All living organisms need food for health, growth and development.

→ Food provides nutrients like carbohydrates, fats, protein, vitamins and minerals.

→ Both plants and animals are major sources of food.

→ India has a high population of more than one billion and is still growing.

→ To feed this growing population we need more than a quarter of a billion tonnes of grain per year.

→ This can be done by farming on more land but India is already intensively cultivated. Hence, it is
necessary to increase the efficiency of production for both crops and livestock.

Green Revolution

→ Green revolution is a programme introduced in many countries to increase food production by use of
modern technology, proper irrigation, improved seeds etc.

White Revolution

→ White revolution is a programme in India to increase production of milk in India. This programme
made India self-sufficient in production of milk.

Improvement in Crop Yields

Types of Crops:

(i) Cereals: They include crops like wheat, rice, maize, barley etc. They provide us carbohydrates.

(ii) Seeds: Not all seeds of plants are edible like seeds of apple or cherries. Edible seeds include cereals,
pulses, oil seeds and nuts. They provide us fats.

(iii) Pulses: They include legumes such as gram, pea, black gram, green gram, lentil. They provide us
proteins.

(iv) Vegetables, spices and fruits: They provide us vitamins & minerals. They include apple, mango,
cherry, banana, water-melon etc.

→ Vegetables like spinach, leafy vegetables, carrot etc.

→ Spices like chilly, black pepper, fodder crops, oats etc.

Crop Season

→ Different crops require different conditions (temperature, moisture, etc.), different photo-periods
(duration of sunlight) for their growth and completing life cycle.

• The two types of crops seasons are:

(i) Kharif Season: These crops grow during rainy season (June to October).
Example: black gram, green gram, pigeon pea, rice, paddy, soyabean.

(ii) Rabi Season: These crops are grown during November to April. Rabi crops are known as winter crops.
Example: wheat, gram, peas, mustard, linseed etc.

• Approaches which enhance the crop yield are as following:

(i) Crop variety improvement

(ii) Crop production improvement
(iii) Crop protection improvement

Crop Variety Improvement

• Factors by which variety improvement can be done are:
→ Good and healthy seeds
→ Hybridization: It is the process of crossing between two or more genetically dissimilar plants to
produce a new variety with good properties of both the crops.

Properties to be possessed by improved seeds

(i) Higher yield: To increase the productivity of the crop per acre.

(ii) Improved quality: Quality of crop products vary from crop to crop.

(iii) Biotic & Abiotic resistances : Crop production reduces due to biotic and abiotic factors. Varieties
resistant to these factors can improve crop production.

(iv) Wider adaptability : Crops which can grow in different conditions, will help in setting high production.

(v) Desired agronomic traits: Crops which contain desired agronomic traits (height, branching, leafs), sets
high production.

Crop Production Improvement

→ It involves different practices carried out by farmers to achieve higher standards of crop production.

• The different practices are:

(i) Nutrient management

(ii) Irrigation
(iii) Cropping patterns

(i) Nutrient Management: Like other organisms, plants also require some elements for their growth.
These elements are called nutrients.
Manure and Fertilizers

Manure

→ To increase the yield, the soil can be enriched by supplying nutrients in the form of manure and
fertilizers.

• Manure is a source of organic matter.

• It supplies small quantities of nutrient to the soil.

• It is prepared by the decomposition of animal excreta and plant waste.

Various forms of Manures

(i) Compost: The process in which animal excreta (like cow dung), kitchen waste, plant remains, waste
food, sewage waste etc. are decomposed in pits is known as composting.

(ii) Vermicompost: Compost prepared by using earthworms to hasten the process of decomposition of
plants and animals refuse is called vermicompost.
(iii) Green manure: Some plants like sun hemp, guar etc. are grown and after sometime mulched by
ploughing in the field.

→ These green plants turn into green manures. They are rich in nitrogen and phosphorus.

Fertilizers

→ Fertilizers are prepared in factories. They are made up of chemical substances.

→ They have large amount of nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium.

→ Fertilizers are easily absorbed by the plants since they are soluble in water. It is costly.

Difference between Manures and Fertilizers

Manures Fertilizers

These are organic substances. These are inorganic substances.

These are made up of natural substances

(decomposition of plant and animal waste). These are made of chemical substances.

These have less amount of nutrient. These have large amount of nutrients.

These are cheap and are prepared in rural homes These are costly and are prepared in
or fields. factories.

Manures are slowly absorbed by the plants since Fertilizers are easily absorbed by the plants
they are insoluble in water. since they are soluble in water.

It is difficult to store and transport. Their storage and transportation is easy.

Irrigation

→ The process of supplying water to the crop plants is called irrigation.

Methods of Irrigation

(i) Two types of wells:

• Dug wells: In dug wells, water is collected by bullock-operated devices or by pumps.
• Tube wells: It makes very deep underground water available for irrigation. Motor pump is used to lift
water.

(ii) Canals: These get water from large rivers.

(iii) River lift system: In this system, water is directly taken from rivers through pumps. This system is
useful for irrigation in areas close to river.

(iv) Tanks: These are small storage reservoirs.

(v) Rain water harvesting: Rain water harvesting is a accumulation of water in tanks for later use. This
also prevents soil erosion.

Crop Patterns

→ Different patterns are used to maximize the production from crop field.

• The different patterns are:

(i) Mixed cropping

(ii) Inter cropping
(iii) Crop rotation

(i) Mixed cropping: Growing two or more than two crops together on the same piece of land is called
mixed cropping.
Examples: wheat and gram, wheat and mustard, groundnut and sunflower.

