ____________ proportional to focal length of eye lens.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS

1. State the laws of reflection.
2. State the laws of refraction.
3. Give the conditions for total internal reflection.
4. Mention the relation between refractive index and critical angle.
5. What are optical fibres? What is the principle of optical fibres?
6. Mention the factors on which focal length of a lens depends.
7. Define power of the lens and give its SI unit.
8. Write the expression for refractive index of the prism in terms of angle of the prism and angle of
minimum deviation.
9. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in simple microscope when the object is at near point.
10. Draw the ray diagram of image formation in simple microscope when the object is at infinity.
ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
C D B C A D B C C D B D D
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26
B B D C A D B A A D B D A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Normal shift, 2. Total internal reflection, 3. Critical angle, 4. Parallel, 5. Inversely proportional

************************************************************

10. WAVE OPTICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Wave theory of light is proposed by
(A) Isaac Newton (B) Christiaan Huygens (C) Foucault (D) Snell
2. According to Huygen’s principle, the speed of the secondary wavelets is
(A) Twice that of the wave (B) zero
(C) same as the wave (D) infinite
3. To observe sustained interference pattern on a screen placed at a suitable distance in Young’s
double slit experiment, which of the following condition/s is/are necessary?
(i) Sources of light should be coherent.
(ii) Sources of light should be narrow.
(ii) Sources of light should be very close.
(A) only (i) (B) both (i) and (ii) (C) both (ii) and (iii) (D) all (i), (ii) and (iii)
4. Two light sources are said to be coherent when both the sources of light emit light of
(A) The same amplitude and phase (B) The same intensity and wavelength
(C) The same speed (D) The same wavelength and constant phase
difference
5. In Young’s double-slit experiment with monochromatic light, how is fringe width affected, if the
screen is moved closer to the slits?
(A) Independent (B) Remains the same (C) Increases (D) Decreases
6. What would be the resultant intensity at a point of destructive interference, if there are two
identical coherent waves of intensity I0 producing an interference pattern?
(A) 5 I0 (B) 2 I0 (C) zero (D) I0
7. Diffraction effect is exhibited by ________.
(A) only sound waves (B) only light waves (C) only matter waves (D) all types of waves
8. In single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is made double of its original width. Then
the central maximum of the diffraction pattern will become
(A) narrower and fainter (B) narrower and brighter
(C) broader and fainter (D) broader and brighter
9. What is the cause of diffraction?
(A) Interference of primary wavelets (B) Interference of secondary wavelets
(C) Reflection of primary wavelets (D) Reflection of secondary wavelets
10. Which of the following phenomenon confirms the transverse nature of light waves.
(A) Polarization of light (B) Diffraction of light
(C) Dispersion of light (D) Refraction of light
11. Statement i: Wavefronts obtained from light emitted by a point source in an isotropic medium are
always spherical
Statement ii: Speed of light in isotropic medium is constant.
(A) Both the statements are true and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Both the statements are true but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false.
(D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.
12. Statement i: Interference is not observed if the two coherent slit are broad.
Statement ii: A broad source is equivalent to many narrow slit sources.
(A) Both the statements are true and statement ii is the correct explanation for statement i.
(B) Both the statements are true but statement ii is not correct explanation for statement i.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false. (D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.
13. Statement i: When a thin transparent sheet is placed in front of both the slits of Young's
experiment, the fringe width will remains same.
Statement ii: In Young's experiment, the fringe width is directly proportional to wavelength of
the source
(A) Both statement i) and ii) are true and ii) is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) Both statements are true but ii) is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(C) Statement i) is true but ii) is false.
(D) Both statements i) and ii) are false.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(diffraction, decreases, spherical, interference, increases, polarisation)
1. A wavefront coming from a point source of light is a __________ wavefront.
2. In Young’s double slit experiment if the blue light is replaced by a red light, then the fringe width will
be _______________.
3. The modification in the distribution of light intensity due to superposition of two or more light wave is
called ______________of light.
4. The colours on a compact disc is due to _____________ light.
5. If the light from an ordinary sodium lamp is passes through a polaroid sheet. Then the intensity of
emergent light will ______________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is a wavefront? Name the wavefront emitted by a point source.
2. Write the conditions for constructive interference in terms of phase difference.
3. Write the conditions for constructive interference in terms of path difference.
4. Write the conditions for destructive interference in terms of phase difference.
5. Write the conditions for destructive interference in terms of path difference.
6. Write the expression for fringe width of interference pattern in Young’s double slit experiment and
explain the terms.
7. State and explain Malus’ law of polarization of light.
 11. DUAL NATURE OF RADIATION AND MATTER

