Shiv Chhatrapati Shikshan Sanstha, Latur.

CET– CELL
Sections : Physics Chemistry Botany Zoology
Questions : 50 50 50 50
Marks : 180 180 180 180
Roll No.
NEET
MT-03
Date : 04 April. 2024
TEST-SERIES-2024 Time : 3.20 Hours

This is to certify that, the entry of Roll No. has been correctly written and verified.

Candidate's Signature Invigilator's Signature

PHYSICS : NCERT Summary + Inrtroduction Exercise

[SECTION-A] 04. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a

01. A new unit of length is chosen in which length is fixed direction is shown in the figure. The distance
equals to the speed of light in vacuum is taken as traversed by the particle between t = 0 s to t = 10s is
unity. If light takes 8 min 20 s to reach from the
surface of the sun to the earth, find the distance in
terms of new unit.
1) 200 units 2) 300 units
3) 400 units 4) 500 units
02. The number of significant figures in 0.007 m2,
0.2370 g cm–3 and 6.032 Nm–2 respectively are
1) 3, 4, 4 2) 1, 4, 4 1) 20 m 2) 40 m
3) 4, 5, 4 4) 1, 3,4 3) 60 m 4) 80 m
03. Figure shows the x-t graph of one-dimensional 05. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the horizontal
motion of a particle. Suggest a suitable physical hits the ground 3 km away. By adjusting its angle
context for this graph. of projection, it can (assume, the muzzle speed to
be fixed and neglect air resistance.)
1) hit a target at 5 km
2) hit a target at 6 km
3) cannot hit a target at 5 km
4) None of the above

1) Particle moves in a straight line for t > 0

2) Particle moves in a straight line for t < 0
3) Particle moves in a parabola for t > 0
4) Motion of freely falling particle

SCSS MT-03 Page 1

06. Figure shows the orientation of two vectors u and 11. A particle has momentum p with components px,
v in the xy-plane. If u  aiˆ  bjˆ and v  piˆ  qjˆ , py and pz, has a position vector r with components
x, y and z. If particle moves in the xoy-plane, then
then which of the following option is correct?
1) angular momentum of particle is zero
2) angular momentum of particle has only
x-component
3) angular momentum of particle has only
y-component
4) angular momentum of particle has only
z-component
12. Weight of a body on surface of earth = 63 N. When
1) a and p are positive, while b and q are
this object is taken above earth surface at a height
negative
2) a, p and b are positive, while q is negative equals to half the radius, its weight becomes
3) a, q and b are positive, while p is negative 1) 28 N 2) 10 N
4) a, b, p and q are all positive 3) 0 4) 63 N
07. You may have seen in a circus a motorcyclist 13. The maximum load, a wire can withstand without
driving in vertical loops inside a ‘death well’ breaking, when its length is reduced to half of its
(a hollow spherical chamber with holes, so the original length, will
spectators can watch from outside). What is the 1) be double 2) be half
minimum speed (is ms –1) required at the 3) be four times 4) remain same
uppermost position to perform a vertical loop, if 14. Along a streamline,
the radius of the chamber is 25 m? 1) the velocity of all fluid particles remains
1) 15.65 2) 12.48 constant
3) 14.56 4) 18.48
2) the velocity of all fluid particles crossing a
08. A body constrained to move along Z-axis of a
given position is constant
coordinate system is subjected to a constant force
3) the velocity of all fluid particles at a given
ˆ , where î , ĵ and
F is given by F  (  ˆi  2ˆj  3k)N instant is constant
4) the speed of all fluid particles remains
k̂ are the unit vectors along the X, Y and Z-axes of
constant
the system, respectively. What is the work done
15. As the temperature is increased, the period of a
by this force in moving the body a distance of 4 m
along the Z-axis? pendulum
1) 10 J 2) 12 J 1) increases as its effective length increases even
3) 24 J 4) 28 J though its centre of mass still remains at the
09. A body is initially at rest. It undergoes one- centre of the bob
dimensional motion with constant acceleration. The 2) decreases as its effective length increases even
power delivered to it at time t is proportional to though its centre of mass still remains at the
1) t 1/2 2) t centre of the bob
3) t 3/2 4) t2 3) increases as its effective length increases due
10. A child sits stationary at one end of a long trolley to shifting to centre of mass below the centre
moving uniformly with a speed  on a smooth of the bob
horizontal floor. If the child gets up and runs about 4) decreases as its effective length remains same
on the trolley in any manner, what is the speed of
but the centre of mass shifts above the centre
the centre of mass of the (trolley + child) system?
of the bob
1) Increase 2) Remains constant
3) Decrease 4) None of the above

SCSS MT-03 Page 2

16. An ideal gas undergoes four different processes 20. Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R
from the same initial state (figure). Four processes and total charge indicated. The net electric poten-
are adiabatic, isothermal, isobaric and isochoric. tial at the centre of curvature is
Out of 1 2, 3 and 4 which one is adiabatic?

1) 4 2) 3
3) 2 4) 1
17. Assertion : If a gas chamber containing a gas is
Q Q
moved translationally, then temperature of gas will 1) 2)
increase. 2 0 R 4 0 R
Reason : Total kinetic energy of the chamber will 2Q Q
increase by the translational motion. 3) 0 R 4) 0 R
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason 21. Which one of the following graphs represents the
is the correct explanation of Assertion. variation of maximum kinetic energy (EK) of the
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason emitted electrons with frequency u in photoelec-
is not the correct explanation of Assertion. tric effect correctly ?
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
18. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
incorrect for mechanical waves?
1) 2)
1) These waves require a medium for
propagation, they cannot propagate through
vacuum.
2) They involve oscillations of constituent
particles.
3) They depend on the elastic properties of the
medium.
4) They have the same speed in all the media.
3) 4)
19. A parallel plate air capacitor is charged to a potential
difference of V volts. After disconnecting the
charging battery the distance between the plates
of the capacitor is increased using an insulating 22. If E1, E2, E3 are the respective kinetic energies of an
handle. As a result the potential difference between electron, an alpha-particle and a proton, each
the plates having the same de-Broglie wavelength, then
1) does not change 2) becomes zero 1) E1 > E3 > E2 2) E2 > E3 > E1
3) increases 4) decreases 3) E1 > E2 > E3 4) E1 = E2 = E3

