1.10.

2 Module Quiz – Networking Today Answers – CCNA 1 v7

Module 1 Quiz
1. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?
 BYOD requires organizations to purchase laptops rather than desktops.
 BYOD users are responsible for their own network security, thus reducing the need for
organizational security policies.
 BYOD devices are more expensive than devices that are purchased by an organization.
 BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.

Explanation: A BYOD environment requires an organization to accommodate a variety of

devices and access methods. Personal devices, which are not under company control, may
be involved, so security is critical. Onsite hardware costs will be reduced, allowing a business
to focus on delivering collaboration tools and other software to BYOD users.

2. An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest
possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote
access to a company network?
 ACL
 IPS
 VPN
 BYOD

Explanation: Virtual private networks (VPN) are used to provide secure access to remote
workers.

3. What is the Internet?

 It is a network based on Ethernet technology.
 It provides network access for mobile devices.
 It provides connections through interconnected global networks.
 It is a private network for an organization with LAN and WAN connections.

Explanation: The Internet provides global connections that enable networked devices
(workstations and mobile devices) with different network technologies, such as Ethernet,
DSL/cable, and serial connections, to communicate. A private network for an organization
with LAN and WAN connections is an intranet.

4. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

 They originate the data that flows through the network.
 They direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures.
 They filter the flow of data to enhance security.
 They are the interface between humans and the communication network.
 They provide the channel over which the network message travels.

Explanation: End devices originate the data that flows through the network. Intermediary
devices direct data over alternate paths in the event of link failures and filter the flow of data
to enhance security. Network media provide the channel through which network messages
travel.

5. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

 an Internet cafe in a city
 a farm in a rural area without wired broadband access
 any home with multiple wireless devices
 an apartment in a building with cable access to the Internet

Explanation: Wireless Internet Service Providers (WISPs) are typically found in rural areas
where DSL or cable access is not available. A dish or antenna on the property of the
subscriber connects wirelessly to a WISP transmitter, eliminating the need for physical
cabling outside the building.

6. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and
applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to
existing users?
 reliability
 scalability
 quality of service
 accessibility

Explanation: Networks must be able to quickly grow to support new users and services,
without impacting existing users and services. This ability to grow is known as scalability.

7. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the
ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a
fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data
center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a
very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is
shown here?
 quality of service (QoS)
 scalability
 security
 fault tolerance
 integrity

Explanation: Fault tolerance is the characteristic of a network which allows it to quickly

respond to failures of network devices, media, or services. Quality of service refers to the
measures taken to ensure that network traffic requiring higher throughput receives the
required network resources. Scalability refers to the ability of the network to grow to
accommodate new requirements. Security refers to protecting networks and data from theft,
alteration, or destruction. Integrity refers to the completeness of something and is generally
not used as a characteristic of networks in the same way as the other terms.

8. What are two characteristics of a scalable network? (Choose two.)

 easily overloaded with increased traffic
 grows in size without impacting existing users
 is not as reliable as a small network
 suitable for modular devices that allow for expansion
 offers limited number of applications

Explanation: Scalable networks are networks that can grow without requiring costly
replacement of existing network devices. One way to make a network scalable is to buy
networking devices that are modular.

9. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should
take through internetworks?
 a router
 a firewall
 a web server
 a DSL modem

Explanation: A router is used to determine the path that the messages should take through
the network. A firewall is used to filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A DSL modem is used
to provide Internet connection for a home or an organization.

10. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to
the building? (Choose two.)
 DSL
 cellular
 satellite
 dialup
 dedicated leased line

Explanation: Cellular connectivity requires the use of the cell phone network. Satellite
connectivity is often used where physical cabling is not available outside the home or
business.

11. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?
 an intranet
 the Internet
 an extranet
 a local area network

Explanation: Home users will go online shopping over the Internet because online vendors
are accessed through the Internet. An intranet is basically a local area network for internal
use only. An extranet is a network for external partners to access certain resources inside an
organization. A home user does not necessarily need a LAN to access the Internet. For
example, a PC connects directly to the ISP through a modem.

12. During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was
installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited
by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?
 DoS attack
 identity theft
 spyware
 zero-day attack

Explanation: Spyware is software that is installed on a network device and that collects
information.

13. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices
by suppliers, customers and collaborators?
 Internet
 intranet
 extranet
 extendednet

Explanation: The term Internet refers to the worldwide collection of connected networks.
Intranet refers to a private connection of LANs and WANS that belong to an organization and
is designed to be accessible to the members of the organization, employees, or others with
authorization. Extranets provide secure and safe access to suppliers, customers, and
collaborators. Extendednet is not a type of network.

14. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network
resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does
this describe?
 cloud computing
 online collaboration
 bring your own device
 video conferencing

Explanation: BYOD allows end users to use personal tools to access the corporate network.
Allowing this trend can have major impacts on a network, such as security and compatibility
with corporate software and devices.

15. What is an ISP?

 It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.
 It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.
 It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the
Internet.
 It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking
devices in one.
Explanation: An ISP, or Internet Service Provider, is an organization that provides access to
the Internet for businesses and individuals.

3.8.2 Module Quiz – Protocols and Models Answers

1. What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable
message?
 access control
 decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control

Explanation: Decoding is the process of receiving transmitted data and reversing the
encoding process to interpret the information. An example is a person that listens to a
voicemail and decodes the sounds to understand the received message.

2. What is done to an IP packet before it is transmitted over the physical medium?

 It is tagged with information guaranteeing reliable delivery.
 It is segmented into smaller individual pieces.
 It is encapsulated into a TCP segment.
 It is encapsulated in a Layer 2 frame.

Explanation: When messages are sent on a network, the encapsulation process works from
the top of the OSI or TCP/IP model to the bottom. At each layer of the model, the upper layer
information is encapsulated into the data field of the next protocol. For example, before an IP
packet can be sent, it is encapsulated in a data link frame at Layer 2 so that it can be sent
over the physical medium.

3. What process is used to place one message inside another message for transfer
from the source to the destination?
 access control
 decoding
 encapsulation
 flow control

Explanation: Encapsulation is the process of placing one message format into another
message format. An example is how a packet is placed in its entirety into the data field as it is
encapsulated into a frame.

