Question Rationale

1. Full activation of the effects of Effects of

sympathetic nervous system, as parasympathetic sympathetic
in the fight-or-flight reaction, stimulation stimulation
may occur during maximal (DUMBELS) (opposite of
exercise. Which of the following DUMBELS)
effects is likely to occur? Cholinergic agonists Adrenergic agonists
A. Bronchoconstriction Parasympathomimetic Sympathomimetic
B. Increased intestinal motility drugs drugs
C. Decreased renal blood flow Sympatholytic drugs Parasympatholytic
D. Miosis drugs
Adrenergic antagonists Cholinergic
antagonists
2. Which of the following is a Bethanechol Treatment of post-
direct-acting cholinomimetic partum or post-
that is lipid-soluble and is used operative urinary
to facilitate smoking cessation? retention
A. Bethanechol Neostigmine Treatment of
B. Neostigmine myasthenia gravis
C. Physostigmine Physostigmine DOC for atropine
D. Varenicline poisoning
Varenicline Smoking deterrent
3. A crop duster pilot has been Many deaths occur within hours of pesticide
accidentally exposed to a high ingestion during the acute cholinergic crisis.
concentration of a highly toxic Most result from acute respiratory failure due to
agricultural organophosphate central respiratory depression and direct
insecticide. If untreated, the pulmonary effects.
cause of death from such expo-
sure would probably be
A. Cardiac arrhythmia
B. Gastrointestinal bleeding
C. Heart failure
D. Respiratory failure
4. A 7-year-old boy with a previous
history of bee sting allergy is
brought to the emergency
department after being stung by
3 bees. If this child has signs of
anaphylaxis, what is the
treatment of choice?
A. Diphenhydramine
B. Ephedrine
C. Epinephrine
D. Methylprednisolone
5. A 60-year-old man has Alpha-blockers are the first-line drugs for
hypertension and an enlarged symptomatic treatment of BPH.
prostate, which biopsy shows to
be benign prostatic hyperplasia.
He complains of urinary
retention. Which of the following
drugs would be the most
appropriate initial therapy?
A. Albuterol
B. Atenolol
C. Metoprolol
D. Prazosin
6. A 32-year-old woman with Use of drugs that act on the Renin-Angiotensin
hypertension wishes to become System increases fetal and neonatal morbidity
pregnant. Her physician informs (acute renal failure and patency of ductus
her that she will have to switch arteriosus) and deaths.
to another antihypertensive
drug. Which of the following
drugs is absolutely
contraindicated in pregnancy?
A. Atenolol
B. Captopril
C. Methyldopa
D. Prazosin
7. A significant number of patients ACEIs causes dry cough due to the elevation of
started on ACE inhibitor therapy bradykinin (which is normally metabolized by
for hypertension are intolerant ACE).
and must be switched to a
different class of drug. What is
the most common manifestation
of this intolerance?
A. Diarrhea
B. Glaucoma
C. Incessant cough
D. Lupus-like syndrome
8. A patient with hypertension is to
receive a calcium channel
blocker. Verapamil is associated
with which one of the following?
A. Diarrhea
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Bradycardia
D. Tachycardia
9. A 45-year-old woman with Nitroglycerin causes throbbing headache.
hyperlipidemia and frequent
migraine headaches develops
angina of effort. Which of the
following is relatively
contraindicated because of her
migraines?
A. Amlodipine
B. Diltiazem
C. Metoprolol
D. Nitroglycerin
10. A 5-year-old child is brought to
the emergency department with
sinus arrest and a ventricular
rate of 35 bpm. An empty bottle
of his uncle’s digoxin was found
where he was playing. Which of
the following is the drug of
choice in treating a severe
overdose of digoxin?
A. Digoxin antibodies
B. Lidocaine infusion
C. Magnesium infusion
D. Phenytoin by mouth
11. A 16-year-old girl has paroxysmal Atrioventricular nodal reentry tachycardia
attacks of rapid heart rate with (AVNRT) is the most common type of
palpitations and shortness of supraventricular tachycardia
breath. These episodes
occasionally terminate
spontaneously but often require
a visit to the emergency
department of the local hospital.
Her ECG during these episodes
reveals an AV nodal tachycardia.
The antiarrhythmic of choice in
most cases of acute AV nodal
tachycardia is
A. Adenosine
B. Amiodarone
C. Flecainide
D. Propranolol
12. A 62-year-old man with Furosemide + NSS = treatment of choice for
advanced prostate cancer is hypercalcemia
admit- ted to the emergency
department with mental
obtundation. An electrolyte
panel shows a serum calcium of
16.5 (normal ∼8.5–10.5 mg/dL).
 Which of the following therapies
would be most useful in the
management of severe
hypercalcemia?
A. Acetazolamide plus saline
infusion
B. Furosemide plus saline infusion
C. Hydrochlorothiazide plus saline
infusion
D. Mannitol plus saline infusion
13. A graduate student is planning
to make a high-altitude climb in
South America while on
vacation. He will not have time to
acclimate slowly to altitude. A
drug that is useful in preventing
high-altitude sickness is
A. Acetazolamide
B. Amiloride
C. Demeclocycline
D. Desmopressin
14. Which one of the following Secretagogues increase the secretion and
drugs promotes the release of release of endogenous insulin.
endogenous insulin?
A. Acarbose
B. Glipizide
C. Metformin
D. Miglitol
15. A 54-year-old obese patient with Alcohol increases the risk of lactic acidosis when
type 2 diabetes has a history of combined with metformin.
alcoholism. In this patient,
metformin should either be
avoided or used with extreme
caution because the
combination of metformin and
ethanol increases the risk of
which of the following?
A. A disulfiram-like reaction
B. Excessive weight gain
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Lactic acidosis

