JEO and JA Preliminary Exam 7th Dec to 11th Dec 2024
Participant ID 232039000035
Participant Name SANTOSH KUMAR SAHU
Test Center Gopal Krishna College Of Engineering And
Name Technology
Test Date 07/12/2024
Test Time 12:30 PM - 2:30 PM
Subject JEO and JA Preliminary Exam
Marks Obtained 46.25
Note: If complete QP/Option is not visible please zoom in or out for proper visibility
Section : Arithmatic
Q.1 An item is marked 92% higher than its cost price. Even after allowing some discount,
shopkeeper earned 44% profit. Find the discount percent allowed by the shopkeeper.
Ans A. 26%
B. 24%
C. 23%
D. 25%
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801024352
Option 1 ID : 6306804020117
Option 2 ID : 6306804020118
Option 3 ID : 6306804020116
Option 4 ID : 6306804020115
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.2 Anjali and Minal together invested ₹30600 in a business. At the end of the year, out of a
total profit of ₹7500, Anjali's share was ₹2500. What was the investment of Minal?
Ans A. ₹20035
B. ₹21495
C. ₹20400
D. ₹21680
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801076080
Option 1 ID : 6306804226457
Option 2 ID : 6306804226458
Option 3 ID : 6306804226456
Option 4 ID : 6306804226459
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.3 A cylindrical shaped tumbler has a radius of 4.9 cm and a height of 10 cm. A water jug has a
volume equal to 11319 cm3. How many times the water must be poured from the tumbler to
fill the jug completely?
Ans A. 15
B. 13
C. 21
D. 18
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680734845
Option 1 ID : 6306802880158
Option 2 ID : 6306802880159
Option 3 ID : 6306802880160
Option 4 ID : 6306802880157
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.4 A can do a certain piece of work in 24 days, B can do the same work in 20 days and C can
do the same work in 25 days. Find the number of days it will take to complete the same
work, if they all work together.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680924821
Option 1 ID : 6306803624360
Option 2 ID : 6306803624359
Option 3 ID : 6306803624361
Option 4 ID : 6306803624362
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.5
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680960889
Option 1 ID : 6306803767577
Option 2 ID : 6306803767579
Option 3 ID : 6306803767580
Option 4 ID : 6306803767578
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.6 The value of
Ans A. 14.98
B. 11.8
C. 14.58
D. 13.24
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680704850
Option 1 ID : 6306802761087
Option 2 ID : 6306802761086
Option 3 ID : 6306802761089
Option 4 ID : 6306802761088
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.7 In covering a distance of 176 km, Amit takes 5 hours more than Vinay. If Amit doubles his
speed, then he would take 3 hour less than Vinay. Amit's speed is:
Ans A. 6 km/h
B. 1 km/h
C. 14 km/h
D. 11 km/h
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801090524
Option 1 ID : 6306804283239
Option 2 ID : 6306804283241
Option 3 ID : 6306804283240
Option 4 ID : 6306804283238
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.8 Factorise 64a2 + 160ab + 100b2.
Ans A. (10a - 8b)2
B. (8a + 10b)2
C. (8a - 10b)2
D. (10a + 8b)2
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680950460
Option 1 ID : 6306803726492
Option 2 ID : 6306803726489
Option 3 ID : 6306803726491
Option 4 ID : 6306803726490
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.9 The present cost of a shopping complex is ₹142356. After a year, its cost increased to
₹174023. The percentage increase (rounded off to the nearest integer) in the cost of the
shopping complex is:
Ans A. 26
B. 21
C. 22
D. 18
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680796122
Option 1 ID : 6306803119479
Option 2 ID : 6306803119478
Option 3 ID : 6306803119476
Option 4 ID : 6306803119477
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.10 Nitin sells two articles for ₹2541 each with no profit, no loss in the entire transaction. If one
article was sold at a gain of 50%, then the other article is sold at a loss of
Ans A. 25%
B. 23%
C. 28%
D. 27%
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801024128
Option 1 ID : 6306804019219
Option 2 ID : 6306804019220
Option 3 ID : 6306804019222
Option 4 ID : 6306804019221
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.11 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹5280 after 2 years.
What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in 1 year?
Ans A. 220
B. 880
C. 1760
D. 440
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680613176
Option 1 ID : 6306802399438
Option 2 ID : 6306802399437
Option 3 ID : 6306802399439
Option 4 ID : 6306802399436
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.12 Evaluate 8992 - 1012
Ans A. 799000
B. 798000
C. 797000
D. 796000
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680809728
Option 1 ID : 6306803172492
Option 2 ID : 6306803172491
Option 3 ID : 6306803172493
Option 4 ID : 6306803172494
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.13 The average temperature of City A in the first four days of May 2023 was 52°. The average
for the second, third, fourth and fifth days was 55°. If the temperature on the first and fifth
days were in the ratio 5 : 7, then what was the temperature of City A on 5 May 2023?
Ans A. 49°
B. 35°
C. 56°
D. 42°
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680631716
Option 1 ID : 6306802472796
Option 2 ID : 6306802472794
Option 3 ID : 6306802472797
Option 4 ID : 6306802472795
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.14 Two trains are moving in opposite directions at speeds of 100 km/h and 50 km/h. The
length of one train is 190 m. The time taken by them to cross each other is 22 seconds. The
length (in m) of the other train, correct to 2 decimal places, is:
Ans A. 726.66
B. 726.99
C. 726.84
D. 725.49
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680948052
Option 1 ID : 6306803716900
Option 2 ID : 6306803716901
Option 3 ID : 6306803716902
Option 4 ID : 6306803716903
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.15 The length of a rectangular fenced area is 16 m more than its breadth. Its area is 1092 m2.