(ii) Inter cropping: Two or more crops are grown on the same field in a definite pattern. Few rows of one
followed by few rows of the other.
Examples: Soyabean+maize, Finger nullet (Bajra)+Cow pea (lobia)

(iii) Crop rotation: Crop rotation is policy of growing different crops one after another on the same field.
→ If some crop is grown again and again on the same field, same nutrients are extracted from soil again
and again. So we should choose different crops so that all nutrients of soil are used.

• Advantages of crop rotation:

(i) Soil fertility is maintained.

(ii) It controls pests and weeds.
(iii) Several crops can be grown in succession with only one soil preparation.

Crop Protection Improvement

→ To protect crops against diseases caused organisms and other harming factors
is called crop protection.

• Methods used to control the problems:

(i) Pest control during growth

(ii) Storage of grains

Pest control during growth

→ Pest is any destructive organism which can destroy or harm crops or products obtained from them.

• Types of pests:

(i) Weeds: Unwanted plants in the cultivated field. Example: xanthium.

(ii) Insects: Insects can harm plants in following ways :

→ They cut the root, stem and leaf.
→ They suck the cell sap from various parts of the plant.

(iii) Pathogens: Any organism such as bacteria, fungi and viruses which cause diseases in plants are
called pathogens.
→ They are transmitted through air, water, soil.

Storage of grains

→ For getting seasonal foods throughout the year, they are stored in safe storage. But during storage of
grains, they can be destroyed and wasted by various means.

(i) Biotic problem: Due to living organisms like insects, birds, mites, bacteria, fungi.

(ii) Abiotic problem: Due to non-living factors such as moisture, inappropriate temperature etc.
→ These factors affect quality degradation, loss in weight, change in colour, poor germinability.
Organic Farming

→ Use of fertilizers and pesticides has their own disadvantages. They cause pollution, damage soil
fertility in long run. Grains, fruits, vegetables obtained may contain harmful chemical in small amount.

→ Organic farming is a farming system with no or very little use of chemicals like fertilizers and
pesticides.

• Ways to protect food grains before they are stored for future use:

(i) Drying: The food grains should be properly dried in the sun.

(ii) Maintenance of hygiene: The grains must not contain insects. The godowns should be cleaned well.
The cracks in the roof and on the walls and floor should be sealed completely.

(iii) Fumigation: Godowns and stores should be properly sprayed with fumigants. Specially, the seeds
should be treated with insecticides and fungicides.

(iv) Storage devices: Cleaned and dried grains should be stored in gunny bags or other proper bags.
→ Airtight, moisture-resistant and temperature resistant storage devices have been developed by
various organizations.

Animal Husbandry

→ Animal husbandry is a scientific management of domestic animals in an efficient manner to obtain

food and other useful products from them.

Purpose of cattle farming:

(i) For getting milk

(ii) Ploughing fields
(iii) Bull cart for transportation

Types of cattle:

→ Cow (Bos indicus)

→ Buffalo (Bos bubalis)

• Milch animals: These includes milk producing animals (female cattle).

• Draught animals: Those animals which do not produce milk and are used for agricultural work.
• Lactation period: The period of milk production between birth of a young one and the next pregnancy
is called lactation period.

Care of Cattle:

(i) Cleanliness
→ Roofed shelter with good ventilation for protection from rain, heat and cold.
→ Regular brushing of skin of cattle.
→ Sloping floor for shelter for avoiding water-logging.

(ii) Food
→ Roughage mainly containing fibre
→ Concentrates containing proteins
→ Food containing micro nutrients (vitamins and minerals) for enhanced milk production.

• Diseases: Diseases can cause death and reduce milk production.

→ Parasites are small organisms living inside or outside the body of another organism (host). They derive
food from the body of host.

→ External parasites on skin of cattle cause skin diseases.

→ Internal parasites like worms cause stomach and intestine problems and flukes cause liver problems.

→ Bacteria, virus cause infectious diseases (diseases that can be easily transmitted from one to another).

• Poultry Farming: Poultry farming is done for eggs and meat. They both provide protein to our diet.

• Broilers: Birds grown for obtaining meat are called broilers. They can be used after 6-8 weeks from
their birth.

• Layers: Birds grown for obtaining egg are called layers. They can be used after 20 weeks when sexual
maturity has been attempt to lay eggs.

→ Most of the broilers and layers are cross-breed.

→ Breeding is done to enhance following properties in hens like:

(i) More and better quality chicks.
(ii) Low maintenance.
(iii) Breeding is done to produce dwarf broilers (meat-giving birds). Feeding cost is the biggest expense in
poultry farms.

→ Dwarf broilers need less food and can reduce cost by 30%. Also, they can tolerate more heat.
Fish Production

→ Fish production is a great source of protein to our diet.

• Fish production is of two types:

(i) Finned fish production/True fish production: Production and management of cartilaginous and bony
fishes such as pomphret, tuna,bcod, catla, prawns, rohu etc.

(ii) Unfinned fish production: Production of shell-fish such as prawns, mollusks.

• Fishing are of two types on the mode of obtaining fishes:

(i) Capture fishing: Naturally living fishes in various water bodies are captured.

(ii) Culture fishing: Fishes of desired variety are cultivated in confined areas with utmost care to get
maximum yield. This is also called aquaculture.

→ Aquaculture can be done in oceans, rivers, lakes, ponds etc. When it is done in oceans, it is
called mariculture.