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. Cathode ray particles are same as
(A) Protons (B) Electrons (C) α – particles (D) Neutrons
2. In discharge tube, the cathode ray particles will travel with the speed of
(A) 3 × 108ms-1 (B) 6 × 107ms-1 (C) 2 × 108ms-1 (D) 2 × 107ms-1
3. The sufficient energy by the electron to overcome the attractive pull of metal surface is called
(A)Work function (B) Photoelectric effect (C) Stopping Potential(D) Field emission
4. Some alkali metals emit electrons when they are just illuminated by
(A) UV rays (B) visible light (C) X-rays (D) Gamma rays
5. Some metals emit electrons when they are just illuminated by
(A) Infrared rays (B) Microwaves (C) UV rays (D) visible light
6. The graph of photoelectric current versus intensity of incident radiation (for υ > υ0)
(A) A straight line with y-intercept (B) A straight line with x-intercept
(C) A straight line passing through origin (D) A non-linear curve
7. In photoelectric effect, the time lag of electron emission is
(A)10-9s (B) 10-5s (C) 10-8 s (D) 105s
8. The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is independent of _____________ of the particle.
(A) Charge (B) Mass (C) Speed (D) momentum
9. Emission of electrons from a metal surface by heating is called
(A) Photoelectric emission (B) Thermionic emission
(C) Field emission (D) Secondary emission
10. In photoelectric effect experiment if only the frequency of incident radiation is increased, then
(A) The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons decreases.
(B) The stopping potential increases
(C) The photoelectric current increases
(D) The photoelectric current decreases
11. Which experiment proved that the charge is quantized?
(A) Oil drop experiment (B) Davisson and Germer experiment
(C) α-ray scattering experiment (D) Franck – Hertz experiment
12. The particle behavior of light was confirmed by following experiments
i) A H Compton, on scattering of X-rays from electrons
ii) A Einstein, for photoelectric effect
iii) Millikan, for charge of electrons
iv) J.J Thomson’s, on discharge tube experiment
Choose the correct option
(A) (i), (ii) & (iii) (B) (i), (ii) & (iv) (C) (ii), (iii) & (iv) (D) all of the above
13. Photon energy is independent of
(A) Intensity of radiation (B) frequency of radiation
(C) wavelength of radiation (D) none of these
14. In a photon-particle collision, which of the following is conserved
(A) Only total energy is conserved (B) Only total momentum is conserved
(C) Both total momentum and total energy are conserved
(D) Neither total momentum nor total energy is conserved
15. The gathering and focusing mechanism of light by the eye lens is described by
(A) Wave nature of light (B) Particle nature of light
(C) Both A & B (D) neither A nor B
16. Macroscopic particles in our daily life do not show wave-like properties, because
(A) They are not associated with waves (B) Their wavelength is extremely high
(C) Their wavelength is zero (D) Their wavelength is negligibly small
17. The absorption of light energy by retina of eye is described by
(A) Wave nature of light (B) Particle nature of light
(C) Both A & B (D) neither A nor B
18. The value of e/m was found to be
i) Dependent on nature of metal.
ii) Independent of the nature of metal
iii) Dependent on the gas in discharge tube
iv) Independent on the gas in discharge tube.
Choose the correct option
(A) (i) and (iv) (B) (ii) and (iv) (C) (i) and (iii) (D) (ii) and (iii)
19. The following statements relating wave theory to explain photoelectric emission are
Statement – I: The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron is directly proportional to
intensity of light.
Statement – II: The frequency of radiation does not depend on photoelectric emission.
(A) Both I and II are true and II is the correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not the correct explanation of I.
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false
20. The slope of stopping potential (V0) versus frequency (υ) in Einstein’s Photoelectric equation is
(A) ϕ0/ h (B) h/e (C) ϕ0/h (D) h/e2
21. In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength of incident radiation is reduced from 6000Å to
5000Å then
(A) the frequency will decrease
(B) Stopping potential will increase
(C) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons will decrease
(D) the value of work function will increase
22. Which of the following figures represents the variation of particle momentum with associated De
Broglie wavelength?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

