01-04-2025

4504CMD303051240002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Four charges are placed at corner of a rectangle. Which of the following is true at centre (O) :-

(1) E = 0 & V = 0
(2) E ≠ 0 & V = 0
(3) E = 0 & V ≠ 0
(4) E ≠ 0 & V ≠ 0

2)

Electric field v/s distance graph is drawn then choose correct statement :-

(1) q1 and q2 both are positive & q1 > q2

(2) q1 and q2 both are negative & q1 > q2
(3) q1 is negative and q2 is positive & q1 > q2
(4) q1 & q2 both are negative and q1 < q2

3) An electron is projected with velocity in an electric field . Trace the path followed
by the electron :-

(1) Parabola
(2) Circle
(3) Straight line in + y direction
(4) Straight line in – y direction

4)

The torque acting on a dipole of moment in an electric field is

(1)
(2)
(3) zero
(4)

5) Two balls carrying charges attract each other with a force F. If a charge
is added to both, the force between them will be [Assume no force due to induction] :-

(1) F

(2)

(3) 2F
(4) Zero

6) Find the value of q so that the tension in string 2 becomes zero, (m is mass of each ball)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) Column-I shows charge distribution and column-II shows electrostatics field created by that
charge at a point r distance from its centre.

Column-I Column-II

(A) A stationary point

(p)
charge

(B) A stationary uniformly

(q)
long charge rod

(C) A stationary electric

(r)
dipole

(D) A uniform charged non

(s)
conducting solid sphere

(t)
(1) A-s, B-q, C-t, D-r,s
(2) A-t, B-r, C-s, D-q
(3) A-r, B-s, C-q, D-t
(4) A-q, B-t, C-r, D-s

8) n small drops of the same size are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a single large
drop, then its potential will be :-

(1) (V/n)
(2) Vn
(3) Vn1/3
(4) Vn2/3

9) Four metallic plates each with a surface area of one side A, are placed at a distance d from each
other. The two outer plates are connected to one point A and the two other inner plates to another
point B as shown in the figure. Then the capacitance of the system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) A particle of mass m, charge –Q is constrained to move along the axis of a ring of radius a. The
ring carries a uniform charge density +λ along its circumference. Initially, the particle lies in the
plane of the ring at a point where no net force acts on it. The period of oscillation of the particle
when it is displaced slightly from its equilibrium position is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) An elementary particle of mass m and charge +e is projected with velocity v towards a much
more massive particle of charge Ze, where Z > 0. What is the closest possible distance of approach
of the incident particle ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Two partilces of masses m and 2m with charges 2q and 2q are placed in a uniform electric field
E and allowed to move for the same time. The ratio of their kinetic energies will be

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 8 : 1
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

13) Resistances of 6Ω each are connected in the manner shown in fig. The potential

difference between points P and Q is :-

(1) 3.6 V
(2) 6.0 V
(3) 3.0 V
(4) 7.2 V

14) The value of I1 & I2 is :-

(1)

(2) 2A, 3A
(3) 6A, 3A
(4) 1A, 2A

15)

Match the columns :-

 (A) Drift velocity (vd) (i)

(B) Current density (j) (ii) nevd

(C) Conductivity (σ) (iii)

(D) Resistivity (ρ) (iv)

(1) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)

(2) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii)
(3) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(4) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i)

16) If current at time t is given by I = 2t. Then the charge passed through cross section of conductor
during t = 0 to t = 4 sec is:

(1) 20 C
(2) 16 C
(3) 12 C
(4) 4 C

17) An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed ν. It produces a magnetic field B at
the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) Which of the following statements is incorrect about hysteresis?

(1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances

The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(2)
material
The hysteresis loop area is independent of the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
(3)
material
(4) The shape of the hystersis loop is characteristic of the material

19) A conducting rod of length ℓ and mass m is moving down a smooth inclined plane of inclination θ
with constant velocity v. A current i is flowing in the conductor in a direction perpendicular to paper
inwards. A vertically upward magnetic field exists in space. Then magnitude of magnetic field is
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) A metal rod of length 2 m is rotating with an angular velocity of 100 rad/s in a plane
perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T about one of the end. The potential difference
between the ends of the rod is

(1) 30 V
(2) 40 V
(3) 60 V
(4) 600 V

21) A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an AC source. Brightness of
the bulb decreases when :

(1) an iron rod is inserted in the coil.

(2) frequency of the AC source is decreased.
(3) number of turns in the coil is reduced.
(4) A capacitance of reactance XC = XL is included in the same circuit.

22) Voltage and current in an AC circuit are given by V = 5 sin(100πt – ) and I = 4 sin(100πt + ).

(1) Voltage leads the current by 30°

(2) Current leads the voltage by 30°
(3) Current leads the voltage by 60°
(4) Voltage leads the current by 60°

23) The current in an inductor of self inductance 4H changes from 4A to 2A in 1 second. The e.m.f.
induced in the coil is :

(1) 2V
(2) –4V
(3) 8V
(4) –2V
24) Find the number of images formed in the given lens?