SCSS MT-03 Page 3

23. The total current supplied to the circuit by the 28. The instantaneous values of alternating current and
battery is voltages in a circuit are given as
1
i sin(100 t) ampere
2
1
e sin(100 t + /3) Volt
2
The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit
1) 4A 2) 2A is :
3) 1A 4) 6A
1 3
24. The intensity at the maximum in a Young’s double 1) 2)
4 4
slit experiment is I0. Distance between two slits is
d = 5, where  is the wavelength of light used in 1 1
3) 4)
the experiment. What will be the intensity in front 2 8
of one of the slits on the screen placed at a distance 29. For a prism kept in air it is found that for an angle
D = 10 d ? of incidence 60°, the angle of Prism A, angle of
I0 deviation  and angle of emergence ‘e’ become
1) I0 2) equal. Then the refractive index of the prism is
4
1) 1.73 2) 1.15
3 I0
3) I0 4) 3) 1.5 4) 1.33
4 2
30. In the phenomena of diffraction of light, when blue
25. A closely wound solenoid of 2000 turns and area
light is used in the experiment in spite of red light,
of cross- section 1.5 × 10–4 m2 carries a current of
then
2.0 A. It suspended through its centre and
1) fringes will become narrower
perpendicular to its length, allowing it to turn in a
2) fringes will become broader
horizontal plane in a uniform magnetic field
3) no change in fringe width
5 x 10–2 tesla making an angle of 30° with the axis
of the solenoid. The torque on the solenoid will be: 4) no pattern will be observed
1) 3 × 10–2 N-m 2) 3 × 10–3 N-m 31. During the propagation of electromagnetic waves
3) 1.5 × 10–3 N-m 4) 1.5 × 10–2N-m in a medium:
26. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field 1) Electric energy density is double of the
perpendicular to its direction. Then magnetic energy density.
1) kinetic energy changes but the momentum 2) Electric energy density is half of the magnetic
is constant energy density.
2) the momentum changes but the kinetic 3) Electric energy density is equal to the
energy is constant magnetic energy density.
3) both momentum and kinetic energy of the 4) Both electric and magnetic energy densities
particle are not constant are zero.
4) both momentum and kinetic energy of the 32. The magnetic flux (in weber) linked with a coil of
particle are constant resistance 10  is varying with respect to time t as
27. The primary winding of a transformer has 100  = 4t2 + 2t + 1. Then the current in the coil at time
turns and its secondary winding has 200 turns. The t = 1 second is
primary is connected to an A.C. supply of 120 V 1) 0.5 A 2) 2A
and the current flowing in it is 10 A. The voltage 3) 1.5 A 4) 1A
and the current in the secondary are
1) 240 V, 5 A 2) 240 V, 10 A
3) 60 V, 20 A 4) 120 V, 20 A
SCSS MT-03 Page 4
33. The following configuration of gate is equivalent 38. An electric heater supplies heat to a system at a
to NAND rate of 100 W. If the system performs work at a
rate of 75 Js–1. At what rate is the internal energy
increasing?
1) 30 Js–1 2) 15 Js–1
3) 10 Js–1 4) 25 Js–1
39. The escape velocity of a projectile on earth’s surface
1) NAND gate 2) XOR gate is 11.2 kms–1. A body is projected out with thrice
3) OR gate 4) NOR gate this speed. What is the speed of the body far away
34. If the susceptibility of dia, para and ferromagnetic from the earth? Ignore the presence of sun and
materials are d , p , f respectively, then other planets.
1) 31.7 kms–1 2) 31.7 kmh –1
1) d   p  f 2) d  f   p 3) 108.7 kms –1
4) 270.6 kms–1
3) f  d   p 4)  f   p  d 40. What is the volume of contraction of a solid copper
35. Which of the junction diodes shown below are cube, 10 cm on an edge, when subjected to a
forward biased? hydraulic pressure of 7 × 106 Pa?
B for copper = 140 × 109 Pa.
1) 5 × 10–6 m3 2) 5 × 10–8 m3
3) 9 × 10–4 m3 4) 3 × 10–6 m3
41. A hydraulic automobile lift is designed to lift cars
1) 2) with a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of
cross-section of the piston carrying the load is 425
cm2. What maximum pressure would the smaller
piston can bear?
1) 9 × 105 Pa 2) 6.92 × 105Pa
3) 5 × 105 Pa 4) 3 × 104 Pa
42. A batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 60° without
changing its initial speed which is equal to 54 kmh–1.
3) 4) What is the impulse imparted to the ball?
(Mass of the ball = 0.15 kg).
1) 4.20 kg-ms–1 2) 4.16 kg-ms–1
[SECTION-B] 3) 2.25 kg-ms–1 4) 4.58 kg-ms–1
36. The equation of motion of a particle is x = a cos 43 In the adjoining figure, two very long, parallel wires
(at)2. The motion is A and B carry currents of 10 ampere and 20 ampere
1) periodic but not oscillatory respectively, and are at a distance 20 cm apart. If a
2) periodic and oscillatory third wire C (length 15 cm) having a current of 10
3) oscillatory but not periodic ampere is placed between them, then how much
4) Neither periodic nor oscillatory force will act on C ? The direction of current in all
37. Find out the increase in moment of inertia I of a the three wires is same.
uniform rod (coefficient of linear expansion a)
about its perpendicular bisector when its
1) 3 × 10–5 N (left)
temperature is slightly increased by T.
2) 3 × 10–5N (right)
1) 2IT 2) 4IT
3) 6 × 10–5 N (left)
3) 6IT 4) 3IT
4) 6 × 1–5N (right)
SCSS MT-03 Page 5
44. Figure shows two charges of equal magnitude 47. The relation between the polarising angle and the
separated by a distance 2a. As we move away from critical angle is
the charge situated at x = 0 to the charge situated 1) i p  tan 1 (cos ec c )
at x = 2a, which of the following graphs shows the
correct behaviour of electric field ? 2) i p  tan 1 (sin c )

3) i p  cot 1 (sin  c )