P P P P

λ λ λ λ

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(kinetic energy, Heinrich Hertz, intensity, wave, particle, photon)
1. The phenomenon of photoelectric emission was discovered by ______________
2. Stopping potential is the measure of _________________ of liberated electrons
3. The Maxwell’s equations of electromagnetism established the __________ nature of light.
 the photoemission of electrons and work function of the metal surface. Given: Planck’s constant
h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg. [υ0 = 4.55 × 1014 Hz, ϕo = 1.88 Ev or
3.01 × 10-19 J]
6. A monochromatic source of light of power 36 W emits photons of wavelength 589 nm. Calculate (a)
Energy of photon emitted by the source (b) Number of photons emitted by the source in one second
[ E = 3.37 × 10-19 J, N = 10.67 × 1019 photons/s]
7. Light of frequency 7.21 × 1014 Hz is incident on a metal surface. The cut-off wavelength for photoelectric
emission from the metal surface is 540 nm. Calculate the speed of the photoelectrons emitted from the
surface. Given: Planck’s constant h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js and mass of electron m = 9.1 × 10-31 kg.
[ v = 4.91 × 105 ms-1]
8. When light of wavelength 400 nm is incident on a photosensitive surface, the stopping potential for the
photoelectrons emitted is found to be 0.96 V. When light of wavelength 500 nm is incident on the same
photosensitive surface, the stopping potential is found to be 0.34 V. Calculate the Planck’s constant.
Given: speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1 and electronic charge e = 1.6 × 10-19 C.
[h = 6.625 × 10-34 Js]
ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
B B A B C C A A B C A C A C A D B B A B B D

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. Heinrich Hertz, 2. kinetic energy, 3. wave, 4. photon, 5. Intensity

********************************************************************************************

12. ATOMS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. The condensed matter and dense gases at all temperature emit electromagnetic radiation due to
(A) High temperature (B) Oscillations of atoms and molecules
(C) Head on collision between atoms and molecules (D) None of these
2. The source of α-particle in Geiger-Marsden experiment is
(A) radium-226 (B) bismuth - 214 (C) radon - 222 (D) cobalt - 60
3. The thickness of gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
(A) 1.1 mm (B) 1.2 × 10-4mm (C) 2.1 × 10-4mm (D) 2.1 cm
4. The detector in α-particle scattering experiment is coated with
(A) silver nitrate screen (B) phosphorescent (C) barium sulphide (D)zinc sulphide
5. The light emitted by mercury vapour lamp is due to
Statement I: Interaction between the individual atoms
Statement II: The average spacing between the atoms is large
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
6. From kinetic theory, the size of an atom was known to be
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-14 m (C) 10-18 m (D) 10-22 m
7. The size of atom is about ___________ times larger than the size of the nucleus
(A) 102 to 103 (B)103 to 104 (C) 104 to 105 (D)105 to 106
8. The α-particles are nuclei of
(A) H-atom (B) H+ - atom (C) He – atom (D) He2+ - atom
9. Rutherford α-particles scattering experiment determines the size of
(A) Nucleus (B) Electron (C) Proton (D) Neutron
10. The negative sign in Electrostatic Potential energy of an electron signifies that
(A) Potential energy of an electron is unstable (B) Electrostatic force is in the – r direction.
(C) Kinetic energy of all electron is constant (D) None of these.
11. The emission line spectrum is a characteristics of
(A) a molecule (B) a solid (C) an atom (D) a liquid
12. The emission line spectrum serves as
(A) Paper print of gases (B) Photo print of gases
(C) Colour print of gases (D) Finger print of gases
13. Bohr’s atomic model imitates
(A) sun-earth system (B) earth-moon system (C) sun-planet system (D) sun-comet system
14. The principal quantum number for Bohr Radius is
(A) n2 = 4 (B) n2 = 9 (C) n2 = 1 (D) n2 = 16
15. The minimum energy required to free the electron from the ground state of the hydrogen atom is
called
(A) first excitation energy (B) zero potential energy
(C) excitation energy (D) ionisation energy
16. According to Louis De Broglie, waves associated with orbital electrons are
(A) Progressive wave (B) Stationary wave (C) Longitudinal wave (D) Continuous wave
17. Bohr model is applicable to
(A) H atom (B) He+ atom (C) Li++ atom (D) All of these
18. For an electron revolving around the nucleus,
(A) kinetic energy and potential energy are positive, total energy is negative
(B) kinetic energy is positive, potential energy and total energy are negative
(C) potential energy is negative, kinetic energy and total energy are positive
(D) kinetic energy and potential energy are negative, total energy is positive.
19. Statement I: The atom is electrically neutral.
Statement II: An atom contains some positive charge to neutralize few negative charge of the
electrons
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
20. Statement I: Many of α-particles pass through the gold foil in α-particle scattering experiment
Statement II: Only about 14% of the incident α-particles scatter by more than 10.
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.
21. When an electron in Hydrogen atom revolves in stationary orbit, it
(A) does not radiate energy though its velocity changes
(B) does not radiate energy and velocity remains unchanged
(C) radiates energy but its velocity is unchanged
 (D) radiates energy with the change of velocity
22. Radius of first orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.53Å. The radius of its fourth orbit will be
(A) 0.193Å (B) 4.25Å (C) 2.12Å (D) 8.48Å
23. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
(A) potential energy increases and kinetic energy decreases
(B) potential energy decreases and kinetic energy increases
(C) Both kinetic energy and potential energy increases
(D) Both kinetic energy and potential energy decreases
24. According to classical theory,
Statement I: The electron will fall into the nucleus
Statement II: An accelerated electron emits radiation in circular path
(A) Both I and II are true and II is correct explanation of I
(B) Both I and II are true but II is not correct explanation of I
(C) I is true but II is false
(D) Both I and II are false.

