01/03/2025 Code-A

Corporate Office : AESL, 3rd Floor, Incuspaze Campus-2, Plot No. 13, Sector-18,
Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Electromagnetic Induction, Alternating Current, Electromagnetic Waves, Ray Optics, Wave Optics, Dual Nature of Radiation
and Matter, Atoms, Nuclei, Semiconductor Electronics, Experimental Physics
Chemistry : Qualitative Analysis, Haloalkanes and Haloarenes, Alcohols, Phenols and Ethers, Aldehydes, Ketones and Carboxylic
Acids, Amines, Bio molecules, Practical organic Chemistry
Mathematics : Integrals (Indefinite and Definite), Application of Integrals, Differential Equations, Vector, Three-Dimensional Geometry,
Probability (Class XI & XII)

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.

2. The Test booklet consists of 75 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 25 questions in each part of
equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question carries +4
marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-II : This section contains 5 numerical value based questions. The answer to each question should be rounded off to
the nearest integer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
4. The clock will be set at the server. The countdown timer in the top right corner of screen will display the remaining time available for
you to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will end by itself. You will not be required to end or
submit your examination.
5. The Questions Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question using one of the following:
Answered
Not Answered
Marked for Review
Not Visited
Answered and Marked for Review
6. Ensure that the battery in your device is sufficiently charged for serving 3 hr before starting the test. We recommend your device is on
charging mode during the test.
7. Make sure you begin the test with a plan. Start with your strongest section.
8. Go through the entire paper and attempt the questions you know first.
9. Make sure you save at least 5-10 min in the end to revisit your answers. In an online test, you can change your answer at any time.
You can only attempt the test from one device. You will be logged out from the first device if you log in from another device.
10. Don’t change the date and time of the device in between the test.
11. Don’t submit the test before time. Try to use the entire duration of the test wisely.

1
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

PHYSICS

Section-I

1. A wire has a mass (0.3 ± 0.003) g, radius (0.5 ± 0.005) 4. Match List-I with List-II.
mm and length (6 ± 0.06) cm. The maximum percentage List-I List-II
error in the measurement of density is
Source of microwave Radioactive decay of
(a) (i)
(1) 1 frequency nucleus
(2) 2 Source of infrared
(b) (ii) Magnetron
frequency
(3) 3 (c) Source of Gamma rays (iii) Inner shell electrons
(4) 4 Vibration of atoms and
(d) Source of X-rays (iv)
molecules
2. In the circuit shown below, the ammeter reading is 4 amp
and power factor of the circuit is 1. The power factor of the (v) LASER
box is (vi) RC circuit
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(vi), (d)(iii)
(2) (a)-(vi), (b)-(v), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
(3) (a)(vi), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(v)
(4) (a)(ii), (b)(iv), (c)(i), (d)(iii)

5. In the Young's double slit experiment using a

monochromatic light of wavelength λ, the path difference
(in terms of integer n) corresponding to any point having
half the peak intensity is
3
(1) √5 (1) (2n + 1)
λ

2
(2) √5
(2) (2n + 1)
λ

1
(3) 2√5
(3) (2n + 1)
λ

1
(4) √5

(4) (2n + 1)
λ

16

3. Current in R3 just after closing the switch and in steady

state respectively, will be 6. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective of focal
length 60 cm and a single eye lens of focal length 5 cm is
focussed on a distant object is such a way that parallel
rays comes out from the eye lens. If the object subtends
an angle 2o at the objective, the angular width of the
image

(1) 10o

(2) 24o

(3) 50o

(4) 1/6o
(1) 0, 0
7. The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength
(2) E

R3
,0
3000 Å is incident on this metal surface. The velocity of
emitted photo-electrons will be
E
(3) 0,
R3
(1) 10 m/sec
(4) Indeterminate (2) 1 × 10
3
m/sec
(3) 4
1 × 10 m/ sec