16. This drug used in the Z-drugs are the DOC for insomnia.
management of insomnia
facilitates the inhibitory actions
 of GABA, but it lacks
anticonvulsant or muscle-
relaxing properties and has
minimal effect on sleep
architecture. Its actions are
antagonized by flumazenil.
A. Buspirone
B. Chlordiazepoxide
C. Eszopiclone
D. Ramelteon
17. With chronic use in seizure
states, the adverse effects of this
drug include coarsening of facial
features, hirsutism, and gingival
hyperplasia.
A. Carbamazepine
B. Felbamate
C. Phenytoin
D. Phenobarbital
18. Which of the following drugs is Causes of malignant hyperthermia:
the most effective in the succinylcholine, inhalational anesthetics
emergency management of
malignant hyperthermia?
A. Baclofen
B. Dantrolene
C. Gabapentin
D. Secobarbital
19. Which drug has spasmolytic
activity and could also be used in
the management of seizures
caused by overdose of a local
anesthetic?
A. Baclofen
B. Cyclobenzaprine
C. Diazepam
D. Tizanidine
20. Which of the following drugs is
most suitable for management
of tremor in a patient who has
pulmonary disease?
A. Diazepam
B. Levodopa
C. Metoprolol
D. Propranolol
21. A young male patient recently The patient show acute dystonic episode (an
diagnosed as schizophrenic extrapyramidal symptom). Management is
develops severe muscle cramps usually anticholinergics. There are 2 anti-
with torticollis a short time after cholinergic agents in the choices, Benztropine
 drug therapy is initiated with and diphenhydramine. However, the patient
haloperidol. The best course of may find it difficult to swallow the drug hence
action would be to the treatment of choice is benztropine injection.
A. Add risperidone to the drug
regimen
B. Discontinue haloperidol and
observe the patient
C. Give oral diphenhydramine
D. Inject benztropine
22. Which of the following drugs is First-line drug for bipolar disorder: Lithium
established to be both effective carbonate (not for pregnant due to risk of
and safe to use in a pregnant Ebstein anomaly). If the patient is pregnant, use
patient suffering from bipolar Quetiapine or Olanzapine.
disorder?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Chlorpromazine
C. Lithium
D. Quetiapine
23. Which of the following group of
drugs are known to cause
extrapyramidal symptoms
(EPS)?
A. Narcotics
B. Anti-neoplastics
C. Anti-psychotics
D. Anti-arrythmias
24. Neuromuscular blockers act
mainly on what type of
receptors?
A. Beta receptors
B. Nicotinic receptors
C. Alpha receptors
D. Muscarinic receptors
25. 5-HT3 antagonist are used as an
________.
A. Antidiabetic
B. Anticancer
C. Antiemetic
D. Antiasthma