4) i p  cot 1 (cos ec c )
48. A thin convergent glass lens (g = 1.5) has a power
of + 5.0 D. When this lens is immersed in a liquid
of refractive index , it acts as a divergent lens of
1) 2) focal length 100 cm. The value of  must be
1) 4/3 2) 5/3
3) 5/4 4) 6/5
49. The circuit has two oppositively connected ideal
diodes in parallel. The current flowing in the circuit
is

3) 4)

45. To get maximum current in a resistance of 3 ohms,

one can use m rows of n cells (connected in series)
connected in parallel. If the total number of cells is 1) 1.71 A 2) 2.00A
24 and the internal resistance of a cell is 0.5 ohms 3) 2.31 A 4) 1.33 A
then 50. If radius of the 27
13 Al nucleus is taken to be RAl,
1) m = 12, n = 2 2) m = 8, n = 3 then the radius of 125
Te Te nucleus is nearly:
53
3) m = 2, n = 12 4) m = 6, n = 4
46. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition 5 3
1) R Al 2) R Al
from an excited state to the ground state. Which of 3 5
the following statements is true?  13 
1/ 3
 53 
1/ 3

3)   R Al 4)   R Al
1) Its kinetic energy increases and its potential  53   13 
and total energies decreases.
2) Its kinetic energy decreases, potential energy
increases and its total energy remains the
same.
3) Its kinetic and total energies decrease and its
potential energy increases.
4) Its kinetic, potential and total energies
decrease.

SCSS MT-03 Page 6

 CHEMISTRY : NCERT Summary + Inrtroduction Exercise

[SECTION-A] 56. The equilibrium constants of the following are

51. Which of the following would have a permanent 
N2  3H 2   2NH3 K1
dipole moment?

N2  O2  2NO K2
1) SiF4 2) SF 4
3) XeF4 4) BF3 1
H 2  O 2   H2O K 3
52. Assertion : H–F forms a stronger hydrogen bond 2
than H2O. The equilibrium constant (K) of the reaction,
Reason : F is more electronegative than oxygen 5 
K
2NH 3  O 2 
 2NO  3H 2 O
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and 2
Reason is the correct explanation of
1) K1K 33 / K 2 2) K 2 K 33 / K1
Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true 3) K 2K 3 / K1 4) K 32 K 3 / K1
but Reason is not the correct explanation 57. In Diborane, the incorrect statement is
of Assertion. 1) All 6 B–H bond are on same plane
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false. 2) 4 B–H bonds are on the plane and two B–H
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. bonds above and below the plane
3) It is the 12 e– species
53. Correct order of 1st ionization potential amongs
4) Two BH3 are attached with three centre
elements Be, B, C, N, O is
electron pair bond
1) B < Be < C < O < N 2) B < Be < C < N < O
58. Which of the following represents the correct
3) Be < B < C < N < O 4) Be < B < C < O < N
order of increasing electron gain enthalpy with
54. From the following bond energies
negative sign for the elements O, S< F and Cl?
H–H bond energy : 431.37 kJ mol–1
1) Cl < F < O < S 2) O < S < F < Cl
C=C bond energy : 606.10 kJ mol–1
3) F < S < O < Cl 4) S < O < Cl < F
C–C bond energy : 336.49 kJ mol–1
59. Identify the correct statement for change of GIbbs
C–H bond energy : 410.50 kJ mol–1
energy for a system (Gsystem) at constant tempera-
Enthalpy for the reaction,
ture and pressure
1) If Gsystem > 0, the process is spontaneous
2) If G system = 0, the system has attained
equilibrium
3) If Gsystem = 0, the system is still moving in a
will be particular direction
1) – 243.0 kJ mol–1 4) If If Gsystem < 0, the process is not spontaneous
2) – 120.0 kJ mol–1 60. For reaction, 2B  A 
 2C
3) 553.0 kJ mol–1 Which of the following is correct?
4) 1523.6 kJ mol–1 1) Rate of disappearance of B is twice that of
55. In the following equation rate of disappearance of C
2Br2  6CO 23  3H2 O  5Br   BrO3  6HCO 3 2) Rate of disappearance of A is twice that of
1) Bromine is oxidised and carbonate is reduced rate of disappearance of C
2) Bromine is reduced and carbonate is oxidised 3) Rate of appearance of C is twice that of rate
3) Bromine is neither reduced nor oxidised of disappearance of A
4) Bromine is reduced as well oxidised 4) All of these

SCSS MT-03 Page 7

61. Because of lanthanoid contraction, which of the 69. The complexes [Co(NH 3) 6][Cr(CN) 6 ] and
following pairs of elements have nearly same [Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6] are the examples of which
atomic radii? type of isomerism?
(Numbers in the parenthesis are atomic numbers) 1) Geometrical isomerism
1) Zr(40) and Ta(73) 2) Linkage isomerism
2) Ti(22) and Zr(40) 3) Ionization isomerism
3) Zr(40) and (Nb) (1) 4) Coordination isomerism
4) Zr(40) and Hf(72) 70. Which species does not exhibit paramagnetism?
62. Reaction of Cl2 with hot and conc. NaOH produces 1) N 2 2) O2
1) NaClO 2) NaClO3
3) CO 4) NO
3) NaClO4 4) NaClO2
71. Which of the following is halogen exchange reac-
63. Assertion : The rate constant of first order reac-
tion?
tion is used to calculate population if growth rate
is given 1)
Reason : The rate constant is independent of con-
centration for first order reaction. 2)
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion. 3)
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
4)
not the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
64. Which of the following is dependent on tempera- 72. In SN2 reactions, the correct order of reactivity for
ture? the following compounds
1) Molality 2) Molarity CH3Cl, CH3CH2Cl, (CH3)2CHCl and (CH3)3CCl is
3) Mole fraction 4) Weight percentage 1) CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CCl
65. Which of the following do not exist? 2) CH3Cl > CH3CH2Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
1) NCl5 2) PH5 3) CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)2CHCl > (CH3)3CCl
3) [BCl6] 3–
4) All of these 4) (CH3)2CHCl > CH3CH2Cl > CH3Cl > (CH3)3CCl
66. Number of possible isomers for the complex 73. The reaction of toluene with chlorine in the pres-
[Co(en)2Cl2]Cl will be (en = enthylenediamine) ence of iron and in the absence of light yields
1) 3 2) 4
3) 2 4) 1
67. Of the following 0.10 m aqueous solutions, which 1) 2)
one will exhibit the largest freezing point depres-
sion?
1) KCl 2) C 6 H 12 O 6 3) 4) Mixture of 2 and 3
3) Al2(SO4)3 4) K2SO 4
68. The complex, [Pt(Py) (NH3)Br Cl] will have how 74. Molecule whose mirror image is non-superim-
many geometrical isomers? posable over them are known as chiral. Which of
1) 2 2) 3 the following molecule is chiral in nature?
3) 4 4) 0 1) 2-bromobutane
2) 1-bromobutane
3) 2-bromopropane
4) 2-bromopropan-2-ol
SCSS MT-03 Page 8
75. How many alcohols with molecular formula 80. Assertion : Phenol reacts with CH3I in presence
C4H10O are chiral in nature? of NaOH to form methoxybenzene
1) 1 2) 2 Reason : Phenoxide is better nucleophile than
3) 3 4) 4 phenol
76. Phenol is less acidic than 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason
1) ethanol 2) o-nitrophenol is the correct explanation of Assertion.
3) o-methylphenol 4) o-methoxyphenol 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
77. The process of converting alkyl halides into alcohols not the correct explanation of Assertion.
involves 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
1) Addition reaction 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
2) Substitution reaction
81. Major products of the following reaction are
3) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
4) Rearrangement reaction
78. Mark the correct order of decreasing acid strength
of the following compounds
1) CH3OH and HCO2H