• Marine fishing: Marine fishing includes fish production in ponds, rivers, reservoirs.

→ Popular marine fishes includes pomphret, tuna, sardines, Bombay duck.

→ Some costly fishes found in sea like nullets, prawns, seaweed, oysters.

→ Using satellites, regions of high fish population in sea can be found. Echo-sounders are also used.

• Inland fishing: It includes fish production in fresh water (for example ponds, rivers, lakes, reservoirs)
and brackish water (for example estuaries).

Composite Fish Culture

→ 5 to 6 varieties in a single fish pond.

→ They are selected so that they do not compete for food. They should have different food requirement.

Example of Fish:

• Catla: Feeds in the upper part of water.

• Rohu: Feeds in middle part of water.
• Mrigals, common carps: Feeds at bottom.

• Advantage of Fishing: More yield.

• Problems of Fishing: Many fishes lay eggs during monsoons only, due to which number of fishes will
not grow fast. So hormonal stimulation is used.
Using this, fishes can be made to reproduce any time.

Bee-keeping

→ It is the practice of keeping, caring & management of honeybees on a large scale for obtaining honey
and wax.
→ Many farmers use bee-keeping for additional small income. Also, there are big
farms called apiaries/bee farms.

• Apiary: The setting up of a number of bee hives in desirable location in a systematic manner that
allows maximum pollen and nectar collection.

→ Some common Indian varieties of bees include apis carana indica (Indian bee), dorsata (rock bee),
floral (little bee).

→ One Italian variety mellifera is also used in India for commercial large scale production.

• Advantages of Italian variety Melifera:

(i) High honey collection capacity.
(ii) They reproduce fast.
(iii) They sting less.
(iv) They stay in a bee hive for long.

Honey

→ It is a dense sweet liquid.

→ It is used in medicines. It is used as sugar.
→ It is used as a source of energy.

Pasturage

→ Pasturage is the availability of flowers to the bees for nectar and pollen collection.

→ Pasturage of flora is the type of crop, flower or other plants from which bee collects nectar and pollen
to produce honey.

→ It affects the quality and quantity of honey because different flora produce nectar and pollen of
different types such as almond honey of Kashmir is very tasty.

N-TEXT QUESTIONS SOLVED

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 162
Question 1. How does the sound produced by a vibrating object in a medium reach your ear?
Answer: Air is the commonest material through which sound propagates. When vibrating objects, like
prongs of a tuning fork move forward, they push the molecules of the air in front of them. This in turn
compresses the air, thus creating a region of high pressure and high density called compression. This
compression in the air travels forward. When the prongs of the tuning fork move backward, they create
a region of low pressure in the air, commonly called rarefaction.
This region has low pressure, low density, and more volume. As the tuning fork continues to vibrate, the
regions of compression in the air alternate with the regions of rarefaction. These regions alternate at the
same place. The energy of vibrating tuning fork travels outward. This energy which reaches the ears,
makes the eardrums to vibrate and thus we hear sound

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 163

Question 1. Explain how sound is produced by your school bell.
Answer: Air is the commonest material through which sound propagates. When school bell is rung, it
pushes the molecules of the air in front of it. This in turn compresses the air, thus creating a region of
high pressure and high density called compression. This compression in the air travels forward. When
the bell moves back, it creates a region of low pressure in the air, commonly called rarefaction. This
region has low pressure, low density, and more volume. As the bell continues to vibrate, the regions Of
compression in the air alternate with the regions of rarefaction. These regions alternate at the same
place. The energy of vibrating bell travels outward. This energy which reaches the ears, makes the
eardrums to vibrate and thus we hear sound.

Question 2. Why are sound waves called mechanical waves?

Answer: Some mechanical energy is required to make an object vibrate. Sound energy cannot be
produced on its own. The mechanical energy of vibrating object travels through a medium and finally
reaches the ear. Therefore, the sound waves are called mechanical waves.

Question 3. Suppose you and your friend are on the moon. Will you be able to hear any-sound
produced by your friend?
Answer: No, I will not be able to hear sound, because moon has no atmosphere. Therefore, no sound
waves can travel to your ears and, therefore, no sound is heard.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page -I

Question 1. Which wave property determines (a) loudness, (b) Pitch?
Answer: (a) The amplitude of the wave determines the loudness; more the amplitude of a wave, more is
the loudness produced.
(b) The pitch is determined by the frequency of the wave. Higher the frequency of a wave more is its
pitch and shriller is the sound.

Question 2. Guess which sound has a higher pitch; guitar or car horn?
Answer: Car horn has a higher pitch than a guitar, because sound produced by the former is shriller than
the latter.

NCERT TextBook Class 9 Science Page 166 -II

Question 1. What are wavelength, frequency, time period and amplitude of a sound wave?
Answer: Frequency: The number of compressions or rarefactions taken together passing through a point
in one second is called frequency.
Time Period: It is the time taken by two consecutive compressions or rarefactions to cross a point.
Amplitude: It is the magnitude of maximum displacement of a vibrating particle about its mean position.

Question 2. How are the wavelength and frequency of a sound wave related to its speed ?
Answer: Speed of sound = Frequency x Wavelength

Question 3. Calculate the wavelength of a sound wave whose frequency is 220 Hz and speed is 440 m
s-1 in a given medium.
Answer: Frequency = 220 Hz
Speed of sound = 440 m s-1
We know speed of sound Frequency x Wavelength = 220 x Wavelength
Wavelength = [Math Processing Error] = [Math Processing Error] = 2m

Question 4. A person is listening to a tone of 500 Hz sitting at a distance of 450 m from the source Of
the sound. What is the time interval between successive compressions from the source ?
Answer:

Question 5. Distinguish between loudness and intensity of sound.