(1) 3
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) 4

25) A concave mirror of focal length f (in air) is immersed in water (μ = 4/3). The focal length of the
mirror in water will be :-

(1) f

(2)
f

(3)
f

(4)
f

26)

A polarised light has amplitude A and angle between analyser and polarised light 60°. Light is
transmitted by analyser has amplitude

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) A/2

27) Young's double slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one colour at a
time. The fringe width recorded are βG, βR and βB, respectively. Then

(1) βG > βB > βR

(2) βB > βG > βR
(3) βR > βB > βG
(4) βR > βG > βB

28) What will be the ratio of de–Broglie wavelengths of proton and α-particle of same energy

(1) 2 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 4 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

29) A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 40 MHz travels in free space in the X-direction. At
some point and at some instant, the electric field has its maximum value of 750 N/C in Y-direction.
The wavelength of the wave is :-

(1) 3.5 m
(2) 5.5 m
(3) 7.5 m
(4) 9.5 m

30) A small angle prism (µ = 1.62) gives a minimum deviation of 4.8°. The angle of prism is :-

(1) 7.74°
(2) 5°
(3) 6.36°
(4) 3°

31) In the given circuit the output wave form across RL will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) Thin lens of refractive index µ0 has focal length f0 in air. What is it focal length when immersed in
a liquid of refractive index µ.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

33) In Young's double slit experiment the fringe width is β. If entire arrangement is placed in a liquid
of refractive index n, the fringe width becomes :-

(1)

(2) n β

(3)

(4)

34) The wavelength of radiation emitted is λo when an electron jumps from the third to the second
orbit of hydrogen atom. For the electron to jump from the fourth to the second orbit of the hydrogen
atom, the wavelength of radiation emitted will be

(1)
λo

(2)
λo

(3)
λo

(4)
λo

35) The output of circuit shown below is-

(1)
(2) AB + CD
(3)
(4)

36) STATEMENT-1 : The formula connecting u, v and f for a spherical mirror is valid only for
mirrors whose sizes are very small compared to their radii of curvature.
STATEMENT-2 : Laws of reflection are strictly valid for plane surfaces, but not for large spherical
surfaces.
(1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
(2)
Statement-1
(3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

37) A beam of light is converging towards a point. A plane parallel plate of glass of thickness t,
refractive index μ is introduced in the path of the beam. The convergent point is shifted by (assume

near normal incidence):

(1)
away

(2)
away

(3)
nearer

(4)
nearer

38) In the given figure, which of the diodes are forward biased ?

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, d, e
(3) a, c, d
(4) b, c, d

39) A plane electromagnetic wave is propagating along the positive z-direction. If the electric field
component of this wave is in the direction , then which of the following is the direction of the
magnetic field component?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) In the absence of external magnetic field, magnetic moment of the atom of a material is zero.
The material

(1) Must be paramagnetic

(2) Must be diamagnetic
(3) Must be ferromagnetic
(4) May be paramagnetic

41) Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y
and Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is :

(1) Y → 2Z
(2) W → X + Z
(3) W → 2Y
(4) X → Y + Z

42) The angle of a prism is 60°. What is the angle of incidence for minimum deviation? The refractive
index of the material of the prism is

(1) 45°
(2) 60°
(3) 30°

(4)

43) Two thin lenses are in contact and the focal length of the combination is 80 cm. If the focal
length of one of the lenses is 20 cm, the power of the other lens is :-

(1) 1.66 D
(2) 4.00 D
(3) –1.00 D
(4) –3.75 D

44) A square wire of side 1 cm is placed perpendicular to the principal axis of a concave mirror of
focal length 15 cm at a distance of 20 cm. the area enclosed by the image of the wire is :-

(1) 4 cm2
(2) 6 cm2
(3) 2 cm2
(4) 9 cm2

45) A concave mirror of focal length f produces an image n times the size of the object. If the image
is real then the distance of the object from the mirror is :-

(1) (n – 1) f

(2)

(3)

(4) (n + 1) f

CHEMISTRY

1) For a gaseous reaction, following data is given:

15 –2000/T
A → B, k1 = 10 e
C → D, k2 =1014 e–1000/T
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is:

(1) 1000 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 868.82 K
(4) 434.2 K

2) In SHE, the pH of the acid solution should be

(1) 7
(2) 14
(3) 0
(4) 4

3) Which of the following graph represent zero order reaction

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following solution of NaCl has the lowest value of molar conductance?

(1) 0.1 M
(2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.9 M
(4) 0.5 M

5) The same amount of electric current is apassed through aqueous solution of MgSO4 and AlCl3. If
2.8 g Mg metal is deposited at amount of Al metal deposited in second cell will be

(1) 2.1 g
(2) 2.49 g
(3) 3.15 g
(4) 3.73g

6) When NaCl solution is electrolysed using Pt electrodes then pH of solution

(1) Increases
(2) Decreases
(3) Remains same
(4) Firstly increases and then decreases

7)

Which of the following solution shows positive deviation from Raoult's law :-

(1) CHCl3 + Acetone

(2) Acetone + C2H5OH
(3) Phenol + Aniline
(4) H2O + HNO3

8) If four gases A, B, C and D have Henry's constant (KH) values 1.9 × 101, 6.5 × 10–4,
7.8 × 10–4 and 6.0 × 103 bar respectively then which of the following gas has maximum solubility at
same partial pressure?

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

9) If two substances A and B have PA° : PB° = 1 : 2 and have mole fraction in solution in the ratio 1 : 2
then mole fraction of A in vapour phase :-

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.52

10) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52 °C when 6 g of a compound x was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular weight of x is : (K = 0.52 K Kg mol-1)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 100
(4) 342

11) Which of the following is paramagnetic ?

(1) NO2
(2) N2O
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

12) The true statement for the acids of phosphorus, H3PO2, H3PO3 and H3PO4 is :

(1) The order of their acidity is : H3PO3 > H3PO4 > H3PO2.
(2) All of them are reducing in nature.
(3) All of them are tribasic acids
(4) The geometry of phosphorus is tetrahedral in all the three

13) The main factor responsible for weak acidic nature of BF3 is :-

(1) Large electronegativity of F

–
(2) 3C–2e bond in BF3
(3) P –d back boding in B–F
(4) P –P back bond in BF3

14)

Which is not easily precipitated from aqueous solution

(1) Cl–
2–
(2) SO4
–
(3) NO3
2–
(4) CO3

15) and can be distinguished by :

(1) K2Cr2O7
(2) KMnO4
(3) Lime water Test
(4) Both (1) and (2)

16) Oxide of metal cation which is not amphoteric ?