2) CH3OH and

3) HCOOH and

1) V > IV > II > I > III

2) II > IV > III > I > V 4) and
3) IV > V > III > II > I
82. Addition of water to alkynes occurs in acidic
4) V > IV > III > II > I
medium and in the presence of Hg2+ ions as a
79. Reaction by which benzaldehyde cannot be pre-
catalyst. Which of the following products will be
pared is
formed on addition of water to but-1-yne under
1) + CrO2Cl2 in CS2 followed by H3O+ these conditions?

1)

2) + CO + HCl in the presence of anhyd.

2)
AlCl3
3)
3) + H2 in the presence of Pb-BaSO4

4)
4) + Zn/Hg and conc. HCl

SCSS MT-03 Page 9

83. Which of the following compounds is most reac- 88. Consider the following sets of quantum numbers
tive towards nucleophilic addition reactions? n l m s
1
1) 2) a) 3 0 0 
2
1
b) 2 2 1 
3) 4) 2
1
c) 4 3 –2 
84. Which is the most suitable reagent for the follow- 2
ing conversion? 1
d) 1 0 –1 
2
1
e) 3 2 3 
2
Which of the following sets of quantum number
is not possible?
1) Tollen’s reagent 1) a and c 2) b, c and d
2) Benzoyl peroxide 3) a, b, c and d 4) b, d and e
3) I2 and NaOH solution 89. Four diatomic species are listed below the differ-
4) Sn and NaOH solution ent sequences. Which of these presents the cor-
85. What is the correct order of reactivity fo halides rect order of their increasing bond order?
with amines? 1) He 2  O2  NO  C 22
1) RCl > RBr > RI 2) RI > RBr > RCl
3) RCl > RI > RBr 4) RI > RCl > RBr 2) O 2  NO  C22  He 2
3) NO  C22   O2  He 2
[SECTION-B]
4) C22  NO  C22  He 2
86. 20.0 g of magnesium carbonate sample decom-
poses on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0 g 90. Using the Gibbs energy change, G0 = + 63.3 kJ,
magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage for the following reaction,
purity fo magnesium carbonate in the sample?  2Ag  (aq)  CO 32  (aq)
Ag 2 CO 3 (s) 
(At wt. : Mg = 24) the Ksp of Ag2CO3(s) in water at 250C is
1) 60 2) 84 (R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
3) 75 4) 95 1) 3.2 × 10–26 2) 8.0 × 10–12
87. Assertion : Isotopes of an elements have almost 3) 2.9 × 10–3 4) 7.9 × 10–2
similar chemical properties. 91. Which of the following is correct option for free
Reason : Isotopes have same electronic configura- expansion of an ideal gas under adiabatic condi-
tion. tion?
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and 1) q  0, T  0, w  0
Reason is the correct explanation of
2) q  0, T  0, w  0
Assertion.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are true 3) q  0, T  0, w  0
but Reason is not the correct explanation 4) q  0, T  0, w  0
of Assertion.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

SCSS MT-03 Page 10

92. I. SiO 2  NaOH  ? 96. The correct order of increasing the bases, CH3NH2,
II. SiO 2  HF  ? (CH3)2NH, (CH3)3N is
1) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < (CH3)3N
The products of (II) and (I) respectively are
2) CH3NH2 < (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH
1) H2 SiF6 ,SiO44 2) SiF4 ,Na 2SiO3
3) (CH3)3N < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
3) Na 2 SiO 3 ,SiF4 4) Na 2 SiO 4 ,H 2 SiF6 4) (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
93. A button cell used in watches functions as follow- 97. What are the two types of secondary structure of
ing proteins?

Zn(s)  Ag 2 O(s)  H2 O(l)  1) -helix and -pleated structure
2) -helix and -pleated structure
2Ag(s)  Zn 2 (aq)  2OH  (aq)
3) Fibrous and globular structure
If half cell potentials are 4) Fibrous and non-fibrous structure
Zn 2 (aq)  2e   Zn(s);E 0  0.76V 98. Which of the following reagent used for test of
unsaturation
Ag 2 O(s)  H 2 O( l)  2e   2Ag(s)  2OH  (aq),
1) HBr 2) dil. KMnO4
E 0  0.34V 3) Br2 4) Both 2 and 3
The cell potential will be 99. Which of the following is chain termination
1) 0.42 V 2) 0.84 V process?
3) 1.34 V 4) 1.10 V  
1) CH 4  C l 
light
 C H 3  HCl
94. Which of the statements is not true?
1) K2Cr2O7 solution in acidic medium is orange 2)

