Zuku Navle Study Prep
1. Which one of the following vaccines is considered a core vaccine for
South American camelids?
A - Rabies
B - Tetanus
C - Listeria
D - Equine herpes virus I
E - Bovine viral diarrhea virus: B - Tetanus
2. Which of the following pairs of tissues can both cause increased serum
alanine aminotransferase (ALT) levels in dogs and cats?
A - Pancreas and intestine
B - Kidneys and pancreas
C - Liver and muscle
D - Spleen and adrenals
E - Heart and kidneys: C - Liver and muscle
3. When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi, for
example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of
the following organisms?
A - Escherechia coli
B - Clostridium novyi
C - Lawsonia intracellularis
D - Rhodococcus equi
E - Clostridium difficile: E - Clostridium difficile
4. Which one of the following choices is a major clinical complication of
equine pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction?
A - Dyshormonogenetic goiter
B - Circling, head-pressing
C - Diabetes insipidus
D - Colic
E - Laminitis: E - Laminitis
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
5. A two-year-old Angus cow is presented with weakness of the hind limbs
and a staggering gait.
On physical exam, the heart rate and respiratory rate are slow and irregular,
and the pupils are dilated.
The cow's breath and urine smell like the odor of mouse urine.
Suddenly the cow's pulse becomes rapid and thready, she collapses, and
dies of apparent respiratory failure.
Which one of the following plants is most likely to have caused this
spectrum of clinical signs?
A - Pinus ponderosa (Western yellow pine)
B - Veratrum spp (False hellebore, Skunk cabbage)
C - Centaurea spp (Knapweed, Yellow star thistle)
D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
E - Tetradymia spp (Horsebrush): D - Conium maculatum (Poison hemlock)
6. You are presented a healthy ten-year-old maiden mare for breeding
evaluation in January in North America.
On rectal palpation, both ovaries have multiple, small (less than 15 mm)
follicles and no corpus lutea.
The uterus is flaccid with no edema.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation of the
findings in this mare?
A - Seasonal anestrus
B - The mare is in diestrus
C - Estrus has just passed
D - Early pregnancy
E - The mare is too old and now is infertile: A - Seasonal anestrus
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
7. An 11-year-old male, neutered Cavalier King Charles spaniel is presented
for an episode of acute collapse with inability to support himself on the hind
limbs and disorientation.
Based on the radiographs and history, which one of the following tests
would be next indicated?
A - Magnetic resonance imaging
B - Edrophonium challenge test
C - Myelography
D - Bronchoscopy
E - Echocardiography: E - Echocardiography
8. An eight-year-old dog is found recumbent and non-responsive in a horse
pasture.
His left pupil is small, the right one is moderately dilated but responds to
light.
The right upper eyelid and lip are droopy, hanging lower than normal. Head
trauma is suspected.
The mucous membranes are pale pink, capillary refill time is 1-2 seconds.
T= 98.7°F, (37.0°C) [N 100-102.5°F, 37.8-39.2°C]
HR=56 [N 90-160 beats/min]
The respiratory rate and pattern are quite variable.
He breathes fast and deep for 5-6 breaths, then more slowly and shallowly,
then is apneic for 10 seconds. The pattern repeats over and over.
Click here to see a diagram of the respiratory pattern.
What is this respiratory pattern?
A - Orthopnea
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
B - Cheyne-Stokes breathing
C - Apneustic respiration pattern
D - Agonal respiration
E - Kussmaul pattern: B - Cheyne-Stokes breathing
9. A flock of sheep has been grazing on Sorghum halepense (Johnson
grass), Tetradymia spp. (horsebrush) and Artemisia nova (black sage).
Many of the exposed animals have edema, especially in their heads. This
lamb has edema around the eyes and the ears show hyperkeratinized tissue.
What is the photosensitizing agent responsible for this condition?
A - Tetradymia spp.
B - Chlorophyll
C - Phylloerythrin
D - Artemisia nova
E - Bile acids: C - Phylloerythrin
10. What is the purpose of placing a permanent rumen fistula in some
cattle?