(4) 6
1 × 10 m/ sec

2
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

8. The Kα and Kβ X-rays of molybdenum have wavelengths 13. A rod AB of length l and resistance r is moving on two
0.72 Å and 0.63 Å respectively. The wavelength of Lα X- fixed, resistanceless smooth rails closed on both ends by
ray of the molybdenum is resistances R1, R2 as shown in figure. The current in the
rod at the instant if its velocity is v will be
(1) 4.05 Å
(2) 5.04 Å
(3) 0.405 Å
(4) 0.68 Å
9. The current through the battery in the circuit shown in the
figure is (assume the diodes are ideal)
Bl v

(1) r+
R R
1 2

R +R
1 2

Bl v

(2) rR
1
+ R2
r+R
1

Bl v
(3) R1 + R2

(4) Bl v

r+ R1 + R2

(1) 0.5 A 14. The two slits at a distance of 1 mm are illuminated by the
(2) 1.0 A light of wavelength 6.5 × 10 m . The interference fringes
−7

are observed on a screen placed at a distance of 1m. The

(3) 1.5 A distance between third dark fringe and fifth bright fringe
(4) 0.33 A will be

10. The pitch and the number of divisions, on the circular (1) 0.65 mm
scale, for a given screw gauge are 0.5 mm and 100 (2) 1.63 mm
respectively. When the screw gauge is fully tightened
without any object, the zero of its circular scales lies 3 (3) 3.25 mm
divisions below the mean line. The reading of the main (4) 4.88 mm
scale and the circular scale, for a thin sheet, are 5.5 mm
and 48 respectively, the thickness of this sheet is 15. If in a hypothetical Bohr’s hydrogen atom electron is
replaced by a particle of equal charge and twice mass,
(1) 5.725 mm
then energy E0 of the first orbit will be
(2) 5.740 mm
(1) –27.2 eV
(3) 5.755 mm
(2) –13.6 eV
(4) 5.950 mm
(3) –6.8 eV
11. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to
deliver 20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the (4) 0 eV
efficiency of the transformer is 80% the current drawn 16. In the given figure, what voltage of source is needed to
from the line is maintain 25 V across the load resistance RL, if Zener
(1) 3 A diode required a minimum current of 20 mA to work
satisfactorily?
(2) 30 A
(3) 0.3 A
(4) 2.4 A
12. A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area of 10
mm2. The magnitude of the maximum electric field in this
electromagnetic wave is given by: [Given permittivity of
space ∈0 = 9 × 10–12 SI units, Speed of light c = 3 × 108
m/s]
(1) 1.4 kV/m
(1) 7.5 V
(2) 1 kV/m
(2) 25 V
(3) 2 kV/m
(3) 32.5 V
(4) 0.7 kV/m
(4) 20 V

3
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

17. An optical fibre consists of core of μ­1 surrounded by a 19. Find the equivalent resistance (in Ω) of the network
cladding of μ2 < μ1. A beam of light enters from air at an shown in figure between points A and B if VA > VB .
angle α with axis of fibre. The highest α for which ray can
be travelled through fibre is

(1) 2Ω
(2) 4Ω
(3) 7Ω

−−−−−−
(4) 8Ω
(1) cos
−1
√μ
2
−μ
2
2 1
20. An energy of 24.6 eV is required to remove one of the
−−−−−−
electrons from a neutral helium atom. The energy (in eV)
(2) sin
−1
√μ
2
1
−μ
2
2
required to remove both the electrons from a neutral
helium atom is
−−−−−−
(3) tan
−1
√μ
2
1
−μ
2
2
(1) 79.0

−−−−−−
(2) 51.8
(4) sec
−1
√μ
2
−μ
2
1 2
(3) 49.2

18. Light of wavelength λ strikes a photo-sensitive surface (4) 38.2

and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If the
kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength
must be changed to λ' where

(1) λ' =
λ

(2) λ' = 2λ

(3) λ

2
< λ' < λ

(4) λ' > λ

Section-II

21. The current i in a wire changes with time according to the

law i = i0sin(πt). The total charge in magnitude crossing
through a cross-section in the time interval t = 0 to t = 1 s
nI0
is given by π
, [i0 = +ve constant]. Find the value of n.