Cl 2 
2Cl
2) K 2 Cr 2O 7 solution becomes yellow on
 
increasing the pH beyond 7 3) C l 2  C H 3 
 CH 3  Cl
3) On passing H2S through acidified K2Cr3O7  
solution, a milky colour is observed 4) CH 3Cl  C l 
 C H 2 Cl  HCl
4) Na2Cr2O7 is preferred over K2Cr2O7 in volu- 100. Which is a swpher containing amino acid?
metric analysis 1) glycine 2) alanine
95. Correct increasing order for the wavelengths of 3) methionine 4) phenyl alanine
absorption in the visible region for the complexes
of Co3+ is
1) [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+
2) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+
3) [Co(H2O)6]3+, [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+
4) [Co(NH3)6]3+, [Co(en)3]3+, [Co(H2O)6]3+

SCSS MT-03 Page 11

 BOTANY : NCERT Summary + Inrtroduction Exercise

[SECTION-A] 107. Given below are two statements.

101. Select the correct match from the following. Statement I: Besides Hind II, today we know more
1) Aspergillus niger - Acetic acid than 900 restriction enzymes that have been isolated
2) Streptokinase - Immunosuppressive from over 230 strains of bacteria.
3) Cyclosporin A - Clot buster Statement II: In a chromosome there is a specific
4) Statins - Cholesterol lowering agent DNA sequence called the origin of replication,
102. Graphical representation to calculate the which is responsible for initiating replication.
probability of all possible genotypes of offspring Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
in a genetic cross, is known as:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
1) Mendel square
incorrect
2) Punnett square
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
3) Cross board method
incorrect
4) Emasculation method
3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
103. Which one of the following statements is wrong?
correct
1) Mannitol is stored food in chlorophyceae.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
2) Algin and carrangeen are products of algae. correct
3) Agar–agar is obtained from Gelidium and 108. Which of the following structures of protein
Gracilaria. suitable for performing most biological activities?
4) Chlorella used as space food. 1) Primary structure
104. Match List –I with List –II. 2) Tertiary structure
List –I List –II 3) Secondary structure
A)  × 174 bacteriophage i) 48502 bp 4) Quaternary structure
B) Lambda phage ii) 5386 Nucleotides 109. Which of the following statements are false?
C) E. coli iii) 6.6 × 109 bp I. Starch forms a non-helical secondary structure.
D) Human somatic cell iv) 4.6 × 106 bp II. Starch form a secondary helical structure.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the III. Starch can hold I molecule in its helical
2
options given below: portion.
1) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i) IV. Starch exhibits blue colour with I2 due to its
2) A–(ii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(iii) non-helical structure.
3) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv) 1) II, III & V 2) III & IV
4) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i) 3) I & IV 4) II only
105. Read the following statements carefully and select 110. Study the following List-I & List-II and find out
the correct option. correct match.
A. Guard cells are living, having nucleus and List-I List-II
chloroplast. A) Anaphase-I I) Initiation of
B. Dumpbell shape stomata are present in condensation of
monocot leaf. chromosome
B) Anaphase-II II) Separation of
C. The stomatal aperture, guard cells, and the
homologous
surrounding epidermal cells are together
chromosome
called stomatal apparatus.
C) Metaphase III) Formation of
1) Only A 2) A and B
metaphasic plate
3) A and C 4) A, B and C
D) Telophase-II IV) Separation of two
106. Which of the following are the important floral
chromatids
rewards to the animal pollinators?
V) Four daughter nuclei
1) Nectar and pollen grains A B C D
2) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals 1) II I III IV
3) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates 2) II IV III V
4) Colour and large size flower 3) III IV I V
4) III I V II
SCSS MT-03 Page 12
111. What is not true about cell cycle ? 120. Which of the following statement is incorrect
a) During G phase there is active metabolism regarding photosynthetic pigments?
1
takes place. 1) Pigments are substances that have an ability
b) In S-phase DNA synthesis takes place. to absorb light, at specific wavelengths.
c) Formation of tubulin proteins in G2 phase. 2) Chlorophyll b is the chief pigment associated
d) In S-phase a cell doubles the original diploid with photosynthesis.
(2n) chromosome number. 3) Leaf pigments can be separated by
1) c&d 2) a&b chromatography.
3) d only 4) c only 4) Accessory pigments protect chlorophyll a
112. The maximum energy is stored at which of the from photo oxidation
following trophic level in any ecosystem: 121. Marchantia plant is dioecious and they are having
1) Producers 2) Herbivores gemmae on their body. When 20 female thaloid
3) Carnivores 4) Top carnivores gemmae fall on the soil then how many male
113. During the meiotic division, terminalisation takes thaloid body of Marchantia are formed?
place in: 1) Twenty 2) Ten
1) diplotene 2) dikinesis 3) Zero 4) Nine
3) pachytene 4) anaphase 122. In prokaryotes predominant site for control of gene
114. Which of the following symbols are used for expression is the:
representing sex chromosome of birds:- 1) Control of rate of processing of primary
1) ZZ – ZW 2) XX – XY transcript
3) XO – XX 4) ZZ – WW 2) Control of rate of transcription initiation
115. During the post-fertilisation period, the ovules 3) Control of transport of m-RNA from nucleus
develops into ___A___ and the ovary matures into to cytoplasm
a ___B___ . 4) Control of translation
1) A-seeds; B-fruit 2) A-fruit; B-seeds 123. Identify the correct and incorrect statements from
3) A-flower; B-seed 4) A-seeds; B-flower the following.
116. Positive charge and basic nature of histone is due i) More than 17500 new calls are produced per
to abundance of: hour by single maize root apical meristem.
1) Lysines and tryptophanes ii) With the help of length, growth of pollen tube
2) Arginines & threonines is measured.
3) Lysines and arginines iii) The growth of the leaf is measured in term
4) Tryptophanes and threonines of volume.
117. The technical term used for the androecium in a iv) Cells in a watermelon may increase in size
flower of China rose is: by upto 350000 times.
1) Diadelphous 2) Polyadelphous Choose the correct answer from the options given
3) Polyandrous 4) Monadelphous below:
118. Which was the first CO2 fixation product formed, 1) i, ii, iii are correct and iv is incorrect
in the Calvin experiment, using radioactive labeled 2) i, ii, iv are correct and iii is incorrect
14
C in green algal? 3) ii, iii are correct and i, iv are incorrect
1) 2-Carbon organic compound 4) i, iv are correct and ii, iii are incorrect.
2) 3-Carbon organic compound 124. Statement–1 : Cytokinins are helps in delay
3) 4-Carbon organic compound senescence.
4) 5-Carbon organic compound Statement–2 : Cytokinins overcome apical
119. Regarding to features of double helix structure of dominance in plant.
DNA, which of the following is wrong? 1) If both Statement–1 and Statement–2 are
1) Two polynucleotide chains have antiparallel true and Statement–2 is the correct
polarity explanation of Statement–1
2) The bases in two strands are paired through 2) Both statement–1 and Statement–2 are True,
phosphodiester bonds but Statement–2 is not correct explanation
3) Adenine form two hydrogen bonds with of Statement–1
thymine 3) Statement–1 is True but Statement–2 is False.
4) The pitch of the helix is 3.4 nm 4) Both the Statements are false.