26. Which of the following is the If ethosuximide is not available, choose Valproic
drug of choice for absence acid.
seizure?
A. Carbamazepine
B. Gabapentin
C. Ethosuximide
D. Phenytoin
27. Which is the mechanism of
action of aspirin in exerting its
analgesic and anti-inflammatory
effect?
A. Irreversibly inhibits
cyclooxygenase-2 enzymes
B. Irreversibly inhibits
cyclooxygenase-1 enzymes
C. Binds with mu receptors in the
brain
D. Irreversibly inhibits
cyclooxygenase-1 and 2 enzymes
28. Which of the following are
inhaled corticosteroids?
A. Formoterol and dexamethasone
B. Prednisone and budesonide
C. Fluticasone and budesonide
D. Dexamethasone and fluticasone
29. Which of the following drugs is Carbocisteine, acetylcysteine and bromhexine
an antitussive? are mucolytics
A. Carbocisteine
B. Acetylcysteine
C. Dextromethorphan
D. Bromhexine
30. Which of the following is a Bisacodyl Stimulant
stimulant laxative? Lactulose Osmotic
A. Bisacodyl Docusate Emollient
B. Lactulose
Psyllium Bulk-forming
C. Docusate
D. Psyllium
31. Sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 SGLT-2 blockers act as Glycosuric agents.
(SGLT2) inhibitors are drugs that
are used to treat______.
A. Hypertension
B. Psychosis
C. Hyperthyroidism
D. Type 2 diabetes
32. In the essay of antibiotics, which Larger zone of inhibition means greater
of the following is TRUE if Drug A efficacy.
results to a significantly larger
zone of inhibition vs. Drug B at
equivalent doses against the
same organism?
A. Drug A is safer than Drug B
B. Drug B is more effective than
Drug A
C. Drug B is safer than Drug A
D. Drug A is more effective than
Drug B
33. Which of the following elements
is used in the treatment of
Rheumatoid Arthritis?
A. Gold
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Selenium
34. What is the order of reaction in First-order Rate of metabolism
which the concentration of a is proportional to
drug is decreasing at a rate that the concentration
is proportional to the
Zero-order Rate of metabolism
concentration of the drug
is constant
remaining?
A. First
B. Zero
C. Third
D. Second
35. The higher the Therapeutic Higher TI = more safe
Index of the drug means that the Narrow TI = more unsafe
drug is ______.