(1) Al3+
(2) Cr3+
(3) Fe3+
(4) Zn2+

17) The incorrect statements regarding interstitial compounds is -

(1) These are usually non stoichiometric.

(2) These have high melting point, higher than those of pure metals.
(3) These are neither typically ionic nor covalent.
(4) These are chemically more reactive than pure metal.

18) Which of the following elements of 5d series has the highest melting point ?

(1) Ta
(2) W
(3) Re
(4) Os

19) Correct order of radii -

(1) Pm+3 < Sm+3 < Ho+3 < Yb+3

(2) Sm+3 > Pm+3 > Ho+3 > Yb+3
(3) Pm+3 > Sm+3 > Ho+3 > Yb+3
(4) Pm+3 < Sm+3 < Yb+3 < Ho+3

20)

Which of the following order for acidic strength is correct-

(1) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HOCl

(2) HOCl > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4
(3) HClO2 > HOCl > HClO3 > HClO4
(4) HClO4 > HOCl > HClO3 > HClO2

21) Which of the following highly acidic

(1) HF
(2) HCl
(3) HBr
(4) HI

22) Which of the following has highest conductivity?

(1) K2[PtCl6]
(2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(3) [Co(NH3)6]Cl3
(4) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]

23) Electronic configuration of d6 system if

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) The IUPAC name for the complex compound Li[AlH4] is:

(1) lithium aluminium hydride

(2) hydrido-aluminiumlithium (III)
(3) lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (III)
(4) lithium tetrahydroxoaluminate (III)

25) The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral (Δ0) and tetrahedral (Δt) complexes is related to

(1)

(2)

(3) (Δ0) = 2Δt

(4)

26) Which of the following does not show haloform reaction :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Which of the following compound will yield yellow ppt with silver nitrate solution :-

(1)

(2) CH2=CH–Br

(3)

(4)

28) Which is intermediate in E1 ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

29)

Which is most reactive for SN1?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30)

Following reaction represent -

(1) SN1
(2) SN2
(3) E1
(4) E2

31) Product is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

32) Which of the following is most reactive towards lucas reagent :-

(1) CH2 = CH – CH2 – OH

(2) CH2 = CH – CH2 – CH2 – OH

(3)

(4) CH3 – OH

33) Glycerol react with HIO4 to form :-

(1) 3HCHO
(2) 3HCOOH
(3) 2HCHO + HCOOH
(4) 2HCOOH + HCHO

34) Which of the following is not correct match-

(1) Phenol + Pthalic anhydride → phenolphthaline

(2) Phenol + Chloroform + Base → salicylic acid
(3) Phenol + Mathanal + H+ → Bakelite
(4) Phenol + dil HNO3 → o + p – Nitrophenol

35)

Product which is not formed during these reaction:-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) In this reaction :

CH3CHO + HCN → CH3CH(OH)CN CH3CH(OH)COOH,
the acid obtained would be :

(1) ‘d’–form
(2) ‘l’–form
(3) 50% ‘d’ + 50% ‘l’–form
(4) 20% ‘d’ + 80% ‘l’–form

37) Which of the following is an example of acetal

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38) Which of the following will give primary alcohol

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

39) Which of the following will give least amount of product when reacts with NaHSO3

(1) C2H5CHO
(2) HCHO
(3) CH3COC2H5
(4) CH3CHO

40) End product of the following reaction is -

CH3CH2COOH ?

(1)

(2)

(3) CH2 = CHCOOH

(4)

41) , B is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) Ph – OH
(4) Ph – CH3

42) Which of the following will not give coupling reaction with benzene diazonium cloride :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) C is :-

(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) Which reagent is used to form glucosazone :-

(1) NH2–NH2
(2) C6H5NH–NH2
(3) NH2–OH
(4) NH2NHCONH2

45) The sugar present in milk is :-

(1) Sucrose
(2) Maltose
(3) Glucose
(4) Lactose

BIOLOGY

1) Match the column I and II.

Column - I Column - II

(A) Outer integuments (P) Testa

(B) Inner integuments (Q) Fruit

(C) Ovary (R) Tegman

(D) Ovules (S) Pericarp

(E) Ovary wall (T) Seed

(1) A - R, B - P, C - Q, D - T, E - S
(2) A - Q, B - R, C - P, D - T, E - S
(3) A - P, B - R, C - Q, D - T, E - S
(4) A - Q, B - T, C - P, D - R, E - S
2) Assertion : Commelina shows cleistogamy.
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers are inveriably autogamous.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false
(4) Both assertion and reason are false

3) The pollen viability period of rice and pea respectively, is

(1) Within 30 minutes and several months

(2) Several months and within 30 minutes
(3) Few days and few months
(4) Few days in both the cases

4) Statement - A : Endosperm development precedes embryo development.

Statement - B : A seed typically consist of seed coat(s), cotyledon(s) and embryo axis.

(1) Both statement - A and B are correct

(2) Both statement - A and B are incorrect
(3) Only statement - A is correct
(4) Only statement - B is correct

5) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts a, b, c and d.