A - This procedure is not done on a permanent basis in cows
B - Allow for direct administration of medications into rumen long-term
C - Manage vagal indigestion in the fistulated animal
D - Create transfaunation donors
E - Treat traumatic reticuloperitonitis in the fistulated animal: D - Create
transfaunation donors
11. A three-year-old Irish setter is presented with a history of lameness and
swelling in the distal forelimb.
A radiograph is shown below (may take a few moments to load).
What is the presumptive diagnosis?
https://www.merckvetmanual.com/multimedia/zk/v4739110
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
A - Panosteititis
B - Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
C - Osteomyelitis
D - Osteosarcoma
E - Osteochondrosis: D - Osteosarcoma
12. Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of
trigeminal neuritis?
A - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing
B - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs
C - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor
D - Inability to close the mouth
E - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face: D - Inability to
close the mouth
13. Two calves aged eight weeks are presented that are both down and
extremely weak.
They are depressed and lying in pools of foul-smelling brown diarrhea with a
small amount of blood.
One other calf died suddenly the night before with no signs at all.
They are found to be dehydrated, with rectal temperatures of 105.2 and 105.6
F (40.7 40.9 C)..[N=101.5-103.5F, N=37.8-39.7 C], respectively.
Based on the condition at the top of the differential diagnosis list, what is
the treatment plan?
A - Immunize well and sick calves and adult cattle with MLV vaccine,
antibiotics for sick calves
B - NSAIDS, antibiotics in feed and water
C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, fequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic
D - Cull sick calves, disinfect feeding areas, prophylactic antibiotics and
NSAIDs for well animals
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
E - Isolate sick calves, immunize, antibiotics, cull those that do not respond
to treatment: C - IV fluids, NSAIDS, fequent milk feeding, antibiotics if septic
14. A two-year-old heifer is presented who died the night before.
She was stunted compared to her herdmates, and had a three-week history
of poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea.
Necropsy reveals that the abomasum is edematous and covered in small
umbilicated nodules 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone or "Moroccan leather"
appearance).
Several other younger cows in this Spring-calving herd look unthrifty and
have diarrhea too.
Which one of the following options is the most consistently effective against
all stages of this parasite?
A - Amprolium
B - Thiabendazole
C - Levamisole
D - Ivermectin
E - Morantel: D - Ivermectin
15. At what age do a cow's permanent 4th incisors begin to erupt in the
mandible?
A - 7-8 years
B - 2 to 2.5 years
C - 3 years
D - 3.5 to 4 years
E - 5-6 years: D - 3.5 to 4 years
16. A flock from a turkey farm is presented with a mysterious illness. Several
dead birds are notable, mostly younger animals.
Sick turkeys are listless, with drooping wings, unkempt feathers, yellow
droppings. Sick older birds are emaciated.
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
Necropsy shows a yellowish green, caseous exudate in the ceca, cecal
ulcerations and thickening of the cecal wall.
A typical liver looks like the image below.
What is the diagnosis?
Click here to see image
A - Necrotic enteritis
B - Histomoniasis
C - Avian spirochetosis
D - Coronaviral enteritis of turkeys
E - Hemorrhagic enteritis of turkeys: B - Histomoniasis
17. Acromegaly is associated with what three diseases in cats?
A - Hypoadrenocorticism, Congestive heart failure, Hepatic lipidosis
B - Hyperadrenocorticism, Pleural effusion, Lameness
C - Diabetes mellitus, Cardiomyopathy, Renal disease
D - Prognathism, Pulmonary edema, Pulmonary Hypertension
E - Vertebral spondylosis, 3rd degree heart block, Glomerulonephritis: C -
Diabetes mellitus, Cardiomyopathy, Renal disease
18. Under what conditions is a very sensitive test used?
A - Rare disease, Early diagnosis improves prognosis
B - Lethal disease, Highly prevalent disease
C - Treatment does not affect prognosis, Non-infectious diseases
D - Common disease, infectious diseases
E - Zoonoses, untreatable diseases: A - Rare disease, Early diagnosis
improves prognosis
19. A large male guinea pig from a group of four is presented with swollen
and scabby hind feet from which Staphylococcus aureus is cultured.
