564 Q

01/06/20
V 1.5

END OF A320 STUDY GUIDE.

CAPT ESSAM ALBARADIE

CAPT HANI SERDAR

FOR ANY INQUIRY| [email protected], this guide is only for training purpose, always refer to the official documents. ©
DSC SUBJECT Q#
21 AIR CONDITION PANEL 23
21 CABIN PRESS PANEL 13
21 VENTILATION PANEL 10
22 GLARESHIELD / FCU 14
22 MCDU / FLIGHT MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE SYSTEM 21
22 PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY 32
23 AUDIO MGMT PANEL 1
23 CALLS PANEL 2
23 RADIO MGMT / AUDIO CONTROL PANEL 9
23 EVAC PANEL 2
24 EMER ELEC PWR PANEL 11
24 ELECTRIC PANEL 30
26 FIRE PANEL 14
27 AFT PEDESTAL MISC 5
27 FLIGHT CONTROL 31
27 FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS 30
27 FLAPS / SLATS 13
27 TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER 5
27 SPEED BRAKE / SPOILERS 7
28 FUEL PANEL 24
29 HYDRAULIC PANEL 25
30 ANTI ICE PANEL 15
30 CARGO HEAT PANEL 2
CARGO SMOKE PANEL 6
30 PROBE / WINDOW HEAT PANEL 5
30 RAIN PANEL 2
31 ECAM SWITCHING PANEL (ELECTRONIC CENTRALIZED AIRCRAFT MONITORING) 10
31 ENGINE / WARNING DISPLAY 11
31 RCDR PANEL 3
31 SYSTEM DISPLAY 3
32 NOSE WHEEL STEERING 7
32 PARKING BRAKE 6
33 EXIT LTS PANEL 6
33 INT LTS PANEL 1
33 SIGNS PANEL 8
34 GPWS PANEL 10
34 NAVIGATION DISPLAY 6
34 NAVIGATION SYS 14
34 TRANSPONDER 3
TCAS 3
34 RADAR 7
35 OXYGEN PANEL 10
36 PNEUMATIC SYSTEM 9
38 WATER SYSTEM 4
49 APU PANEL 14
70 ENGINE PANEL 6
70 ENGINE / THRUST LEVERS 31
MAINTENANCE PANEL 2
FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL 31
EIS SWITCHING PANEL (ELECTRONIC INSTRUMENTS SYSTEM) 5
EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT’S 2
 AIR CONDITION PANEL NOTES

1. What monitors and controls the pneumatic system?

2 Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC), Each BMC receives info about bleed
pressure, temperature and valve position. Each system selects the proper
compressor stage to be used as a source of air Regulates the bleed air
pressure Regulates the bleed air temperature.

2. If one BMC fails, can the other take over?

(1) normally bled from the intermediate pressure
Yes, they are interconnected. But If BMC 1 fails:
stage (IP) of engine’s high-pressure (HP)
• APU and ENG 1 leak detection are not monitored. compressor to minimize fuel penalty.
• ECAM APU BLEED LEAK warning is lost. At low engine speed, when the pressure and
temperature of the IP air are too low, the system
bleeds air from the HP stage
3. On the ECAM Bleed page, how do you tell if GND HP air supply is
connected?
(2) ENG BLEED LEAK warning is lost for the
The GND unit temperature and pressure are indicated on the ECAM BLEED associated engine, as is also the APU BLEED LEAK
PRECOOLER #1. warning if BMC1 has failed.
APU leak detection is lost, if BMC1 is lost
4. When HI flow rate is automatically selected regardless of the pack flow
switch position? (4) If LO is selected, the pack flow can be
automatically selected up to 100% (normal) when
• Single pack operation. the cooling demand cannot be satisfied.
• APU bleed supply.
(5) FAULT light will be illuminated during preflight
5. What would cause amber PACK FAULT light to illuminate (PCS)? as no bleed air is supplied.
• Pack outlet overheat.
(6) The APU valve opens if N > 95 % and there is no
• Compressor outlet overheat.
leak in the APU or in the left side bleed. (If there is a
• Switch position disagreement with pack flow control valve. leak on the right side, the x-bleed valve closes.)
The blue ON light comes on
6. What does the amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb indicate?
Bleed leak (APU bleed valve closes). (7) Bleed Valve Close Electrically by: BLEED
pushbutton switch (OFF) ENG FIRE pb (pushed) By
(BMC) in the following cases: Overtemperature
7. What causes the amber FAULT light on the ENG BLEED pb? Overpressure Leak Open starter valve APU bleed
• Bleed valve is not closed during Engine start. being ON.
• Bleed valve is not closed with APU bleed on.
(8) Bleed valve is fully closed Pneumatically by: If
• Overpressure downstream of the bleed valve.
upstream pressure goes below 8 PSI. If there is
• Overheat. return flow.
• Leak (wing or engine leak on the related side).
(8) Pressure regulation fails, the overpressure
valve closes when the pressure goes over 85 PSI.
8. What are the two functions of the engine bleed valves?
• Pressure regulation (PRSOV).
(8) If Δp < 1 PSI: The outflow valve opens to about
• Shut off valves. 50 % when under automatic control. It does not
automatically open when it is under manual
9. What is the RAM AIR pb used for? control. Emergency ram airflow is directly supplied
to the mixer unit.
• Smoke removal from cabin.
• Ventilation of cockpit and cabin with a dual pack failure. (10) An emergency ram air inlet ventilates the
cockpit and cabin to remove smoke, or if both
10. When will the RAM AIR valve open if selected ON? packs fail
• ΔP IS less than 1 PSI.
• Ditching is not selected. (10) outflow valve opens about 50 %, provided that
it is under automatic control (and) ΔP is less than 1
PSI
11. How many motors drives the x bleed valve?
Two electric motors. (11) Two electric motors, one for automatic mode
and one for manual mode, control the valve.
In automatic mode, the cross-bleed valve opens
when the system uses APU bleed air. It closes, if the
system detects an air leak (except during engine
start).
12. What logic controls the X-bleed valve when the X-BLEED switch is in AUTO? NOTES
(14) The fault circuit detects an overheat when the
• The X-Bleed valve is open when APU bleed valve is OPEN.
duct temperature reaches 88 °C the FAULT light
• The X-Bleed valve is closed when APU bleed valve is CLOSED. goes off when the temperature drops below 70 °C
• The X-Bleed valve is closed when a leak is detected in wing or pylon or and the flight crew selects OFF.
APU (except during engine start).
(15) Air conditioning system controller 1 regulates
this valve.
13. What causes the Pack Flow Control valve to automatically close?
(15/2) duct temperature reaches 88 °C The valve
• Upstream pressure below minimum. and trim air valves close automatically. The FAULT
• Compressor outlet overheat. light goes off when the temperature drops below 70
• Engine start sequence. °C and the flight crew selects OFF.
(15/4) The hot-air pressure-regulating valve remains
• Engine FIRE pb on the related side pressed. operative, even if either the forward or aft cabin
• DITCH pb is selected. trim air valve fails.