4
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

22. A point object starts moving from rest at t = 0 with an 24. The potential energy of a particle of mass m whose total
acceleration 6t m/s2 (t is time in sec) from point O in front mechanical energy is 3E0 varies as
of a plane mirror parallel to the Y-Z plane at a distance of E0 for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2

16 m from O. At t = 0, the plane mirror also starts rotating U (x) = {

0 for x > 2
with constant angular velocity about an axis passing
through the point of intersection of the mirror with X-axis The de-Broglie wavelength of the particle for 0 ≤ x ≤ 2 is
−−
λ2
and perpendicular to the X-Y plane. If at time t = t0 s, co- λ1 and that for x > 2 is λ2. If ratio λ1
equals to √
P

Q
, then
ordinates of image formed by mirror are (16 m, – 8 m), find the value of (P + Q). (P, Q are co-prime numbers)
then the value of t0 is
25. Consider the following nuclear reaction, X200 → A110 +
B90 + energy. If the binding energy per nucleon for X, A
and B are 7.4 MeV, 8.2 MeV and 8.2 MeV respectively, if
the energy released is N MeV, then the value of N

8
is
______.

23. Two polaroids are crossed to each other. Now one of

them is rotated through 60°. If percentage of light that
comes out of the system is k, then find 2k.

5
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

26. Out of the following isomeric forms of uracil, which one is 28. Which of the following reaction DOES NOT involve
present in RNA? Hoffmann bromamide degradation?

(1) (1)

(2)
(2)

(3)

(3)

(4)

(4) 29.

27. The correct decreasing order for acid strength is

FCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH >
(1)
O2NCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

NCCH2COOH > O2NCH2COOH >

(2) Product D is
FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

O2NCH2COOH > NCCH2COOH >

(3)
FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH (1)
O2NCH2COOH > FCH2COOH >
(4)
NCCH2COOH > CICH2COOH

(2)

(3)

(4)

6
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

30. Arrange the following bonds according to their average 33. The correct structures of A and B formed in the following
bond energies in descending order. sequence of reactions are
C – Cl, C – Br, C – F, C – I
(1) C – Cl > C – Br > C – I > C – F
(2) C – Br > C – I > C – Cl > C – F
(3) C – F > C – Cl > C – Br > C – I
(4) C – I > C – Br > C – Cl > C – F
31. Match the following :
Test/Method Reagent
(i) Luca's Test (a) C6H5SO2Cl/aq. KOH
(ii) Duma's method (b) HNO3/AgNO3
(iii) Kjeldahl’s method (c) CuO/CO2
(1)
(iv) Hinsberg test (d) Conc. HCl and anhy. ZnCl2
(e) Conc. H2SO4

(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)

(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(e), (iv)-(a)
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(4) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(e)
32. What is the increasing order of pKa for the following
phenols?
(A) 2,4-Dinitrophenol (2)
(B) 4-Nitrophenol
(C) 2,4,5-Trimethylphenol
(D) Phenol
(E) 3-Chlorophenol
(1) (C) < (E) < (D) < (B) < (A)
(2) (C) < (D) < (E) < (B) < (A)
(3) (A) < (E) < (B) < (D) < (C)
(4) (A) < (B) < (E) < (D) < (C)
(3)

(4)

34. Compound A gives β-D-Galactose and β-D-Glucose on

hydrolysis. The compound A is
(1) Amylose
(2) Lactose
(3) Maltose
(4) Sucrose

7
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

35. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 37.

Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Experimental reaction of CH3Cl with
aniline and anhydrous AlCl3 does not give o and p-
methylaniline.
Reason (R) : The –NH2 group of aniline becomes A in the above reaction is :
deactivating because of salt formation with anhydrous
AlCl3 and hence yields m-methyl aniline as the product.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below. (1)
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(1)
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(2)
explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true. (2)
36. The major products A and B from the following reactions
are :

(3)

(1)

(4)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

38. Identify the product (A) in the following reaction. 40. A compound ‘X’ is acidic and it is soluble in aq. NaOH
solution, but insoluble in aq. NaHCO3 solution.
Compound ‘X’ also gives violet colour with neutral FeCl3
solution. The compound ‘X’ is

(1)

(1)

(2)

(2)

(3)
(3)

(4) (4)

39. A white powder (X) when strongly heated gives off brown
fumes. An aqueous solution of this powder gives a yellow
precipitate with an aqueous solution of KI. When an 41. A solution of metal ion, when treated with KI, gives a red
aqueous solution of barium chloride is added to the precipitate which dissolves in an excess of KI. Moreover,
solution of powder, a white precipitate results. The X may the solution of the metal ion on treatment with a solution
be of cobalt(II) thiocyanate gives rise to a deep blue
crystalline precipitate. The metal ion is
(1) A soluble sulphate
(1) Pb2+
(2) KBr and NaBr
(3) Ba(NO3)2 (2) Hg2+

(4) Pb(NO3)2 (3) Cu2+

(4) Co2+

9
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

42. Compound (A) has formula C5H10O that gives positive 44. A sugar ‘X’ dehydrates very slowly under acidic condition
iodoform test. (A) on reduction with NaBH4/ethanol to give furfural which on further reaction with resorcinol
produces alcohol (B) that on elimination with conc. gives the coloured product after sometime. Sugar ‘X’ is
H2SO4 forms (C). Compound (C) on ozonolysis (1) Aldopentose
(O3/Zn/H2O) forms compounds (D) and (E). Both (D) and
(2) Aldotetrose
(E) give positive iodoform test.
The correct statement on the basis of above information is (3) Oxalic acid
(1) (D) and (E) both give positive Tollen's test (4) Ketotetrose
If ozonolysis of (C) is oxidative then structure of one of 45. The final product (C) formed in the following sequence of
(2)
the products is same as that of (D) or (E) reactions is ______.
(C) on acidic hydrolysis produces 2° alcohol as major
(3)
product
(4) (B) is primary alcohol

43. The major product of the following reaction is

H2 / CO
CH3 CH2 CH = CH2
Rh catalyst

(1)
(1)

(2) CH3CH2CH2CHO

(3) CH3CH2CH2CH2 CHO

(2)
(4) CH3CH2CH = CH — CHO

(3)

(4)

Section-II

10
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

46. The number of isomeric tetraenes (NOT containing sp- 48. C(CH2OH)4 is formed by reaction of acetaldehyde and
hybridized carbon atoms) that can be formed from the another aldehyde (A) in the presence of strong base
following reaction sequence is ______. NaOH by involving two different reaction mechanisms. If
‘n’ is the total number of molecules of (A) reacting with 1
molecule of acetaldehyde and ‘m’ is the magnitude of
molecular mass of (A), then find the value of m + n.
49. The number of chiral centres present in [B] is _____.

47. Compound (P) on nitration with dil. HNO3 yields two

isomers (A) and (B) significantly which show the
intramolecular and intermolecular hydrogen bonding
(i) CH3 MgBr
respectively. Compound (P) on reaction with conc. HNO3 −−−−−−−→ [B]

yields a yellow compound (C), a strong acid. The number (ii) H2 O

of oxygen atoms present in compound (C) is ______.

50.

If the number of hydrogen atoms in the product (P) is x,

then the value of x2 is ______.