Which one of the following recommendations is the most appropriate
choice?
A - Isolate affected animal, treat with oral amoxicillin
B - Improve sanitation, install smooth-floored enclosure
C - Cull affected animal, increase ventilation of environment for remaining
animals
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
D - Tetracycline-medicated water for all animals
E - Debridement and topical 1% butenafine cream: B - Improve sanitation,
install smooth-floored enclosure
20. NAVLE® Question of the Day:
A cow is presented on emergency with urea/non-protein nitrogen toxicity.
What is the treatment of choice?
A - Rumenotomy
B - Relieve bloat, drench with 2-8 liters sodium bicarbonate
C - IV Fluids with MgSO4, Na thiosulfate PO
D - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water
E - Atropine, Protopam chloride IV q 4-6 hours: D - Rumenal infusion 2-8 liters
vinegar, 3-10 gallons cold water
21. Which organism determines the minimum temperature needed to
pasteurize milk in the United States? A - Mycobacterium bovis
B - Listeria monocytogenes
C - Brucella abortus
D - Escherichia coli
E - Coxiella burnetii: E - Coxiella burnetii
22. Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications.
Which other organism works in conjunction with Mycoplasma
hyopneumonia to cause exudative bronchopneumonia and polyarthritis?
A - Bordetella bronchiseptica
B - Fusobacterium necrophorum
C - Hemophilus parasuis
D - Pasteurella multocida
E - Swine influenza virus: D - Pasteurella multocida
23. Retained placenta and metritis can predispose to which one of the
following secondary conditions in horses?
A - Laminitis
B - Postpartum dysgalactia syndrome
C - Contagious equine metritis
D - Cystic endometriosis
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
E - Colic: A - Laminitis
24. A 12-year-old spayed female black Scottish terrier is presented with a
three week history of limping on the right forelimb.
The second digit of the paw is enlarged, ulcerated, and bleeding with a loose
toenail.
A lytic bone lesion of the 3rd phalanx is visible on radiographs, and cytology
of a fine needle aspirate of the mass suggests neoplasia.
If biopsy of the mass confirms malignant subungual melanoma, which one
of the following choices contain the best advice to the owner?
A - Long-term prognosis is excellent if the tumor is completely resected. B
- Metastasis is common. Radical excision, plus adjuvant therapies is
typically recommended
C - Due to the exquisite sensitivity of melanoma to radiotherapy, it is
preferred as a sole treatment
D - DNA-based vaccine encoding canine tyrosinase is effective against
oral tumors but not licensed for subungual melanoma
E - Nail bed melanomas in dogs are almost always benign a: B -
Metastasis is common. Radical excision, plus adjuvant therapies is typically
recommended
25. During the necropsy of an eight-year-old mixed breed dog from the
Southern United States, reactive granulomas in the esophagus containing
bright red worms, 40 mm to 70 mm long are found.
Which choice is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Ollulanus tricuspis
B - Haemonchus placei
C - Spirocerca lupiD - Gastrophilus spp.
E - Physaloptera spp.: C - Spirocerca lupi
26. A five-year old lactating Holstein dairy cow is being evaluated for a two-
month history of watery diarrhea, weight loss, and decline in milk production.
On examination, the cow is bright, alert and responsive, but unthrifty and
very thin, with a soft intermandibular swelling.
What is the most appropriate management of this herd?
A - Cull positives, ensure 4 L. colostrum uptake for calves
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
B - Quarantine herd, treat until herd tests negative
C - Test herd, treat positive animals, add coccidiostat to ration
D - Test herd, cull positives, remove calves from dam at birth
E - Test herd, treat positive animals, test and treat replacements: D - Test
herd, cull positives, remove calves from dam at birth
Most likely Johne's disease caused by Mycobacterium paratuberculosis
27. A female show dog is approaching estrus and the owner has consulted
you about planning a breeding for this dog.
She is aware of the signs of proestrus and plans to contact you when those
are apparent in her dog.
In addition to vaginal cytology, which one of the following will be the most
useful to you in planning the timing of breeding?