SCSS MT-03 Page 13

125. Match List- I with List-II. 130. Milk of transgenic ‘Cow Rosie’ was nutritionally
List -I List -II more balanced product for human babies than
A. Complex- I I. Cytochrome bc1 natural cow milk because it contained:
complex 1) Human protein –1–antitrypsin
B. Complex- II II. NADH 2) Human alpha–lactalbumin
dehydrogenase 3) Human insulin–like growth factor
C. Complex- III III. ATP synthetase 4) Human enzyme Adenosine Deaminase(ADA)
D. Complex- IV IV. Succinate 131. Which of the following ‘suffixes’ used for the units
dehydrogenase of classification in plants indicates a taxonomic
E. Complex- V V. Cytochrome category of ‘family’?
Oxidase 1) – Ales 2) – Onae
Select the correct option from following: 3) – Aceae 4) – Ae
A B C D E 132. Assertion (A): Polymerase chain reaction is used
1) III V I IV II in DNA amplification.
2) II V I IV III
Reason (R): Retroviruses have also been disarmed
3) II IV I V III
and are now used to deliver desirable genes into
4) IV I II V III
animal cells.
126. The following sequence contains the open reading
Choose the correct answer from the options given
frame of a polypeptide. How many amino acids
below:
will the polypeptide consist of?
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
5‘-AUGAGCATATGATCGTTTCTCTGCTTTGAACT-3‘
the correct explanation of (A).
1) 4 2) 3
3) 10 4) 7 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
127. Golden rice is a genetically modified crop plant 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
where the incorporated gene is meant for 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
biosynthesis of : correct explanation of (A).
1) Vitamin A 2) Vitamin B 133. The formula for exponential population growth is:
3) Vitamin C 4) Omega3 1) dt/dN = rN 2) dN/rN=dt
128. In India, the organization responsible for assessing 3) rN/dN = dt 4) dN/dt = rN
the safety of introducing genetically modified 134. Which of the following is the pair of biofertilizers:
organisms for public use is: 1) Glomus and BGA
1) Indian Council of Medical Research 2) Nostoc and Baculovirus
2) Council for Scientific and Industrial Research 3) Rhizobium and Aphid
3) Research Committee on Genetic Manipulation 4) Salmonella & Trichoderma
4) Genetic Engineering Approval Committee 135. Read the following statements :
129. Match the following techniques or instruments i) Agar-agar is used to grow microbes and in
with their usage: the preparations of ice-creams and jellies.
a) Bioreactor i) Separation of DNA ii) Chlorella is unicellular, rich in proteins and
fragments are used as food supplements by space
b) Electrophoresis ii) Production of large travelers.
quantities of products iii) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum are
c) PCR iii) Detection of poisonous.
pathogen, based on iv) Algae are photosynthetic.
antigen –antibody v) Spirogyra is a filamentous fungi.
reaction
How many of the above statements are incorrect ?
d) ELISA iv) Amplification of
1) Five 2) Three
nucleic acids
3) Four 4) Two
Select the correct option from following:
1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)

SCSS MT-03 Page 14

 [SECTION-B] 142. In an experiment, the CO2 available to a C4 plant
136. Which of the following is not the feature of human was labeled with a radioactive isotope and the
genome? amount of radioactivity in the chloroplast was
1) Less than 2 percent of the genome code for measured. As photosynthesis proceeded, in which
protein of the following molecules did the radioactivity first
2) Chromosome 1 has fewest gene (231) appear?
3) Repetitive sequences make up very large 1) Oxaloacetic acid 2) PEP
portion of human genome 3) Malic acid 4) RuBP
4) The functions are unknown for over 50% of 143. 2(C H O ) + 145O 102CO + 98 H O + Energy
51 98 6 2 2 2
the discovered genes The RQ of above reaction is:
137. Consider the following statements and choose the 1) 1 2) 0.7
correct option. 3) 1.45 4) 1.62
a) The ovule is attached to the placenta by 144. Which of the following is a man made artificial
means of a stalk called hilum. ecosystem?
b) Funicle represents the junction between 1) Grassland ecosystem
ovule and hilum. 2) Forest ecosystem
c) Each ovule has one or two protective 3) Ecosystem of artificial lakes & dams
envelopes called integuments. 4) Ocean ecosystem
d) A small opening is present at the tip of ovule 145. In onion root tip during metaphase stage of mitosis
called micropyle. the number of kinetochores will be :
1) (a) and (b) 2) (b) and (c) 1) 4 2) 8
3) (c) and (d) 4) (a) and (d) 3) 16 4) 32
138. Which statement is correct ? 146. How many types of genetically different gametes
a) 61 codons code for amino acids and 3 codons will be produced by a heterozygous plant having
do not code for any amino acids. the genotype AABbCc?
b) UAA, UAG, UGA are stop terminator 1) Two 2) Four
codons. 3) Six 4) Nine
c) AUG has dual functions. It codes for 147. Which of the following statement is incorrect with
methionine (met) , and it also act as initiator respect to lichen?
codon. 1) Are composite organisms.
d) The codon is read in mRNA in a contiguous 2) Indicator of pollution, specially SO pollution.
2
fashion. 3) Not grow in poolluted areas specially polluted
e) Codon is nearly universal. by SO2.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 4) Association of fungi and roots of higher plant.
options given below: 148. Select the correctly matched ones:
1) a, b, c, d, e 2) a, b, d A. Phaeophyceae–Mannitol.
3) a, c, d 4) a, c, d, e B. Rhodophyceae–Dictyota.
139. Papilionaceous corolla occurs in: C. Chlorophyceae- Non–motile gametes.
1) Poaceae 2) Brassicaceae D. Rhodophyceae-Non–motile gametes.
3) Fabaceae 4) Asteraceae 1) A, B and C only 2) B, C and D only
140. In monocot leaf : 3) A and C only 4) A and D only
1) bulliform cells are absent from the epidermis. 149. Who among the following used the frequency of
2) veins form a network. recombination between gene pairs on the same
3) mesophyll is well differentiated into these chromosome as a measure of distance between
parts. genes and mapped their position?
4) mesophyll is not differentiated into palisade 1) Alexander 2) Sturtevant
and spongy parenchyma.
3) Morgan 4) Downs
141. Double helix model of DNA proposed by watson
150. The diploid plant has 14 chromosomes, but its egg
and crick was based on:
cell has 6 chromosomes. Which one of the following
1) X-ray diffraction data of Meischer
is most likely explanation of this?
2) X-ray crystallography data of Wilkins and
1) Non disjunction in meiosis I and meiosis II
Franklin
2) Non disjunction in meiosis I
3) X-ray diffraction data of Watson and Crick
3) Non disjunction in mitosis
4) X-ray diffraction data of Chargaff
4) Normal meiosis
SCSS MT-03 Page 15
 ZOOLOGY : NCERT Summary + Inrtroduction Exercise