Its breadth (in m) is:
Ans A. 45
B. 28
C. 22
D. 26
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801147994
Option 1 ID : 6306804512080
Option 2 ID : 6306804512081
Option 3 ID : 6306804512079
Option 4 ID : 6306804512078
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q
.
1
6
A A. 72 hours
n
s
B. 59 hours
C. 56 hours
D. 79 hours
Q.17 The smallest 1-digit number to be added to the 6-digit number 826920 so that it is
completely divisible by 11 is:
Ans A. 8
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680950600
Option 1 ID : 6306803727051
Option 2 ID : 6306803727050
Option 3 ID : 6306803727049
Option 4 ID : 6306803727052
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.18 A person buys a toy for ₹64 and sells it for ₹84. What will be his gain per cent?
Ans A. 30.25%
B. 31.25%
C. 33.25%
D. 32.25%
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801160801
Option 1 ID : 6306804562615
Option 2 ID : 6306804562616
Option 3 ID : 6306804562618
Option 4 ID : 6306804562617
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.19 Radhika invested ₹24,000 for 2 years at compound interest of 5% per annum, compounded
annually. What is the amount that she will get on maturity?
Ans A. ₹25,840
B. ₹26,460
C. ₹26,250
D. ₹26,900
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801092089
Option 1 ID : 6306804289610
Option 2 ID : 6306804289612
Option 3 ID : 6306804289611
Option 4 ID : 6306804289613
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.20 Evaluate: 30 + [{-9 × (25 - 11 + 6)}]
Ans A. -150
B. -152
C. -153
D. -151
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680687797
Option 1 ID : 6306802693848
Option 2 ID : 6306802693850
Option 3 ID : 6306802693851
Option 4 ID : 6306802693849
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.21 Evaluate: 30 + [{-9 × (25 - 14 + 6)}]
Ans A. -126
B. -124
C. -125
D. -123
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680687809
Option 1 ID : 6306802693899
Option 2 ID : 6306802693897
Option 3 ID : 6306802693898
Option 4 ID : 6306802693896
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.22 There are 8610 students in a school and the ratio of boys to girls in the school is 17 : 24,
then find the number of boys in school.
Ans A. 3584
B. 3570
C. 3586
D. 3564
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801076966
Option 1 ID : 6306804229895
Option 2 ID : 6306804229894
Option 3 ID : 6306804229897
Option 4 ID : 6306804229896
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.23 The average price of three items of furniture is Rs 16665. If their prices are in the ratio
3:5:7, the price of the costliest item (in Rs) is
Ans A. 7777
B. 9999
C. 5555
D. 23331
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801183610
Option 1 ID : 6306804653469
Option 2 ID : 6306804653470
Option 3 ID : 6306804653471
Option 4 ID : 6306804653468
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.24 Find the single percentage discount [corrected to 1 decimal] equivalent to three successive
discounts of 21%, 13% and 35% respectively.
Ans A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680919342
Option 1 ID : 6306803602560
Option 2 ID : 6306803602561
Option 3 ID : 6306803602559
Option 4 ID : 6306803602558
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.25 The price of a shirt increases by 20%, and after 1 month, it decreases by 10%. What is the
net percentage change in the price?
Ans A. 10% increase
B. 8% increase
C. 8% decrease
D. 10% decrease
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801168916
Option 1 ID : 6306804594958
Option 2 ID : 6306804594956
Option 3 ID : 6306804594957
Option 4 ID : 6306804594959
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Section : Data Interpretation
Q
.
1
A A.
n
s
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801176453
Option 1 ID : 6306804624915
Option 2 ID : 6306804624916
Option 3 ID : 6306804624917
Option 4 ID : 6306804624914
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.2 The given bar graph indicates the production of LED bulb (in lakhs) by four companies
during the years 2018 to 2022. Study the graph and answer the question that follows.
If the average production cost of one LED bulb is ₹2.5, then find the difference between the
production cost (in ₹) of companies A and B together during the years 2018 to 2022 and the
production cost of companies C and D together during the years 2018 to 2022.
Ans A. ₹30 lakh
B. ₹56 lakh
C. ₹44 lakh
D. ₹50 lakh
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801172648
Option 1 ID : 6306804609854
Option 2 ID : 6306804609857
Option 3 ID : 6306804609855
Option 4 ID : 6306804609856
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.3 The following bar graph shows the number of soldiers recruited (in
thousands) in three different forces in six different years. Study the
following graph carefully to answer the question that follows.
What was the percentage decrease in the number of soldiers recruited in
air force in the year 2019 as compared to the previous year?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801161550
Option 1 ID : 6306804565598
Option 2 ID : 6306804565599
Option 3 ID : 6306804565601
Option 4 ID : 6306804565600
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.4 The following pie chart shows the number (in degrees) of users of a particular mobile phone
app from five different states A, B, C, D and E. The total number of users is 18,000. Study
the pie chart carefully and answer the question that follows.
What is 19% of the number of people using the app from states A, C and E?
