Mock Test-2 (200MCQS) QP
Mock Test-2 (200MCQS) QP
INSTRUCTIONS
1. This test will be a 3 hours Test, Maximum Marks 720M.
2. This test consists of Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology questions with equal weightage
of 180 marks.
3. Each question is of 4 marks.
4. There are four parts in the question paper, consisting Part-I Physics (Q.no.1 to 50), Part-II
Chemistry (Q.no.51 to 100), Part-III Botany (Q. no. 101 to 150) and Part-IV Zoology (Q. no.151 to
200). Each part is divided into two Sections, Section A consists of 35 multiple choice questions &
Section-B consists of 15 Multiple choice questions, out of these 15 questions candidates can
choose to attempt any 10 questions.
5. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices for each question. For each
question 4 marks will be awarded for correct choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice
and zero mark will be awarded for unattempted question.
6. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the
students appearing for the test.
7. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet provided.
========================================================================
Syllabus
Physics : CLASS XI & XII
Chemistry : CLASS XI & XII
Biology : CLASS XI & XII
========================================================================
PART-1 : PHYSICS : SECTION-A
1. Two towers A and B each of height 20 m are separated by a distance 200m. A body thrown
horizontally from the tower A with a velocity 20m/s towards the tower B hits the ground at a point P.
Similar body projected horizontally from the tower B towards A with same velocity hits the ground at
Q. The uniform velocity with which a truck can move from P to Q in 4 seconds is ( g = 10m / s2 )
(1) 5 m / s (2) 20 m / s (3) 15 m / s (4) 30 m / s
2. The rms value of emf given by (3sin t + 4cos t )V is
5
(1) V (2) 5 2 V (3) 5 V (4) 7 V
2
3. A convex mirror has a focal length ‘f ’. A real object is placed at a distance ‘f ’ in front of it from the
pole produce s an image at
1) infinity 2) f’ 3) f/2 4) 2f
4. A circular coil of wire of radius r has 600 turns and self inductance 108 mH. The self inductance of a
coil with same radius and 500 turns is
(1) 108 mH (2) 75 mH (3) 90 mH (4) 190 mH
5. A)When a ball is dropped on to the ground from certain height, it comes to rest after few bounces,
loosing all of its energy. It is an example of the violation of conservation of energy.
B) In uniform circular motion, the acceleration of the body is constant.
(1) A alone is true (2) B along is true
(3) Both A and B are true (4) Both A and B are false
6. The current through the cell in the following network is ( Diodes are ideal)
(1) NOR gate (2) NAND gate (3) OR gate (4) AND gate
20. A ball is freely falling under gravity from certain height. When it is at a height 10m from the ground
its velocity is v0 . It collides the ground and loses 50% of its energy and rises back to the height of
10m. Then the height from the ground from where the ball is falling is
(1) 20 m (2) 25 m (3) 40 m (4) 60 m
21. A particle of charge q and mass m starts moving from the origin under the action of an electric field
E = Eiˆ and magnetic field B = Biˆ with a velocity v = v0 ˆj. The speed of the particle will be 2v0 after a
time
2mv0 3mv0 3Bq 2Bq
(1) t = (2) (3) t = (4) t =
Bq Eq mv0 mv0
o
22. A kettle with 2 litre water at 27 C is heated by operating a heater coil of power 1000W. The heat lost
to the atmosphere at constant rate is160 J / s. , when the lid is open. In how much time will water
heated to 77o C with the lid open,
(1) 8 min 20 sec (2) 6 min 2 sec (3) 14 min (4) 7 min
23. Two identical discs are moving with the same kinetic energy. One rolls and the other slides. The
ratio of their speed is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 1 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 2 : 3
24. A closed pipe is suddenly opened and changed to an open pipe of same length. The fundamental
frequency of this open pipe is less than the 3rd harmonic of the earlier closed pipe by 55 Hz. The
value of the fundamental frequency of the closed pipe is
(1) 55 Hz (2) 110 Hz (3) 330 Hz (4) 220 Hz
25. n identical drops each of radius r combine into a big drop of radius R. The energy loss during this
formation is 3E where E is the energy of the bigger drop. The value of ‘n’ is
(1) 4 (2) 16 (3) 64 (4) 128
26. Three identical spheres each of radius R are placed touching side by side along X axis, so that the
centre of the first sphere is at the origin. Now the sphere at the extreme end is removed. The shift in
the centre of mass is
(1) R (2) 2R (3) R/2 (4) 3R
27. The area of hysteresis loop of a material is equivalent to 250 joule. When 10 kg material is
magnetized by an alternating field of 50 Hz, then energy lost in one hour will be, if the density of
material is 7.5 gm / c m3
(1) 6 104 J (2) 4 103 J (3) 3102 J (4) 2 104 J
28. A block of mass 5 kg is moving horizontally at a speed of 1.5 m / s . A perpendicular force of 5 N acts
on it for 4 sec. What will be the distance of the block from the point where the force started acting?