4. A web client is sending a request for a webpage to a web server. From the
perspective of the client, what is the correct order of the protocol stack that is used to
prepare the request for transmission?
 HTTP, IP, TCP, Ethernet
 HTTP, TCP, IP, Ethernet
 Ethernet, TCP, IP, HTTP
 Ethernet, IP, TCP, HTTP

Explanation:
1. HTTP governs the way that a web server and client interact.
2. TCP manages individual conversations between web servers and clients.
3. IP is responsible for delivery across the best path to the destination.
4. Ethernet takes the packet from IP and formats it for transmission.

5. What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two.)
 It assists in protocol design.
 It speeds up packet delivery.
 It prevents designers from creating their own model.
 It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.
 It ensures a device at one layer can function at the next higher layer.

Explanation: Some vendors have developed their own reference models and protocols.
Today, if a device is to communicate on the Internet, the device must use the TCP/IP model.
The benefits of using a layered model are as follows:

 assists in protocol design

 fosters competition between vendors
 prevents a technology that functions at one layer from affecting any other layer
 provides a common language for describing network functionality
 helps in visualizing the interaction between each layer and protocols between each
layer

6. What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?
 specifying the bandwidth of the channel or medium for each type of communication
 specifying the device operating systems that will support the communication
 providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occur
 dictating the content of the message sent during communication

Explanation: Protocols provide rules that define how a message is transmitted across a
network. Implementation requirements such as electronic and bandwidth details for data
communication are specified by standards. Operating systems are not specified by protocols,
but will implement protocols. Protocols determine how and when to send a message but they
do not control the contents of a message.

7. Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

 destination MAC address
 destination IP address
 destination port number
 source MAC address
 source IP address

Explanation: The destination IP address is used for end-to-end delivery of data to a remote
network. The destination MAC address is used for delivery on a local network. The
destination port number identifies the application that should process the data at the
destination. Source addresses identify the sender of the data.

8. What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a
networking model?
 frame
 packet
 protocol data unit
 segment

Explanation: The term protocol data unit (PDU) is used to describe a piece of data at any
layer of a networking model. A packet is the PDU at the network layer. A frame is the data link
layer PDU. A segment is the PDU at the transport layer.

9. Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two.)

 POP
 BOOTP
 ICMP
 IP
 PPP
Explanation: ICMP and IP both function at the internet layer, whereas PPP is a network
access layer protocol, and POP and BOOTP are application layer protocols.

10. Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for
individual communications between end devices?
 application
 presentation
 session
 transport
 network

Explanation: The OSI model consists of seven layers: application, presentation, session,
transport, network, data link, and physical. The transport layer defines services to segment,
transfer, and reassemble the data for individual communications between the end devices.

11. Which type of communication will send a message to a group of host destinations
simultaneously?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 anycast

Explanation: Multicast is a one-to-many communication where the message is delivered to a

specific group of hosts. Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast
communication is a one-to-one communication. Anycast is an IPv6 term and is the sending of
data in a one-to-nearest communication.

12. Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose

three.)
 IANA
 TCP/IP
 IEEE
 IETF
 OSI
 MAC

Explanation: TCP/IP is a protocol stack that contains a lot of other protocols such as HTTP,
FTP, and DNS. The TCP/IP protocol stack is required to be used when communicating on the
Internet. A MAC address is an address that is burned into an Ethernet network card. OSI is
the 7 layer model that is used to explain how networking works.

13. What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area
network?
 broadcast
 multicast
 unicast
 allcast

Explanation: Broadcast communication is a one-to-all communication. A unicast

communication is a one-to-one communication. Multicast is a one-to-many communication
where the message is delivered to a specific group of hosts. Allcast is not a standard term to
describe message delivery.

14. In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

 to convert information to the appropriate form for transmission
 to interpret information
 to break large messages into smaller frames
 negotiate correct timing for successful communication
Explanation: Before a message is sent across a network it must first be encoded. Encoding
is the process of converting the data message into another format suitable for transmission
across the physical medium. Each bit of the message is encoded into a pattern of sounds,
light waves, or electrical impulses depending on the network media over which the bits are
transmitted. The destination host receives and decodes the signals in order to interpret the
message.

15. Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same
message simultaneously?
 duplex
 unicast
 multicast
 broadcast

Explanation: When all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously, the
message would be delivered as a broadcast. Unicast delivery occurs when one source host
sends a message to one destination host. The sending of the same message from a host to a
group of destination hosts is multicast delivery. Duplex communications refers to the ability of
the medium to carry messages in both directions.

16. What three requirements are defined by the protocols used in network
communcations to allow message transmission across a network? (Choose three.)
 connector specifications
 message encoding
 media selection
 message size
 delivery options
 end-device installation
17. What type of delivery uses data link layer addresses?
 remote delivery
 local and remote delivery
 local delivery
 remote delivery using routers
18. What layer of the TCP/IP protocol model determines the best path through the
network?
 application
 transport
 internet
 network access

4.7.4 Module Quiz – Physical Layer Answers

1. Which standards organization oversees development of wireless LAN standards?
 IANA
 IEEE
 IOS
 TIA

Explanation: IANA oversees the management of IP address allocation and domain names.
ISO is the largest developer of international networking standards and is famous for the Open
Systems Interconnection (OSI) model. TIA focuses on communication standards. The IEEE
802 standards are many, but the ones that affect an entry-level network professional are
Ethernet (802.3), wireless LANs (802.11), and wireless PANs (802.15).

2. A network administrator is designing a new network infrastructure that includes

both wired and wireless connectivity. Under which situation would a wireless
connection be recommended?
 The end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC.
 The end-user device requires a dedicated connection because of performance
requirements.
 The end-user device needs mobility when connecting to the network.
 The end-user device area has a high concentration of RFI.

Explanation: When the end-user devices need mobility to connect to the network, wireless is
recommended. If an end-user device only has an Ethernet NIC, the user will only be able to
use Ethernet cabling. If RFI is an issue, wireless is not recommended. An end-user device
that requires a dedicated connection for performance would perform better with a dedicated
Ethernet cable.