A. More safe
B. Less effective
C. More effective
D. Less safe
36. Which of the following is the Optic neuritis Ethambutol
adverse effect associated with Hepatitis Rifampicin
Streptomycin? Isoniazid
A. Optic neuritis
Pyrazinamide
B. Hepatitis
C. Ototoxicity
Peripheral neuritis Isoniazid
D. Peripheral neuropathy
37. Which of the following is the Atropine Physostigmine
antidote for benzodiazepine toxicity
overdose? Deferoxamine Iron poisoning
A. Atropine
Naloxone Opioid poisoning
B. Deferoxamine
C. Naloxone Flumazenil BDZ, and Z-drug
D. Flumazenil poisoning
38. Ethanol may be used to manage Antidote for methanol poisoning includes
poisoning due to_____. ethanol or fomepizole.
A. Methanol
B. Antidepressants
C. Narcotics
D. Carbon monoxide
39. Which of the following is an Homatropine is a mydriatic agent.
anticholinergic drug?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Rivastigmine
C. Edrophonium
D. Homatropine
40. Two drugs that act on the same Physiologic: two drugs that activate 2
tissue or organ through Independent receptors = different receptors
independent receptors resulting
in effects in opposite directions Pharmacologic: two drugs that work on the
known as ______ same receptor, If covalently bonded: irreversible
A. Physiologic antagonism
B. Irreversible antagonism Chemical antagonism does not involve
C. Competitive antagonism receptor activity.
D. Chemical antagonism
41. Which of the following equations Michaelis-Menten Enzyme kinetics
is used to compute for the Harris-Benedict Basal metabolic rate
patient’s creatinine clearance? or total daily calories
A. Michaelis-Menten equation Henderson- Buffer system
B. Cockcroft and Gault equation Hasselbalch
C. Harris-Benedict equation
D. Henderson-Hasselbalch
equation
42. Which of the following is also Somatropin is a growth hormone agonist
known as the “growth hormone-
inhibiting hormone”? Its
therapeutic use is targeted on
blocking hormone release in
endocrine-secreting tumors.
A. Simvastatin
B. Somatostatin
C. Gonadotropin
D. Somatropin
43. Decreased oral absorption of a Decreased oral absorption means decreased
drug due to high stomach pH oral bioavailability.
would result to _____
A. Decreased gastric toxicity of the
drug
B. Decreased bioavailability of the
drug
C. Increased bioavailability of the
drug
D. Increased clearance of the drug
44. Which of the following
neurotransmitter will be
increased by Rivastigmine in the
Central Nervous System
synapses?
A. Dopamine
B. Acetylcholine
C. Epinephrine
D. Serotonin
45. What vitamin can be used to
treat cyanide poisoning?
A. Vitamin K
B. Vitamin C
C. Vitamin B12
D. Vitamin B6
46. Which of the following refers to Zero-order
the process that distinguishes ü Theophylline
the elimination of ethanol from ü ASA
the elimination of most other ü Phenytoin
drugs? ü Ethanol
A. First-order elimination
B. Biliary excretion
C. First-pass effect
D. Zero-order elimination
47. Which of the following dosage Order from fastest to slowest:
forms would absorbed the
FASTEST in the gastrointestinal
tract?
A. Capsule
B. Tablet
C. Solution
D. Suspension
48. Which of the following drugs can Treatment:
cause “serotoninergic syndrome” Agitation and seizure: BDZ
in patients already with an First-line: Cyproheptadine
overdose of tricyclic
antidepressants?
A. Morphine
B. MAO antidepressants
C. Phenytoin
D. Benzodiazepine
49. Isoniazid undergoes what type of
conjugation reaction?
A. Glycine conjugation
B. Acetylation
C. Glucuronidation
D. Methylation
50. Which of the following is the Secretagogues (e.g. insulin) causes
main adverse effect of Insulin? hypoglycemia and weight gain.
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia
C. Bone marrow depression
D. Hepatotoxicity
51. Which of the following is the Hypothermia Administration of cold IV
main physical hazards when solution that may result
administering parenteral drugs in cardiac arrest or shock
with vesicant properties? Air embolism Entry of air into the IV
A. Hypothermia
tubing
B. Air embolism
C. Extravasation Thrombosis Formation of blood clot
D. Thrombosis in the vein
52. Which of the following is TRUE
regarding the effect of
adrenergic agonist on
peristalsis?
A. No effect
B. Decrease in peristalsis
C. Effect is either an increase or
decreases in peristalsis
depending on the agonist
D. Increase in peristalsis
53. The following are effects of
Atropine EXCEPT____________
A. Dryness of the mouth
B. Dilation of pupils
C. Decrease in heart rate
D. Inhibition of sweating
54. The intensity of the
pharmacologic action of the
drug is MOST dependent on
______
A. Concentration of the drug at the
receptor site
B. Onset of action
C. Protein binding
D. Volume of distribution

55. What is the mechanism of action

of sympathomimetic drugs?
A. Metabolic transformation by the
same pathway as the precursor
of the neurotransmitter
B. Mimicry of the neurotransmitter
at the postsynaptic receptor
C. Prevention of the release of the
neurotransmitter
D. Interference with synthesis of
the neurotransmitter
56. Which of the following is a
known adverse effect associated
with the use of
chloramphenicol?
A. Staining of the teeth
B. Alopecia
C. Phototoxicity
D. Aplastic anemia
57. Which of the following will Neutralization (ion-trapping) increases the
enhance the excretion of an excretion of the poison.
alkaline poison in the urine?
A. Probenecid
B. Urinary acidifier
C. Urinary alkalinizer
D. Inulin
58. Which of the following drugs is Carvedilol blocks both alpha- and beta-
an example of a mixed receptors.
adrenergic antagonist?
A. Terazosin
B. Carvedilol
C. Clonidine
D. Hydralazine
59. Drugs with very HIGH Volume of
Distribution are those that have
__________
A. Higher concentration in the
extravascular tissue than in the
vascular compartments
B. Higher concentrations in the
vascular compartments than in
the extravascular tissue
C. Higher concentrations that will
be absorbed after oral
administration
D. Shorter elimination half-life
60. Which of the following
statements is CORRECT?
A. The greater the efficacy, the
potent the drug
B. If 1 mg drug A produces the
same response as 10 mg of Drug
B, Drug A is more effective than
Drug B
C. In selecting a drug, potency is
usually more important than
efficacy
D. If 1 mg Drug A produces the
same response as 10 mg of Drug
B, Drug A is more potent than
drug B
61. Which of the following drugs has
both antiviral and anti-
parkinsonian activity?
A. Oseltamivir
B. Amantadine
C. Ganciclovir
D. Acyclovir
62. A drug was shown to reverse the
action of a particular
neurotransmitter. It appears to
interact directly with the
neurotransmitter and not at all
with the neurotransmitter’s
receptors. Which of the following
BEST describes the drug?
A. Chemical antagonist
B. Physiologic antagonist
C. Pharmacologic antagonist
D. Partial agonist
63. Four identical experimental
animals were treated with 1 mg
of the following toxins. (Refer to
the below with their
corresponding LD50). Which
toxin would most likely cause
death to the animals?
A. Toxin EF (LD50= 5 mg/kg)
B. Toxin GH (LD50= 15000 mg/kg)
C. Toxin AB (LD50 = 8000 mg/ kg)
D. Toxin CD (LD50 = 0.00001
mg/kg)