(1) 10 m (2) 8 m (3) 6 m (4) 2 m
29. Angle of a prism is ‘A’ and its one surface is silvered. Light rays falling at an angle of incidence 2A
on first surface return back through the same path after suffering reflection at second silvered
surface. Refractive index of the material of the prism is
(1) 2 sin A (2) 2 cos A (3) 1/2cosA (4) 2 tan A
30. A beam of 10.6 eV photons of intensity 2.0W / m falls on a platinum surface of area 1.0 10−4 m2 and
2
work function 5.6 eV. If 0.53 % of the incident photons eject photo electrons, then find the number
of photoelectrons emitter per second and maximum energy of ejected electrons (in eV) are
(1) 6.25 1011 ,5eV (2) 6.25 108 ,5eV (3) 6.25 1011 ,0.5eV (4) 0,5eV
31. In Young’s experiment interference bands are produced on the screen placed at 1.5 m from the two
o
slits 0.15 mm apart and illuminated by light of wavelength 6000 A . If the screen is now taken away
from the slit by 50 cm, the change in the fringe width will be
(1) 2 10−4 m (2) 2 10−3 m (3) 6 10−7 m (4) 1.2 10−4 m
32. A radioactive material decreases by simultaneous emissions of two particles with half lives 1620 and
810 years. The time after which ¼ of the material remained is
(1) 1080 years (2) 2000 years (3) 1500 years (4) 1200 years
33. If 1 and 2 are the wavelengths of the first members of the Lyman and Paschen series, respectively,
then 1 : 2 is
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 1 : 30 (3) 7 : 50 (4) 7 : 108
34. A flood light is covered with a filter that transmits red light. The electric field of the emerging beam
is represented by a sinusoidal plane wave Ex = 36sin (1.20 107 z − 3.6 1015 t )V / m. The average
intensity of the beam will be
(1) 0.86W / m2 (2) 1.72W / m2 (3) 3.44W / m2 (4) 6.88W / m2
35. In a parallel plate capacitor the separation between plates is 3x. This separation is filled by two layers
of dielectrics, in which one layer has thickness x and dielectric constant 3k, the other layer is of
thickness 2x and dielectric constant 5k. If the plates of the capacitor are connected to a battery, then
the ratio of potential difference across the dielectric layers is
2 5 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 6 5 4
SECTION-B
36. A non-isotropic solid metal cube has coefficients of linear expansion as 5 10−5 / o C along the X -
axis and 5 10−6 / o C along the Y and the Z - axes. If coefficient of areal expansion of the solid is
K 10−6 / o C , then the value of ‘K’ is
(1) 60 (2) 32 (3) 40 (4) 52
37. If electric potential V at any point (x, y, z) all in metres in space is given by V = 4x2 volt. Calculate
the electric field at the point (1m, 0m, 2m).