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(Nucleus, -13.6eV, +13.6eV, Different, Dark, Bright)
1. The entire mass of an atom is concentrated in a small volume called _______________.
2. Energy of the electron in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is _____________.
3. Ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is __________________
4. Line emission spectrum consist of bright line on a _____________background.
5. Line absorption spectrum consist of dark line on a ____________ background.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the two limitations of Bohr’s atom model.
2. Mention the different types of atomic model.
3. What is ionization energy of an electron? Give its value for ground state of H atom.
4. What is the energy for highest energy state in H atom? How does energy states arranged as principal
quantum number increases.
5. What does the negative sign in total energy of the electron signifies? What happens if total energy is
positive?
6. What is Bohr radius? Write its formula.
7. Mention the expression for energy of the nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom. Explain its terms.
8. Draw the trajectories traced by different alpha particles in Geiger – Marsden experiment .
9. Calculate the energy required to excite an electron from ground state to second excited state. [ 12.09 eV]

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the three postulates of Bohr’s atom model
2. Give De-Broglie’s explanation of Bohr’s second postulate of quantization of angular momentum
3. Draw the neat diagram representing the Schematic arrangement of Geiger-Marsden setup for the alpha
particle scattering.
4. Define impact parameter. What are the angle of scattering for a) minimum impact parameter; b) larger
impact parameter
5. Explain J J Thomson’s plum pudding model on atomic structure.
6. Draw neat labeled diagram for energy level of H atom.
FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:
1. Derive an expression for energy of an electron in nth stationary orbit of hydrogen atom by assuming
the expression for radius.
2. A Hydrogen atom initially in the ground level absorbs a photon, which excites it to the n = 4 level.
Determine the wavelength and frequency of photon. [ λ = 9.75 × 10-8 m, υ = 3.08 × 1015 Hz]
3. Using the Bohr’s model calculate the speed of the electron in the hydrogen atom in n = 1, 2 levels and
also calculate the orbital period in each of these levels.
[ v1 = 2.18 × 106 ms-1, T1 = 1.528 × 10-16 s, v2 = 1.09 × 106 ms-1, T2 = 12.22 × 10-16 s]
4. It is found experimentally that 13.6eV energy is required to separate a hydrogen atom into a proton and
an electron. Compute the orbital radius and the velocity of the electron in a hydrogen atom.
[ r = 5.3 × 10-11 m, v = 2.2 × 106 ms-1]
5. In a Geiger Marsden experiment, what is the distance of closest approach to the nucleus of a 7.7 MeV,
α-particle before it comes momentarily to rest and reverses its direction? [ d = 30 fm]
6. The electron in a given Bohr orbit has a total energy of – 1.5 eV. Calculate its a) kinetic energy b)
potential energy c) wavelength of emitted light, when the electron makes a transition to the ground state.
Given: Ground state energy = – 13.6 eV. [ K = 1.5 eV, U = – 3eV, λ = 1022.7 Å]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
B B C D A A C D A B C D
13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
C C D B D B B C A D A A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1.nucleus 2. -13.6eV, 3. +13.6eV 4. dark 5. bright
********************************************************************************************