14. What does the amber HOT AIR FAULT light indicate? (16) The air conditioning system controller 1
regulates this valve.
• Duct overheat is detected (The Hot Air and Trim Air valves will close
automatically). (20) IN FLIGHT When the TAT is equal to or less than
• Valve disagreement. 12°C Pack On.
DURING DESCENT If the TAT is above 12°C Pack Off.
15. When will the hot air valve close? 15
(21) Pack 1 controls the cockpit temp to the selected
• No air. value and pack 2 controls the cabin temp (FWD
• duct over heat. &AFT) to the mean value of the selected temp.
• Cockpit trim air valve fail.
• Cabin trim air valves fail (both).
• 2 lanes of one ACSC#1 fail.

16. What is the function of the HOT AIR pb?

It controls the hot air pressure regulator valve which controls the flow of
hot air to the trim air valves. This hot air is mixed with the pack-
conditioned air for zone temperature control.

17. How many Air-conditioning system Controllers (ACSC) are there?

2 ACS controllers to monitor the temperature of 3 zones (cockpit, forward
cabin, aft cabin).

18. How many lanes on each ACS Controllers? And how do they operate?
2 lanes (one active and one standby) if both fail the related pack is lost.

19. Describe how the air conditioning system controls the temperature in each
zone?
• Pack output temperature regulation is determined by the zone requiring
the coldest air.
• Hot air is added to the individual zones by the trim air valves to maintain
the desired zone temperatures.

20. If an air cycle machine (ACM) fails, what occurs?

The affected pack will operate in heat exchanger cooling mode.

21. What happens to the pack flow control valves during engine start? (Normal
engine start using APU).
The pack flow control valves (for both engines if x-bleed is open) will close
automatically when engine mode selector is set to ignition (to allow ALL of
the APU bleed to start the engines)-if the master switch is not selected to
ON within 30 second they will open again-they close whenever master
switch in ON After the start sequence is completed OR the engine mode
selector is set back to NORM the pack control valve opens.
22. After engine start with the APU BLEED pb ON, what source is supplying NOTES
bleed air to the packs?
APU Bleed, it has priority over the engines bleed.

23. When does the Lavatory/Galley Extract Fan operate?

Continuously when electrical power is available.
 PNEUMATIC SYSTEM NOTES

1. Pneumatic system supplies high-pressure air for which systems?

• Air conditioning • Engine starting
• Wing anti-icing • Water pressurization
• FWD cargo heating • AFT cargo heating
• Hydraulic reservoir pressurization • Fuel Tank Inerting System (FTIS)

2. What are the sources of the high-pressure air?

• Engine bleed systems
• APU load compressor
• HP ground connection

3. What computer is controlling and monitoring the pneumatic system?

Two Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMC1 and BMC2)

4. What happened if one BMC fails?

If one BMC fails, the other one takes over most of the monitoring functions.

5. What we lose if we lost BMC1?

ENG BLEED LEAK warning is lost for the associated engine and APU
BLEEDLEAK.

6. When does the HP valve closes automatically?

• Pneumatically:
In case of low upstream pressure
In case of excessive upstream pressure
• Electrically:
When the bleed valve is closed electrically.

7. What is the function of the crossbleed vale?

A crossbleed valve on the crossbleed duct allows the air supply systems of
the two engines to be isolated or interconnected.

8. How is the bleed leak is detected?

Leak detection loops detect any overheating near the hot air ducts in the
fuselage, pylons, and wings.
For the pylon and APU, the sensing elements are tied to form a single loop
and for the wing a double loop.