A - Vaginoscopy
B - Determination of serum estrogen levels
C - Timed administration of luteinizing hormone
D - Serial progesterone testing
E - Ovarian ultrasonography: D - Serial progesterone testing
28. A 12-year-old neutered male black labrador retriever is presented with a
three week history of limping on the right fore.
The lateral digit is swollen and the nail is deviated ventrally, with ulceration
of the nail bed.
A lytic bone lesion of the 2nd phalanx is visible on a radiograph and
cytology of the mass suggests neoplasia.
Chest radiographs are clear.
Following amputation of the digit, histopathology indicates that the mass is
a squamous cell carcinoma.
Which of the following is the best advice for the owner?
A - 95% chance he will survive 1 year
B - Chemotherapy is indicated
C - Radiotherapy is indicated
D - Guarded prognosis
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
E - 50% chance he will survive 1 year: A - 95% chance he will survive 1 year
29. What is the most common clinical sign exhibited by a horse with cystic
calculi (bladder stones)?
A - Straining to defecate
B - Colic
C - Hematuria after exercise
D - Uremic breath and urethral ulcers
E - Inappetance: C - Hematuria after exercise
30. A seven-year-old dog weighing 24 lbs (10.9 kg) is presented after the
owner caught the dog eating warfarin-containing rat poison the day before.
The dog has no overt clinical signs at presentation.
Baseline coagulation parameters are normal [Prothrombin time (PT),
Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and Proteins induced by vitamin
K1 absence or antagonism (PIVKA)].
The dog is confined to limit exercise and monitored. At 72 hours PT and
PIVKA tests are elevated.
Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate treatment step?
A - Oral vitamin K1
B - Plasma transfusion
C - Blood transfusion
D - Subconjunctival apomorphine
E - Activated charcoal: A - Oral vitamin K1
31. In which equine virus is antigenic drift the most important in the
development of novel strains?
A - Adenovirus
B - Herpesvirus-4
C - Herpesvirus-1
D - Influenza virus
E - Papillomavirus: D - Influenza virus
32. Prior to the 1950s, heat pasteurization of milk was done principally to
prevent transmission of one organism to people.
Today, that organism is re-emerging in bi-national communities with ties to
Mexico who consume unpasteurized milk products.
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
What is the organism?
A - Mycobacterium bovis
B - Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7
C - Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis
D - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
E - Mycobacterium avium: A - Mycobacterium bovis
33. It is noticed on a flow chart that a doctor had entered "ongoing losses
WNL" under the comments section. What are "ongoing losses" in fluid
therapy?
A - Urine output
B - Fluids given minus extracellular volume estimate
C - Fluid lost during panting
D - Vomiting and diarrhea
E - Percent dehydration multiplied by body weight: D - Vomiting and diarrhea
34. A mare is presented with a history of intermittent lameness in the right
fore involving a shortened stride and occasional stumbling.
She relieves pain by pointing the affected foot with the heel off the ground.
A flexion test of the distal right forelimb exacerbates the lameness
temporarily. Which one of the following choices is the most likely
diagnosis? A - Laminitis
B - Caudal heel pain
C - Villonodular synovitis
D - Pedal osteitis
E - Sidebone: B - Caudal heel pain
35. A four-year-old male, neutered cat is presented with a history of severe
lethargy and inappetance.
The cats mucous membranes are extremely pale and his PCV at
presentation is 9%. [Normal=30-45%]
A blood transfusion is indicated.
Which one of the following choices best explains the rationale for blood
typing prior to transfusion in cats?
A - Cats have naturally-occurring antibodies against the blood group
antigen they lack
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
B - Blood typing is not necessary. Cats are universal receivers and can
receive any blood type
C - Cats that are negative for DEA 1.1 are more likely to have a reaction to
DEA 1.1 positive blood
D - If donor is Type A, it is a universal donor and recipient typing is not
neededE - Blood typing will determine if recipient cat is Rh factor negative
or Rh positive: A - Cats have naturally-occurring antibodies against the blood
group antigen they lack
36. NAVLE® Question of the Day:
A commercial turkey operation experiences an outbreak of disease in 40% of
its 12-16 week old birds. Typically affected birds show only depression, then
death.