64. Which of the following poisons

would be indicated for
treatment by Physostigmine?
A. Muscarinic antagonists
B. Muscarinic agonists
C. Benzodiazepines
D. Carbamates
65. What type(s) of receptors are (+)Gs = (+)AC = increase cAMP
associated with phospholipase C (+) Gi = (-)AC = decreased cAMP
(PLC)? (+) Gq = (+)PLC = increased Calcium levels
A. Alpha-1 Alpha 1 Q
B. Alpha-2 Alpha 2 I
C. Beta and alpha-1 Beta 1 S
D. Beta and alpha 2 Beta 2 S
Muscarinic 1 Q
Muscarinic 2 I
Muscarinic 3 Q
66. Which of the following correctly
describes the formula for an
intravenous loading
A. Loading dose = (desired plasma
concentration of drug) X
(clearance)
B. Loading dose= (desired plasma
concentration of the drug) X
(volume of distribution)
C. Loading dose= (amount of drug
administered) / (initial plasma
concentration)
D. Loading dose= (clearance) X
(plasma drug concentration)
67. Which one of the following acts
commonly both on
parasympathetic and
sympathetic division?
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Acetylcholine
D. Adrenaline
68. Which of the following agonists
would be used for asthma
patients or to delay premature
labor?
A. alpha2-agonist
B. alpha1-agonist
C. beta2-agonist
D. beta1-agonist
69. Which of these drugs is used to Neuroleptic malignant syndrome can be
treat Neuroleptic Malignant caused by typical anti-psychotics. Treatment
Syndrome includes
A. Bethanechol ü Dantrolene
B. Dantrolene ü Diazepam
C. Dexamethasone ü Diphenhydramine
D. Simvastatin ü Dopamine agonists
70. A nonstimulant agent that can
be used to treat attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder
(ADHD) is
A. Methylphenidate
B. Caffeine
C. Dextroamphetamine
D. Atomoxetine
71. Which of the following alpha-
blocker drug is used in the
treatment of benign
hypertrophy of prostate without
producing significant
hypotension?
A. Doxazosin
B. Phentolamine
C. Tamsulosin
D. Terazosin
72. Enalapril + Indapamide
A. ACE Inhibitor+ Calcium Channel
Blocker
B. ARB+ Diuretic
C. ACE Inhibitor+ Diuretic
D. ARB + Calcium Channel Blocker
73. Which of the following inhibit
HMG-CoA reductase?
A. Nicotinic acid
B. Rosuvastatin
C. Ezetimibe
D. Cholestyramine
74. Which of these drugs has the
highest salt retaining property?
A. Aldosterone
B. Dexamethasone
C. Hydrocortisone
D. Morphine
75. Which of the following drug is a
SERM useful for the treatment of
osteoporosis?
A. Alendronate
B. Raloxifene
C. Flutamide
D. Estradiol
76. Where does the tumor from DOC:
Zollinger- Ellison Disease occur?
A. stomach
B. pancreas
C. intestines
D. liver
77. Which drug accumulates in
parietal cell canaliculi and
 undergoes conversion to a
derivative that irreversibly
inhibits H+/K+ ATPase?
A. Cimetidine
B. Diphenoxylate
C. Esomeprazole
D. Metoclopramide
78. Which of the given is considered
the DMARD of 1st choice to treat
rheumatoid arthritis?
A. Cyclophosphamide
B. Methotrexate
C. Azathioprine
D. Mycophenolate mofetil
79. The cause of Rofecoxib
withdrawal from the market
A. cardiotoxicity
B. hepatotoxicity
C. nephrotoxicity
D. neurotoxicity
80. Febuxostat was used in the
treatment regimen of a patient.
What was its use?
A. Decrease uric acid
B. Decrease cholesterol in the blood
C. increase urine output
D. decrease heart activity
81. A neonate is identified as having
atrial septal defect of congenital
origin that will require surgical
repair. Adequate systemic
perfusion requires that the
patency of the ductus arteriosus
be maintained. Which of the
following agents would best
accomplish this goal?
A. Indomethacin
B. PGE1
C. PGI2
D. Celecoxib
82. A 37-year-old woman recently
had a large soft tissue sarcoma
surgically resected from her
retroperitoneum. She is to
receive both radiation and
chemotherapy, with
cyclophosphamide as part of her