Answer: The loudness depends on energy per unit area of the wave and on the response of the ear but
intensity depends only on the energy per unit area of the wave and is independent of the response of
the ear.

Question 6. In which of the three media, air, water or iron, does sound travel the fastest at a particular
temperature ?
Answer: Sound travels fastest in iron as compared to water and air.
An echo is returned in 3 s. mat is the distance of the reflecting surface from the source, given the speed
of sound is 342 m s-1

Question 7. Why are the ceilings of concert halls curved ?

Answer: The ceilings of concert halls are curved because sound after reflection from it reaches all the
corners of the hall and is audible to each person in the hall.

Question.8.What is the audible range of the average human ear ?

Answer. An average human ear can hear sound waves between frequencies 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Question 9. What is the range of frequencies associated with (a) Infra sound ? (b) Ultrasound ?
Answer: (a) Infra sound : Sound waves between the Frequencies 1 and 20 Hz.
(b) Ultrasound : Sound waves of the frequencies above 20,000 Hz.
Extra Questions for CBSE Class 9 Science Chapter 12 Sound

Question 1. What is sound and how is it produced ?

Answer: Sound is mechanical energy which produces a sensation of hearing. When an Object is set into
vibrations, sound is produced.

Question 3. Cite an experiment to show that sound needs a material medium for its propagation.
Answer: Take an electric circuit which consists of a cell, a switch and an electric bell arranged inside a
bell jar, which stands on the platform of an evacuating pump. The switch of the bell is pressed to close
the electric circuit. When there is air within the bell jar, sound is heard. Air is now pumped out of the bell
jar. When the air is completely removed from the bell jar, no sound is heard as it is obvious from fig.
because the medium of air which has to carry energy from the bell to the bell jar is removed. It shows
that sound needs material medium for its propagation.

Question 4. Why is sound wave called a longitudinal wave?

Answer: Sound wave is called longitudinal wave because the particles of the medium vibrate in the
direction of the propagation of wave.

Question 5. Which characteristic of the sound helps you to identify your friend by his voice while
sitting with others in a darkroom ?
Answer: The characteristic of sound is quality or timbre.

Question 6. Flash and thunder are produced simultaneously. But thunder is heard a few seconds after
the flash is seen, why ?
Answer: Speed of sound is 330 m/sec in air medium at 0°C. Whereas speed of light is 3 x 108m/sec.
When we compare the speed of light with that of speed of sound, speed of light is greater than that of
speed of sound. Therefore thunder is heard a few seconds after the flash is seen.

Question 7. A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelengths of
sound waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 ms -1.
Answer:

Question 8. Two children are a± opposite ends of an aluminium rod. One strikes the end of the rod
with a stone. Find the ratio of times taken by the sound wave in air and in aluminium to reach the
second child.
Answer:

Question 9. The frequency of a sources/ sound is 100 Hz. How many times does it vibrate in a minute?
Answer:

Question 10. Does sound follow the same laws of reflection as light does? Explain.
Answer: Yes. Sound follows the same laws of reflection as that of light because,
(i) Angle of incidence of sound is always equal to that of angle of reflection of sound waves.
(ii) The direction in which sound is incident, the direction in which it is reflected and normal all lie in the
same plane.
Question 11. When a sound is reflected from a distant object, an echo is produced. Let the distance
between the reflecting surface and the source of sound production remains the same. Do you hear
echo sound on a hotter day?
Answer:

Time is inversely proportional to the speed. As the temperature increases, the speed increases. Thus on
a hot day due to high temperature the speed of sound increases. Hence the time will decrease and we
can hear the echo sooner.

Question 12. Give two practical applications of reflection of sound waves.

Answer: Reflection of sound is used in megaphones, horns and musical instruments such as trumpets
and shehna. It is used in stethoscope for hearing patient’s heartbeat. Ceilings of the concert halls are
curved, so that sound after reflection reaches all comers of the hall. (Any two practical applications can
be written).

Question 13. A stone dropped from the top of a tower 500 m high into a pond of water at the base of
the tower. When is the splash heard at the top? Giving, g = 10 ms-2 and speed of sound = 340 m s-1.
Answer:
Question 14. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 ms-1. If its wavelength is 1.5 cm, what is the
frequency of the wave? Will it be audible?
Answer:

Question 15. What is reverberation? How can it be reduced?

Answer: The persistence of sound in an auditorium is the result of repeated reflections of sound and is
called reverberation.
To reduce the undesirable effects due to reverberation, roofs and walls of the auditorium are generally
covered with sound absorbent materials like compressed fiberboard, rough plaster or draperies. The seat
materials are also selected having sound absorption properties.

Question 16. What is loudness of sound? What factors does it depend on?
Answer: The loudness of sound is determined by its amplitude. The amplitude of the sound wave
depends upon the force with which an object is made to vibrate. Loud sound can travel a larger distance
as it is associated with higher energy. A sound waves spreads out from its source. As it moves away from
the source its amplitude as well as its loudness decreases.

Question 17. Explain how bats use ultrasound to catch a prey.

Answer: Bats search out its prey by emitting and detecting reflections of ultrasonic waves. The high-
pitched ultrasonic squeaks of bat are reflected from the obstacles or prey and return to bat’s ear. The
nature of reflection tells the bat where the obstacle or prey is and what it is like.