Some animals appear weak, recumbent with one leg forward and one leg
back.
On necropsy, diffuse or nodular lymphoid tumors are visible in various
organs, particularly the liver, and spleen. Two affected birds have distorted
pupils.
What is the diagnosis?
A - Viral hepatitis of turkeys
B - Newcastle disease
C - Marek's disease
D - Infectious bursal disease
E - Histomoniasis: C - Marek's disease
37. Many hens in a large backyard flock recently became ill after the owner
purchased four new chickens. The sick hens are gasping, coughing and
sneezing.
They have poor appetite and act depressed. Some affected birds have
watery green diarrhea and swelling of the head and neck.
A few have paralyzed legs and wings, twisted necks, are circling, and have
tremors or clonic spasms.
Birds are not laying well and some eggs are misshapen with watery
albumen.
Many of the sickest birds have died.
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
Necropsy of a dead chicken shows petechial hemorrhages on the
mucosal surface of the proventriculus and gizzard (left). What should be
done next to address this problem?
A - Increase poultry house temperatures to reduce morbidity
B - Disinfect housing with phenolic compounds, barrier precautions for staff
C - Treat all affected chickens with amprolium
D - Cull affected birds and vaccinate the remainder
E - Report outbreak to regulatory a: E - Report outbreak to regulatory
authorities 38. Which one of the following hormones can induce neoplastic
transformation of hypertrophied mammary tissue in cats?
A - Oxytocin
B - Progesterone
C - Estrogen
D - Testosterone
E - Prolactin: B - Progesterone
39. Which one of the following organisms transmits the causative agent of
blackhead disease in turkeys?
A - Heterakis gallinarum
B - Ascardia galli
C - Capillaria spp
D - Eimeria spp
E - Raillietina spp: A - Heterakis gallinarum
40. Which one of the following would be the best way to prevent a vibriosis
abortion storm in ewes?
A - Vaccination program
B - Separate lambs from ewes and bottle-feed colostrum-replacer
C - Cull affected ewes
D - Twice yearly ivermectin
E - Chloramphenicol in the water: A - Vaccination program
41. Syndactyly is most commonly found in which of the following
cattle breeds? A - Brown Swiss
B - Angus
C - Hereford
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
D - Holstein-Friesian
E - Simmental: D - Holstein-Friesian
42. Several piglets in a group weaned ten days ago in the nursery facility of
a large commercial swine operation were found dead.
On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead.
Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic.
Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema.
What is the most likely causative organism?
A - Brachyspira hyodysenteriae
B - Escherichia coli
C - Lawsonia intracellularis
D - Clostridium septicum
E - Streptococcus suis: B - Escherichia coli
43. Oxalate is the toxic agent found in which one of the following plants?
A - Hypericum perforatum (klamathweed)
B - Delphinium spp. (larkspur)
C - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood)
D - Hordeum spp. (foxtail)
E - Solanum spp. (nightshade): C - Sarcobatus vermiculatus (greasewood) 44.
Acquired equine motor neuron disease is a disease characterized by
weight loss, paresis with trembling, preference for lying down, and
decreased activity.
Which one of the following choices is associated with this disease?
A - Thiamine deficiency
B - Vitamin E deficiency
C - Lead toxicosis
D - Organophosphate toxicosis
E - Rickettsial infection: B - Vitamin E deficiency
45. A chicken farm has had several ill and dead birds over the past week.
Examination of the sick chickens shows severe depression, ecchymoses and
edema of the comb and wattles, green diarrhea.
Some are unable to walk with absent perching reflexes.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
A - Avian encephalomyelitis
B - Avian influenza
C - Infectious coryza
D - Infectious bronchitis
E - Mycoplasma gallisepticum: B - Avian influenza
46. A 15-year-old cat is presented with a three week progression of
wandering in circles to the left, standing in corners, and dull mentation.
Conscious proprioceptive deficits (knuckling) can be elicited in the right
thoracic and right pelvic limbs.
There is a decreased menace response on the right, but palpebral and
pupillary light reflexes are normal in both eyes.