1) −8xiˆ 2) −8xjˆ 3) −8xkˆ ( )
4) −2x iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
38. A Carnot engine of efficiency 40 %, takes heat from a source maintained at a temperature of 500 K.
It is desired to have an engine of efficiency 60 %. Then, the source temperature, for the same sink
temperature, must be
(1) 750 K (2) 630 K (3) 420 V (4) 500 K
CP 5 C 4
39. Two moles of an ideal gas with = are mixed with 3 moles of another ideal gas with P = .
CV 3 CV 3
C
The values of P for the mixture is
CV
(1) 2.5 (2) 1.42 (3) 4.6 (4) 3.2
40. Consider two solid spheres of radii R1 = 1m, R2 = 2m and masses M 1 and M 2 , respectively. The
gravitational field due to sphere 1 and 2 are shown. The value of M 1 / M 2 is
3 1 1 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 6 2 3
41. Two point charges are kept in air with certain separation between them. The force between them is
F1 , if half of the space between the charges is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 4 and the
1
force between them is F2 , if rd of the space between the charges is filled with dielectric of
3
dielectric constant 9. Then F1 / F2 is
100 50 81 30
1) 2) 3) 4)
81 30 100 50
42. Statement A : When a proton and a neutron enter into a transverse magnetic field with equal speeds,
then they trace circular paths of equal radii.
Statement B : In a transverse magnetic field the period of revolution of a charged particle in a
circular path is directly proportional to the mass of the particle
(1) Both A and B are correct (2) Both A and B are not correct
(3) A is correct and B is not correct (4) A is not correct and B is correct
43. A tank having cross sectional area 64 A is filled with water to a height 4 h. If a small hole of cross
sectional area A is made at the bottom of the tank, then the time taken by the water level to decrease
from 16 h to 4 h is
h 3h h 2h
(1) 120 (2) 115 (3) 120 (4)128
g g 2g g
44. Two conductors of capacity 8.4 mF each charged to potential 500V and -500V are joined by
a conducting wire. If the mass of the wire 500 g and specific heat of the material is 0.1
cal/g/°C, the raise in the temperature of the wire is
(1) 2.5o C (2) 5o C (3) 10o C (4) 20o C
45. The earth’s magnetic field is due to electrical currents produced by convective motion of metallic
fluids (molten iron and nickel) in the outer core of the earth. This effect is known as
(1) Tyndall’s effect (2) Dynamo effect (3) Meissner effect (4) Peltier effect
46. Two identical wires are stretched by same tension of 100 N and each wire emits note of
frequency 400 Hz. If the tension of any wire is increased by 2 N then beat frequency heard is
(1) 1 Hz (2) 2 Hz (3) 3 Hz (4) 4 Hz
47. The equation of a stationary wave in a string is given by y = 2 A sin kx.cos t . Maximum
transverse speed of the particle is
2A
1) 2) 3) 2kA 4) 2 A
k
48. There exists uniform electric field E as shown in the space. Four points A, B, C and D are also
shown which are equidistant from origin. If VA, VB,
VC and VD are their respective potentials then
(1) VA VB VC VD (2) VA = VB VC = VD
(3) VC = VD VA = VB (4) VA VB VC = VD
49. In the circuit shown, the equivalent capacitance between A and B is
C 3C C 4C
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 4 3 3
50. In the electrical network shown, the energy stored in the capacitor at steady state is
CE 2 2CE 2 CE 2 2CE
(1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 3 3
PART-2 : CHEMISTRY : SECTION-A
51. The radius of n th stationary orbit in hydrogen atom is given by the expression R n = R 0 n 2 , where
R 0 is called Bohr’s radius and its value is
o o o o
1) 5.29A 2) 52.9A 3) 0.529A 4) 0.0529A
52. A molecule of organic compound contains atoms of Carbon, Hydrogen, Nitrogen and oxygen in the
ratio 9:15:1:3. If there are 18 oxygen atoms per molecule then the molecular formula of the organic