Question 18. How is ultrasound used for cleaning?

Answer: Ultrasound is used to clean parts located in hard-to-reach places (i.e.) spiral tube, odd shaped
parts, electronic components etc. Objects to be cleaned are placed in a cleaning solution and ultrasonic
waves are sent into the solution. Due to the high frequency, the dust particles, grease get detached and
drop out. The objects thus get thoroughly cleaned.

Question 19. Explain the working and application of a sonar.

Answer: Working: SONAR Consists of a transmitter and a detector and is installed in a boat or a ship as
shown in the fig. The transmitter produces and transmits ultrasonic waves. These waves travel through
water and after striking the object on the seabed, get reflected back and are sensed by the detector. The
detector converts the ultrasonic waves into electrical signals which are appropriately interpreted. The
distance of the object that reflected the sound wave can be calculated by knowing the speed of sound in
water and the time interval between the transmission and reception of the ultrasound.

Question 20. A sonar device on a submarine sends out a signal and receives an echo 5 s later. Calculate
the speed of sound in water if the distance of the object from the submarine is 3625 m.
Answer: Time taken between transmission and reception of signal = 5 sec.
Distance of the object from the sub marine = 3625 m.

Question.21. Explain how defects in a metal block can be detected using ultrasound.
Answer. Ultrasounds can be used to detect cracks and flaws in metal blocks. Metallic components are
used in the construction of big structures like buildings, bridges, machines and scientific equipment’s.
The cracks or holes inside the metal blocks, which are invisible from outside reduces the strength of the
structure. Ultrasonic waves are allowed to pass through the metallic block and detectors are used to
detect the transmitted waves. If there is even a small defect, the ultrasound gets reflected back
indicating the presence of the flaw or defect.

Question 22. Explain how the human ear works.

Answer: The outer ear is called “pinna. It collects the sound from the surroundings. The collected sound
passes through the auditory canal. At the end of the auditory canal there is a thin membrane called the
eardrum or the tympanic membrane. When a compression of the medium reaches the eardrum the
pressure on the outside of the membrane increases and forces the eardrum inward. Similarly, the
eardrum moves outward when a rarefaction reaches it. In this way the eardrum vibrates. The vibrations
are amplified several times by three bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) in the middle ear. The middle
ear transmits the amplified pressure variations received from the sound wave to the inner ear. In the
inner ear, the pressure variations are turned into electrical signals by the cochlea. These electrical signals
are sent to the brain via the auditory nerve and the brain interprets them as sound.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom

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NCERT Solutions Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom – Here are all the NCERT solutions for
Class 9 Science Chapter 4. This solution contains questions, answers, images, step by step explanations of
the complete Chapter 4 titled Structure of the Atom of Science taught in class 9. If you are a student of
class 9 who is using NCERT Textbook to study Science, then you must come across Chapter 4 Structure of
the Atom. After you have studied lesson, you must be looking for answers of its questions. Here you can
get complete NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom in one place. For a
better understanding of this chapter, you should also see Chapter 4 Structure of the Atom Class 9 notes ,
Science.NCERT textbooks
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom

Topics and Sub Topics in Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom:

Structure of Atom

Charged Particles in Matter

The Structure of an Atom

How are Electrons Distributed in Different Orbits (Shells)?

Valency

Atomic Number and Mass Number

These solutions are part of NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science. Here we have given Class 9 NCERT
Science Text book Solutions for Chapter 4 Structure of Atom.

In-Text Questions Solved

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 47

Question 1. What are canal rays?

Answer: Canal rays are positively charged radiations which led to the discovery of positively charged sub-
atomic particle called proton.

Question 2. If an atom contains one electron and one proton, will it carry any charge or not?

Answer: The atom will be electrically neutral as one – ve charge balances one + ve charge.

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RD Sharma Class 9 Solutions

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 49

Question 1. On the basis of Thomson’s model of an atom, explain how the atom is neutral as a whole.

Answer: According to Thomson’s model of an atom

(i) An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it,

(ii) The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So the atom is electrically neutral.

Question 2. On the basis of Rutherford’s model of an atom, which sub-atomic particle is present in the
nucleus of an atom?

Answer: As per Rutherford’s model of an atom, the protons which are positively charged are present in
the nucleus of an atom.

Formulae Handbook for Class 9 Maths and ScienceEducational Loans in India

Question 3. Draw a sketch of Bohr’s model of an atom with three shells.

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 49 Q3

Question 4. What do you think would be the observation if the a-particle scattering experiment is carried
out using a foil of a metal other than gold?

Answer: On using any metal foil, the observations of the a-particle scattering experiment would remain
the same as all atoms would have same structure.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 49

Question 1. Name the three sub-atomic particles of an atom.

Answer: The sub-atomic particles of an atom are

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 49 Q1

Question 2. Helium atom has an atomic mass of 4 u and two protons in its nucleus. How many neutrons
does it have?

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 49 Q2

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 50

Question 1. Write the distribution of electrons in carbon and sodium atoms.

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 50 Q1

Question 2. If K and L shells of an atom are full, then what would be the total number of electrons in the
atom?

Answer: K shell can hold 2 electrons and L shell can hold 8 electrons.When both the shells are full, there
will be (8 + 2) 10 electrons in the atom.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 52

Question 1. How will you find the valency of chlorine, sulphur and magnesium?