9. Does it required booth loop to detect the leak and activate the leak signal?
NO, when the two wing loops detect a leak, or when one loop detects the
leak and the other one is inoperative, they activate a wing leak signal.
 CABIN PRESS PANEL NOTES

1. What does the DITCHING pb do?

Closes all valves below the flotation line.

2. Which valves are below the floating line?

• Close the outflow valve.
• The emergency ram air inlet.
• The avionics ventilation inlet and extract valves.
• The pack flow control valves.
• The FWD cargo outlet isolation valve.

3. Will the DITCHING pb always close the outflow valve?

No, the outflow valve will not close if it's under manual control.

4. Can the pilot control the outflow valve?

Yes, select MAN on the MODE SEL and use the MAN V/S CTL switch.

5. How many controllers are in the pressurization system?

Two cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC), only one is used at a time, and they
swap roles 70 second after landing or when the active system fails.

6. How do you manually switch between controllers?

Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO.

7. What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pb indicate?

Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.

8. The LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, what is the data source for
pressurization schedule?
The pressurization system uses the FMGS data to construct an optimized
pressurization schedule.

9. When out of the AUTO position, what is different?

The pressurization system uses the manually selected landing elevation.

10. What depressurizes the aircraft in case of residual pressure after landing?
How does it work?
Residual pressure control unit, it automatically opens outflow valve when:
• Valve not fully open.
• Both pressurization controllers failed Both CPCs are failed, or manual
mode is selected, and
• Aircraft on ground.
• All engines are shutdown or all ADIRS indicate airspeed below 100 kts.

11. What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
2 pressure safety valves. located on the rear pressure bulkhead, above the
flotation line. Two independent pneumatic safety valves prevent cabin
pressure from going too high (8.6 PSI above ambient) or too low (1 PSI
below ambient),
The safety valve opens when the cabin differential pressure is between 8.2
and 8.9 PSI.

12. How many motors does the outflow valve have?

Three One for each automatic controller and one for manual control.
13. What is the ABORT mode in auto cabin pressurization and what does it do? NOTES
It will prevent cabin from climbing in case you need to return to your
departure point, conditions for this mode are: A/C ALT <8000 feet OR If the aircraft does not climb after takeoff, the
abort mode prevents the cabin altitude from
Aircraft changed altitude less than 5 075 ft since and A/C rate of decent climbing.
>200 feet per minutes for 30 seconds. Cabin pressure is set back to the takeoff altitude
+0.1 PSI
 VENTILATION PANEL NOTES

1. What is the function of the cabin fans? When do we select them off?
2 Cabin fans are installed to recycle cabin air into the mixing unit and back and
therefore save fuel, selected off only in respond to an ECAM procedure.

2. With BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in AUTO, how does the system
operate?
+12 °C (53 °F), temperature increasing, or
• NORMAL OPERATION, OPEN-CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION:
+9 °C (48 °F), temperature decreasing.
GROUND OPERATIONS the open-circuit configuration operates when skin
temperature is above the on-ground threshold.
• NORMAL OPERATION, CLOSE-CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION:
FLT: +35 °C (95 °F), temperature increasing, or
FLIGHT OPERATIONS the close-circuit configuration operates when skin
+32 °C (90 °F), temperature decreasing.
temperature is beneath the in-flight threshold. GRD: +12 °C (53 °F), temperature increasing, or
GROUND OPERATIONS the close-circuit configuration operates when skin
temperature is beneath the on-ground threshold.
• NORMAL OPERATION, INTERMEDIATE CONFIGURATION: +9 °C (48 °F), temperature decreasing.
FLIGHT OPERATIONS the intermediate configuration operates when skin +35 °C (95 °F), temperature increasing, or
temperature is above the in-flight threshold. +32 °C (90 °F), temperature decreasing.

3. How is the equipment cooled in each configuration?

Open circuit: the equipment is cooled by blown outside air.
Closed circuit: the equipment is cooled by blown air through a skin heat
exchanger.
Intermediate: the equipment is cooled by blown air through a skin heat
exchanger plus partially exhausted overboard.

4. With both BLOWER and EXTRACT pbs in OVRD, what are the positions of
the INLET and EXTRACT valves? all valves are closed (except extract valve) and air
from air-conditioning system is added to ventilation
• INLET valve CLOSED. air and directed over board through the skin air
• EXTRACT valve partially OPEN. extract valve

5. What fan is OFF in the above situation? (both pb switches are on OVRD)
• BLOWER fan OFF.
• EXTRACT fan ON.

6. Is Air Conditioning ever introduced into the Avionics Compartment?

Yes – In the SMOKE configuration or abnormal configuration.

7. Is the skin heat exchanger ever bypassed in flight?

Yes – during SMOKE configuration, skin heat exchanger isolation valve is
closed.

8. What does a FAULT light on the BLOWER pb indicate?

• SMOKE Warning is activated.
• Computer power supply failure.
• Low Blower pressure.
• Duct overheats.

9. What does a FAULT light on the EXTRACT pb indicate?

• SMOKE Warning is activated.
• Computer power supply failure.
• Low Extract pressure.