compound is
1) C9 H15 N6 O18 2) C27 H 45 N3O18 3) C54 H90 N 6 O18 4) C54 H15 N 6 O18
53. The set of Quantum numbers that is not possible for a d-electron
1) n = 3; l = 2; m = 0;s = +1/ 2 2) n = 2; l = 2; m = −2;s = +1/ 2
3) n = 4; l = 2; m = +2;s = +1/ 2 4) n = 4; l = 2; m = −1;s = −1/ 2
54. Which of the following metal sulphide has maximum solubility in water?
1) FeS ( K sp = 1110−20 ) 2) HgS ( K sp = 32 10−54 )
3) ZnS ( K sp = 1110−22 ) 4) CdS ( K sp = 36 10−30 )
55. Which of the following compound is/are polar?
1) 2) 3) 4)
-1
74. The molar freezing point constant for water is 1.86 K.Kg mole . If 342 gm of cane sugar ( C12 H 22O11 )
are dissolved in 1000gm of water, the solution will freeze at
1) −1.86o C 2) 1.86o C 3) −3.92o C 4) 2.42o C
75. The most commonly used salt like food preservative is
(1) SO2 (2) KHSO3 (3) C6 H 5COONa (4) BHT
76. Which among the following graph is correct for zero order reaction
1) 2)
3) 4)
77. The incorrect statement in the following is
(1) Maltose is known as malt sugar and contain − 1 , 4 - linkage between glucose units
(2) Sucrose is known as cane sugar and contain Linkage between C1 of − D -glucose and C 2 of
− D - fructose
(3) Lactose is also known as milk sugar and contain − 1, 4 linkage between glucose units
(4) − D -Glucose and − D - Glucose are anomers
78. The order of bond angle in hydrides of VA group elements is
1) NH 3 PH 3 SbH 3 AsH 3 2) NH 3 AsH 3 PH 3 SbH 3
3) NH 3 PH 3 AsH 3 SbH 3 4) NH 3 SbH 3 PH 3 AsH 3
79. HCOOH reacts with conc. H 2 SO4 to produce
(1) CO (2) H 2 S (3) SO4 (4) CO2
80. An alcohol (A) on dehydration gives (B) which on ozonolysis gives acetone and formaldehyde. (A)
and (B) are respectively
1) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2OH and CH 3CH 2CH = CH 2
2) CH 3CH 2CHOHCH 3 and CH 3CH = CH − CH 3
3) ( CH3 )3 COH and (CH3 )2 C = CH2
4) (CH3 )3 CCH2OH and (CH3 )2 C = CH2
81. The final product of hydrolysis of XeF6 is
1) XeOF4 2) XeO4 3) XeO3 4) XeO2 F2
82. Statement – I: F2is better oxidising agent than Cl2
Statement – II:HI is strongest acid and strongest reducing agent among hydrides of VIIA
(1) Statement – I & II are correct
(2) Statement – I & II are incorrect
(3) Statement – I is correct but statement – II is incorrect
(4) Statement – I is incorrect but statement – II is correct
83. The gold number of Gelatin, haemoglobin and sodium acetate are 0.005, 0.05 and 0.7 respectively.
The protective actions will be in order:
(1) Gelatin< haemoglobin < sodium acetate
(2) Haemoglobin >Gelatin< sodium acetate
(3) Gelatin> haemoglobin > sodium acetate
(4) Sodium acetate >Gelatin> haemoglobin
84. In which pair, both ions are coloured in aqueous medium
1) Sc+3 , Zn+2 2) Cu +2 , Ti +4 3) Ti +3 , Co+3 4) Cu + , Mn+2
85. Which of the following detergent is used as germicide?
(1) Cetyltrimethyl ammonium bromide (2) p-dodecylbenzenesulphonate
(3) Sodium lauryl sulphonate (4) Butylated hydroxy toluene
SECTION-B
86. The limiting molar conductivities ( 0 ) for NaCl, KBr and KCl are 126, 152 and 150 S. cm2mol–
respectively. Then 0 for NaBr is
1) 128 S cm2 mol −1 2) 302 S cm2 mol −1 3) 278 S cm2 mol −1 4) 176 S cm2 mol −1
87. Schottky defect causes
(1) Increase in the density of solid (2) Decrease in the density of solid
(3) No change in the density of solid (4) Changes stoichemistry
88. Which of the following complex and its structure not correctly matched
1) NiCl4 , tetrahedral 2) Ni ( CO )4 , square planar
2−
A) B) C) D)