Ans A. 1795
B. 1975
C. 1759
D. 1957
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680681455
Option 1 ID : 6306802668998
Option 2 ID : 6306802668997
Option 3 ID : 6306802668999
Option 4 ID : 6306802668996
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.5 The given pie charts represent the percentage distribution of total number of people and
number of women, respectively, who participated in four different activities from a city,
provided one person can participate in one activity only. Study the pie-charts carefully and
answer the question that follows.
If 75 men participated in blood donation and total 1500 people participated in all the four
activities, then what is the total number of participating women in all the four activities?
Ans A. 800
B. 700
C. 750
D. 650
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801190002
Option 1 ID : 6306804678312
Option 2 ID : 6306804678310
Option 3 ID : 6306804678311
Option 4 ID : 6306804678309
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.6 The following bar graph shows the production of sugar in metric tonnes over certain years.
Study the bar graph and answer the question that follows.
What is the ratio of the average production from 2015-16 and 2016-17 to the average
production from 2021-22 and 2022-23?
Ans A. 222 : 333
B. 107 : 282
C. 107 : 141
D. 214 : 141
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801168963
Option 1 ID : 6306804595120
Option 2 ID : 6306804595119
Option 3 ID : 6306804595117
Option 4 ID : 6306804595118
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.7 The following pie charts show quantity wise the production and sale of five products, A, B,
C, D and E, of a company, respectively, in a particular year. Study the charts carefully and
answer the question that follows.
If a total of 16,200 units were produced and 14,580 units were sold, then find the difference
between the number of units of product D produced and sold.
Ans A. 750
B. 765
C. 650
D. 675
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801176820
Option 1 ID : 6306804632945
Option 2 ID : 6306804632948
Option 3 ID : 6306804632946
Option 4 ID : 6306804632947
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q The table below shows the number of candidates who appeared and qualified for a competition examination
. over 4 different years from districts A, B, C and D. Study the table and answer the question that follows.
8
Year A B C D
Appeare Qualifi Appeare Qualifi Appeare Qualifi Appear Qualifi
d ed d ed d ed ed ed
2010 320 240 360 150 420 280 440 320
2011 410 320 580 300 700 520 780 340
2012 560 360 780 460 610 480 830 560
2013 760 560 550 350 720 330 1000 720
Determine which district had the highest total number of qualified students over the 4 years.
A A. D
n
s
B. B
C. C
D. A
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801169019
Option 1 ID : 6306804595380
Option 2 ID : 6306804595378
Option 3 ID : 6306804595379
Option 4 ID : 6306804595377
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.9 A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and select the appropriate option.
How much profit did Company X make last year?
(I) The company's total revenue was $1 million, and 60% of the revenue came from Product
A.
(II) The company's expenses were 70% of the total revenue.
Ans A.
Data in either statement I alone or statement II alone are sufficient to
answer the question.
B.
Data in statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the
question.
C.
Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas
data in statement (I) alone is not.
D.
Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas
data in statement (II) alone is not.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801177094
Option 1 ID : 6306804627474
Option 2 ID : 6306804627473
Option 3 ID : 6306804627476
Option 4 ID : 6306804627475
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.10 In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to
decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
Read both the statements and select the most appropriate answer.
Question:
What is the speed of Train B?
Statements:
(I) Train A covers 120 km in 2 hours and Train B is 20% faster than Train A.
(II) Train B takes 3 hours to cover 216 km.
Ans A. Data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement
I is not.
B. Data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement
II is not.
C. Data in statements I and II together are sufficient to answer the question.
D. Data in statements I and II independently are sufficient to answer the question.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801241148
Option 1 ID : 6306804879514
Option 2 ID : 6306804879513
Option 3 ID : 6306804879515
Option 4 ID : 6306804879516
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.11 A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and select the appropriate option.
Find the number of girls in a class?
(I) The respective ratio between the number of girls and the number of boys in the class is 4
: 1.
(II) Number of girls are 12 more than the boys.
Ans A. Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in
statement (II) alone is not.
B. Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in
statement (I) alone is not.
C. Data in statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
D. Data in statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the question.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801176714
Option 1 ID : 6306804646581
Option 2 ID : 6306804646582
Option 3 ID : 6306804646584
Option 4 ID : 6306804646583
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.12 Study the line graph and answer the question that follows. The given graph shows
production (in thousands) of two types of vehicles (A and B) by a factory over the years
2016 to 2021.
In how many of the given years was the production of type A vehicles of the company more
than the average production of this type of vehicles in the given years?
Ans A. 2
B. 1
C. 4
D. 3
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801177770
Option 1 ID : 6306804630225
Option 2 ID : 6306804630224
Option 3 ID : 6306804630227
Option 4 ID : 6306804630226
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.13 The given bar graph provides information on the total number of visitors and the total
number of free visitors in an amusement park during the first five months of the year 2023.
Free visitors are those who do not purchase tickets, while paid visitors are those who do.
Study the graph and answer the question that follows.
Number of paid visitors = Total number of visitors − Total number of free visitors
What was the average number of paid visitors during the first five months of the year 2023.
Ans A. 1540
B. 1570
C. 1520
D. 1560
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680625214
Option 1 ID : 6306802447058
Option 2 ID : 6306802447060
Option 3 ID : 6306802447057
Option 4 ID : 6306802447059
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.14 The line graph shows the profit earned by a company during
the various years (in rupees lakhs). Study the line graph and
answer the question that follows.