10. With 2 FAULT lights on the VENTILATION panel are there any other
indications?
Yes – The SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb.
 GLARESHIELD / FCU NOTES

1. What does the red AUTO LAND light indicate?

Below 200 feet RA:
* Excessive deviation (LOC or G/S). * Loss of LOC or G/S signals.
* Difference of 15 feet between the RA's. * Loss of both autopilots.

2. What does the red arrow in the SIDE STICK PRIORITY light mean?
It illuminates in front of the pilot losing authority.

3. How would you regain control?

• The last pilot to press the pb on the sidestick will have authority.
• An aural “Priority Left” or “Priority Right” will sound.
Both APs OFF below 200 ft RA.
Excessive deviation in LOC (1/4 dot above 15 ft RA)
4. What do the flashing green CAPT and F/O SIDESTICK PRIORITY lights
or GLIDE (1 dot above 100 ft RA). In addition, LOC
indicate? and GLIDE scales flash on the PFD.
Both sidesticks have been moved simultaneously and neither pilot has Loss of LOC signal above 15 ft, or loss of GLIDE signal
taken priority. above 100 ft. The FD bars flash on the PFD. The
LAND mode remains engaged.
The difference between both radio altimeter
5. What happens when both pilots make an input simultaneously on both indications is greater than 15 ft
side-sticks?
• The inputs are algebraically summed up to the normal limits.
• An aural “Dual Input” will sound.
• Green CAPT and F/O lights will illuminate.

6. What is the function of the LOC pb?

Arms, engages, or disengages the LOC mode.

7. When do you press the APPR button?

When cleared for the approach.

8. After pressing the APPR button, what do you check for?

* ILS – Blue LOC and GS in FMA. * RNAV – APP NAV and FINAL.

9. What is the function of the Flight Control Unit (FCU)? the APPR pb when:
• Permits short term interface between the pilot and FMGS. Cleared for the approach on the intercept trajectory
for the final approach course LOC deviation is
• Allows temporary modification of any flight parameter (HDG, SPD, available.
ALT, V/S).
• Used to select operational modes of the autopilots, flight directors,
and A/THR system.

10. What do dashes in the FCU display windows along with the adjacent
white dot indicate?
FMGS Managed Guidance is in use.

11. How is Selected Guidance engaged?

Pull the appropriate selector knob.

12. How do you confirm all autopilot, FD, and A/THR inputs?
Confirm all mode inputs by reference to the FMA.

13. Will the FCU Altitude window ever display dashes?

No. Pilot selected altitude will always be displayed.

14. When is the FCU inhibited?

Land mode and the aircraft below 400RA, LOC&GS locked.
 MCDU / FLIGHT MANAGEMENT GUIDANCE SYSTEM NOTES

1. What are the main components of the FMGS?

• 2 Flight Management Guidance Computer (FMGC's).
• 2 Multipurpose Control and Display Unit (MCDU's).
• 1 Flight Control Unit (FCU).
• 2 Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC's).

2. What are the functions of the Flight Management Guidance Computers?

* Flight Guidance. * Flight Management.

3. What are the 3 modes of FMGC operation?

* Independent. * Single . * Dual.

4. What are the 2 modes of flight guidance?

* Managed Guidance. * Selected Guidance.

5. What is the Managed mode of flight guidance used for?

Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the
FMGS.

6. What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?

Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the
FCU.
The airline updates this part every 28 days, and is
7. Does Selected or Managed Guidance have priority? responsible for defining, acquiring, updating,
Selected Guidance. loading, and using this data. The updating operation
takes 20 min to complete or 5 min if cross loaded
from the opposite FMGC.
8. What type of database is periodically updated in the FMGS?
Navigation database.

9. Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?

The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data.

10. How do you determine the validity of the navigation database?

On the Aircraft Status page.

11. What input does each FMGC use for position determination?
A hybrid IRS/GPS position.

12. What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?

Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave.

13. How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?

• If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master.
• If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master.

14. If amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what

action should the crew take?
An FMGS has failed and both ND's must be set to the same mode and
range.

15. Can both autopilots be engaged during any phase of flight?

No, only during an ILS approach.
16. What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the
MCDU?
• Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data.
• Small – Default/computed non-modifiable data.

17. When would a Takeoff Shift be entered on the PERF TO page? NOTES
When takeoff begins at a runway intersection.

18. If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and
the thrust levers are positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur?
• A warning will be generated.
• Continue to move the thrust levers to the TOGA detent and execute a
max thrust takeoff.

19. Where do you enter the Zero Fuel Weight?

INIT B page.

20. What do amber box prompts on the MCDU indicate?

An entry is mandatory.

21. What occurs when managed NAV mode is engaged and the aircraft flies
into a flight plan discontinuity?
NAV mode will be lost and the HDG/TRK mode engages.
 PRIMARY FLIGHT DISPLAY NOTES

1. What does each column mean on the PFD (FMA)?

A/THR | VERTICAL | LATERAL | APPROACH CAPABILIY, DH/MDA | AP,
FD, A/THR ENGAGEMENT STATUS.
A white box is displayed for 10 s around each new
2. How are the crew made aware of mode changes on the FMA? annunciation. The white box display time may be
A white box is temporarily displayed around the new indication. increased to 15 s in some mode reversion cases
associated with an aural triple click.
3. How are armed modes displayed on the FMA?
• Blue – armed.
• Magenta – armed because of a constraint.
• Green – engaged (active).