3. A network administrator is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a server. Using a

tester, the administrator notices that the signals generated by the server NIC are
distorted and not usable. In which layer of the OSI model is the error categorized?
 presentation layer
 network layer
 physical layer
 data link layer

Explanation: The NIC has responsibilities in both Layer 1 and Layer 2. The NIC encodes the
frame as a series of signals that are transmitted onto the local media. This is the responsibility
of the physical layer of the OSI model. The signal could be in the form of electrical, optical, or
radio waves.

4. What type of cable is used to connect a workstation serial port to a Cisco router
console port?
 crossover
 rollover
 straight-through
 coaxial

Explanation: UTP cable wire pairs can be terminated in different configurations for use in
different applications. To use a UTP cable for consoling into a Cisco router from a PC serial
port, it must be terminated as a rollover or console cable.

5. Which type of UTP cable is used to connect a PC to a switch port?

 console
 rollover
 crossover
 straight-through

Explanation: A rollover cable is a Cisco proprietary cable used to connect to a router or

switch console port. A straight-through (also called patch) cable is usually used to
interconnect a host to a switch and a switch to a router. A crossover cable is used to
interconnect similar devices together, for example, between two switches, two routers, and
two hosts.

6. What is the definition of bandwidth?

 the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given period of time
 the speed at which bits travel on the network
 the amount of data that can flow from one place to another in a given amount of
time
 the measure of usable data transferred over a given period of time

Explanation: Bandwidth is the measure of the capacity of a network medium to carry data. It
is the amount of data that can move between two points on the network over a specific period
of time, typically one second.

7. Which statement correctly describes frame encoding?

 It uses the characteristic of one wave to modify another wave.
 It transmits data signals along with a clock signal which occurs at evenly spaced time
durations.
 It generates the electrical, optical, or wireless signals that represent the binary numbers
of the frame.
 It converts bits into a predefined code in order to provide a predictable pattern to
help distinguish data bits from control bits.

Explanation: Frame encoding converts a stream of data bits into a predefined code that is
recognized by both the sender and receiver. These codes are used for a variety of purposes,
such as distinguishing data bits from control bits, and identifying the beginning and end of a
frame.

8. What is a characteristic of UTP cabling?

 cancellation
 cladding
 immunity to electrical hazards
 woven copper braid or metallic foil

Explanation: Cladding and immunization from electrical hazards are characteristics for fiber-
optic cabling. A woven copper braid or metallic foil is used as a shield for the inner coaxial
cable conductor. Cancellation is a property of UTP cabling where two wires are located
adjacent to one another so each magnetic field cancels out the adjacent magnetic field.

9. A wireless LAN is being deployed inside the new one room office that is occupied by
the park ranger. The office is located at the highest part of the national park. After
network testing is complete, the technicians report that the wireless LAN signal is
occasionally affected by some type of interference. What are two possible causes of
the signal distortion? (Choose two.)
 the microwave oven
 the large number of trees that surround the office
 the cellular phones that are used by the employees
 the elevated location where the wireless LAN was installed
 the number of wireless devices that are used in the wireless LAN

Explanation: Wireless LAN connectivity is not affected by trees or the elevation of the
equipment. Because this is a one room office in an isolated area, there will not be a large
number of wireless devices or source of interference operating in the immediate vicinity, apart
from a cellular phone or a microwave oven.

10. What is indicated by the term throughput?

 the guaranteed data transfer rate offered by an ISP
 the capacity of a particular medium to carry data
 the measure of the usable data transferred across the media
 the measure of the bits transferred across the media over a given period of time
 the time it takes for a message to get from sender to receiver

Explanation: Throughput is the measure of the transfer of bits across the media over a given
period of time. Throughput is affected by a number of factors such as, EMI and latency, so it
rarely matches the specified bandwidth for a network medium. The throughput measurement
includes user data bits and other data bits, such as overhead, acknowledging, and
encapsulation. The measure of the usable data transferred across the media is called
goodput.

11. What is one advantage of using fiber optic cabling rather than copper cabling?
 It is usually cheaper than copper cabling.
 It is able to be installed around sharp bends.
 It is easier to terminate and install than copper cabling.
 It is able to carry signals much farther than copper cabling.
Explanation: Copper cabling is usually cheaper and easier to install than fiber optic cabling.
However, fiber cables generally have a much greater signaling range than copper.

12. What is the purpose of the OSI physical layer?

 controlling access to media
 transmitting bits across the local media
 performing error detection on received frames
 exchanging frames between nodes over physical network media

Explanation: The physical layer is responsible for transmitting the actual signals across the
physical media as bits. Exchanging frames, controlling media access, and performing error
detection are all functions of the data link layer.

13. Why are two strands of fiber used for a single fiber optic connection?
 The two strands allow the data to travel for longer distances without degrading.
 They prevent crosstalk from causing interference on the connection.
 They increase the speed at which the data can travel.
 They allow for full-duplex connectivity.

Explanation: Light can only travel in one direction down a single strand of fiber. In order to
allow for full-duplex communication two strands of fiber must be connected between each
device.

14. Which characteristic describes crosstalk?

 the distortion of the network signal from fluorescent lighting
 the distortion of the transmitted messages from signals carried in adjacent wires
 the weakening of the network signal over long cable lengths
 the loss of wireless signal over excessive distance from the access point

Explanation: EMI and RFI can distort network signals because of interference from
fluorescent lights or electric motors. Attenuation results in deterioration of the network signal
as it travels along copper cabling. Wireless devices can experience loss of signals because of
excessive distances from a access point, but this is not crosstalk. Crosstalk is the disturbance
caused by the electric or magnetic fields of the signal carried on an adjacent wire within the
same cable.

15. Which procedure is used to reduce the effect of crosstalk in copper cables?
 requiring proper grounding connections
 twisting opposing circuit wire pairs together
 wrapping the bundle of wires with metallic shielding
 designing a cable infrastructure to avoid crosstalk interference
 avoiding sharp bends during installation

Explanation: In copper cables, crosstalk is a disturbance caused by the electric or magnetic

fields of a signal on one wire interfering with the signal in an adjacent wire. Twisting opposing
circuit wire pairs together can effectively cancel the crosstalk. The other options are effective
measures to counter the negative effects of EMI and RFI, but not crosstalk.