What is the approximate percentage increase in the profit of
the company in the year 2009 from the previous year?
Ans A. 10%
B. 15%
C. 25%
D. 7.5%
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801172393
Option 1 ID : 6306804608853
Option 2 ID : 6306804608854
Option 3 ID : 6306804608855
Option 4 ID : 6306804608856
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.15 Study the given pie-chart and answer the question that follows.
The given pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of a family's expenditure.
Find the difference between the expenditure on grocery and bills (in ₹) if the income is
₹25,68,000 per year.
Ans A. 56,310
B. 51,360
C. 56,496
D. 51,630
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680399562
Option 1 ID : 6306801558145
Option 2 ID : 6306801558146
Option 3 ID : 6306801558143
Option 4 ID : 6306801558144
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.16 The given bar graph indicates the total number of candidates who appeared and qualified
(in hundred numbers) in a competitive examination from different cities. Study the graph
carefully and answer the question that follows.
Find the difference between the average number of candidates appeared and the average
number of candidates qualified in the examination from all the cities put together.
Ans A. 400
B. 300
C. 500
D. 250
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801175724
Option 1 ID : 6306804622117
Option 2 ID : 6306804622116
Option 3 ID : 6306804622118
Option 4 ID : 6306804622115
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.17 The following bar graph shows the heights of six mountain peaks. Study the
bar graph carefully and answer the question that follows.
Which peak is the second highest?
Ans A. S
B. T
C. P
D. R
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801176920
Option 1 ID : 6306804626777
Option 2 ID : 6306804626778
Option 3 ID : 6306804626775
Option 4 ID : 6306804626776
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.18 The given pie charts indicate the distribution of candidates enrolled for M.B.A. entrance
examination and those who passed in institutions P, Q, R, S, T, V and X.
Candidates enrolled = 8550 Candidates who passed = 5700
The number of candidates passed from institutes S and P together exceeds the number of
candidates enrolled in institutes T and R together by:
Ans A. 290
B. 399
C. 299
D. 390
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801175557
Option 1 ID : 6306804621433
Option 2 ID : 6306804621434
Option 3 ID : 6306804621431
Option 4 ID : 6306804621432
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.19 Study the given table and answer the question that follows.
The given table displays the total population and the ratio of male to female individuals in
five cities P, Q, R, S and T. It also presents the literate population and the corresponding ratio
of male to female individuals.
Cit Total Population (in Male -Female Total Literate Population Ratio of Literate Male
y lakhs) Ratio (in lakhs) and Female
P 70 4:3 40 1:1
Q 64 1:1 44 6:5
R 72 7:5 48 2:1
S 80 5:3 50 1:1
T 60 7:5 36 7:5
What is the ratio of females to literate females in City P?
Ans A. 1 : 2
B. 2 : 1
C. 3 : 2
D. 2 : 3
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680572497
Option 1 ID : 6306802238856
Option 2 ID : 6306802238857
Option 3 ID : 6306802238858
Option 4 ID : 6306802238859
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.20 A question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether
the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the
statements and select the appropriate option.
Find the percentage obtained by Shiva in the exam?
(I) His friend Sarthak obtained 85% in the same exam with 510 marks.
(II) Shiva gets 462 marks in the same exam.
Ans A. Data in statements (I) and (II) together are not sufficient to answer the question.
B. Data in statements (I) and (II) together are sufficient to answer the question.
C. Data in statement (II) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in
statement (I) alone is not.
D. Data in statement (I) alone is sufficient to answer the question, whereas data in
statement (II) alone is not.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801176724
Option 1 ID : 6306804626015
Option 2 ID : 6306804626014
Option 3 ID : 6306804626013
Option 4 ID : 6306804626012
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Section : Logical Reasoning and Analytical Ability,General Mental Ability
Q.1 In a certain code language,
A + B means ‘A is the daughter of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the brother of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
A ÷ B means ‘A is the father of B’.
How is M related to Q if ‘M – N + O ÷ P x Q’?
Ans A. Wife's Brother
B. Wife's Father
C. Father
D. Brother
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680651306
Option 1 ID : 6306802550150
Option 2 ID : 6306802550151
Option 3 ID : 6306802550153
Option 4 ID : 6306802550152
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.2 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single digit numbers
only).
(Left) 9 8 3 7 8 5 5 3 6 2 4 2 1 5 7 1 5 7 2 4 1 4 3 6 9 7 4 (Right)
How many such odd numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
number and also immediately followed by an odd number?
Ans A. 4
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680364394
Option 1 ID : 6306801419288
Option 2 ID : 6306801419285
Option 3 ID : 6306801419286
Option 4 ID : 6306801419287
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.3 In this question, a statement is followed by two conclusions, numbered I and II. Which of the
conclusions is/are true based on the given statement.
Statement : S > N = T ≥ Q > F
Conclusions:
I.F<S
II. Q ≤ N
Ans A. Only I is true.
B. Neither I nor II is true.
C. Both I and II are true.
D. Only II is true.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680909966
Option 1 ID : 6306803564810
Option 2 ID : 6306803564813
Option 3 ID : 6306803564812
Option 4 ID : 6306803564811
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.4 A person starts from Point B and moves 5 km to the east. He then takes a left turn and
drives 5 km, followed by driving 8 km after taking another left. He then takes a left turn
again and drives 5 km. How far (shortest distance) and towards which direction should he
drive in order to reach Point B again?