Correctly identify

a b c d

Microspore
(1) Endothecium Tapetum Middle layers
mother cell

Microspore
(2) Tapetum Endothecium Middle layers
mother cell

Microspore
(3) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum
mother cell

Microspore
(4) Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum
mother cell
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
6) Residual, persistent nucellus present in some plant seed is called perisperm is present in -

(1) Mango
(2) Beet
(3) Guava
(4) Tomato

7) Statement-I : In grass embryo, epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a
hollow foliar structure the coleoptile.
Statement-II : A typical dicot embryo consists of an embryonal axis and one cotyledons.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct

8) Match column-I (Definition) with column-II (Terms) and select the correct option from the
codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
(Definition) (Terms)

A Physical association of gene on a chromosome I Pleiotropy

A single trait controlled by three or more

B II Recombination
than three genes

A single gene exhibits

C III Polygenic traits
multiple phenotypic expression
(1) A – II; B – III; C – I
(2) A – III; B – II; C – I
(3) A – I; B – II; C – III
(4) A – II; B – I; C – III

9) Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the above given cross?

(1) X-linked dominant trait

(2) X-linked recessive trait
(3) Autosomal recessive trait
(4) Autosomal dominant trait

10) The four symbols (A, B, C and D) used in human pedigree analysis given below. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the option given :-

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) C – 5 affected offspring

(2) A – Affected offspring
(3) B – Marriage between non-relatives
(4) D – Male affected

11) In haplodiploid sex-determination system as seen in honey bee :

(1) Males produce sperms by meiosis

(2) Males do have father and thus can have sons.
(3) Unfertilised egg develops as a male (drone) by means of parthenogenesis
(4) Females are mostly haploid

12) Which one of the following plant is monoecious :-

(1) Papaya
(2) Maize
(3) Cycas
(4) More than one correct

13) Following diagram indicates

(1) Down's syndrome
(2) Turner's syndrome
(3) Klinefelter's syndrome
(4) Super male

14) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Phenylketonuria (i) Complete dominance

(b) Trait of sickle cell anaemia (ii) Pleiotropic gene

(c) Flower colour of snapdragon plant (iii) Incomplete dominance

(d) Pod colour of pea plant (iv) Co dominance

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

15) A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with dwarf pea plant. How many plants will
be heterozygous tall out of 2000 progenies obtained.

(1) 0
(2) 1500
(3) 1000
(4) 750

16) The map distance between A and C = 30 cM, B and C = 20 cM, A and B is 50 cM, B and D = 10
cM C and D = 30 cM. What is the arrangement of ABCD gene on chromosome?

(1) ABCD
(2) ACBD
(3) BACD
(4) CABD

17) 8 types of gametes are produced by following genotype :-

(1) AAbbCC
(2) AaBbCc
(3) AABbcc
(4) AabbCC

18) Statement-I : Colour blindness is an autosomal recessive disorder.

Statement-II : Colour blindness occur in about 8% of males and only about 0.4% of females.

(1) Both Statement are correct

(2) Statement-II is incorrect and statement-I correct
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and II is correct
(4) Both Statement are incorrect

19) Match the following and choose the correct combination from the given options.

Column I Column II

A Splicing I Lac operon

B Okazaki fragments II Lagging strands

C Jacob and Monad III Lactose

D Inducer IV Removal of intron

(1) A – IV; B – II; C – I; D – III
(2) A – II; B – I; C – IV; D – III
(3) A – IV; B – III; C – I; D – II
(4) A – II; B – III; C – I; D – IV

20) Assertion : Euchromatin is said to be transcriptionally active

Reason : Because it is more densely packed and stains dark.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) If the gene encoding the lac repressor is mutated so that it can no longer bind the operator, will
transcription of that operon occur?
(1) Yes, but only when lactose is present
(2) No, because RNA polymerase is need to transcribe the genes
Yes, because the operator will not be bound by repressor and RNA polymerase can transcribe
(3)
the lac operon
(4) No, because cAMP levels are low when the repressor is nonfunctional

22) What would happen if in a gene encoding a polypeptide of 50 amino acids, 25th codon (UAU) is
mutated to UAA?

(1) A polypeptide of 24 amino acids will be formed

(2) Two polypeptides of 24 and 25 amino acids will be formed
(3) A polypeptide of 49 amino acids will be formed
(4) A polypeptide of 25 amino acids will be formed

23) Read the following four statements (i - iv).

(i) In transcription, adenosine pairs with uracil.
(ii) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as positive regulation.
(iii) The human genome has approximately 50,000 genes.
(iv) Haemophilia is a sex-linked recessive disease.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

24) Which form of RNA has a structure resembling clover leaf?

(1) rRNA
(2) hn RNA
(3) m RNA
(4) t RNA

25) Consider the following four statements (A-D) and select the correct option stating which ones
are true (T) and which ones are false (F).
Statements :
(A) Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels in a community is called
stratification.
(B) Primary productivity is the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
(C) Rate of biomass production is called decomposition
(D) Annual net primary productivity of oceans is 55 billion tons

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(1) F T F T

(2) T F T F

(3) T F F T
 (4) F T F F
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

26) Identify A, B and C in the diagram depicting transcription below:

A B C

1 Rho factor RNA Sigma factor

2 RNA Rho factor Sigma factor

3 Sigma factor Rho factor RNA

4 Sigma factor RNA Rho factor

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

27) Which of the following statements is correct about the process shown in the diagram?
(1) RNA polymerase synthesizes the lagging strand in the 5' to 3' direction.
(2) Helicase is responsible for unwinding the DNA double helix.
(3) DNA ligase joins the two strands of the leading strand.
(4) Okazaki fragments are formed on the leading strand.

28) Assertion (A): Bacteria infected with viruses having radioactive sulfur became radioactive.
Reason (R): DNA from bacteriophage entered the bacteria during Hershey and Chase experiment.