4. When is the side stick position indication icon (white cross) displayed?
• Displayed when the first engine is started.
• Disappears at liftoff.

5. What would the large red arrowheads indicate?

Pitch attitude of +30°.

6. After you input the destination and ILS information into the MCDU,
what do you check for?
• After the ILS pb is pressed, green light.
• ILS frequency and course on PFD.
• ILS identifier once identified.
• LOC and GS scales displayed on PFD (LS pb).
Displayed in case of loss of L+R elevators.
7. What does the MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY in red mean? PITCH by manually applying trim to the THS
LATERAL uses the rudder pedals.
You are in Mechanical Backup.

8. What does USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM in amber mean?

You are in Direct Law.

9. What are the pitch and roll angle limits indicated by the green = signs?
• Pitch: +30° up/-15° down.
• Roll: +/- 67°.

10. How can you determine you are in Alternate Law?

• Amber X's at the pitch (30° UP/15° DN) and bank (67°) limits.
• Only VLS and VSW is displayed on the airspeed scale.

11. When would the sideslip index change from yellow to blue?
In case of an engine failure during takeoff/go-around, it is now a blue
beta target.

12. What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
The speed the aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration
remains constant.

13. What is the difference between the magenta and blue target airspeeds?
• Magenta – Managed speed computed by the FMGC.
• Blue – Selected speed on the FCU.
14. What is VLS and how is it displayed? NOTES
During takeoff the flight crew inadvertently sets an
• Represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin
ALT on the FCU below the current altitude, the
to the stall speed. aircraft will remain in SRS mode until the flight crew
• Defined by the top of the amber strip along the airspeed scale. takes some other action.
• In approach mode is equivalent to VREF. Attitude protection to reduce aircraft nose-up effect
during takeoff (18 ° or 22.5 ° maximum in case of
windshear.
15. What speed does VMAX represent and how is it displayed?
• It is the lowest of VMO/MMO, VLE, or VFE.
• Defined by the bottom of a red and black strip along the speed scale.

16. What is Green Dot speed?

• Engine out operating speed in clean configuration.
• Appears when the aircraft is in the clean configuration.
• Corresponds to the best lift-to-drag ratio.

17. What is Ground Speed Mini?

It's a computed target speed during the approach that maintains the
aircraft energy above a minimum level ensuring standard aerodynamic
margins versus stall, this ground speed mini is:
• Based on a calculated groundspeed at the runway.
• It will protect against actual groundspeed dropping below this
calculated groundspeed due to wind.

18. What is SRS, when does it appear on the PFD? What speed does it
maintain?
Speed reference system, in takeoff and go-around [It maintains V2+10(2
ENG), V2- (V2+15) 1ENG, or speed that insures at least a vertical path of
120feet/ minute], it also provides pitch attitude protection during
takeoff (18° max or 22° max in wind-shear).

19. What is the SRS engagement conditions?

a. In ground for take-off:
• thrust levers set to TOGA or FELX.
• V2 set in the PERF page MCDU.
• The slats extended.
b. A/C on ground for at least 30 seconds Go-around:
• Flap lever is at least in position 1, and
• The A/C is in flight, or
• The A/C is on the ground for less than 30 seconds (rejected landing),
AP disengages and can be re-engaged 5 sec after lift off

20. What are the disengagement conditions?

• Automatically at acceleration ALT (ACC ALT) (ALT*) (ALT CST*) above
400ft.
• If crew engages another vertical mode.
• If crew selects a speed (click*click*click) is heard.

21. What are the 2 sub-modes of the runway mode (RWY) and what do they
provide?
• RWY mode: lateral guidance during TO roll up to 30 feet RA if LOC
RWY TRK mode engages automatically at 30 ft (RA)
signal is available. if NAV mode does not engage (NAV not armed prior
• RWY TRK mode: gives lateral guidance to same track during the to takeoff)
engagement (at 30 feet).
22. What are the (RWY) engagement conditions? NOTES
RWY mode disengages if:
• thrust levers set to TOGA or FELX.
The LOC signal is lost below 30 ft RA or the aircraft
• V2 set in the PERF page MCDU. heading and the runway heading differ by more
• The slats extended. than 20 °. Another lateral mode is engaged.
• A/C on ground for at least 30 seconds.
• A/C receiving a LOC signal and LOC deviation is less than ½ dot.
• A/C heading is within 20° of the ILS course.
• The ILS course is identical to the runway heading.

23. How can you disengage the LAND mode?

• When in go-around.
• When both AP/FDs are disengaged.
Outer-Outer Top & Bottom of PFD Speed Scale.
24. Which of the speeds displayed on the PFD are an actual flap/slat Inner-Inner on PFD Speed scale.
position and which ones are flaps lever position?
VLS, over speed warning are based on the actual flap/slat position.
VFE, VFE NEXT based on the flap lever position.

25. What does it mean when you see the magenta target airspeed triangle
above VAPP on approach?
Ground Speed Mini has increased speed due to a higher headwind
component at your present location than what was calculated at the
runway.

26. Is this protection available in selected speed?

No – Managed speed only.

27. What would be indicated if the altitude window changed from yellow to
amber?
The aircraft has deviated from the FCU selected altitude or flight level.