13. NUCLEI
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Nucleus of an atom whose atomic mass is 24 consists of
(A) 11 electrons, 11 protons and 13 neutrons (B) 11 electrons, 13 protons and 11 neutrons
(C) 11 protons and 13 neutrons (D) 11 protons and 13 electrons
2. Isotopes are atoms having
(A) Same number of protons but different number of neutrons
(B) Same number of neutrons but different number of protons
(C) Same number of protons and neutrons
(D) None of the above
3. The radius of a nucleus of a mass number A is directly proportional to
(A) A3 (B) A (C) A2/3 (D) A1/3
4. Which of the following is correct for nuclear forces
(A) Short ranged attractive and charge independent
(B) Short ranged attractive and charge dependent
(C) Long ranged repulsive and charge independent
(D) Long ranged repulsive and charge dependent
5. Density of any nucleus is
(A) 2.29 × 1010 kgm-3 (B) 2.29 × 1017 kgm-3 (C) 2.29 × 1012 kgm-3 (D) 2.29 × 1013 kgm-3
6. Binding energy of a nucleus is
(A) Energy given to its nucleus during its formation
(B) Total mass of nucleus converted to energy units
(C) Energy required to break a nucleus into constituent nucleons
(D) Total K.E. and P.E. of the nucleons in the nucleus
7. The binding energy per nucleon is maximum in the case of
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8. For effective nuclear forces, the distance should be
(A) 10-10 m (B) 10-13 m (C) 10-15 m (D) 10-10 m
9. The -particle is the nucleus of an atom of
(A) Neon (B) Hydrogen (C) Helium (D) Deuterium
10. Radioactivity is
(A) Reversible process (B) Self disintegration process
(C) Spontaneous process (D) Both (B) and (C)
11. Radioactive substance emits
(A) α-rays (B) β- rays (C) γ-rays (D) All of the above
12. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(A) Atoms are ionised at high temperature
(B) Molecules break-up at high temperature
(C) Nuclei break-up at high temperature
(D) Kinetic energy is high enough to overcome repulsion between nuclei
13. The explosion of the atomic bomb takes place due to
(A) Nuclear fission (B) Nuclear fusion (C) Scattering (D) Thermionic emission
14. Energy generation in stars is mainly due to
(A) Photo emission (B) Fission of heavy nuclei
(C) Fusion of light nuclei (D) Fusion of heavy nuclei
15. Fusion reaction is initiated with the help of
(A) Low temperature (B) High temperature (C) Neutrons (D) Any particle
16. In nucleus, there are
(A) 138 protons and 88 neutrons (B) 138 neutrons and 88 protons
(C) 226 protons and 88 electrons (D) 226 neutrons and 138 electrons
17. The mass and energy equivalent to 1 a.m.u. respectively
(A) 1.67 × 10-27 g, 9.315 MeV (B) 1.67 × 10-31 g, 1 MeV
(C) 1.67 ×10-27 g, 1 MeV (D) 1.67 × 10-27 kg, 931.5 MeV
18. Mn and Mp represent mass of neutron and proton respectively. If an element having atomic mass
M has N-neutron and Z-proton, then the correct relation will be
(A) M  [NMn  ZMP ] (B) M  [NMn  ZMP ]
(C) M  [NMn  ZMP ] (D) M  N[Mn  MP ]
19. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 × 10-15 m. The net force between them is F1 , if both are
neutrons, F2 if both are protons and F3 if one is a proton and other is a neutron. In such a cas
(A) F2 > F1 > F3 (B) F2 > F1 = F3 (C) F1 = F2 = F3 (D) F2 < F1 < F3
20. Which of the following is the fusion reaction
(A) 1H
2
 1 H 2  2 He 4 (B) 0n
1
 7 N 14  6 C 14  1 H 1

(C) 0n
1
 92 U 238  93 Np 239   1   (D) 1H
3
 2 He 3   1  

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(nuclear fission, independent, 26.7 MeV, atomic mass unit, mass spectrometer, nuclear fusion)

1. ________________ is of mass of the carbon-12 atom in stable state.