16. Which statement describes a characteristic of the frame header fields of the data
link layer?
 They all include the flow control and logical connection fields.
 Ethernet frame header fields contain Layer 3 source and destination addresses.
 They vary depending on protocols.
 They include information on user applications.

Explanation: All data link layer protocols encapsulate the Layer 3 PDU within the data field of
the frame. However, the structure of the frame and the fields that are contained in the header
vary according to the protocol. Different data link layer protocols may use different fields, like
priority/quality of service, logical connection control, physical link control, flow control, and
congestion control.

17. Which two factors influence the method that is used for media access control?
(Choose two.)
 how data is generated by end devices applications
 how the connection between nodes appears to the data link layer
 how signals are encoded by the NICs on end devices
 how nodes share the media
 how the IP protocol forwards the packet to the destination
18. What is a characteristic of a WAN hub-and-spoke topology?
 It requires that some of the branch sites be interconnected through point-to-point links.
 It requires that every site be interconnected to each other through point-to-point links.
 All sites require a hub device that connects to a router.
 The branch sites are connected to a central site through point-to-point links.

6.4.2 Module Quiz – Data Link Layer Answers

1. What are two services performed by the data link layer of the OSI model? (Choose
two.)
 It encrypts data packets.
 It determines the path to forward packets.
 It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.
 It provides media access control and performs error detection.
 It monitors the Layer 2 communication by building a MAC address table.

Explanation: The data link layer is responsible for the exchange of frames between nodes
over a physical network media. Specifically the data link layer performs two basic services:

 It accepts Layer 3 packets and encapsulates them into frames.

 It provides media access control and performs error detection.

Path determination is a service provided at Layer 3. A Layer 2 switch builds a MAC address
table as part of its operation, but path determination is not the service that is provided by the
data link layer.

2. What does a router do after de-encapsulating a received frame?

 determines the best path
 de-encapsulates the frame
 re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
 forwards the new frame onto the network medium

Explanation: Routers are responsible for encapsulating a frame with a proper format for the
physical network media the routers connect. At each hop along the path, a router does the
following:
1. Accepts a frame from a medium
2. De-encapsulates the frame
3. Determines the best path to forward the packet
4. Re-encapsulates the packet into a new frame
5. Forwards the new frame appropriate to the medium of that segment of the physical network

3. What attribute of a NIC would place it at the data link layer of the OSI model?
 attached Ethernet cable
 IP address
 MAC address
 RJ-45 port
 TCP/IP protocol stack
Explanation: The data link layer describes media access and physical addressing. The
encoding of a MAC address on a NIC places it at that layer. Ports and cables are placed at
the physical layer of the OSI model. IP addresses are placed at the network layer. The
TCP/IP protocol stack describes a different model.

4. Although CSMA/CD is still a feature of Ethernet, why is it no longer necessary?

 the virtually unlimited availability of IPv6 addresses
 the use of CSMA/CA
 the use of full-duplex capable Layer 2 switches
 the development of half-duplex switch operation
 the use of Gigabit Ethernet speeds

Explanation: The use of Layer 2 switches operating in full-duplex mode eliminates collisions,
thereby eliminating the need for CSMA/CD.

5. What type of physical topology can be created by connecting all Ethernet cables to a
central device?
 bus
 ring
 star
 mesh

Explanation: Devices connected to the Ethernet star topology connect to either a hub or a
switch.

6. A technician has been asked to develop a physical topology for a network that
provides a high level of redundancy. Which physical topology requires that every node
is attached to every other node on the network?
 bus
 hierarchical
 mesh
 ring
 star

Explanation: The mesh topology provides high availability because every node is connected
to all other nodes. Mesh topologies can be found in WANs. A partial mesh topology can also
be used where some, but not all, end points connect to one another.

7. Which statement describes the half-duplex mode of data transmission?

 Data that is transmitted over the network can only flow in one direction.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction at a time.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in one direction to many different
destinations simultaneously.
 Data that is transmitted over the network flows in both directions at the same time.

Explanation: The data that is transmitted over the network can flow using one of three
modes:

 Simplex – Data can only flow in one direction.

 Half-duplex – Data flows in one direction at a time.
 Full-duplex – Data flows in both directions at the same time.

8. Which is a function of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer?
 to define the media access processes that are performed by the hardware
 to provide data link layer addressing
 to identify which network layer protocol is being used
 to accept segments and package them into data units that are called packets
Explanation: Defining the media access processes that are performed by the hardware and
providing data link layer addressing are functions of the MAC sublayer. The data link layer
accepts Layer 3 packets and packages them into data units that are called frames.

9. Which data link layer media access control method does Ethernet use?
 CSMA/CD
 determinism
 turn taking
 token passing

Explanation: CSMA/CD is used by Ethernet networks. CSMA/CA is used by 802.11-based

wireless networks.

10. What are the two sublayers of the OSI model data link layer? (Choose two.)
 internet
 physical
 LLC
 transport
 MAC
 network access

Explanation: The data link layer of the OSI model is divided into two sublayers: the Media
Access Control (MAC) sublayer and the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer.

11. What method is used to manage contention-based access on a wireless network?

 CSMA/CD
 priority ordering
 CSMA/CA
 token passing

Explanation: Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance (CSMA/CA) is used with
wireless networking technology to mediate media contention. Carrier sense multiple access
with collision detection (CSMA/CD) is used with wired Ethernet technology to mediate media
contention. Priority ordering and token passing are not used (or not a method) for media
access control.

12. What identifier is used at the data link layer to uniquely identify an Ethernet device?
 IP address
 MAC address
 sequence number
 TCP port number
 UDP port number

Explanation: Ethernet frames are identified at the data link layer by their MAC addresses,
which are unique to each NIC. IP addresses are used at the network layer, and TCP and UDP
port numbers are used at the transport layer. Sequence numbers are fields in TCP headers.

13. Which two engineering organizations define open standards and protocols that
apply to the data link layer? (Choose two.)
 International Organization for Standardization (ISO)
 Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA)
 International Telecommunication Union (ITU)
 Electronic Industries Alliance (EIA)
 Internet Society (ISOC)

Explanation: The IANA is responsible for overseeing and managing IP address allocation,
domain name management, and protocol identifiers. The EIA is an international standards
and trade alliance for electronics organizations, and is best known for its standards related to
electrical wiring, connectors, and the 19-inch racks used to mount networking equipment. The
ISOC promotes the open development, evolution, and use of the Internet throughout the
world.

14. Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for specifying the encapsulation
method used for specific types of media?
 application
 transport
 data link
 physical

Explanation: Encapsulation is a function of the data link layer. Different media types require
different data link layer encapsulation.

15. What is true concerning physical and logical topologies?

 The logical topology is always the same as the physical topology.
 Physical topologies are concerned with how a network transfers frames.
 Physical topologies display the IP addressing scheme of each network.
 Logical topologies refer to how a network transfers data between devices.

Explanation: Physical topologies show the physical interconnection of devices. Logical

topologies show the way the network will transfer data between connected nodes.

7.5.2 Module Quiz – Ethernet Switching Answers

1. What will a host on an Ethernet network do if it receives a frame with a destination
MAC address that does not match its own MAC address?
 It will discard the frame.
 It will forward the frame to the next host.
 It will remove the frame from the media.
 It will strip off the data-link frame to check the destination IP address.

Explanation: In an Ethernet network, each NIC in the network checks every arriving frame to
see if the destination MAC address in the frame matches its own MAC address. If there is no
match, the device discards the frame. If there is a match, the NIC passes the frame up to the
next OSI layer.

2. What is auto-MDIX?
 a type of Cisco switch
 an Ethernet connector type
 a type of port on a Cisco switch
 a feature that detects Ethernet cable type

Explanation: Auto-MDIX is a feature that is enabled on the latest Cisco switches and that
allows the switch to detect and use whatever type of cable is attached to a specific port.

3. Which two functions or operations are performed by the MAC sublayer? (Choose
two.)
 It is responsible for Media Access Control.
 It performs the function of NIC driver software.
 It adds a header and trailer to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.
 It handles communication between upper and lower layers.
 It adds control information to network protocol layer data.

Explanation: The MAC sublayer is the lower of the two data link sublayers and is closest to
the physical layer. The two primary functions of the MAC sublayer are to encapsulate the data
from the upper layer protocols and to control access to the media.

4. What type of address is 01-00-5E-0A-00-02?

 an address that reaches every host inside a local subnet
 an address that reaches one specific host
 an address that reaches every host in the network
 an address that reaches a specific group of hosts

Explanation: The multicast MAC address is a special value that begins with 01-00-5E in
hexadecimal. It allows a source device to send a packet to a group of devices.

5. What happens to runt frames received by a Cisco Ethernet switch?

 The frame is dropped.
 The frame is returned to the originating network device.
 The frame is broadcast to all other devices on the same network.
 The frame is sent to the default gateway.

Explanation: In an attempt to conserve bandwidth and not forward useless frames, Ethernet
devices drop frames that are considered to be runt (less than 64 bytes) or jumbo (greater than
1500 bytes) frames.

6. What are the two sizes (minimum and maximum) of an Ethernet frame? (Choose
two.)
 56 bytes
 64 bytes
 128 bytes
 1024 bytes
 1518 bytes

Explanation: The minimum Ethernet frame is 64 bytes. The maximum Ethernet frame is
1518 bytes. A network technician must know the minimum and maximum frame size in order
to recognize runt and jumbo frames.

7. What addressing information is recorded by a switch to build its MAC address table?
 the destination Layer 3 address of incoming packets
 the destination Layer 2 address of outgoing frames
 the source Layer 3 address of outgoing packets
 the source Layer 2 address of incoming frames

Explanation: A switch builds a MAC address table by inspecting incoming Layer 2 frames
and recording the source MAC address found in the frame header. The discovered and
recorded MAC address is then associated with the port used to receive the frame.

8. Which two characteristics describe Ethernet technology? (Choose two.)

 It is supported by IEEE 802.3 standards.
 It is supported by IEEE 802.5 standards.
 It typically uses an average of 16 Mb/s for data transfer rates.
 It uses the CSMA/CD access control method.
 It uses a ring topology.

Explanation: The 802.3 Ethernet standard specifies that a network implement the CSMA/CD
access control method.

9. What statement describes a characteristic of MAC addresses?

 They must be globally unique.
 They are only routable within the private network.
 They are added as part of a Layer 3 PDU.
 They have a 32-bit binary value.

Explanation: Any vendor selling Ethernet devices must register with the IEEE to ensure the
vendor is assigned a unique 24-bit code, which becomes the first 24 bits of the MAC address.
The last 24 bits of the MAC address are generated per hardware device. This helps to ensure
globally unique addresses for each Ethernet device.

10. What is the special value assigned to the first 24 bits of a multicast MAC address?
 01-5E-00
 FF-00-5E
 FF-FF-FF
 01-00-5E

Explanation: Just as with multicast IP addresses, there is a special assigned value for
multicast MAC addresses. The first 24 bits are set in hex to: 01-00-5E. The remaining 6 hex
digits are derived from the lower 23 bits of the IP multicast.

11. Which network device makes forwarding decisions based on the destination MAC
address that is contained in the frame?
 repeater
 hub
 switch
 router

Explanation: Switches are the central connection point for a LAN and they maintain a MAC
address table. The MAC address table has a port number associated with a MAC address for
each particular device. The switch inspects a frame to look at the destination MAC address.
The switch then looks in its MAC address table and if that MAC address is found, the switch
forwards the data to the port that is associated with that particular MAC address.

12. Which network device has the primary function to send data to a specific
destination based on the information found in the MAC address table?
 hub
 router
 switch
 modem

Explanation: If a MAC address is found in the MAC address table, then data is sent to the
associated switch port. If the MAC address is not found in the MAC address table, the data is
sent to all switch ports that have devices attached to the same network.

13. Which function or operation is performed by the LLC sublayer?

 It performs data encapsulation.
 It communicates with upper protocol layers.
 It is responsible for media access control.
 It adds a header and trailer to a packet to form an OSI Layer 2 PDU.

Explanation: The Ethernet LLC sublayer has the responsibility to handle communication
between the upper layers and the lower layers of the protocol stack. The LLC is implemented
in software and communicates with the upper layers of the application to transition the packet
to the lower layers for delivery.