[SECTION-A] 160. “Specific antibodies serve to kill if pathogen enter

151. Pick correct combination from following in body”, this immunity is
1) Ants are more than 20,000 species 1) Cell mediated
2) Beetles are 28,000 species 2) Humoral
3) Fishes are 20,000 species 3) Hyper immunity
4) Orchids are 3 lakh species 4) Auto immunity
152. Characters enabled to classify animals are 161. Assertion : Tropics have more species richness
1) Segmentation 2) Notochord Reason: More solar energy, relatively constant
3) Symmetry 4) All environment provide more evolutionary time
153. Highly vascularized skin in Rana tigrina is for 1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason
is the correct explanation of Assertion.
1) Exchange of gases
2) Excretion 2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is
3) Reproduction not the correct explanation of Assertion.
4) Secretion of hormones 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
154. Tongue in frog is___ 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
1) Muscular and forked 162. Sycon and Physalia circulate water from their
2) Bilobed and amuscular surroundings through their body cavities is to__
3) Muscular and bilobed 1) Facilitate gaseous exchange
4) Forked and amuscular 2) Fecilitate to remove waste
155. Physico – chemical approach and cell free systems 3) To pass gametes
help in 4) All
i) Mitochondrial interaction with cytoplasm 163. Electrical activity of heart recorded by using ____
ii) RER and ribosomal interaction and its representation (recorded paper) is ____
iii) Basement substance between two tissues respectively
1) ii and iii 2) i and ii 1) Electrocardiogram and electrocardiograph
3) i and iii 4) All 2) Electrocardiograph and electrocardiogram
156. New cells generate from 3) Electrocardiogram and electrocardiogram
1) Regeneration of cells 4) Electrocardiograph and electrocardiograph
164. Non selective filtration at glomerulus occur due to
2) Pre – existing cells
1) Capsular hydrostatic pressure
3) Bacterial fermentation
2) Blood colloidal osmotic pressure
4. Abiotic materials
3) Glomerular capillary blood pressure
157. What will be the PO2 and PCO2 in the atmospheric
4) Peritubular blood pressure
air compared to those in the alveolar air
165. Differential concentration gradient of ions across
1) PO2 lesser and PCO2 higher
the membrane make cell ____ and ___
2) PO2 higher and PCO2 lesser
1) Excitable and show depolarization
3) PO2 higher PCO2 higher 2) Non excitable and resting potential
4) PO2 lesser and PCO2 lesser 3) Excitable and resting potential
158. Utilization of oxygen by the cells is called 4) Excitable and hyperpolarization
1) Inspiration 166. Match columns I and II
2) Expiration Column-I Column-II
3) Cellular respiration a) T4 i) Hypothalamus
4) Transport of gases b) PTH ii) Thyroid
159. Among evolutionary stories most interesting is c) GnRH iii) Pituitary
1) Dinosaur evolution d) LH iv) Parathyroid
2) Dicot evolution from monocots a b c d
3) Parallel evolution of human brain and 1) iv iii ii i
language 2) ii iv i iii
4) Bacterial varients for toxicants 3) iii iv ii i
4) i iii iv i