2. The instrument is used to measure the atomic masses is _____________.

3. The nuclear density is ____________ of its mass number.
4. The source of energy in nuclear reactors, which produce electricity is _____________.
5. Four hydrogen atoms combine to form an atom with a release of ___________ of energy.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What are isotopes? Give an example.
2. What are isobars? Give an example.
3. What are isotones? Give an example.
4. Write the expression for mass defect. Explain the terms.
5. What is nuclear binding energy? Explain.
6. What is meant by binding energy per nucleon? Explain.
7. Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature. Why?
8. What are controlled and uncontrolled chain reactions?
9. What is a controlled thermonuclear fusion? Explain.
10. What is the radius of a nucleus of mass number 27? Given R0=1.2 f m. [ 3.6 fm]

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write the names and formula of isotopes of hydrogen.
2. Show that 1 atomic mass unit (u) = 1.66 × 10-27 kg
3. How the size of the nucleus is experimentally determined? Explain.
4. Explain Einstein’s mass-energy relation.
5. Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy as a function of their separation. What is the
significance of negative potential energy in this graph?
6. What is nuclear fission? Explain with example.
7. What is nuclear fusion? Explain with example.
8. Two nuclei have mass numbers in the ratio 8 : 125. What is the ratio of their nuclear radii? [ 2 : 5]
9. Calculate the mass defect of oxygen nucleus ( )using the following data in Mev: Mass of proton =
1.007825 u; Mass of neutron =1.008665 u; Mass of oxygen nucleus = 15.995, u [ 0.13692 u]
10. Mass defect of chlorine ( ) nucleus is 0.31092 u. Calculate binding energy and binding energy per
nucleon of an chlorine nucleus. [ 289.466 MeV, 8.2704 MeV]

FIVE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Explain the features of binding energy curve.
2. Distinguish between nuclear fission and nuclear fusion.
3. What is a nuclear force? Write any four characteristics of nuclear force.
4. Calculate the binding energy per nucleon of the nucleus , given that nuclear mass of Bi is
208.980388u, mass of proton = 1.007825u, mass of neutron = 1.008665u. [ 7.641 MeV]
5. Calculate energy released in joule when 2 gram of undergoes fission completely as per the
following equation. + → + + 3 + energy.
6. Given: rest mass of U = 235.044 u; rest mass of Ba141 = 140.920 u; rest mass of Kr92 = 91.885 u; rest
235

mass of = 1.009 u. [ 1.688 × 1011 J]

7. How long can an electric lamp of 100 W be kept glowing by fusion of 2.0 kg deuterium? The fusion
reaction can be taken as + → + + 3.27 MeV [ 4.99 × 104 years]

ANSWER KEYS TO MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
C A D A B C B C C D D D A C B B D A C A

ANSWERS TO FIBS:
1. atomic mass unit 2. mass spectrometer 3. independent 4. nuclear fission 5. 26.7 MeV.