14. Which statement is true about MAC addresses?

 MAC addresses are implemented by software.
 A NIC only needs a MAC address if connected to a WAN.
 The first three bytes are used by the vendor assigned OUI.
 The ISO is responsible for MAC addresses regulations.

Explanation: A MAC address is composed of 6 bytes. The first 3 bytes are used for vendor
identification and the last 3 bytes must be assigned a unique value within the same OUI. MAC
addresses are implemented in hardware. A NIC needs a MAC address to communicate over
the LAN. The IEEE regulates the MAC addresses.
8.6.2 Module Quiz – Network Layer Answers
1. Which command can be used on a Windows host to display the routing table?
 netstat -s
 show ip route
 netstat -r
 tracert

Explanation: On a Windows host, either the route print or netstat -r commands can be
used to display the host routing table. The show ip route command is used on a router to
display its routing table. The netstat –s command is used to display per-protocol statistics.
The tracert command is used to display the path that a packet travels to its destination.

2. What information is added during encapsulation at OSI Layer 3?

 source and destination MAC
 source and destination application protocol
 source and destination port number
 source and destination IP address

Explanation: IP is a Layer 3 protocol. Layer 3 devices can open the Layer 3 header to
inspect the Layer 3 header which contains IP-related information including the source and
destination IP addresses.

3. How does the network layer use the MTU value?

 The network layer depends on the higher level layers to determine the MTU.
 The network layer depends on the data link layer to set the MTU, and adjusts the speed
of transmission to accommodate it.
 The MTU is passed to the network layer by the data link layer.
 To increase speed of delivery, the network layer ignores the MTU.

Explanation: The data link layer indicates to the network layer the MTU for the medium that
is being used. The network layer uses that information to determine how large the packet can
be when it is forwarded. When packets are received on one medium and forwarded on a
medium with a smaller MTU, the network layer device can fragment the packet to
accommodate the smaller size.

4. Which characteristic describes an IPv6 enhancement over IPv4?

 IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit flat addressing as opposed to IPv4 which is based
on 32-bit hierarchical addressing.
 The IPv6 header is simpler than the IPv4 header is, which improves packet
handling.
 Both IPv4 and IPv6 support authentication, but only IPv6 supports privacy capabilities.
 The IPv6 address space is four times bigger than the IPv4 address space.

Explanation: IPv6 addresses are based on 128-bit hierarchical addressing, and the IPv6
header has been simplified with fewer fields, improving packet handling. IPv6 natively
supports authentication and privacy capabilities as opposed to IPv4 that needs additional
features to support those. The IPv6 address space is many times bigger than IPv4 address
space.

5. When a connectionless protocol is in use at a lower layer of the OSI model, how is
missing data detected and retransmitted if necessary?
 Connectionless acknowledgements are used to request retransmission.
 Upper-layer connection-oriented protocols keep track of the data received and can
request retransmission from the upper-level protocols on the sending host.
 Network layer IP protocols manage the communication sessions if connection-oriented
transport services are not available.
 The best-effort delivery process guarantees that all packets that are sent are received.
Explanation: When connectionless protocols are in use at a lower layer of the OSI model,
upper-level protocols may need to work together on the sending and receiving hosts to
account for and retransmit lost data. In some cases, this is not necessary, because for some
applications a certain amount of data loss is tolerable.

6. What was the reason for the creation and implementation of IPv6?
 to make reading a 32-bit address easier
 to relieve IPv4 address depletion
 to provide more address space in the Internet Names Registry
 to allow NAT support for private addressing

Explanation: IPv4 addressing space is exhausted by the rapid growth of the Internet and the
devices connected to the Internet. IPv6 expands the IP addressing space by increasing the
address length from the 32 bits to 128 bits, which should provide sufficient addresses for
future Internet growth needs for many years to come.

7. Which statement accurately describes a characteristic of IPv4?

 All IPv4 addresses are assignable to hosts.
 IPv4 has a 32-bit address space.
 An IPv4 header has fewer fields than an IPv6 header has.
 IPv4 natively supports IPsec.

Explanation: IPv4 has a 32-bit address space, providing 4,294,967,296 unique addresses,
but only 3.7 billion are assignable, a limit due to address reservation for multicasting and
testing. IPv4 does not provide native support for IPsec. IPv6 has a simplified header with
fewer fields than IPv4 has.

8. Which field in an IPv4 packet header will typically stay the same during its
transmission?
 Flag
 Time-to-Live
 Packet Length
 Destination Address

Explanation: The value in the Destination Address field in an IPv4 header will stay the same
during its transmission. The other options might change during its transmission.

9. When a router receives a packet, what information must be examined in order for the
packet to be forwarded to a remote destination?
 destination MAC address
 source IP address
 destination IP address
 source MAC address

Explanation: When a router receives a packet, it examines the destination address of the
packet and uses the routing table to search for the best path to that network.

10. Which field in an IPv6 packet is used by the router to determine if a packet has
expired and should be dropped?
 TTL
 Hop Limit
 Address Unreachable
 No Route to Destination

Explanation: ICMPv6, like IPv4, sends a Time Exceeded message if the router cannot
forward an IPv6 packet because the packet has expired. However, the IPv6 packet does not
have a TTL field. Instead, it uses the Hop Limit field to determine if the packet has expired.
11. Which information is used by routers to forward a data packet toward its
destination?
 source IP address
 destination IP address
 source data-link address
 destination data-link address

Explanation: The destination IP address is the IP address for the receiving device. This IP
address is used by routers to forward the packet to its destination.

12. A computer has to send a packet to a destination host in the same LAN. How will
the packet be sent?
 The packet will be sent to the default gateway first, and then, depending on the response
from the gateway, it may be sent to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will first be sent to the default gateway, and then from the default gateway it
will be sent directly to the destination host.
 The packet will be sent only to the default gateway.

Explanation: If the destination host is in the same LAN as the source host, there is no need
for a default gateway. A default gateway is needed if a packet needs to be sent outside the
LAN.