(Note: All turns are 90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans A. 3 km to the west
B. 8 km to the west
C. 3 km to the east
D. 5 km to the east
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680339429
Option 1 ID : 6306801320287
Option 2 ID : 6306801320288
Option 3 ID : 6306801320286
Option 4 ID : 6306801320285
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.5 Seven boxes, B, O, X, T, E, R and S, are kept one over the other but not necessarily in the
same order. Only T is kept above S. Only two boxes are kept between S and B. Only O is kept
below X. E is not kept immediately above B. How many boxes are kept between E and O?
Ans A. Two
B. Four
C. One
D. Three
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680749652
Option 1 ID : 6306802938134
Option 2 ID : 6306802938132
Option 3 ID : 6306802938135
Option 4 ID : 6306802938133
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.6 Town G is to the west of Town H. Town I is to the south of Town H. Town J is to the north of
Town I. Town K is to the west of Town J and south of Town G. What is the position of Town J
with respect to Town G?
Ans A. Southeast
B. Northeast
C. Northwest
D. Southwest
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680336489
Option 1 ID : 6306801308678
Option 2 ID : 6306801308680
Option 3 ID : 6306801308679
Option 4 ID : 6306801308677
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.7 Refer to the following series and answer the question (all numbers are single-digit numbers
only).
(Left) 7 5 3 6 2 5 3 1 9 8 7 2 6 9 7 8 5 4 2 4 1 4 1 5 4 3 7 (Right)
How many such even numbers are there each of the which is immediately preceded by an
odd number and immediately followed by a number divisible by 3?
Ans A. 4
B. 1
C. 3
D. 2
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680364397
Option 1 ID : 6306801419300
Option 2 ID : 6306801419297
Option 3 ID : 6306801419299
Option 4 ID : 6306801419298
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.8 Brenda is the daughter of Harry’s son. Gina is the mother of Mia. Leo is the husband of
Rene. Mia is the sister of Leo. Gina is the wife of Harry. If Gina has only two children, how is
Brenda related to Rene?
Ans A. Niece
B. Cousin
C. Daughter
D. Sister
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680104663
Option 1 ID : 630680406802
Option 2 ID : 630680406800
Option 3 ID : 630680406801
Option 4 ID : 630680406799
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to the
right of F. E sits second to the left of D. C is an immediate neighbour of D. E sits to the
immediate right of B. G sits to the immediate left of A. How many people sit between F and
A when counted from the left of A?
Ans A. Two
B. One
C. Four
D. None
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680732624
Option 1 ID : 6306802871275
Option 2 ID : 6306802871277
Option 3 ID : 6306802871274
Option 4 ID : 6306802871276
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.10 In a certain code language, 'VAST' is coded as '1436' and 'SINE' is coded as '2748'. How is 'S'
coded in the given language?
Ans A. 7
B. 1
C. 3
D. 4
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680814884
Option 1 ID : 6306803192799
Option 2 ID : 6306803192797
Option 3 ID : 6306803192798
Option 4 ID : 6306803192796
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.11 A, B, C, D, E and F live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor in the
building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on till the topmost floor is
numbered 6.
Only four people below C. Only four people live above E. B lives immediately below A. F
does not live on an odd numbered floor. How many people live below D?
Ans A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Zero
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801242023
Option 1 ID : 6306804882757
Option 2 ID : 6306804882756
Option 3 ID : 6306804882754
Option 4 ID : 6306804882755
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.12 In a certain code language, 'CART' is coded as '8195' and 'RIPE' is coded as '2314'. How is 'R'
coded in the given language?
Ans A. 8
B. 9
C. 1
D. 3
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680814873
Option 1 ID : 6306803192753
Option 2 ID : 6306803192754
Option 3 ID : 6306803192752
Option 4 ID : 6306803192755
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.13 Identify the figure given in the options that when put in place of the question mark (?) will
logically complete the series.
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680553596
Option 1 ID : 6306802164280
Option 2 ID : 6306802164281
Option 3 ID : 6306802164282
Option 4 ID : 6306802164283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.14 A, B, C, D, and E have different weights. D is heavier than only 1 person. A is heavier than B
and B is heavier than E. E is not the lightest.
Who is the heaviest?
Ans A. C
B. A
C. E
D. B
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680372311
Option 1 ID : 6306801450545
Option 2 ID : 6306801450543
Option 3 ID : 6306801450546
Option 4 ID : 6306801450544
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.15 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information given
in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly known facts,
decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
No hat is a bow.
No bow is a tie.
Conclusions (I) : No hat is a tie.
Conclusions (II) : No bow is a hat.
Ans A. Neither follows
B. Both follow
C. Only I follows
D. Only II follows
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680906117
Option 1 ID : 6306803549589
Option 2 ID : 6306803549588
Option 3 ID : 6306803549587
Option 4 ID : 6306803549586
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.16 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the
information given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance
with commonly known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically
follow(s) from the statements.
Statements:
All Googles are Apples.
All Apples are Amazons.
Conclusions:
I: All Amazons are Googles.
II: Some Amazons are Googles.
Ans A. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.