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q1

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q1.1

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 52

Question 1. If number of electrons in an atom is 8 and number of protons is also 8, then

(i) What is the atomic number of the atom? and

(ii) What is the charge on the atom?

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q1.2

Question 2. With the help of given Table 4.1, find out the mass number of oxygen and sulphur atom.

Table: Composition of Atoms of the First Eighteen Elements with Electron Distribution in Various Shells

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q2

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q2.1

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 52 Q2.2

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Textbook – Page 53

Question 1. For the symbol H, D and T tabulate three sub-atomic particles found in each of them

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 53 Q1

Question 2. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobar.

Answer. Isotopes: Atoms of same element having same atomic number but different mass number.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Intext QUestions Page 53 Q2

Questions from NCERT Text Book

Question 1. Compare the properties of electrons, protons and neutrons.

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q1

Question 2. What are the limitations of J.J. Thomson’s model of the atom?
Answer: According to J.J. Thomson’s model of an atom, the electrons are embedded all over in the
positively charged spheres. But experiments done by other scientists showed that protons are present
only in the centre of the atom and electrons are distributed around it.

Question 3. What are the limitations of Rutherford’s model of the atom?

Answer: According to Rutherford’s model of an atom the electrons are revolving in a circular orbit
around the nucleus. Any such particle that revolves would undergo acceleration and radiate energy. The
revolving electron would lose its energy and finally fall into the nucleus, the atom would be highly
unstable. But we know that atoms are quite stable.

Question 4. Describe Bohr’s model of the atom.

Answer: Bohr’s model of the atom

(1) Atom has nucleus in the centre.

(2) Electrons revolve around the nucleus.

(3) Certain special orbits known as discrete orbits of electrons are allowed inside the atom.

(4) While revolving in discrete orbits the electrons do not radiate energy.

(5) These orbits or shells are called energy levels.

(6) These orbits or shells are represented by the letters K, L, M, N or the numbers n = 1, 2, 3, 4

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q4

Question 5. Compare all the proposed Bohr’s models of an atom given in this chapter.

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q5

Question 6. Summarise the rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first
eighteen elements.

Answer: The rules for writing of distribution of electrons in various shells for the first eighteen elements
are:
(i) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula-2 n2

∵ n = orbit number i.e., 1, 2, 3

∵ Maximum number of electrons in different shells are:

K shell n = 1 2n2 => 2(1)2 = 2

L shell n = 2 2n2 => 2(2)2 = 8

M shell n = 3 2n2 => 2(3)2 = 18

N shell n = 4 2n2 => 2(4)2 = 32

(ii) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.

(iii) Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell unless the inner shells are filled. (Shells are filled
step-wise).

Question 7. Define valency by taking examples of silicon and oxygen.

Answer: Valency is the combining capacity of an atom.

Atomic number of oxygen = 8 Atomic number of silicon = 14 K L M

Electronic configuration of oxygen = 2 6 –

Electronic configuration of silicon =2 8 4

In the atoms of oxygen the valence electrons are 6 (i.e., electrons in the outermost shell). To fill the orbit,
2 electrons are required. In the atom of silicon, the valence electrons are 4. To fill this orbit 4 electrons
are required.

Hence, the combining capacity of oxygen is 2 and of silicon is 4.

i.e., Valency of oxygen = 2

Valency of silicon = 4

Question 8. Explain with examples:

(i) Atomic number (ii) Mass number,

(iii) Isotopes and (iv) Isobars.

Give any two uses of isotopes.

Answer: (i) Atomic number: The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in the
nucleus of its atom. e.g., Oxygen has 6 protons hence atomic no. = 6.
(ii) Mass number: The mass number of an atom is equal to the number of protons and neutrons in its
nucleus.

Nucleons = number of protons + number of neutrons Example: Protons + Neutrons = Nucleus = Mass
number 6 + 6 = 12

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q8

(iii) Isotopes: Isotopes are atoms of the same element which have different mass number but same
atomic number.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q8.1

(iv) Isobars: Isobars are atoms having the same mass number but different atomic numbers.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q8.2

Both calcium and argon have same mass number but different atomic number.

Two uses of isotopes are:

(i) An isotope of iodine is used in the treatment of goitre.

(ii) An isotope of uranium is used as a fuel in nuclear reactors.

Question 9. Na+ has completely filled K and L shells. Explain.

Answer: Sodium atom (Na), has atomic number =11

Number of protons =11

Number of electrons = 11

Electronic configuration of Na = K L M – 2 8 1

Sodium atom (Na) looses 1 electron to become stable and form Na+ ion. Hence it has completely filled K
and L shells.

Question 10. If bromine atom is available in the form of say, two isotopes 7935Br (49.7%) and 8135Br
(50.3%), calculate the average atomic mass of bromine atom.

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q10

Question 11. The average atomic mass of a sample of an element X is 16.2 u. What are the percentages
of isotopes 168X and 188X in the sample?

Answer: Let the percentage of 168X be x and the percentage of 168X be 100 – x.
NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q11

Question 12. If Z = 3, what would be the valency of the element? Also, name the element.

Answer: Z = 3, (i.e, atomic number —> z)

∴ Electronic configuration = 2, 1

Valency = 1

Name of the element is lithium.

Question 13. Composition of the nuclei of two atomic species X and Y are given as under

X–Y

Protons =6 6

Neutrons = 6 8

Give the mass number of X and Y. What is the relation between the two species?

Answer: Mass number of X = Protons + Neutrons

= 6 + 6 = 12

Mass number of Y = Protons + Neutrons = 6 + 8 = 14

As the atomic number is same i.e., = 6.