13. A router receives a packet from the Gigabit 0/0 interface and determines that the
packet needs to be forwarded out the Gigabit 0/1 interface. What will the router do
next?
 route the packet out the Gigabit 0/1 interface
 create a new Layer 2 Ethernet frame to be sent to the destination
 look into the ARP cache to determine the destination IP address
 look into the routing table to determine if the destination network is in the routing table

Explanation: Once a router receives a packet and looks inside the header to determine the
destination network, the router compares the destination network to the routing table to
determine if the packet is to be routed or dropped. If routed, the router attaches a new Layer 2
header based on the technology that is used by the outgoing port that is used. The packet is
then routed out the destination port as designated by the routing table. The ARP cache is
used to match an IP address with a MAC address.

14. Which IPv4 address can a host use to ping the loopback interface?
 126.0.0.1
 127.0.0.0
 126.0.0.0
 127.0.0.1

Explanation: A host can ping the loopback interface by sending a packet to a

special IPv4 address within the network 127.0.0.0/8.

9.4.2 Module Quiz – Address Resolution

1. Which destination address is used in an ARP request frame?
 0.0.0.0
 255.255.255.255
 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF
 127.0.0.1
 01-00-5E-00-AA-23

Explanation: The purpose of an ARP request is to find the MAC address of the destination
host on an Ethernet LAN. The ARP process sends a Layer 2 broadcast to all devices on the
Ethernet LAN. The frame contains the IP address of the destination and the broadcast MAC
address, FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

2. What addresses are mapped by ARP?

 destination MAC address to a destination IPv4 address
 destination IPv4 address to the source MAC address
 destination IPv4 address to the destination host name
 destination MAC address to the source IPv4 address

Explanation: ARP, or the Address Resolution Protocol, works by mapping a destination MAC
address to a destination IPv4 address. The host knows the destination IPv4 address and uses
ARP to resolve the corresponding destination MAC address.

3. What will a Layer 2 switch do when the destination MAC address of a received frame
is not in the MAC table?
 It initiates an ARP request.
 It broadcasts the frame out of all ports on the switch.
 It notifies the sending host that the frame cannot be delivered.
 It forwards the frame out of all ports except for the port at which the frame was
received.

Explanation: A Layer 2 switch determines how to handle incoming frames by using its MAC
address table. When an incoming frame contains a destination MAC address that is not in the
table, the switch forwards the frame out all ports, except for the port on which it was received.

4. Which two ICMPv6 messages are used during the Ethernet MAC address resolution
process? (Choose two.)
 router solicitation
 router advertisement
 neighbor solicitation
 neighbor advertisement
 echo request

Explanation: IPv6 uses neighbor solicitation (NS) and neighbor advertisement (NA) ICMPv6
messages for MAC address resolution.

5. Which router component holds the routing table, ARP cache, and running
configuration file?
 RAM
 Flash
 NVRAM
 ROM

Explanation: The routing table, ARP cache, and running configuration file are stored in
volatile RAM.

6. What type of information is contained in an ARP table?

 switch ports associated with destination MAC addresses
 domain name to IP address mappings
 routes to reach destination networks
 IP address to MAC address mappings

Explanation: ARP tables are used to store mappings of IP addresses to MAC addresses.
When a network device needs to forward a packet, the device knows only the IP address. To
deliver the packet on an Ethernet network, a MAC address is needed. ARP resolves the MAC
address and stores it in an ARP table.
7. A PC is configured to obtain an IP address automatically from network
192.168.1.0/24. The network administrator issues the arp –a command and notices an
entry of 192.168.1.255 ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff. Which statement describes this entry?
 This is a static map entry.
 This is a dynamic map entry.
 This entry refers to the PC itself.
 This entry maps to the default gateway.

Explanation: The IP address of 192.168.1.255 on the 192.168.1.0/24 network is the

broadcast address, which is statically mapped to ff-ff-ff-ff-ff-ff in the ARP table.

8. A cybersecurity analyst believes an attacker is spoofing the MAC address of the

default gateway to perform a man-in-the-middle attack. Which command should the
analyst use to view the MAC address a host is using to reach the default gateway?
 ipconfig /all
 route print
 netstat -r
 arp -a

Explanation: ARP is a protocol used with IPv4 to map a MAC address to an associated
specific IP address. The command arp -a will display the MAC address table on a Windows
PC.

9. What is a function of ARP?

 resolving MAC addresses to IPv4 addresses
 resolving port addresses to MAC addresses
 resolving MAC addresses to port addresses
 resolving IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses

Explanation: Resolving IPv4 addresses to MAC addresses is one function of ARP. ARP is
also responsible for maintaining the ARP table.

10. What is the purpose of ARP in an IPv4 network?

 to forward data onward based on the destination IP address
 to obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known
 to forward data onward based on the destination MAC address.
 to build the MAC address table in a switch from the information that is gathered.

Explanation: ARP performs two functions:

 To obtain a specific MAC address when an IP address is known, by broadcasting an

ARP request message to all devices on a particular Ethernet network
 To use the gathered information to create a viewable table of IP address to MAC
address mappings

11. Which action is taken by a Layer 2 switch when it receives a Layer 2 broadcast
frame?
 It drops the frame.
 It sends the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.
 It sends the frame to all ports that are registered to forward broadcasts.
 It sends the frame to all ports.

Explanation: When a Layer 2 switch receives a frame with a broadcast destination address,
it floods the frame to all ports except the port on which it received the frame.

12. When an IP packet is sent to a host on a remote network, what information is

provided by ARP?
 the IP address of the destination host
 the IP address of the default gateway
 the MAC address of the router interface closest to the sending host
 the MAC address of the switch port that connects to the sending host

Explanation: When a host sends an IP packet to a destination on a different network, the

Ethernet frame cannot be sent directly to the destination host because the host is not directly
reachable in the same network. The Ethernet frame must be sent to another device known as
the router or default gateway in order to forward the IP packet. ARP is used to discover the
MAC address of the router (or default gateway) and use it as the destination MAC address in
the frame header.

13. How does the ARP process use an IP address?

 to determine the MAC address of the remote destination host
 to determine the MAC address of a device on the same network
 to determine the amount of time a packet takes when traveling from source to destination
 to determine the network number based on the number of bits in the IP address

Explanation: The ARP process is used to complete the necessary mapping of IP and MAC
addresses that are stored in the ARP table that is maintained by each node on a LAN. When
the destination device is not on the same network as the source device, the MAC address of
the Layer 3 device on the the source network is discovered and added to the ARP table of the
source node.