The rest of the examination is normal. A brain tumor is suspected.
Where is the most likely location of the lesion?
A - Right brainstem
B - Right cerebrum
C - Left brainstem
D - Left cerebrum
E - Cerebellum: D - Left cerebrum
47. A six-year-old female spayed cocker spaniel is presented with a two-day
history of lethargy. Upon physical exam mucosal petechiae and
ecchymoses and an ocular hemorrhage in the right eye are noted.
A coagulation profile shows the following:Thrombocytes= 12,720
[N=200,000-900,000].Buccal mucosal bleeding time (BMBT),
increasedActivated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), normalProthrombin
time (PT), normalThrombin time (TT), normal
Which one of the following diseases is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Hepatic insufficiency
B - Von Willebrand's disease
C - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity
D - Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
E - Immune-mediated thrombocytopenia: E - Immune-mediated
thrombocytopenia
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
48. A group of feeder pigs is presented for strange behavior.The pig farmer
complains they are hyperexcitable yet are not squealing.A few are lethargic,
wandering aimlessly, and seem to be blind.
Bloodwork shows a marked increase in sodium concentration.
Upon inspection of the pen, it turns out that the waterer had been
inadvertently turned off.Which one of the following treatments is indicated?
A - Frequent small amounts of water
B - Ad lib H2O access
C - Mannitol
D - Furosemide
E - Hypertonic saline solution IV, rapid bolus: A - Frequent small amounts of
water
49. A positive serology for Sarcocystis neurona antibodies in the serum of a
horse indicates which one of the following?
A - Favorable response to treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
B - Definitive diagnosis of equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
C - Poor response to treatment for equine protozoal myeloencephalitis
D - Exposure to Sarcocystis neurona
E - The horse has been in Africa: D - Exposure to Sarcocystis neurona
50. A nine-year-old German Shepherd is presented for non-productive
retching. Physical examination reveals severe abdominal pain and in shock.
After starting fluid therapy, a lateral abdominal radiograph is made.
The dog is taken to surgery and laparotomy reveals what is seen in the
second image below.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
https://zukureview.com/navle/qod?special_id=13573&letter=D
Image courtesy, Dr Kalumet.
A - Intussussuption
B - Linear foreign body
C - Intestinal lymphosarcoma
D - Mesenteric volvulus
E - Gastrointestinal ulceration: D - Mesenteric volvulus
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51. Which one of the following diseases have been linked with the variant
form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (vCJD) in humans?
A - Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
B - Q fever
C - Sporadic bovine encephalomyelitis
D - Equine West Nile virus encephalitis
E - Eastern equine encephalomyelitis (EEE): A - Bovine spongiform
encephalopathy
52. A four-year-old male beagle presents with straining and crying when
attempting to urinate.
Only drops of bloody urine are produced.
A lateral abdominal radiograph reveals the presence of stones in the bladder
and the urethra. The os penis is pictured below.
Which one of the following choices is the next best step in this case?
A - Flush stones back into bladder
B - Abdominal ultrasonography
C - Try to express the urinary bladder
D - Perform a pyelogram
E - Schedule cystotomy later in the week: A - Flush stones back into bladder
53. A horse recently imported from Dubai died after a being ill for about 2
weeks in a quarantine facility. He was febrile and very depressed, with
dyspnea and respiratory distress in the last 24 hours.
Other signs included hyperemia of the conjunctiva and edema all over the
head and neck, especially the eyelids and the supraorbital fossae. Necropsy
reveals a clear pericardial effusion, froth in the upper airways, and heavy
distended lungs.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Equine influenza
B - Equine infectious anemia
C - African horse sickness
D - Equine viral arteritis
E - Piroplasmosis: C - African horse sickness
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Zuku Navle Study Prep
54. A 15-year-old Quarter horse mare is presented for right front lameness
grade 3/5 on the AAEP lameness scale (lameness consistently visible at the
trot).
She becomes sound after an abaxial nerve block.
Radiographs of the distal limb look like this:
Click here to see image
What is the top differential diagnosis?