(1) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation for A.
(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation for A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

29) Baculoviruses (nucleopolyhedrovirus) does not show

(1) Host specificity.

(2) Narrow spectrum applications.
(3) Effects on non-target pathogens.
(4) All of these

30) The diagram below shows a typical biogas plant. With few structure labelled as A, B and C.

Identify A, B and C.

(1) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Oxygen, C – Dung, water

(2) A – Sludge, B – Methane, Carbon dioxide, C– Dung, water
(3) A – Sludge, B – Ethylin, Carbon dioxide, C – Dung, water
(4) None of these
31) Match column-I with column-II and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

A Statins I Yeast

Blood-cholesterol
B Ethanol II
lowering agent

C Dung III Insect-resistant plant

D Bt-cotton IV Biogas
(1) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
(2) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
(3) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
(4) A-IV; B- II; C-I; D-III

32) The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures are called
as

(1) Primary sludge

(2) Flocs
(3) Activated sludge
(4) Anaerobic sludge

33) Statement I: Net primary productivity is gross primary productivity minus respiration.
Statement II: Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to
heterotrophs (herbivores and decomposers).

(1) Both statements I and II are incorrect

(2) Both statements I and II are correct
(3) Only statement I is correct
(4) Only statement II is correct

34) Statement I : Pyramid of energy is always upright, can never be inverted,

Statement II :The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.

(1) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.

35) Which is not true for humus ?

(1) Dark coloured amorphous substance

(2) Highly resistant to microbial action
(3) Act as reservoir of nutrients and increases water holding capacity of soil
They are degradation product of protein and fats and are produced by the process of
(4)
mineralisation
36) Major conduit of energy flow in aquatic ecosystem is :-

(1) Detritus food chain

(2) Parasitic food chain
(3) Grazing food chain
(4) Both (2) and (3)

37) What was shown by the Mac arthur's observation ?

(1) Competition between closely related species

(2) Competitive release
(3) Resource partitioning
(4) Competitive extinction

38) Gause’s ‘competitive exclusion principle’ states that

(1) Humans are the most widespread agents of disturbance.

(2) In a competition for similar resource both the participants are benefitted.
(3) In a competition, both the participants are excluded.
Two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and
(4)
competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.

39) Phytophagous insects show which of the following interaction.

(1) Predation
(2) Competetion
(3) Parasitism
(4) Commensalism

40) They may reduce the survival, growth and reproduction of the host and reduce its population
density. They might render the organism more vulnerable to predation by making it physically weak.
They are:-

(1) Predator
(2) Parasite
(3) Amensal
(4) Commensal

41) Mark true and false for the following statements w.r.t. population growth curves.
(a) Exponential growth of a population can be calculated by Nt = N0ert
(b) Under unlimited resource conditions, enormous population densities can be attained in a short
time
(c) In the equation dN/dt = rN, r is an important parameter for assessing the biotic potential of a
population
(d) Growth for most animal population is finite as animals always have a large body

(1) (a)-T, (b)-T, (c)-F, (d)-F

(2) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-T, (d)-F
(3) (a)-T, (b)-T, (c)-T, (d)-F
(4) (a)-T, (b)-F, (c)-T, (d)-T

42) Match the column I with column II

Column I Column II

a. Thylacine i. Russia

b. Dodo ii. Mauritius

c. Quagga iii. Australia

d. Steller’s sea cow iv. Africa

(1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
(2) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii)
(3) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i)
(4) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)

43) Which of the following statements are correct about Amazon rainforest?
I. It is called lungs of the planet.
II. It harbours probably thousand of the species.
III. To produce 20% of the total oxygen in the earth’s atmosphere.
IV. They are being cut and cleared for cultivating soybeans or for the conversion to grasslands for
raising beef cattle.

(1) II, III and IV

(2) I, III and IV
(3) I and II
(4) I, II, and IV

44) Global biodiversity is shown in terms of species in the given groups. Identify the groups - A, B
and C :-

(1) A-Angiosperms, B-Algae, C-Mosses

(2) A-Angiosperms, B-Algae, C-Fern
(3) A-Algae, B-Angiosperms, C-Lichens
(4) A-Algae, B-Angiosperms, C-Mosses

45) Dyes, Resin, Tannins, Food, Fibre, Fire wood come under which of the following:

(1) Narrowly utilitarian

(2) Broadly utilitarian
(3) Ethical arguments
(4) Respectively (2) & (3)

46) What happens when DNA fragment is inserted in to plasmid PBR322 using enzyme Pvu-I and Pst-I ?
(a) Inactivation of ampR gene
(b) Inactivation of tetR gene
(c) Unable to grow in presence of ampicilin
(d) Unable to grow in presence of tetracycline
(e) Unable to replicate

(1) b & d are correct

(2) a and c are correct
(3) a, c & e are correct
(4) b, d & e are correct

47) Which statement is true for Taq-polymerase enzyme ?

(1) It is a type of RNA polymerase which is isolated from a bacteria

(2) It is a DNA polymerase, which remain active even at high temperature
(3) DNA polymerase, which is used in DNA finger printing
(4) DNA polymerase which is used in gel electrophoresis

48) Assertion : Restriction enzymes recognise palindromic sequences in genetic engineering.

Reason : Palindromic sequences is the sequences of base pair that reads same on the two strands
when orientation of reading is kept the same.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

49) Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.