11
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

51. Let S = {1, 2, 3, … 2n} be a set and two distinct numbers a 55. The integral 6
3x +7x
2

is equal to g(x) + C
I = ∫ dx
and b are drawn without replacement from S. Let Pk be 5 2
1
2

(x + x + )

the probability that a2 – b2 is divisible by k, then the value

2
x

of P2 is (where C is constant of integration) and g(0) = 0. The

value of g(2) is equal to
(1) n–1

2n (1) 128

145

(n–1)
(2) 2n(2n–1)
(2) 64

157

(3) n–1

2n–1
(3) 32

49

(4) n–1

2n+1
(4) 512

693

52. The solution of the differential equation 56. A teacher wrote either of words "PARALLELOGRAM" or
dy
2
is 1 1
, then "PARALLELOPIPED" on board but due to malfunction of
x +y = y ln x = (1 + ln x) + k
dx p x
marker, word is not properly written and only two
(1) p = x consecutive letters "RA" are visible then the chance that
p
the written word is "PARALLELOGRAM" is . Then, (p +
(2) px = 1 q

q) equals (where p and q are coprime natural numbers)

(3) pxy = 1
(1) 28
(4) p = xy
(2) 33
53. Area bounded by y = [x], y = {x} and y = 0 between x = 0
(3) 22
and x = 2 in square units is (where [⋅] denotes greatest
integer function and {⋅} denotes fractional part function) (4) 32
(1) 1 57. The solution of the differential equation
(2) 1/2 x
dy
+ y = y x
2 3
cos x is y = f(x), where x ∈ [–π, π] – {0}
dx

(3) 3/4 and f (π) =

1

π
, then the value of f (
π

2
) is equal to
(4) 3/2
(1) 4

π
2

54. → →
→
Let ˆ ˆ ˆ
a = 2i − j + k and ˆ ˆ ˆ
a + b = 3 i + 4 j + 5k . If (2) −
2

2
π
→ → →
→ → →
b = α + β , where β is parallel to a and α is 4

→
(3) −
π
2
→ ∣→ ∣
perpendicular to a , then ∣α − β ∣ is
∣ ∣
(4) 2

π2
−−
(1) √42
58. The area bounded by the straight lines x = 0, x = 2 and
the curves y = 2x , y = 2x – x2 in square units is α. If the
−−
(2) √43

(3) −− value of α is a
+b , then the value of a – 3b is equal to
√73 log 2

−−−
(where b is a rational number)
(4) √113
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

12
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

59. A vector whose modulus is −−

√51 and makes the same 64. (√tan θ + √cot θ ) (1+3 tan θ)
If ∫ dθ is equal to f(θ), where
ˆ ˆ ˆ → ˆ ˆ cos2 θ√sec2 θ+2 tan θ
→ i −2j +2k − 4 i −3k →
angle with a = , b = and ˆ
c = j , is
3 5
f (
π

4
) = 4 , then sum of all the solution(s) of f(θ) = 0 for
ˆ ˆ ˆ
p i + q j + rk . The value of |p + q + r| is equal to
θ ∈ (0,
π

2
) is equal to
(1) 1
(1) 3π

(2) 11 2

(3) 9 (2) 4

(4) 8 (3)
π

60. (sin θ+cos θ)

(4) There exist no solution
If ∫ dθ = g(θ) + c , where the maximum value of
√sin 2θ

g(θ) is for θ ∈ [0, ]. The number of solution(s) of the

π π 65. The differential equation of a family of curves is x dy +
sinx sin2y dy = cos2ycosx dx – y dx. If a member of the
2 2

equation |sin(g(x))| = 1 for x ∈ [0, 2π] is equal to

family passes through the origin, then the number of
(1) 3 intersection points of the member curve with the x-axis,
(2) 4 when x ∈ (0, 2π], is

(3) 5 (1) Zero

(4) 6 (2) 1
(3) 2
61. If the distance of the point P(1, 1, 1) from the line passing
through the points Q(0, 6, 8) and R(–1, 4, 7) is expressed (4) 3
−
−
p
in the form √
q
, where p and q are coprime to each 66. Let areas bounded by curve y = |x2 – 2x|, line y = 8 and y-
(p + q)(p + q − 2) axis in I quadrant and II quadrant are A1 and A2
other, then the value of 2
equal to respectively. If k A2 = A1 (k ∈ R), then [k] is, (where [ ]
(1) 4900 represents the greatest integer function)