*********************************************************************************

14. SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Following pairs of elemental semiconductors
(A) Silicon and aluminium (B) silicon and germanium
(C) germanium and cadmium (D) aluminium and cadmium
2. The energy band determines the electrical conductivity of the material is
(A) Conduction band (B) energy gap
(C) valence band (D) all the above
3. In an intrinsic semiconductor, number of free electros is
(A) Greater than number of holes (B) lesser than number of holes
(C) equal to number of holes (D) more than number of atoms.
4. The electrical conductivity of pure germanium can be increased by
(A) increasing the temperature (B) doping with acceptor impurities
(C) doping with donor impurities (D) all the above
5. When the electrical conductivity of a semiconductor is due to the breaking of its covalent bonds,
then the semiconductor is said to be
(A) Donor (B) Acceptor (C) Intrinsic (D) Extrinsic
6. The valence of an impurity added to germanium crystal in order to convert it into a P-type
semiconductor is
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
7. The majority charge carriers in P-type semiconductor are
(A) Electrons (B) Protons (C) Holes (D) Neutrons
8. A semiconductor dopped with a donor impurity is
(A) p-type (B) n-type (C) npn type (D) pnp type
9. A P-type semiconductor can be obtained by adding
(A) Arsenic to pure silicon (B) Gallium to pure silicon
(C) Antimony to pure germanium (D) Phosphorous to pure germanium
10. The thickness of depletion layer is approximately
(A) 1 µm (B) 1 mm (C) 1 cm (D) 1m
11. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
(A) If the junction is forward-biased (B) If the junction is reverse-biased
(C) if the junction is unbiased (D) both (A) and (B)
12. When a PN junction diode is reverse biased
(A) Electrons and holes are attracted towards each other and move towards the depletion region
(B) Electrons and holes move away from the junction depletion region
(C) Height of the potential barrier decreases
(D) No change in the current takes place
13. The cut-in voltage for silicon diode is approximately
(A) 0.2 V (B) 0.7 V (C) 1.1 V (D) 1.4 V
14. The PN junction diode is used as
(A)An amplifier (B) A rectifier (C) An oscillator (D) A modulator
15. The output of the full wave rectifier is
(A) Pure AC (B) pure DC (C) pulsating DC (D) pulsating AC
16. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are Eg1 , Eg 2 and
Eg 3 respectively. The relation among them is
(A) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3 (B) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3
(C) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3 (D) Eg1  Eg2  Eg3
17. The energy band gap in Germanium and silicon in eV respectively is
(A) 0.7, 1.1 (B) 1.1, 0.7 (C) 1.1, 0 (D) 0, 1.1
14 3
18. In a semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is 8 10 / cm and that of the holes is 5  1012 cm3 .
The semiconductor is
(A) p-type (B) n-type (C) Intrinsic (D) pnp-type
19. Which of the following energy band diagram shows the N-type semiconductor
Conduction Conduction
band (CB) band (CB)
(A) (B)
Impurity
Eg 1eV 1eV level
Valance Valance
band (VB) band (VB)

Valance
Valance
band (VB)
band (VB)
(C) Impurity
(D) 1eV
1eV
level
Conduction
Conduction
band (CB)
band (CB)
20. Which is the correct diagram of a half-wave rectifier
+ +

(A) (B)
– –

+ +

(C) (D)
– –

FILL IN THE BLANKS:

(depletion region, electrons, saturation current, one, valence band, holes )
1. ______________is the lower band which is completely occupied by the 4N valence electron at
temperature of absolute zero.
2. The ratio of number of holes to number of electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor is _________.
3. In n-type semiconductor, the number of __________ is more than the number of holes.
4. _____________ is the space charge region on either side of the junction where no mobile charge carriers
are present.
5. In a reverse biased p-n junction, the current through the circuit is called reverse ______________.

TWO MARK QUESTIONS:

1. Write two advantages of semiconductor devices over vacuum tubes.
2. Explain the formation of energy bands in solid.
3. What is forbidden energy band? Explain
4. What is a semiconductor? Give an example.
5. Name the types of semiconductors.
6. What is an intrinsic semiconductor? Give an example.
7. Draw the energy band diagram of an intrinsic semiconductor.
8. What is meant by doping? What are dopants?
9. Name two types of extrinsic semiconductors.
10. Explain how a hole in a semiconductor is formed?
11. Why majority charge carriers increase on doping a pure semiconductor?
12. Draw the energy band diagram of p-type semiconductor.
13. Draw the energy band diagram of n-type semiconductor.
14. Mention two important processes occur during the formation of p-n junction.
15. Give the circuit symbol of a p-n junction diode. Mention the significance of arrow in it.
16. What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction diode when it is
(i) forward biased and (ii) reverse biased?
17. What is the resistance of an ideal diode when (i) forward biased and (ii) reverse biased?
18. Under what condition does a p-n junction diode work as (i) a closed switch and (ii) an open switch.

THREE MARK QUESTIONS:

1. What is the order of the resistivity in a (i) conductor (ii) semiconductor (iii) insulator.
2. Define valence band, conduction band and energy gap.