Column I Column II

Extraction of DNA from

a. (i) Sea weeds
the gel piece

Separation of DNA
b. (ii) Elution
fragments

Agarose gel
c. Staining of DNA (iii)
electrophoresis
 Ethidium
d. Agarose gel (iv)
bromide
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

50) Assertion (A) : PCR is now routinely used to detect HIV in suspected AIDS patients.
Reason (R) : Even a very low concentration of virus can be detected by amplification of their
nucleic acid by PCR.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct

51) Assertion (A): linking of antibiotic resistance gene with the plasmid vector became possible
with the enzyme DNA ligase.
Reason (R): DNA ligase, cuts DNA molecules and joins their ends

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

52) Select the incorrect match.

Treatment of
(1) -antitrypsin
emphysema

(2) -lactalbumin Transgenic cow Rosie

Safety of
(3) Transgenic mice
polio vaccine

Transgenic animals
Chemical safety are made less
(4)
testing sensitive to toxic
substances
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Statement-1 : If any protein encoding gene is expressed is a homologous host is called
recombinant protein.
Statement-2 : Primers are small chemically synthesized oligonucleotides that are complementary to
the regions of DNA during PCR.
(1) Statement 1 and 2 both are correct.
(2) Statement 1 and 2 both are incorrect.
(3) Statement 1 is incorrect but Statement 2 is correct.
(4) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is incorrect.

54) Assertion A: An alien piece of DNA can replicate and multiply in a host organism when it is
linked to an 'origin of replication'.
Reason R: 'Origin of replication' is a specific DNA sequence that initiates replication.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

55) How many of the following statements is/are correct w.r.t. Bacillus thuringiensis ?
(1) The toxin produced by the bacteria is effective against different group of insects
(2) Upon ingestion by susceptible insects, inactive toxin is converted into an active form and kill
them by creating pores on the surface of midgut epithelial cells
(3) The protein encoded by the gene cryllAb controls cotton bollworms
(4) Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some bacteria kill the insects in acidic medium
Select the correct option

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Four

56) Statement A : Plasmids and bacteriophages have the ability to replicate within the bacterial
cells independent of the host genome
Statement B : Bacteriophages have very high copy number of their genome within the bacterial
cells.

(1) Statement A is correct and Statement B is Incorrect

(2) Statement A is incorrect and Statement B is correct
(3) Both Statement A and B are incorrect
(4) Both Statement A and B are correct

57) Assertion (A) : Agrobacterium tumefaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to
transform normal plant cells into a tumor.
Reason (R) : It is able to deliver a piece of DNA known as 'T-DNA' in several dicot plant cells.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true, but R is false.
(4) A is false, but R is true.

58) If DNA is inserted into the coding sequence of the galactosidase enzyme in the plasmid of
E.Coli, the gene become inactivated. In presence of _____1______ substrate, _____2______ will give
blue colour while the _____3______ will give _____4______ colour:

1 2 3 4

(1) Radioactive Recombinants Non recombinant Green

(2) Radioactive Non recombinant Recombinant No

(3) Chromogenic Recombinant Non recombinant Green

(4) Chromogenic Non recombinant Recombinant No

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

59) Assertion: Bacteria cells made 'competent' to take up DNA by treating them with a specific
concentration of a divalent cation, such as calcium.
Reason: Calcium increases the efficiency with which DNA enters the bacterium through pores in its
cell wall.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false.

60) Assertion: RNA interference involves silencing of an mRNA due to complementary RNA
molecule that binds to and prevents translation of it.
Reason: The source of this complementary RNA could be an infection by viruses having RNA
genome or transposons.

Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion,
(1)
then mark
Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion,
(2)
then mark
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark

61) Assertion A: Somatic hybridisation can result in new hybrid plants like the 'pomato', which
combines characteristics of both tomato and potato.
Reason R: Genetically modified crops, created by altering the genes of plants, can potentially
increase yield and reduce the use of harmful fertilizers and chemicals.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

62) Which of the following is the cause of autoimmune diseases?

(1) Immune System begins to attack its cells and tissues
(2) Immune System starts producing cells and tissues
(3) Immune System fails completely
(4) Immune System produces WBCs in a huge number

63) Match the column I and II, and choose the correct combination from the option given :-

Column I Column II

a. Typhoid 1. Chronic inflammation of lymphatic vessels

b. Pneumonia 2. Dry scaly lesions on skin

c. Filariasis 3. Chill and high fever recurring every 3-4 days

d. Ringworm 4. Alveoli filled with fluid.

e. Malaria 5. Intestinal perforations

(1) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-5, e-4
(2) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-2, e-3
(3) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
(4) a-5, b-4, c-1, d-3, e-2

64) Find out which of the statements are true (T) / false (F) and choose the correct option:
I. Cancer causing viruses called oncogenic viruses have genes called viral oncogenes.
II. Cancer detection is based on biopsy, bone marrow tests and histopathological studies of the
tissue and blood.
III. Techniques like radiography (X-rays), computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance
imaging (MRI) are very useful to detect cancers of internal organs.
IV. Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are used for the detection of certain cancers.

(1) I - T, II - T, III - T, IV - F
(2) I - T, II - F, III - F, IV - T
(3) I - T, II - T, III - T, IV - T
(4) I - F, II - F, III - F, IV - T

65) Assertion : In malaria, a person experiences chills and high fever recurring every three to four
days.
Reason : This is caused by the release of haemozoin with rupture of liver cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

66) Statement - A : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the
mast cells.
Statement - B : The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenalin and steroids, quickly reduce the
symptoms of allergy.
(1) Bothe statements A and B are incorrect.
(2) Both statements A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

67) Assertion (A): IUDs increase phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus
Reason (R): Cu ions releasing IUDs suppress sperm motility and increases fertilising capacity of
sperms

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

68) Select the set of animals showing convergent evolution with respect to each other.