B. Only conclusion (II) follows.
C. Only conclusion (I) follows.
D. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680963461
Option 1 ID : 6306803778406
Option 2 ID : 6306803778404
Option 3 ID : 6306803778403
Option 4 ID : 6306803778405
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.17 E, F, G, H, K, L and N are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. E sits fourth to the
left of K.G sits fourth to the right of H. Only two people sit between K and H when counted
from the left of K.L is not an immediate neighbour of G or H.F is not an immediate
neighbour of H. How many people sit between N and G when counted from the left of N?
Ans A. Four
B. Two
C. One
D. Three
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680736038
Option 1 ID : 6306802884851
Option 2 ID : 6306802884849
Option 3 ID : 6306802884848
Option 4 ID : 6306802884850
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.18 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question (all numbers are
single digit numbers only).
(Left) 8 = 6 8 $ 4 1 & 4 9 @ 6 9 2 + 5 7 3 % 7 1 5 7 5 # 8 (Right)
How many such symbols are there each of which is immediately preceded by an odd
number and also immediately followed by an even number?
Ans A. Four
B. Three
C. Two
D. One
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801242034
Option 1 ID : 6306804882801
Option 2 ID : 6306804882800
Option 3 ID : 6306804882802
Option 4 ID : 6306804882803
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.19 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?) will
logically complete the series?
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680702879
Option 1 ID : 6306802753269
Option 2 ID : 6306802753268
Option 3 ID : 6306802753271
Option 4 ID : 6306802753270
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.20
Ans
A.
B.
C.
D.
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680468083
Option 1 ID : 6306801828235
Option 2 ID : 6306801828236
Option 3 ID : 6306801828237
Option 4 ID : 6306801828234
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Section : Current event of National and international Importance
Q.1 The Dolphin Ambulance programme has been launched by the _____ of the Government of
India.
Ans A. Ministry of Water Resources and Ganga Rejuvenation
B. Ministry of Animal Husbandry
C. Ministry of Jal Shakti
D. Ministry of Environment
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801246317
Option 1 ID : 6306804899765
Option 2 ID : 6306804899764
Option 3 ID : 6306804899762
Option 4 ID : 6306804899763
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.2 Which of the following statements with respect to New Collective Quantified Goal (NCQG) -
focus of negotiations at COP29 is/are INCORRECT?
1. It is intended to assist developing countries in adapting to climate change.
2. The goal is to replace fossil fuels with renewable energy.
Ans A. 2 only
B. Both 1 and 2
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. 1 only
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801250131
Option 1 ID : 6306804915188
Option 2 ID : 6306804915189
Option 3 ID : 6306804915190
Option 4 ID : 6306804915187
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.3 In February 2024, which of the following medals was won by the Indian women badminton
team at the 2024 Badminton Asia Team Championships?
Ans A. Gold
B. No medal
C. Bronze
D. Silver
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680655402
Option 1 ID : 6306802565742
Option 2 ID : 6306802565745
Option 3 ID : 6306802565744
Option 4 ID : 6306802565743
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.4 Which of the following countries revised its Nuclear policy 2024 that allows use of nuclear
weapons in response to even a conventional attack backed by a nuclear power?
Ans A. Japan
B. Russia
C. China
D. Ukraine
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801247541
Option 1 ID : 6306804904649
Option 2 ID : 6306804904648
Option 3 ID : 6306804904647
Option 4 ID : 6306804904646
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.5 Which of the following countries declined the invitation to join BRICS in 2024?
Ans A. Argentina
B. United Arab Emirates
C. Iran
D. Ethiopia
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801247210
Option 1 ID : 6306804903343
Option 2 ID : 6306804903342
Option 3 ID : 6306804903344
Option 4 ID : 6306804903345
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.6 Which of the following countries is the host for the 47th session of the UNESCO World
Heritage Committee?
Ans A. Germany
B. Bulgaria
C. Bhutan
D. Switzerland
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801247659
Option 1 ID : 6306804905110
Option 2 ID : 6306804905113
Option 3 ID : 6306804905112
Option 4 ID : 6306804905111
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.7 Who is the official sponsor of the Indian National Hockey Teams (Men and Women) for the
period from 2023 to 2033?
Ans A. Punjab Government
B. Odisha Government
C. Tata Steel Foundation (TSF)
D. Indian Olympic Association
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801179902
Option 1 ID : 6306804638646
Option 2 ID : 6306804638647
Option 3 ID : 6306804638649
Option 4 ID : 6306804638648
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.8 In 2024, which institution launched an online course on 'AI for Medical Professionals' in
collaboration with the National Academy of Medical Sciences (NAMS)?
Ans A. Indian Institute of Science (IISc)
B. International Institute of Information Technology Hyderabad (IIITH)
C. Indian Institute of Technology Delhi (IITD)
D. National Institute of Technology (NIT) Warangal
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801162003
Option 1 ID : 6306804567393
Option 2 ID : 6306804567392
Option 3 ID : 6306804567391
Option 4 ID : 6306804567394
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.9 Which of the following is the INCORRECT target related to SDG 7 i.e.,
ensure access to affordable, reliable, sustainable and modern energy for
all?
i. Ensuring universal access to affordable, reliable and modern energy
services by 2030
ii. Doubling the global rate of improvement in energy efficiency by 2030
iii. Increasing substantially the share of renewable energy in the global
energy mix by 2030
iv. Achieving universal and equitable access to safe and affordable drinking
water for all by 2030
Ans A. Only i
B. Only iii
C. Only ii
D. Only iv
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680867255
Option 1 ID : 6306803396668
Option 2 ID : 6306803396670
Option 3 ID : 6306803396669
Option 4 ID : 6306803396671
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.10 What is the proposed outlay by the Odisha government for the new world-class stadium in
Bhubaneswar and the establishment of sports academies across the state?