[atomic number = number of protons].

Both X and Y are isotopes of same element.

Question 14. For the following statements, write T for True and F for False.

(a) J.J. Thomson proposed that the nucleus of an atom contains only nucleons.

(b) A neutron is formed by an electron and a proton combining together. Therefore,it is neutral.

(c) The mass of an electron is about 1/2000 times that of proton.

(d) An isotope of iodine is used for making tincture iodine, which is used as a medicine.

Answer: (a) False (b) False

(c) True (d) False

Put tick against correct choice and cross (x) against wrong choice in questions 15, 16 and 17.
Question 15. Rutherford’s alpha-particle scattering experiment was responsible for the discovery of

(a) Atomic nucleus (c) Proton

(b)Electron (d)neutron

Answer: (a) Atomic nucleus

Question 16.Isotopes of an element have

(a) the same physical properties (c) different number of neutrons

(b)different number of neutrons (d) different atomic numbers.

Answer: (c) different number of neutrons

Question 17. Number of valence electrons in Ct ion are :

(a) 16 (b) 8

(c) 17 (d) 18

Answer: (b) 8

Question 18. Which one of the following is a correct electronic configuration of sodium?

(a) 2, 8 (b) 8, 2, 1

(c) 2, 1, 8 (d) 2, 8, 1

Answer: (d) 2, 8, 1

Question 19. Complete the following table.

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q19

Answer:

NCERT Solutions for Class 9 Science Chapter 4 Structure of Atom Textbook Questions Q19.1

Question 1. What do we get from cereals, pulses, fruits and vegetables?

Answer: Cereals give carbohydrates which provide energy.

Pulses give proteins which build our body.

Vegetables and fruits provide vitamins and minerals.

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Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 205

Question 1. How do biotic and abiotic factors affect crop production?

Answer: Factors responsible for loss of grains, during storage and production are:

(a) Biotic factors like rodents, pests, insects, etc.

(b) Abiotic factors like temperature, humidity, moisture, etc.

Combination of both biotic and abiotic factors causes :

infestation of insects

weight loss

poor germination ability

degradation in quality

discolouration

poor market price

Question 2. What are the desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements?

Answer: Desirable agronomic characteristics for crop improvements are:

(a) Tallness and profuse branching are desirable characters for fodder crops.

(b) Dwarfness is desired in cereals, so that less nutrients are consumed by these crops.
Formulae Handbook for Class 9 Maths and ScienceEducational Loans in India

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 206

Question 1. What are macro-nutrients and why are they called macro-nutrients?

Answer: Macro-nutrients are the essential elements which are utilised by plants in large quantities.
Many macro-nutrients are required by the plants for the following functions:

As the constituent of protoplasm

N, P, S are present in proteins

Ca is present in cell wall

Mg is important constituent of chlorophyll

Question 2. How do plants get nutrients?

Answer: Plants get nutrients from air, water and soil. There are, sixteen nutrients essential for the
growth of plants. Carbon and Oxygen are supplied by water. The remaining thirteen nutrients are
supplied by soil.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 207

Question 1. Compare the use of manure and fertilizers in maintaining soil fertility.

Answer: Effects of using manures on soil quality:

The manures enrich the soil with nutrients.

They provide a lot of organic matter (humus) to the soil and thus restores water retention capacity of
sandy soils and drainage in clayey soil.

The addition of manures reduces soil erosion.

They provide food for soil organisms, like soil friendly bacteria.

Effects of using fertilizers on soil quality:

By the continuous use of fertilizers, the soil becomes powdery, dry and rate of soil erosion increases.
By the use of fertilizers, the organic matter decreases which further decreases the porosity of soil and
the plant roots do not get oxygen properly,

The nature of soil changes to acidic or basic.

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 208

Question 1. Which of the following conditions will give the most benefits? Why?

(a) Farmers use high-quality seeds, do not adopt irrigation or use fertilizers.

(b) Farmers use ordinary seeds, adopt irrigation and use fertilizer.

(c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilizer and use crop protection measures.

Answer: In this, (c) Farmers use quality seeds, adopt irrigation, use fertilizer and use crop protection
measures.

Use of any quality seeds is not sufficient until they are properly irrigated, enriched with fertilizers and
protected from biotic factors. Hence, option (c) will give the most benefits.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 209

Question.1. Why should preventive measures and biological control methods be preferred for protecting
crops?

Answer. Diseases in plants are caused by pathogens. To get rid of pathogens, some preventive measures
and biological control methods are used as they are simple, economic and minimise pollution without
affecting the soil quality.

Question 2. What factors may be responsible for losses of grains during storage?

Answer: The factors responsible for losses of grains during storage are:

Abiotic factors like moisture (present in food grains), humidity (of air) and temperature.

Biotic factors like insects, rodents, birds, mites, bacteria and fungi.

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 210

Question 1. Which method is commonly used for improving cattle breeds and why ?

Answer: Cross breeding is a process in which indigenous varities of cattle are crossed by exotic breeds to
get a breed which is high yielding. During cross breeding, the desired characters are taken into
consideration. The offspring should be high yielding, should have early maturity and should be resistant
to climatic conditions.
Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 211

Question 1. Discuss the implications of the following statement:

“It is interesting to note that poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre food stuff (which is
unfit for human consumption) into highly nutritious animal protein food”.