(1) Koala and Bandicoot

(2) Tiger cat and Tasmanian Wolf
(3) Lemur and Spotted cuscus
(4) Bobcat and Flying squirrel

69)

Read the following

a. Interferon
b. Skin
c. PMNLs
d. Mucus coat
e. Acid in stomach
f. Tears from eye
How many of the given barriers are not of physiological barrier type?

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Match List I with List II :

List I List II

A Cocaine I Effective sedative in surgery

B Heroin II Cannabis sativa

C Morphine III Erythroxylum

D Marijuana IV Papaver somniferum

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(2) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

71) Which of the following statements is true for theories/evidences of evolution?

Embryological support for evolution was proposed by Ernst Haeckel which was later
(1)
disapproved by Karl Ernst von Baer.
(2) Darwin was influenced by the work of Lamarck.
(3) Theory of ‘use and disuse of organs’ was given by Hugo deVries.
(4) Work of Thomas Malthus on populations discouraged Darwin.

72) Which of the following is an example of natural passive immunity?

(1) Antibodies produced in response to a natural infection

(2) Immunisation through vaccination
(3) Antibodies received by a foetus from the mother through the placenta
(4) Antibodies produced in response to deliberate exposure to a microbe

73) Assertion:- Male Accessory glands includes paired seminal vesicles, a prostate gland and single
bulbourethral gland.
Reason:- Seminal plasma contains Galactose, calcium and certain other Enzymes.

Both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of
(1)
the assertion.
Both the assertion and the reason are true but the reason is not a correct explanation of
(2)
the assertion.
(3) The assertion is true but the reason is false
(4) Both the assertion and reason are false

74) Assertion : Foetal ejection reflex originates from the fully developed foetus as well as
placenta of the mother.
Reason : Oxytocin is a hormone released from posterior pituitary.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason. is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

75) Assertion : All copulations do not lead to fertilization and pregnancy.

Reason : Both the ovum (secondary oocyte) and sperm should get transported simultaneously to
ampulla for fertilisation.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason. is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are false

76) Assertion (A) : Lactational amenorrhea is based on Barrier method.

Reasons (R) : Lactational amenorrhea method to based the fact that ovulation and there for the
cycle do not occur during the period of intese lactation following parturition.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) (A) is false but (R) is true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

77) A contraceptive measure is shown in the diagram. Select the correct option regarding it.

Contraceptive
Type Example
Measure

(1) Copper T IUD Multiload 375

(2) Copper T Barrier LNG-20

(3) Cervical Cap Barrier Lippe's lOOp

(4) Implant IUD Norplant

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

78) A, B and C are representing various events of menstrual cycle. Peak concentration of LH

is expected -

(1) in B
(2) in C
(3) in A
(4) Between B and C

79) Statement I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Statement II : The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo or
developing foetus.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

80) The correct sequence of duct from inside to outside the mammary gland is :

(1) Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary ampulla
(2)
→ mammary duct → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary tubules → mammary duct →
(3)
mammary ampulla → lactiferous ducts
Alveoli → mammary duct → mammary ampulla →
(4)
mammary tubules lactiferous ducts

81) Match List I with List II relating to human female external genitalia

List-I
List-II (Features)
(Structures)

I. A fleshy fold of tissue surrounding the

A. Mons pubis
vaginal opening

II. Fatty cushion of tissue covered by skin

B. Clitoris
and hair

III. Tiny finger – like structure at the

C. Hymen
upper junction of two labia minora

D. Labia IV. A thin membrane-like structure

Majora covering vaginal opening
(1) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(3) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

82) Assertion (A): In amniocentesis some of the amniotic fluid of the developing foetus is taken to
analyse the foetal cells and dissolved substances.
Reason (R): This procedure is used legally to check the gender of developing foetus.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of Assertion
(1)
(A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion(A) is true, and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false, and Reason (R) is true.
83)

(1) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

(2) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(3) A–IV, B–III, C–II, D–I
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II

84) Read the following four statements and mark the correct statements
(i) MTP was legalized in 1971
(ii) Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is
called infertility
(iii) Surgical method of contraception prevents gamete formation
(iv) MTPs are relatively safe up to 26 weeks of pregnancy

(1) (i) and (ii)

(2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iii)

85) Select the false statements.

(A) Dryopithecus was more Ape-like.
(B) Ramapithecus was more Man-like.
(C) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus both were hairy and walked like gorillas and chimpanzees.
(D) Australopithecines lived in the East African grasslands probably 3–4 mya.

(1) (B) only

(2) (B) and (C) only
(3) (D) only
(4) All are correct

86) Assertion : Lichens are indicator of industrial pollution.

Reason : White moths camouflage themselves in the background of lichens.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

87) Select the correct statement about Coelacanth.

 In 1938, a fish caught in South America happened to be a Coelacanth which was thought to be
(1)
extinct.
(2) Coelacanth called lobefins evolved into the first reptile that lived on both land and water.
(3) There are no specimens of Coelacanth left with us.
(4) Coelacanth were ancestors of modern day frogs and turtles.

88) Match the aspects of Darwin’s theory of natural selection in Column-I with the correct
description in Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

a Variation i Competition for limited available resources

b Overproduction ii Increases the survival

c Struggle for existence iii More offspring

d Differential reproductive success iv Increase in population size in a habitat

a b c d

(1) ii iv i iii

(2) iv i iii ii

(3) iv i ii iii

(4) iv ii i iii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

89) Chemical evolution refers to-

(1) Formation of diverse inorganic molecules from organic constituents.