A - Spavin
B - Chronic proliferative synovitis
C - High ringbone
D - Pedal osteitis
E - Exostosis of the second metacarpal: C - High ringbone
55. Most of the fish in a tank of freshwater tropical fish look like the example
shown below.
The owner notes that the affected fish seem sluggish.
They began to show these signs after introduction of several recently-
purchased fish.
What is the best treatment choice, based on the probable diagnosis?
A - Formalin in the water
B - Metronidazole
C - None. It is a self-limiting condition
D - Improve sanitation and decrease stocking number
E - Sulfamethazine: A - Formalin in the water
56. Fumonisin intoxication is primarily associated with which clinical signs?
A - Leukoencephalomalacia, hypertension
B - Salivation, retching
C - Estrogenism, vulvovaginitis
D - Vomiting, immunosuppression
E - Terminal necrosis of extremities, gangrene: A - Leukoencephalomalacia,
hypertension
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57. Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic for which one of
the following organisms? A - Bartonella spp.
B - Babesia canis
C - Rickettsia rickettsii
D - Borrelia burgdorferi
E - Trypanosoma congolense: B - Babesia canis
58. Which one of the following choices includes the cardinal sign of
trigeminal neuritis?
A - Dysphagia, dysphonia and stridor
B - Circling and head tilt toward side of lesion, no other signs
C - Masseter muscle pain associated with chewing
D - Paralyzed eyelid, ear or lip on one or both sides of the face
E - Inability to close the mouth: E - Inability to close the mouth
59. An outbreak of diarrheal disease of piglets has occurred which affected
the healthiest animals in the herd, one to two weeks after weaning.
Some affected piglets had no signs except peracute death.
Other affected piglets exhibit diarrhea, ataxia, paralysis, and recumbency.
What condition is at the top of the differential diagnosis list?
A - Edema disease
B - Epidemic transmissible gastroenteritis (TGE)
C - Hemagglutinating encephalomyelitis virus (HEV)
D - /Clostridium perfringens/ type C enteritis
E - Porcine proliferative enteritis: A - Edema disease
60. Which of the following is the correct location for placement of a proximal
paravertebral block used to perform a standing laparotomy in a cow?
A - In the spaces between L1, L2, L3, and L4
B - Above and below the transverse processes of L1, L2 and L4
C - Caudal to the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2
D - Midway between spine and the ends of the transverse processes of L1,
L2,
L3
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E - At the ends of the transverse processes of L1, L2, and L4: C - Caudal to
the transverse processes of T13, L1, and L2
61. Which one of the following choices is the most appropriate next step after
a three-year-old stray cat tests positive for Feline Immunodeficiency Virus
(FIV) on a routine FIV ELISA screening test?
A - Treat with glucocorticoids
B - Do a Rivalta test to rule out feline coronavirus-related interference
C - Euthanize
D - Perform a Western blot FIV test
E - Recheck serum by FIV complement fixation test: D - Perform a Western
blot FIV test
62. A nine-year-old Irish setter is presented for vomiting.
The owner states that the dog does not really retch, but just spits up food
soon after eating.
The dog is normal otherwise.
Based on the lateral radiograph below, which one of the following choices is
the most likely diagnosis?
A - Gastric foreign body
B - Megaesophagus
C - Mediastinal mass
D - Persistent right aortic arch
E - Pulmonary bullae: B - Megaesophagus
63. Imidocarb diproprionate is the most effective therapeutic for which one
of the following organisms?
A - /Bartonella /spp.
B - /Trypanosoma congolense/
C - /Rickettsia rickettsii/
D - /Babesia canis/
E - /Borrelia burgdorferi/:
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64. While conducting a routine physical on a four-year-old male intact bulldog,
an irregular heart rhythm with a slow rate that is markedly slower on
expiration is audible during auscultation.
What should be done next?
Value
Normal
T=102.1 F (38.9 C)
99.5-102.5 F, 37.2-39.2 C
HR=65 bpm
60-120
RR=24 brpm
15-34
A - Chest radiograph, CBC, blood chemistry panel
B - Nothing
C - Echocardiogram
D - Refer for cardiology consult
E - Blood pressure assessment: B - Nothing
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