(1) A > B > C > D (2) D > A> B > C (3) A > D > B > C (4) B > C> A > D
92. The equilibrium constant for a reaction A + 2B 2C is 40. The equilibrium constant for
1
reaction C B + A is
2
1
2
1 2 1
1) 1/40 2) 3) 4) 40
40 40
93. Which of the following is false?
(1) Gold can be extracted by hydro metallurgy
(2) Cresol acts like a froth stabilizer in froth floatation process
(3) Coke acts like reducing agent for iron oxides at high temperature
(4) Principle involved in the formation of copper matte is that copper has greater affinity towards
oxygen and iron has greater affinity towards sulphur
94. Reimer – Tiemann reaction is
••
(1) Electrophilic addition reaction and electrophile is C Cl2
••
(2) Nucleophilic substitution reaction and nucleophile is C Cl2
••
(3) Nucleophilic addition reaction and nucleophile is C Cl2
••
(4) Electrophlic substitution reaction and electrophile is C Cl2
95. CH3CHO + HCHO ⎯⎯⎯→ dil NaOH
Heat A ⎯⎯⎯HCN
H O+
3
→ B. The structure of the compound is
1) 2) 3) 4)
101. The lac operon in E.coli, is controlled by both the lac repressor and the catabolite activation protein
(CAP). In an in vitro experiment with lac operon, the following observations were made
A) cAMP levels are high
B) Repressor is bound with allolactose
C) CAP is interacting with RNA polymerase
Which one of the following conclusions is most appropriate based on the above observation?
1) Glucose and lactose are present
2) Glucose is present and lactose is absent
3) Both are absent
4) Glucose is absent and lactose is present
102. Viruses contain the following
I. Genome II. Capsid III. Capsule IV. Enzyme
1) I, II and III are correct 2) I, II, III and IV are correct
3) I, II and IV are correct 4) II, III and IV are correct
103. A plant of the genotype AaBb is selfed. The two genes are linked and are 50 map units apart. What
proportion of the progeny will have the genotype aabb?
1) 1/2 2) 1/4 3) 1/8 4) 1/16
104. Which one of the following set of non-leguminous plants show nodulation?
1) Tectona, Sesbania
2) Casuarina(Australian pine), Alnus (Alder), Myrica
3) Shorea, Chick pea
4) Azadirachta, Pisum sativum
105. RNA molecules that exhibit catalytic activity are called :
1) mRNA 2) Ribonucleases 3) Ribozymes 4) Ribonucleotides
106. In which one of the following groups chlorophyll d is present?
1) Chlorophyceae 2) Bacillariophyceae 3) Rhodophyceae 4) Xanthophyceae
107. Which one of the following fungus produces basidiospores?
1) Albugo 2) Alternaria 3) Ustilago 4) Erysiphe
108. How many genetically different gametes can be made by an individual of genotype AaBbccDDEe,
assuming they are independently assorting?
1) 3 2) 5 3) 8 4) 32
109. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by
1) Colletotrichum falcatum 2) Peronospora
3) Xanthomonas oryzae 4) Dreschlera oryzae
110. M.incognitia affects ___of tobacco plant
1) Fruit 2) Seed 3) Root 4) Bud
111. Lichens are the major pollution indicators of
1) SO2 in air 2) NO2 in air 3) Mercury in water 4) CO in air
112. Bryophytes have all the following characteristic except:
1) Multicellularity 2) Lignified vascular tissues
3) Parenchyma 4) A reduced, dependent sporophyte
113. The following is the biochemical pathway for purple pigment production in flowers of sweet pea:
Colorless precursor 1 ⎯⎯⎯ AlleleA
→ Colorless precursor 2 ⎯⎯⎯ AlleleB
→ Purple pigments. Recessive mutation
of either gene A or B leads to the formation of white flowers. A cross is made between two parents
with the genotype: AaBb × aabb. Considering that the two genes are not linked, the phenotypes of
the expected progenies are
1) 9 purple : 7 white 2) 3 white : 1 purple
3) 1 purple : 1 white 4) 9 purple : 6 light purple : 1 white
114. Morgan carried out several dihybrid crosses in Drosiphila to study genes that were sex linked which
of the following is incorrect statement related to this?