28. When is altitude alerting automatically inhibited in flight?

• When slats are extended with the landing gear down.
• On approach after glide slope capture.

29. What does it mean when the altitude digits change from green to
amber?
The aircraft has descended below the MDA/DH entered into the FMGC.

30. When is Radio Height displayed on the PFD?

Below 2,500 feet.

31. Information from ILS receiver 1 is displayed where?

* Captain's PFD. * F/O's ND.

32. What would a flashing amber ILS indicate on the bottom of the PFD? SOFT ALTITUDE MODE (CRUISE):
Flashes amber when APPR mode is armed and the ILS display is not Soft ALT mode corrects minor deviations from the
selected. Mach target by allowing a ±50 ft variation from the
CRZ FL. To improves fuel efficiency and passenger
comfort and minimizes the changes in thrust.

AUTOMATIC FD REMOVAL FD pitch bar is removed

when no vertical mode is engaged or when ROLL
OUT mode is engaged. FD roll bar is removed when
no lateral mode is engaged or when the RWY or
ROLL OUT mode is engaged. Both FDs are removed
when the aircraft pitch exceeds 25 ° up or 13 ° down,
or bank angle exceeds 45 °.
 AUDIO MGMT PANEL NOTES

1. What is the AUDIO SWITCHING PANEL used for?

Allows for switching to ACP 3 if ACP 1 or 2 fails.

CALLS PANEL

1. What happens when you press the EMER pb?

• Pink light flashes at all area Call Panels.
• EMERGENCY CALL appears on all attendant indication panels.
• High-low chime (repeated 3 times) sounds throughout the cabin
loudspeakers.

2. What happens when the F/A's initiate an emergency call?

• The white EMER ON light and amber CALL lights flash. MECH PB Pressed & held COCKPIT CALL lights up
• The amber ATT lights flash on all ACP's. blue on the external power panel in the nose L/G
• 3 long buzzers sound in the cockpit inhibited during takeoff and landing. bay. An external horn sounds. Released COCKPIT
CALL remains lighted in the nose L/G bay. The
• System resets when the attendant hangs up the relevant systems. ground mechanic can extinguish it by pressing the
RESET button on the external power panel. The
RADIO MGMT / AUDIO CONTROL PANEL external horn stops sounding

1. How are the communications radios controlled?

From any one of the 3 RMP's.

2. Which RMP is powered in the Emergency Electrical Configuration?

RMP 1.

3. Which communication radios are powered in the Emergency Electrical

Configuration?
VHF COM 1, HF 1.

4. What would cause the SEL indicator to illuminate on both RMP's?

When a communication radio normally associated with one RMP is tuned
by another RMP.

5. If the NAV key is selected on either RMP, can the FMGC still auto tune
NAVAIDS?
• No - RMP now controls the VOR/ILS receivers.
• NAV key on RMP 3 has no effect.
• Normal radio communication is still available.

6. With the INT/RAD switch on the ACP in the INT position and the side stick
transmit switch keyed, what will you transmit on?
The radio selected by its transmission key on the ACP.

7. What methods would the crew utilize to make a PA announcement?

• Pressing the PA switch on the ACP and using the boom, hand, or mask
microphone, or
• The flight deck handset dedicated to the PA system only.

8. What does the illumination of the CALL light on the VHF or HF transmission
keys indicate?
The SELCAL system detects a call.

9. Will the loudspeaker control knob control the loudness of the aural alert
and voice messages?
No.
 EVAC PANEL NOTES

1. What is the function of the (CAPT) and (CAPT&PUR) SWITCH?

• CAPT (the alert may only be activated from cockpit).
• CAPT & PURS position (alert may be activated from cockpit or cabin).

2. If CAPT&PUR switch was set to CAPT and a CMD pb was pressed in the
cabin, what indications do we have?
Only the cockpit horn sounds for 3 sec.

WATER SYSTEM

1. Where does the portable water stored in the A320 and how does it
pressurize?
Potable water is stored in a 200 l water tank located in front of the wing
box, behind the FWD cargo compartment.
Potable water is stored in a 200 l water tank (or 135 I water tank) located
in the AFT cargo compartment, in the wall on the left side. (A321 & S99)
On ground, the water system is pressurized by the air from the service
panel pressure port.
In flight, the water system is pressurized by the bleed air.

2. Where you can check the water indication quantity level?

The indication of the water quantity in the water tank is displayed on the
FAP and the AFT service panel.

3. How does the waste and water are discharged?

The waste and water are discharged by:
• Gravity, on ground
• Differential pressure, in flight.

4. How does them waste from the toilet bowls into the waste tank?
On ground, and in flight below 16000 ft, the differential pressure is
generated by the vacuum generator.
In flight above 16000 ft by Differential pressure.
 EMER ELEC PWR PANEL NOTES

1. What buses are powered by the emergency generator?

• AC ESS BUS. • AC SHED ESS.
• DC ESS BUS. • DC SHED ESS.
• ESS TR.

2. What does the red FAULT light on the RAT & EMER GEN pb indicate?
Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC bus 1&2 are not
powered, also during the 8 second RAT Extraction.