Answer: The basic aim of poultry farming is to raise domestic fowl for egg production and chicken meat.
These poultry birds are not only the efficient converters of agricultural by-products, particularly cheaper
fibrous wastes (which is unfit for human consumption but can be formulated into cheaper diets for
poultry birds) into high quality meat and also help in providing egg, feathers and nutrient rich manure.
For this reasons, it is said that, “poultry is India’s most efficient converter of low fibre food stuff into
highly nutritious animal protein food”.

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 211

Question 1. What management practices are common in dairy and poultry farming?

Answer:

Shelter: Dairy animals and poultry birds require proper shelter, i.e., well designed dairy and hygienic
shelter.

Feeding: To get good yield of food product, proper feed is provided to dairy animals and poultry birds.

Caring for animal health: Animal and birds must be protected from diseases caused by virus, bacteria or
fungi.

Question 2. What are the differences between broilers and layers and in their management?

Answer: The poultry bird groomed for obtaining meat is called broiler. The egg laying poultry bird is
called layer.

The housing, nutritional and environmental requirements of broilers are somewhat different from those
of egg layers.

The ration (daily food requirement) for broilers is protein rich with adequate fat. The level of vitamins A
and K is kept high in the poultry feeds while layers require enough space and proper lightning.

Class 9 Science NCERT Textbook – Page 213

Question 1. How are fish obtained?

Answer: There are two ways of obtaining fish. One is from natural resources, which is called capture
fishing. The other way is by fish farming, which is called culture fishery.

Question 2. What are the advantages of composite fish culture?

Answer: In composite fish culture, a combination of five or six fish species is used in a single fish pond.
These species are selected so that they do not compete for food among them and are having different
types of food habits. As a result, the food available in all the parts of the pond is used. For example,
Catlas are surface feeders, Rohus feed in the middle-zone of the pond, Mrigals and Common Carps are
bottom feeders and Grass Carps feed on the weeds, together these species can use all the food in the
pond without competing with each other. This increases the fish yield from pond.

NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science – Page 213

Question 1. What are the desirable characters of bee varieties suitable for honey production?

Answer:

The variety of bee should be able to collect a large amount of honey.

The bees should stay in a given beehive for a longer period.

The bees should have capacity of breeding well.

The variety of bee should be disease resistant.

Question 2. What is pasturage and how is it related to honey production?

Answer: The pasturage means the flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection. In
addition to adequate quantities of pasturage, the kind of flowers available will determine the taste of the
honey.

Questions From NCERT Textbook for Class 9 Science

Question 1. Explain any one method of crop production which ensures high yield.

Answer: One method used for crop production which ensures high yield is plant breeding. It is the
science involved in improving the varieties of crops by breeding plants. The plants from different
areas/places is picked up with desired traits and then hybridisation or cross-breeding of these varieties is
done to obtain a plant/crop of desired characteristic.

The high yielding crop variety shows the following characteristics:

High yield, early maturation, less water for irrigation, better quality seeds are produced, less fertilizers
required, adapts itself to the environmental conditions.

Question 2. Why are manure and fertilizers used in fields?

Answer: They are used to ensure good vegetative growth (leaves, branches and flowers), giving rise to
healthy plants, that results in high crop production.

Question 3. What are the advantages of inter-cropping and crop rotation?

Answer: Advantages of using inter-cropping:

It helps to maintain soil fertility.

It increases productivity per unit area.

Save labour and time.

Both crops can be easily harvested and processed separately.

Advantages of using crop rotation:

It improves the soil fertility.

It avoids depletion of a particular nutrient from soil.

It minimise pest infestation and diseases.

It helps in weed control.

It prevents change in the chemical nature of the soil.

Question 4. What is genetic manipulation? How is it useful in agricultural practices?

Answer: Genetic manipulation is a process of incorporating desirable (genes) characters into crop
varieties by hybridisation. Hybridisation involves crossing between genetically dissimilar plants. This is
done for production of varieties with desirable characteristics like profuse branching in fodder crops,
high yielding varieties in maize, wheat, etc.

Genetic manipulation is useful in developing varieties which shows:

Increased yield
Better quality

Shorter and early maturity period

Better adaptability to adverse environmental conditions

Desirable characteristics

Question 5. How do storage grain losses occur?

Answer: The factors responsible for loss of grains during storage are:

Abiotic factors like moisture (present in foodgrains), humidity (of air) and temperature.

Biotic factors like insects, rodents, birds, mites and bacteria.

Question 6. How do good animal husbandry practices benefit farmers?

Answer: Good animal husbandry practices are beneficial to the farmers in the following ways:

Improvement of breeds of the domesticated animals.

Increasing the yield of foodstuffs such as milk, eggs and meat.

Proper management of domestic animals in terms of shelter, feeding, care and protection against
diseases.

Which ultimately helps the farmers to improve their economic condition.

Question 7. What are the benefits of cattle farming?

Answer: Cattle farming is beneficial in the following ways:

Milk production is increased by high yielding animals.

Good quality of meat, fibre and skin can be obtained.

Good breed of draught animals can be obtained.

Question 8. For increasing production, what is common in poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping?

Answer: Through cross breeding, the production of poultry, fisheries and bee-keeping can be increased.

Question 9. How do you differentiate between capture fishing, mariculture, and aquaculture?

Answer:
Capture fishing: It is the fishing in which fishes are captured from natural resources like pond, sea water
and estuaries.

Mariculture: It is the culture of fish in marine water. Varieties like prawns, oysters, bhetki and mullets are
cultured for fishing.

Aquaculture: It is done both in fresh water and in marine water.