1) genes for yellow body colour and white eye traits are present in female only
2) genes for body colour and eye colour did not segregate independently of each other and F 2 ratio
deviated from 9 : 3 : 3 : 1
3) Genes for eye colour and wing size are present on x chromosome
4) Genes for body colour and eye colour are tightly linked
115. Heterospory is seen in one of the following set of examples?
1) Lycopodium, Pteris 2) Equisetum, Adiantam
3) Psilotum, Lycopodium 4) Marsilea, Salvinia, Selaginella
116. The enzyme that joins the DNA strand during construction of recombinant DNA is
1) Polymerase 2) Lipase 3) Ligase 4) DNA gyrase
117. A nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria found in coralloid roots of Cycas revoluta is
1) Aulosira 2) Anabaena 3) Scytonema 4) Calothrix
118. A mechanism that can cause a gene to move from one linkage group to another is
1) Crossing over 2) Inversion 3) Translocation 4) Duplication
119. Match the List – I (Scientists) with List II (theories) and select the correct answer using the codes
given below
1) a- 1, b – 3, c – 4, d – 2 2) a – 2, b – 1, c – 3, d – 4
3) a – 2, b – 4, c – 1, d - 3 4) a – 3, b – 1, c – 2, d - 4
120. In cell division, kinetochore helps in
1) The formation of synaptonemal complex
2) Condensing the chromatin
3) Attaching chromosome with spindle fibres
4) Cytokinesis
121. Gene ‘cry’ is present in
1) Bacillus subtilis 2) Bacillus megasporium
3) Bacillus amyloliquefaciens 4) Bacillus thuringiensis
122. Two pure lines of corn have mean cob length of 9 and 3 inches, respectively. The polygenes
involved in this trait exhibit additive gene action. Crossing these two lines is expected to produce a
progeny population with mean cob length (in inches) of :