(2) Formation of diverse organic molecules from radioactive constituents.
(3) Formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
(4) Formation of diverse non-reducing molecules from inorganic constituents.

90) For a long time it was also believed that life came out of decaying and rotting matter like straw,
mud, etc. This was the theory of _________.

(1) Biogenesis
(2) Spontaneous generation
(3) Abiogenesis
(4) Both (1) and (2)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 2 1 1 3 1 1 2 1 3 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 3 1 1 4 4 1 3 1 2 2 3 2 3 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 4 4 3

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 4 4 3 4 3 4 2 3 1
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 2 3 3 1 3 1 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 3 3 3 3 3 1
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 4 2 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 1 1 1 3 2 2 1 2 2 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 3 1 1 4 3 4 2 4 3 2 1 2 2 2 4 3 3 4 1 2
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 4 2 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 2 4 1 4 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 2 3 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 1 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 3 2 1 3 2 3 1 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3) In constant field force, path of particle must be a straight line or a parabola.

If initial velocity and field are not parallel/antiparallel to each other then path must be a
parabola.

5) Q1 = 7+5 = 12μC
Q2 = – 5 + 5 = 0 μC

6)

Consider charge –q–

T + Fe = mg ⇒ For T = 0, FE = mg

= mg
q=

9) Since on inner two plates potential is same so no capacitance is formed between them. So
capacitance formed between plate (i) and plate (ii) also between plate (3) and plate (4). Both
capacitance in parallel hence

Ceff = C1 + C2 = C + C = 2C

10)
Field on the axis of Ring =
For x < < R, Here R = a

E= = =

Force on charge –Q FR = – ...(1)

For SHM (oscillation) FR = – mw2x ...(2)

w= ,T= =

F= = = 40 N

12)

For field, E → KE =

KE = ⇒ KE ∝ (For some q, E, t)

⇒ =2

19) Magnetic force acts in the direction shown in figure below:

Road will move downward with constant velocity if net force on it is zero.
Fm cos θ = mg sin θ
iℓB cos θ = mg sin θ

20) Induced emf, when rod rotates in a vertical plane perpendicular to magnetic field

= 60 V

21)
Brightness of the bulb ∝ I
• decreases when an iron rod is inserted in the coil as impedance of circuit increases. (Z , I↓)
• increases when frequency of the AC source is decreased as impedance of circuit decreases.
• Increases when number of turns in the coil is reduced as impedance of circuit decreases.
• increases when a capacitance of reactance
XC = XL is included in the circuit as impedance of circuit decreases.

22) ϕi – ϕv =

i leading the v by phase angle

25) Focal length of the mirror remains unchanged.

27)
β∝λ

30) δ = (µ – 1)A

⇒ Angle of prism A =

36) Laws of reflection are valid for all surfaces.

38)

(a)
P → Low potential (L.P.) → 0V
N → High potential (H.P.) → 5V
So, D → R.B.

(b)
P → 10V (H.P.)
N → 5V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(c)
P → –10V (L.P.)
N → 0V (H.P.)
So, D → R.B.
 (d)
P → –5V (H.P.)
N → –12V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.

(e)
P → 0V (H.P.)
N → –10V (L.P.)
So, D → F.B.
So, (b), (d), (e) are forward biased.

41) In process of fission & fusion energy released.

W → 2Y [fission]
Only this reaction is exothermic.

45) real image + concave mirror

⇒ m = –ve ⇒ m = –n

⇒ = – n ⇒ f = –n f + nu
⇒ f(1 + n) = nu

⇒u=

CHEMISTRY

46)

When k1 = k 2 ,
15 –2000/T
10 e = 1014 e–1000/T
10 = e1000/T

2.303 log 10 =
T = 434.2 K

47)

53) Since solubility of gas decrease with increasing KH.

54)
 62) NCERT Pg # 223

63) NCERT Pg. # 218

89) NCERT-XII/Part-II/Page-414

90) NCERT-XII/Part-II, Pg. # 410

BIOLOGY

96) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20

97) NCERT Pg.#19

100) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72

102) NCERT Pg. # 31(E) & 33(H)

103) XII-NCERT Pg.76

105) NCERT Pg. # 71

Hindi pg. # 79

106)

107)
n
Type of gametes = 2 , here n is no. of heterozygous gene.

116)

The Correct answer is: 4

A. Sigma (σ) factor
B. Nascent RNA
C. Rho (ρ) protein

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 87

124)

NCERT-XII, Page # 213

139) NCERT Page no 198

142) NCERT page: 185

144)

The assertion is true as an alien piece of DNA needs to be linked to the 'origin of replication' to
replicate within a host organism. The reason is also true and is the correct explanation for the
assertion because the 'origin of replication' is the specific sequence that initiates replication,
which is necessary for the multiplication of the alien DNA within the host.

148) Ncert page 170.

149) NCERT Page No. 201

151) The assertion is true as somatic hybridisation can lead to the creation of new hybrid
plants like the 'pomato'. However, the reason is also true but it is not the correct explanation
of A. Genetically modified crops are indeed a solution for increasing yield and reducing the use
of harmful fertilizers and chemicals, but this is a separate method from somatic hybridisation,
which is a process of fusing protoplasts from different species to create hybrids.

156) NCERT Page no 153

162) Passive immunity involves the direct transfer of ready-made antibodies to protect the
body against foreign agents. The fetus receiving antibodies from the mother through the
placenta is an example of passive immunity, as is the ingestion of colostrum that contains IgA
antibodies.

175) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124-125

176) NCERT Pg#132 (E)

NCERT Pg#144 (H)
177) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 122

178) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 118

179) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 112

180) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111