SCSS MT-03 Page 16

167. Hormone secreted from atrial wall help in 178. Most scientists believe ________preceded the
1) Increase blood calcium appearance of first cellular forms
2) Increase blood pressure 1) Prokaryotes
3) Decrease blood sugar
2) Eukaryotes
4) Decrease blood pressure
3) Biomolecules
168. Spaces between cells in tissues have
4) Cellular grade organisms
1) Lymph 2) Plasma
3) Tissue fluid 4) Blood 179. Idea of branching descent is supported by
169. Pulmonary circulation starts with 1) Analogy
1) Right ventricle by pumping oxygenated 2) Homology
blood 3) Genetic drift
2) Left ventricle by pumping oxygenated 4) Habitat fragmentation
blood 180. Habitat fragmentation and Genetic drift may lead
3) Right ventricle by pumping deoxygenated to appear
blood
1) New species
4) Left ventricle by pumping deoxygenated
2) Founders effect
blood
3) Extinction of all species
170. Respiratory mechanism is altered in medulla by
1) Pneumotaxic centre 4) Retrogressive evolution
2) Chemosensory area 181. Inability to conceive or produce children even after
3) Diaphragm 2 years of unprotected sex is
4) Both 1 and 2 1) STD 2) Infertility
171. Dry cornified skin is characteristic feature of 3) IVF 4) Fertile
1) Reptiles 2) Birds 182. Cyclical changes of ovary and uterus induced by
3) Fishes 4) Mammals changes in levels of
172. Coloured plastids other than green are
1) Gonadotropins 2) Ovarian hormones
1) Leucoplasts 2) Chloroplasts
3) GnRH 4) All these
3) Chromoplast 4) All the above
173. Cryopreservation of gametes and tissue culture are 183. Growth of mammary glands is due to estrogens
type of later differentiation and further growth during
1) Sacred grooves pregnancy is due to________
2) In situ conservation 1) GH 2) PRL
3) Ex situ conservation 3) Progesterone 4) Both 2 and 3
4) National park 184. Human are
174. If both species suffer in an interaction, it is 1) Sexual dimorphic, dioecious and viviparous
1) Predation 2) Competition
2) Sexual dimorphic, monoecious and viviparous
3) Amensalism 4) Parasitism
3) Sexual dimorphic, dioecious and oviparous
175. Plasmodium falciparum transmission to human
4) Sexually similar, dioecious and viviparous
is through
1) Contamination of food 185. Network of fine tubules called trachea opens
2) Injection by vector outside through
3) Physical contact of infected person 1) Tracheoles 2) Alary muscles
4) Oncogene 3) Spiracles 4) Pleura
176. Person may try taking alcohol, drugs in the face of
1) Peer pressure [SECTION-B]
2) Competition stress 186. Number of segments occupied by primary sex
3) Exam stress organs in male and female cockroach respectively
4) All the above are
1) 2 and 6 2) 3 and 5
177. Transmission of one of the following diseases is
3) 4 and 6 4) 2 and 4
through vector is
187. Nerve cord in cockroach is
1) Amoebiasis 2) Malaria
1) Dorsal 2) Ventral
3) Ascariasis 4) Pneumonia
3) Lateral 4) Posterior only
SCSS MT-03 Page 17
188. Air bladder in pisces present in 195. Reason for loss of biodiversity is
1) All fishes 1) Habitat loss
2) Cartilagenous fishes 2) Fragmentation
3) Bony fishes 3) Over – exploitation
4) Cyclostommata 4) All these
189. One of following group live as ectoparasites on 196. On subsequent exposure of same pathogen
fishes immune response become
1) Urochordata 2) Cephalochordata 1) Slow 2) Anamnestic
3) Vertebrata 4) Cyclostomata 3) No response 4) Amnestic
190. Animals with character ‘forelimbs modified in 197. Continuation of pregnancy is harmful either to
wings’ are mother or even foetus, in such conditions docters
1) Cold blooded 2) Warm blooded may suggest
3) Ectotherms 4) Poikilotherms 1) IVF 2) IUD
191. Animals are worm like with proboscis, collar and 3) MTP 4) AI
trunk are with 198. Contraceptives usage is ‘forced use’ by couple to__
1) Incomplete digestive system 1) Delay pregnancy
2) Radial symmetry 2) Avoid pregnancy
3) Organ level of organization 3) Space between children
4) Coelomate with bilateral symmetry 4) All these
192. Parasitic flatworms show distinct 199. Structure which provide vascular connection
1) Body cavity between foetus and uterus is
2) Hooks and suckers 1) Placenta 2) Umbilical cord
3) Chitinous cuticle 3) Inner cell mass 4) Gastrula
4) Cnidoblasts 200. Menstrual cycle ceases during pregnancy because
193. Hollow nerve cord and paired pharyngeal gill slits 1) Folliculogenesis occur
are present in 2) Progestogens suppress GnRH
1) Chordates 2) Echinoderms 3) Activity of ovary is stopped
3) Coelenterates 4) Flatworms 4) Follicles degenerate during this period
194. Till now recorded species in the world are
1) More than 6 million
2) More than 1.5 million
3) More than 7 million
4) More than 2 million

SCSS MT-03 Page 18

NEET-2023-24 (INSPIRE) KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 04-04-2024

MT-03
PHYSICS CHEMISTRY
1 4 14 2 27 1 40 2 51 2 64 2 77 2 90 2
2 2 15 1 28 4 41 2 52 1 65 4 78 2 91 4
3 1 16 3 29 1 42 3 53 1 66 1 79 4 92 2
4 3 17 4 30 1 43 2 54 2 67 3 80 2 93 4
5 3 18 4 31 3 44 1 55 4 68 2 81 3 94 4
6 2 19 3 32 1 45 3 56 2 69 4 82 2 95 1
7 1 20 1 33 2 46 1 57 1 70 3 83 1 96 4
8 2 21 4 34 1 47 1 58 2 71 1 84 3 97 1
9 2 22 1 35 1 48 2 59 2 72 2 85 2 98 4
10 2 23 1 36 3 49 2 60 3 73 4 86 2 99 3
11 4 24 4 37 1 50 1 61 4 74 1 87 1 100 1
12 1 25 4 38 4 62 2 75 1 88 4
13 4 26 2 39 1 63 2 76 2 89 1

NEET-2023-24 (INSPIRE) KEY TO THE QUESTION BOOKLET 04-04-2024

MT-03
BOTANY ZOOLOGY
101 4 114 1 127 1 140 4 151 1 164 3 177 2 190 2
102 2 115 1 128 4 141 2 152 4 165 3 178 3 191 4
103 1 116 3 129 2 142 1 153 1 166 2 179 2 192 2
104 2 117 4 130 2 143 2 154 3 167 4 180 1 193 1
105 2 118 2 131 3 144 3 155 2 168 3 181 2 194 2
106 1 119 2 132 1 145 4 156 2 169 3 182 4 195 4
107 4 120 2 133 4 146 2 157 2 170 4 183 4 196 2
108 2 121 3 134 1 147 4 158 3 171 1 184 1 197 3
109 3 122 2 135 4 148 4 159 3 172 3 185 3 198 4
110 2 123 2 136 2 149 2 160 2 173 3 186 2 199 1
111 3 124 2 137 3 150 2 161 1 174 2 187 2 200 2
112 1 125 3 138 1 162 4 175 2 188 3
113 2 126 2 139 3 163 2 176 4 189 4