14. The ARP table in a switch maps which two types of address together?
 Layer 3 address to a Layer 2 address
 Layer 3 address to a Layer 4 address
 Layer 4 address to a Layer 2 address
 Layer 2 address to a Layer 4 address

Explanation: The switch ARP table keeps a mapping of Layer 2 MAC addresses to Layer 3
IP addresses. These mappings can be learned by the switch dynamically through ARP or
statically through manual configuration.

15. What is one function of the ARP protocol?

 obtaining an IPv4 address automatically
 mapping a domain name to its IP address
 resolving an IPv4 address to a MAC address
 maintaining a table of domain names with their resolved IP addresses

Explanation: The two main functions of the ARP protocol are to resolve an IPv4 address to a
MAC address and to maintain an ARP table, which lists the resolved pairs of IPv4 address
and MAC address. A device automatically obtains an IP address through DHCP. The
functions of DNS include resolving (or mapping) a domain name with its IP address and
maintaining a table for the domain name/IP pairs.

11.10.4 Module Quiz – IPv4 Addressing Answers

1. What does the IP address 172.17.4.250/24 represent?
 network address
 multicast address
 host address
 broadcast address

Explanation: The /24 shows that the network address is 172.17.4.0. The broadcast address
for this network would be 172.17.4.255. Useable host addresses for this network are
172.17.4.1 through 172.17.4.254.

2. If a network device has a mask of /28, how many IP addresses are available for hosts
on this network?
 256
 254
 62
 32
 16
 14

Explanation: A /28 mask is the same as 255.255.255.240. This leaves 4 host bits. With 4
host bits, 16 IP addresses are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and
one address represents the broadcast address. 14 addresses can then be used to assign to
network devices.

3. What is the purpose of the subnet mask in conjunction with an IP address?

 to uniquely identify a host on a network
 to identify whether the address is public or private
 to determine the subnet to which the host belongs
 to mask the IP address to outsiders

Explanation: With the IPv4 address, a subnet mask is also necessary. A subnet mask is a
special type of IPv4 address that coupled with the IP address determines the subnet of which
the device is a member.

4. A network administrator is variably subnetting a network. The smallest subnet has a

mask of 255.255.255.224. How many usable host addresses will this subnet provide?
 2
 6
 14
 30
 62

Explanation: The subnet mask 255.255.255.224 is equivalent to the /27 prefix. This leaves 5
5
bits for hosts, providing a total of 30 usable IP addresses (2 = 32 – 2 = 30).

5. What subnet mask is represented by the slash notation /20?

 255.255.255.248
 255.255.224.0
 255.255.240.0
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.192

Explanation: The slash notation /20 represents a subnet mask with 20 1s. This would
translate to: 11111111.11111111.11110000.0000, which in turn would convert into
255.255.240.0.

6. Which statement is true about variable-length subnet masking?

 Each subnet is the same size.
 The size of each subnet may be different, depending on requirements.
 Subnets may only be subnetted one additional time.
 Bits are returned, rather than borrowed, to create additional subnets.

Explanation: In variable-length subnet masking, bits are borrowed to create subnets.

Additional bits may be borrowed to create additional subnets within the original subnets. This
may continue until there are no bits available to borrow.

7. Why does a Layer 3 device perform the ANDing process on a destination IP address
and subnet mask?
 to identify the broadcast address of the destination network
 to identify the host address of the destination host
 to identify faulty frames
 to identify the network address of the destination network

Explanation: ANDing allows us to identify the network address from the IP address and the
network mask.

8. How many usable IP addresses are available on the 192.168.1.0/27 network?

 256
 254
 62
 30
 16
 32

Explanation: A /27 mask is the same as 255.255.255.224. This leaves 5 host bits. With 5
host bits, 32 IP addresses are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and
one address represents the broadcast address. Thus, 30 addresses can then be used to
assign to network devices.

9. Which subnet mask would be used if exactly 4 host bits are available?
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.240
 255.255.255.248

Explanation: The subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. The mask of
255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.240 has 4 host bits. Finally,
255.255.255.248 represents 3 host bits.

10. Which two parts are components of an IPv4 address? (Choose two.)
 subnet portion
 network portion
 logical portion
 host portion
 physical portion
 broadcast portion

Explanation: An IPv4 address is divided into two parts: a network portion – to identify the
specific network on which a host resides, and a host portion – to identify specific hosts on a
network. A subnet mask is used to identify the length of each portion.

11. If a network device has a mask of /26, how many IP addresses are available for
hosts on this network?
 64
 30
 62
 32
 16
 14

Explanation: A /26 mask is the same as 255.255.255.192. This leaves 6 host bits. With 6
host bits, 64 IP addresses are possible, but one address represents the subnet number and
one address represents the broadcast address. Thus 62 addresses can then be assigned to
network hosts.

12. What is the prefix length notation for the subnet mask 255.255.255.224?
 /25
 /26
 /27
 /28
Explanation: The binary format for 255.255.255.224 is
11111111.11111111.11111111.11100000. The prefix length is the number of consecutive 1s
in the subnet mask. Therefore, the prefix length is /27.

13. How many valid host addresses are available on an IPv4 subnet that is configured
with a /26 mask?
 254
 190
 192
 62
 64

Explanation: When a /26 mask is used, 6 bits are used as host bits. With 6 bits, 64
addresses are possible, but one address is for the subnet number and one address is for a
broadcast. This leaves 62 addresses that can be assigned to network devices.

14. Which subnet mask would be used if 5 host bits are available?
 255.255.255.0
 255.255.255.128
 255.255.255.224
 255.255.255.240

Explanation: The subnet mask of 255.255.255.0 has 8 host bits. The mask of
255.255.255.128 results in 7 host bits. The mask of 255.255.255.224 has 5 host bits. Finally,
255.255.255.240 represents 4 host bits.

15. A network administrator subnets the 192.168.10.0/24 network into subnets with /26
masks. How many equal-sized subnets are created?
 1
 2
 4
 8
 16
 64

Explanation: The normal mask for 192.168.10.0 is /24. A /26 mask indicates 2 bits have
been borrowed for subnetting. With 2 bits, four subnets of equal size could be created.