 chemotherapy. Which agent
should be given in conjunction
with this drug?
A. Mesna
B. Leucovorin
C. Cilastatin
D. MOPP
83. A world-class cyclist was
diagnosed with metastatic
testicular cancer with lesions in
both his lung and brain. He
forgoes the standard treatment
for his condition because he
learns one of the drugs typically
used for his condition could
ultimately compromise his
pulmonary function. Which of
the following is included in the
standard regimen and is
associated with his feared
complication?
A. Cisplatin
B. Busulfan
C. Bleomycin
D. Cyclophosphamide
84. An 18-month-old boy presented
in a semiconscious state with
profound hypotension and
bradycardia after ingesting a
number of his grandmother’s
metoprolol tablets. In this case,
the most appropriate antidote is
A. Glucagon
B. Naloxone
C. Neostigmine
D. Atropine
85. The healthcare provider
administered Naloxone for a
patient at the Emergency room.
Which of the following physical
assessment data would be the
most important to indicate that
the drug has been effective?
A. Absence of fever
B. Seizure activity has stopped
C. Respiratory rate has
normalized
D. Chest pain is better
86. Which of the following can occur
in an adult patient treated with
chloramphenicol?
A. Gray baby syndrome
B. Bone marrow suppression
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Disulfiram-like reaction
87. Which of this is an example of a
Chelating agent?
A. Dextromethorphan
B. Calcium disodium edetate
C. Betamethasone
D. Neostigmine
88. The latin phrase “I shall please” is
also called
A. Compound
B. Dispense
C. Placebo
D. Mixing
89. Which of the following drug is
not advertised on the television?
A. paracetamol 500 mg
B. ibuprofen 500 mg
C. mefenamic 500 mg
D. biogesic 500mg
90. Which one of the following pairs
of drug and indication is
accurate?
A. Amphetamine: Alzheimer’s
dementia
B. Bupropion: acute anxiety
C. Pramipexole: Parkinson’s
disease
D. Fluoxetine: insomnia
E. Ramelteon: attention deficit
disorder
91. An alternative medicine that is Echinacea Relieve cold
commonly used to treat the symptoms
urinary symptoms associated Ephedra Treatment of asthma
with benign prostatic Milk thistle Antidote in amanita
hyperplasia (BPH) is mushroom poisoning
A. Echinacea
B. Ephedra
C. Saw palmetto
D. Milk thistle
92. A type of ligand that acts as a full
antagonist in the presence of a
full agonist
A. Inverse agonist
B. Partial agonist
C. Full antagonist
D. Partial antagonist
93. Causes excessive sneezing
A. lacrimator
B. asthenic
C. asphyxiant
D. sternutator
94. Which of the following is most
useful for stage fright?
A. Vasodilators
B. alpha blockers
C. Beta blockers
D. Sedative
95. Process by which toxicants cross
body membranes and enter the
bloodstream
A. Distribution
B. First pass effect
C. Absorption
D. Biotransformation
96. Peakless insulin
A. Isophane insulin
B. Lispro
C. Aspart
D. Glargine
97. What does “affinity” mean?

A. A measure of how tightly a drug

binds to plasma proteins
B. A measure of how tightly a drug
binds to a receptor
C. A measure of inhibiting potency
of a drug
D. A measure of bioavailability of a
drug
98. The main mechanism of most
drugs absorption in GI tract is:

A. Active transport (carrier-

mediated diffusion)
B. Filtration (aqueous diffusion)
C. Endocytosis and exocytosis
D. Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)
99. Biotransformation of the drugs is
to render them:
A. Less ionized
B. More pharmacologically active
C. More lipid soluble
D. Less lipid soluble
100. The total amount of a drug
present in the body at a given
time is 2.0 g and its plasma 2,000,000 mcg
concentration is 25 mcg/mL, Vd = ---------------------
calculate its volume of 25mcg/mL
distribution
A. 100 L Vd = 80,000 mL or 80L
B. 80 L
C. 60 L
D. 50 L