(2) 4800 (1) Zero

(3) 4850 (2) 1

(4) 4950 (3) 2

(4) 3
62. Two numbers are selected at random from 1, 2, 3 ...... 100
and are multiplied, then the probability correct to two 67. →
→ →
places of decimals that the product thus obtained is a , b and c are non-coplanar unit vectors and
divisible by 3, is →
→ →
→ → →
a . b = λ1 , b . c .= λ2 , c . a = λ3 . then one of the
(1) 0.55 →
→ →
values of [ a b c ] is
(2) 0.44
(3) 0.22 −−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
(1) √1 + 2 λ λ λ
1 2 3 + λ1
2
+ λ2
2
+ λ3
2

(4) 0.33
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
63. Solution of
differential equation (2) √1 − 2 λ λ λ
2 2 2
1 2 3 + λ1 + λ2 + λ3

y(3y + 1) dx + x(5y + 1)dy = 0 , is x = f(y). If the curve

2 2

passes through (1, 1), then (3) √λ

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
2 2 2
1 + λ2 + λ3 − 1 + 2λ1 λ2 λ3

(1) f(2) > 2

−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−

(2) f(3) > 3 (4) √1 + 2 λ λ λ

1 2 3 − λ1
2
− λ2
2
− λ3
2

(3) lim f (y) is zero 68. Mr. A chooses a natural number uniformly at random from
y→∞
the interval [1, 2017]. Independently, Mr. B chooses a
natural number uniformly at random from the interval [1,
(4) f(1) ≠ 1 4034]. The probability that B’s number is greater than A’s
number if it is given that both numbers are unequal is
equal to

(1) 1

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 5

13
Final Test Series Phase-II-2025_T07 (Code-A)

69. 1/λ
If ∫
cos xdx

2/3
= f (x)(1 + sin x)
6
+c , where c is a
3 6
sin x (1+ sin x)

constant of integration, λ ∈ N and f (

π

2
) = −
1

2
, then

λf (
π

3
) is equal to

(1) 9

(2) −
9

(3) –2
(4) 2

70. If the two lines x−2 y+1

and
l1 : = , z = 2
3 −2

2y+3
l2 :
x−1

1
=
α
=
z+5

2
are perpendicular, then an angle
2y−1
between the lines l2 and l3 :
1−x

3
=
−4
=
z

4
is

(1) sin
–1
(
2

29
)

(2) sec
–1
(
29

4
)

(3) cos
–1
(
29
2
)

(4) cos
–1
(
2
)
√29

Section-II

71. The differential equation of a curve x = f(y) is given by 74. The position vectors of two points A and C are
dy
=
1
. If the curve passes through the point (–2, 1), ˆ ˆ ˆ
9 i − j + 7k and ˆ ˆ ˆ
7 i − 2 j + 7k respectively. The point of
dx y 2 (y 3 −x)

intersection of the lines containing vectors

then the absolute value of f(–1) is
−
−→ −→
−
ˆ
AB = 4 î − ĵ + 3k and ˆ
C D = 2 î − ĵ + 2k is P. If a vector
72. Let a and b are two positive real numbers. Vectors
−
−→ −
−→ −→
−
→ ˆ
i
ˆ
4j
ˆ
and
→
ˆ ˆ 1 ˆ
, then the PQ is perpendicular to AB , CD and PQ = 15 units, the
α = + + bk β = b i + aj + k
a b b

possible position vectors of Q are ˆ ˆ ˆ

x1 i + x2 j + x3 k and
maximum value of 10

→ →
is
3
5+ α ⋅ β
ˆ ˆ ˆ
y1 i + y2 j + y3 k . Then, the value of ∑ ( xi + yi ) is equal to
73. If the area bounded by curves f(x) = max.{x2, x3}, i=1

between x = 0 and x = 2, is square units, where m and m

75.
, then 5eλ is equal to
2
5
n
If ∫
x −1
dx = λ
n are relatively prime positive integers, then the value of 1 3
x +2x +x
2

(m + n) is

14