1) 12.0 2) 7.5 3) 6.0 4) 2.75
123. In a cell major proportion of RNA is found in
1) Nucleolus 2) Plastids 3) Mitochondria 4) Ribosomes
124. Repeated chromatid replication and non segregation of daughter chromatids leads to the formation of
1) Pachytene chromosome 2) Polytene chromosome
3) Lamprush chromosome 4) Leptotene chromosome
125. Plasmids containing replication origin sequences of 2 different hosts are
1) Amplification vectors 2) Shuttle vectors
3) Expression vectors 4) Integrating vectors
126. Which chemicals given below would you find in phospholipid?
1) C, H, O, N, P 2) C, H, O, Fe 3) C, H, O, Mg 4) C, H, O, Mn
127. DNA polymerase I is multifunctional enzyme because it promotes
I. Polymerisation reaction
II. Removal of nucleotides from 3’ terminus in DNA
III. Removal of nucleotides from 5’ terminus in DNA
IV. Joining of ends of DNA fragments
1) I & IV are correct 2) II & IV are correct
3) III & IV are correct 4) I, II & III are correct
128. Which of the following is not a component of mitochondrial electron transport?
1) Ubiquinone 2) Cytochrome b6 3) Cytochrome c 4) Cytochrome a3
129. Which of the following is caused due to proteinaceous infectious agent?
1) Potato spindle tuber disease 2) Anthrax
3) Cr-Jacob disease 4) Mosaic disease
130. The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
1) The release of a water molecule
2) The release of a carbon dioxide molecule
3) The addition of a nitrogen atom
4) The addition of a water molecule
131. When hydrogen ions are pumped out of the mitochondrial matrix, across the inner mitochondrial
membrane, and into the space between the inner and outer membranes, the result is
1) Damage to the mitochondrion
2) The reduction of NAD
3) The restoration of the Na+– K+ balance across the membrane
4) The creation of a proton gradient
132. Match the following
1) I – 4, II – 2, III – 1, IV – 3
2) I – 3, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 2
3) I – 4, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 1
4) I – 3, II – 2, III – 1, IV – 4
133. The function of water in photosynthesis is to
1) Combine with CO2
2) Absorb light energy
3) Supply electrons in the light –dependent reactions
4) Transport H+ ions in the light – independent (dark) reactions
134. If a segment of DNA is 5 '− TACGATTAG − 3' , the RNA that results from the transcription of this
segment will be
1) 3'− TACGATTAU − 5' 2) 3'− ATGCTAATA − 5 '
3) 3'− UACGAUUAG − 5' 4) 3'− AUGCUAAUC − 5'
135. Electron acceptor during glycolysis
1) FAD 2) FMN 3) NADH2 4) NAD
SECTION-B
1) I – 4, II – 3, III – 4, IV – 2
2) I – 3, II – 4, III – 3, IV – 1
3) I – 2, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 3
4) I – 3, II – 1, III – 2, IV – 4
139. List I consists of some terms and List II includes their corresponding definitions. Select the code
showing correct matching.
List – I(Terms) List – II(Definitions)
I) Photoxidation 1) Influence of duration of day and night on flowering of plants
II) Photoperiodism 2) Splitting of water molecule by light
III) Photolysis 3) Damage of cells under high intensity of light
IV) Photorespiration 4) Respiration in chloroplasts during day time
1) I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4
2) I – 2, II – 1, III – 4, IV – 3
3) I – 3, II – 4, III – 2, IV – 1
4) I – 4, II – 1, III – 2, IV – 3
140. In lac operon, the gene which encodes the repressor protein is
1) ‘z’ 2) ‘a’ 3) ‘o’ 4) ‘i’
141. The following statements have been proposed for plant vegetative development:
A) Lateral roots develop from epidermal cells
B) Axillary meristem develops from shoot apical meristem during differentiation of leaf primordia
C) Root cap is made up of dead cells
D) Lateral meristems and cylindrical meristems found in roots and shoots results in secondary
growth
Which of the above statements are true?
1) (A) and (B) 2) (B) and (D) 3) (A), (B) and (D) 4) (C) and (D)
142. During reproductive development in plants
A) Male and female gamete are produced as a result of two mitotic divisions after meiosis
B) Generative cell form two male gametes
C) Antipodals are persistent and provide nourishment to developing embryo
D) Pollen tube ruptures and releases both the male gametes in one of the degenerating synergid.
Which of the above statements are true?
1) A and B 2) B and D 3) B and C 4) A and D
133. Which of the following is a process of formation of seeds without fertilization ?
1) Apomixis 2) Parthenocarpy 3) Parthenospory 4) Both 1 & 2
144. Which one of the following enzyme combinations yields protoplasts satisfactorily?
1) Ligninase – cellulase – lipase
2) Cellulase – lipase – hemicellulase
3) Cellulase – hemicelulase – chitinase
4) Pectinase – cellulase – hemicellulase
145. Who for the first time experimentally demonstrated that only DNA of the bacteriophage enters the
host cell and not the phage protein?
1) Beadle and Tatum 2) Jacob and Monad 3) Luria and Delbruck 4) Hershey and Chase
146. During sewage treatment when the BOD is reduced significantly, the effluent is passed to the
1) Large aeration tank to form flocs
2) Primary settling tank to remove primary sludge
3) Secondary settling tank to sediment the flocs
4) Anaerobic sludge digester
147. Secondary metabolites Abrin and Ricin are
1) Alkaloids 2) Drugs 3) Lectins 4) Toxins
148. How many statements are correct w.r.t. ecological succession?
1)Climax community is most stable & shows more niche specialisation.
2) Lichen and fungi are examples of climax communities
3) Hydarch succession leads to mesic condition.
4) Xerarch succession leads to very wet condition.
1) Four 2) Three 3) Two 4) One
149. The reaction, is catalysed by a/an
1) Transferase 2) Hydrolase 3) Lyase 4) Isomerase
150. Proteins coded by cry IAb control
1) Corn borer 2) Cotton bollworm 3) Meloidogyne incognita 4) Bacillus thuringiensis