Ans A. ₹1,000 crore
B. ₹1,200 crore
C. ₹850 crore
D. ₹952 crore
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801169247
Option 1 ID : 6306804596409
Option 2 ID : 6306804596412
Option 3 ID : 6306804596411
Option 4 ID : 6306804596410
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.11 Who received the Dadasaheb Phalke Award at the 70th National Film Awards on 8 October
2024?
Ans A. Mithun Chakraborty
B. Amitabh Bachchan
C. Vinod Khanna
D. Manoj Kumar
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801248225
Option 1 ID : 6306804907312
Option 2 ID : 6306804907311
Option 3 ID : 6306804907310
Option 4 ID : 6306804907313
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.12 In which city of India did the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, in collaboration
with the World Bank, present knowledge seminar series on ‘Strengthening Social Protection
for the Vulnerable in India’?
Ans A. New Delhi
B. Bhopal
C. Mumbai
D. Chennai
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801177832
Option 1 ID : 6306804630477
Option 2 ID : 6306804630479
Option 3 ID : 6306804630476
Option 4 ID : 6306804630478
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.13 Who among the following dedicated the book 'Call of The Gir' to the prime
minister ‘for being the visionary behind Project Lion and Lion@2047:
Vision for Amrit Kaal’?
Ans A. Arundhati Roy
B. Vikram Singh
C. Parimal Nathwani
D. Nirmala Naik
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801175946
Option 1 ID : 6306804622996
Option 2 ID : 6306804622997
Option 3 ID : 6306804622998
Option 4 ID : 6306804622999
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.14 When did the Chief Minister of Odisha officially launch the CM Kisan Yojana Odisha?
Ans A. 1 November 2024
B. 15 August 2024
C. 8 September 2024
D. 2 October 2024
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801163102
Option 1 ID : 6306804571694
Option 2 ID : 6306804571691
Option 3 ID : 6306804571692
Option 4 ID : 6306804571693
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.15 Which of the following bills amends the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act, 1934, the Banking
Regulation Act, 1949, the State Bank of India Act, 1955 and the Banking Companies
(Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Acts of 1970 and 1980?
Ans A. The Finance Bill, 2023
B. The Reserve Bank of India Bill, 2022
C. The Banking Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024
D. The Financial Institutions Bill, 2024
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801162026
Option 1 ID : 6306804567483
Option 2 ID : 6306804567485
Option 3 ID : 6306804567484
Option 4 ID : 6306804567486
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.16 Which of the given statements with respect to NAMASTE Scheme is/are correct?
1. It is a joint initiative by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry
of Housing and Urban Affairs.
2. It aims to eliminate the hazardous practice of manual sewer and septic tank cleaning.
3. The scheme is implemented by the National Safai Karamcharis Finance and Development
Corporation.
4. It focuses on providing a range of entitlements to Sewer and Septic Tank Workers
(SSWs).
Ans A. 1 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801249492
Option 1 ID : 6306804912644
Option 2 ID : 6306804912645
Option 3 ID : 6306804912647
Option 4 ID : 6306804912646
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.17 Indian navy commissioned INS Jatayu at which of the following islands?
Ans A. Andaman
B. Lakshadweep Island
C. Nicobar
D. Pudducherry
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680806300
Option 1 ID : 6306803158842
Option 2 ID : 6306803158840
Option 3 ID : 6306803158843
Option 4 ID : 6306803158841
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.18 Sanjay Kumar Panda, an emerging voice in Odia literature, has been honoured with the
prestigious Yuva Puraskar for 2024. What is the title of his acclaimed book that earned him
this recognition?
Ans A. Hu Baieaa
B. Asthira Pada
C. Gapa Kalika
D. Aprastuta Mrutyu
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801179818
Option 1 ID : 6306804638327
Option 2 ID : 6306804638328
Option 3 ID : 6306804638326
Option 4 ID : 6306804638329
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.19 The General Council of the Sangeet Natak Akademi has selected _____ young artists for the
Sangeet Natak Akademi Ustad Bismillah Khan Yuva Puraskar for the years 2022 and 2023
in February 2024.
Ans A. 80
B. 90
C. 70
D. 60
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801175917
Option 1 ID : 6306804622880
Option 2 ID : 6306804622881
Option 3 ID : 6306804622879
Option 4 ID : 6306804622882
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.20 Which of the following statements with respect to Budget 2024-25 is/are INCORRECT?
1. Borrowing and liabilities forms the least contributor to the receipts.
2. Income Tax is the largest contributor to the receipts.
Ans A. Both 1 and 2
B. 2 only
C. Neither 1 nor 2
D. 1 only
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801248371
Option 1 ID : 6306804907896
Option 2 ID : 6306804907895
Option 3 ID : 6306804907897
Option 4 ID : 6306804907894
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Section : Computer/Internet Awarness
Q.1 What is 'semantic analysis' in the context of compilers?