3. What is the function of the RAT & EMER GEN pb?

• AUTO – RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1 & 2 are not powered
and airspeed > 100 knots.
• MAN - extend the RAT at any time.

4. How long does it take the RAT to extend and provide power? EMER GEN TEST pb (guarded)
8 seconds (3 seconds for RAT extension, 5 seconds to pressurize the Blue Pressed and held:
hydraulic system and power the EMER GEN). If AC NORMAL BUSES are supplied:
The EMER GEN is driven hydraulically if the blue
electric pump is running.
5. What powers the emergency generator?
The AC ESS BUS and the DC ESS BUS are
Blue hydraulic power from the RAT. connected to the emergency generator.
(The DC ESS SHED and AC ESS SHED buses are
6. Is there another way to deploy the RAT? What is different about this not powered.)
deployment? ECAM displays the ELEC page automatically
(only on the ground).
Yes, from the HYD panel. If only the batteries supply the aircraft:
Blue HYD pressure only (exclude generator). The static inverter powers the AC ESS BUS.

7. Do pilots ever use the EMER GEN TEST pb?

No, its maintenance function only.

8. What happens if you push the GEN 1 LINE pb?

• The GEN 1 Line Contactor opens and the white OFF light illuminates.
• AC BUS 1 is powered by GEN 2 through the BUS TIE CONTACTOR.
• GEN 1 powers #1 fuel pump in each wing tank.

9. When is this procedure used?

Smoke procedures.

10. What does the SMOKE light in the GEN 1 LINE pb indicates?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting.

11. Will there be any other indications of avionics smoke?

ECAM warning and amber FAULT lights in the EXTRACT and BLOWER pbs
on the VENTILATION panel.
 ELECTRIC PANEL NOTES

1. Will the batteries completely drain if you leave the BAT switches in AUTO
after AC power is removed?
No. The battery automatic cut-off logic prevents the batteries from
discharging completely when the aircraft is on the ground (parking).

2. How the BATTERY BUS is normally powered?

DC BUS 1 through a DC tie contactor.

3. What does the amber FAULT light in the (GALY &CAB) pb indicate?
The load on any generator is more than 100% of rated output.

4. How does the GALLEY pb work in AUTO?

Main galley, secondary galley buses are powered.
The main galleys are automatically shed:
• IN FLIGHT: when only one generator is operating.
• ON GROUND: Only 1 ENGINE generator is operating (All galleys are
available when APU GEN or EXT PWR is supplying power).

5. When galley SHED is displayed on ECAM?

• When only one GEN supplies the aircraft.
• When galley switch is off.

6. What does a FAULT on the ENG GEN pb indicate? 6 (6) GCU Control frequency, volt of the gen
• The associated generator control unit (GCU) trips it. output& control gen. (GLC)
• The generator line contactor is open (switch is not selected off).

7. When is it normal to see the ENG GEN FAULT light illuminated?

Prior to engine start.

8. What does the APU GEN FAULT light indicate?

• The associated generator control unit (GCU) trips it.
• The generator line contactor is open (switch is not selected off).

9. When is the APU GEN FAULT light inhibited?

• APU speed too low.
• Line contactor OPEN after EXT PWR or ENG Generator takes over.

10. What is the function of the BUS TIE pb in the AUTO position?
The bus tie contactors (BTCs) automatically open or close to maintain
power supply to both AC BUS 1 & 2 One contactor is closed when:
One engine generator supplies the associated AC BUS, and APU GEN or
EXTERNAL power supplies the other side.
Both contactors are closed when:
During single-engine operation or operation on APU or external power.

11. In emergency configuration and the emergency generator failed, can we

start the APU in flight?
No, only on ground and speed below 100 knots (only then the batteries will
be connected to the DC BAT BUS).

12. What will happen if we have a failure in TR1?

The DC bus 2 will power all DC buses.
13. In emergency configuration with the emergency generator online can you NOTES
start the APU on flight?
(16) BUS TIE pb AUTO One contactor is closed,
Yes, below FL250 when the APU MASTER pb switch is set to ON the when: One engine generator supplies the associated
batteries are connected to DC BAT BUS for 3 minutes. (DC BAT BUS must AC BUS, and APU Gen or EXT Power supplies the
be powered to start APU). other side. Both contactors are closed during single-
Engine operation, or operation on the APU Gen, or
Ext Power supply.
14. What happen below 100 & 50 Knots when EMRG GEN power the aircraft?
Below 100 Knots DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to the battery. (20) Only maintenance personnel can reconnect the
Below 50 Knots AC ESS BUS is automatically shed, leading to the loss of all IDG
display units.
(24) Static inverter transforms DC power from BAT1
into one KVA of single-phase 115 V 400 Hz AC
15. If TR1 and TR2 where lost, what buses will be un-powered? power, which is then supplied to part of the AC
DC bus 1 and 2 and DC bat bus will be unpowered and DC ESS BUS will essential bus.
be powered by ESS TR.

16. Do we have to push BUS TIE pb to keep AC BUS 1&2 powered?

NO, it's an automatic function.

17. What does IDG stand for?

Integrated Drive Generator.

18. What is the function of the IDG?

Converts variable engine speed to constant speed for optimum
generator operation.

19. What does an IDG FAULT light indicate? When is it inhibited?

• Oil pressure low (inhibited when N2 < 14%).
• Oil outlet temperature overheat above 180 °C.
• Light is inhibited when IDG is disconnected.