Ans A. Generation of assembly language code
B. Optimisation of system and code performance
C. Process of converting source code into machine code
D. Checking of the meaning and context of code constructs
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801026503
Option 1 ID : 6306804028690
Option 2 ID : 6306804028689
Option 3 ID : 6306804028687
Option 4 ID : 6306804028688
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.2 Identify the correct software referred to as 'end user program'.
Ans A. Assembler
B. Compiler
C. System software
D. Application software
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801031898
Option 1 ID : 6306804050270
Option 2 ID : 6306804050269
Option 3 ID : 6306804050267
Option 4 ID : 6306804050268
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : 1
Q.3 Consider a web page with a large amount of text. Which of the following CSS properties
would be the most effective for improving readability when printing the page?
Ans A. Line-height
B. Colour
C. Font-size
D. Background-colour
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801187911
Option 1 ID : 6306804670472
Option 2 ID : 6306804670471
Option 3 ID : 6306804670470
Option 4 ID : 6306804670473
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.4 Which network topology is the most effective for minimising data collision in a Local Area
Network (LAN)?
Ans A. Mesh
B. Star
C. Ring
D. Bus
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801182528
Option 1 ID : 6306804649174
Option 2 ID : 6306804649171
Option 3 ID : 6306804649172
Option 4 ID : 6306804649173
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.5 Select the virus that infects information contained in MS Word or MS Excel documents.
Ans A. Ransomware
B. Macro Virus
C. File Virus
D. Multidocument Virus
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801200366
Option 1 ID : 6306804720326
Option 2 ID : 6306804720324
Option 3 ID : 6306804720323
Option 4 ID : 6306804720325
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.6 What does endpoint security primarily protect?
Ans A. Mobile devices and user workstations
B. Internet of Things (IoT) devices
C. Cloud storage solutions
D. Servers and network infrastructure
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801180220
Option 1 ID : 6306804639902
Option 2 ID : 6306804639904
Option 3 ID : 6306804639903
Option 4 ID : 6306804639901
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : D
Marks : -0.25
Q.7 Which of the following is an instance of multi-factor authentication (MFA)?
Ans A. Using only a fingerprint scan
B. Using only a password to log in
C. Using only an email address for login
D. Using a password and a one-time code sent to your phone
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801182303
Option 1 ID : 6306804648261
Option 2 ID : 6306804648259
Option 3 ID : 6306804648262
Option 4 ID : 6306804648260
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.8 The term WWW refers to:
Ans A. World Wide Web
B. With World Web
C. Wide World Web
D. World With Web
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680710600
Option 1 ID : 6306802784106
Option 2 ID : 6306802784108
Option 3 ID : 6306802784107
Option 4 ID : 6306802784105
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.9 What is a web browser?
Ans A. A device that connects to the internet
B. A software application used to access websites
C. A protocol for transferring files
D. An online shopping platform
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801095914
Option 1 ID : 6306804304979
Option 2 ID : 6306804304980
Option 3 ID : 6306804304981
Option 4 ID : 6306804304982
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : 1
Q.10 Which of the following search engines is NOT currently among the top 5 most popular
globally in terms of usage?
Ans A. Yahoo
B. Bing
C. Ask.com
D. Google
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801115102
Option 1 ID : 6306804380747
Option 2 ID : 6306804380746
Option 3 ID : 6306804380748
Option 4 ID : 6306804380745
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1
Q.11 In the context of the internet, what does the term 'packet switching' refer to?
Ans A. A system for encrypting data packets during transmission
B. A method of sending a continuous stream of data
C. A way to compress data for faster transmission
D. A technique for breaking data into smaller packets for transmission
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801158781
Option 1 ID : 6306804554638
Option 2 ID : 6306804554635
Option 3 ID : 6306804554637
Option 4 ID : 6306804554636
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : -0.25
Q.12 Which of the following is NOT one of the commonly used internet services?
Ans A. Communication
B. E-fax
C. WWW
D. File Transfer
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801184501
Option 1 ID : 6306804657020
Option 2 ID : 6306804657019
Option 3 ID : 6306804657017
Option 4 ID : 6306804657018
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : -0.25
Q.13 Which of the following memory types is typically used for temporary storage and fast
access to frequently used data, during program execution?
Ans A. Random access memory (RAM)
B. Hard disk drive (HDD)
C. Flash memory
D. Optical disk
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680997143
Option 1 ID : 6306803912282
Option 2 ID : 6306803912280
Option 3 ID : 6306803912281
Option 4 ID : 6306803912283
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : B
Marks : -0.25
Q.14 Which computer is known for being the first general-purpose, electronic digital computer?
Ans A. ENIAC
B. UNIVAC
C. IBM 701
D. Colossus
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 630680942218
Option 1 ID : 6306803693487
Option 2 ID : 6306803693488
Option 3 ID : 6306803693490
Option 4 ID : 6306803693489
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : A
Marks : 1
Q.15 What is the typical range of a LAN?
Ans A. Within a solar system
B. Across multiple countries
C. Within a building or campus
D. Between continents
Question Type : MCQ
Question ID : 6306801147420
Option 1 ID : 6306804509799
Option 2 ID : 6306804509797
Option 3 ID : 6306804509796
Option 4 ID : 6306804509798
Status : Answered
Chosen Option : C
Marks : 1