20. What precautions must you take when disconnecting an IDG?

• Do not disconnect when the engine is not operating or wind-milling.
• Do not hold button longer than 3 seconds.

21. What is the function of the AC ESS FEED pb in the normal position?
When do we need to push it?
If AC BUS 1 is lost AC BUS 2 automatically feeds the AC ESS BUS. Only
when asked by a checklist.

22. What does the AC ESS FEED pb white (ALTN) light indicate? What does
FAULT light indicate?
The AC ESS BUS is supplied by AC BUS 2 (Manually selected) / fault light
comes on when AC ESS BUS is not powered.

23. What is the purpose of the static inverter? What powers it?
To provide AC power to a part of the AC ESS bus from the battery
number 1 if only the batteries are supplying electrical power to the
aircraft.

24. When is static inverter activated?

When the aircraft is only powered by the batteries (Speed <50 kts BAT1
& BAT2 switches must be in auto) (Speed >50 kts regardless of the BAT1
& BAT2 switches position).
25. How is the Battery check accomplished? NOTES
• Select ECAM ELEC page.
(27) On ground, immediately OR In flight, after a
• Switch BAT 1 & 2 OFF, then ON. time delay of 30 min
• Check charging current below 60 amps and decreasing within 10 seconds. (27) If EMER GEN is not supplying: BAT1 supplies the
AC STAT INV BUS, and, if speed is greater than 50 kt,
the AC ESS BUS. BAT2 supplies the DC ESS BUS
26. What does a BAT FAULT light indicate?
Battery charging current is outside limits (An indication that battery is
faulty).
In this case the battery contactor opens.

27. When are the batteries connected to the BATTERY BUS?

• APU start.
• Battery charging (less than 26.5 v).
• AC BUS 1 & 2 not powered and airspeed below 100 knots.

28. What is the priority sequence for electrical power?

• Engine Generators.
• EXT PWR.
• APU Generator.
• RAT Emergency Generator.
• Batteries.

29. With the APU green “AVAIL” light on and the EXT PWR” AVAIL” light on,
which system is powering the aircraft?
APU.

30. What is the significance of the green collared circuit breakers on the
flight deck?
• Monitored (green): When out for more than 1 min, the C/B TRIPPED
warning is triggered on the ECAM.
• Non-monitored (black).
• The Wing Tip Brake (WTB) C/Bs have red caps on them to prevent
them from being reset.
 FIRE PANEL NOTES

1. Where are the engine fire sensing elements installed?

• Pylon nacelle.
• Engine core.
• Fan section.

2. What happens if both fire loops fail?

If the failure of both loops occurs within 5 seconds of each other, a FIRE
warning will be issued.

3. What does amber DISCH light mean?

The fire extinguisher bottle has lost its pressure.

4. How many fire extinguishers are provided for each engine?

Two.

5. List the actions that occur when an ENGINE FIRE pb is pressed?

• Silences the aural fire warning.
• Arms the fire extinguisher squibs.
• Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve.
• Closes the LP fuel valve.
• Closes the engine bleed valve.
• Closes the pack flow control valve.
• Cuts off the FADEC power supply.
• Deactivates the IDG.

6. What occurs when you press the TEST pb on the ENGINE FIRE panel?
• CRC sounds.
• MASTER WARN lights flash (2).
• ENG FIRE pb illuminates red (1).
• SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (2).
• ECAM FIRE WARNING (1).
• FIRE light on the ENG panel illuminates (1).

7. How many fire extinguishers are provided for the APU?

One.

8. List the actions that occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed?
• Silences the aural fire warning.
• Shuts down the APU.
• Arms the APU fire extinguisher squib.
• Closes the LP fuel valve and shuts OFF the APU fuel pump.
• Deactivates the APU generator.
• Closes the APU bleed and cross-feed valves.
(9) when the aircraft is on the ground. In case of fire
9. What occurs when you press the APU FIRE TEST pb? in the APU compartment:
• CRC sounds. APU fire warnings operate in the cockpit.
• MASTER WARN lights flash (2). A horn in the nose gear bay sounds.
The AVAIL light goes out.
• APU FIRE pb illuminates red (1). The FAULT light in the MASTER SW lights up.
• SQUIB and DISCH lights illuminate (1). The APU shuts down.
• ECAM FIRE WARNING (1). The APU fire extinguisher discharges.
10. Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is NOTES
detected on ground?
Yes. The APU will automatically shut down and the APU fire extinguisher
will discharge.

11. Does the APU fire extinguisher automatically discharge if a fire is

detected in flight?
No.

12. What does the red disk on the outside at rear of the fuselage mean?
A red disk, which is outside at the rear of the fuselage, signals that the
agent is not discharged overboard due to bottle overpressure.

13. What will happen if APU SHUT OFF PB pressed from the external power
panel?
When this pushbutton is pressed, the APU low pressure fuel shutoff
valve closes, and the ECB receives a signal that starts the shutdown
sequence. The shutdown sequence is the same as the APU automatic
shutdown sequence, except that there is no cool down cycle. Pressing
this pushbutton also silences the external warning horn.

14. On the external power panel what will happen if APU FIRE LIGHT comes
ON?
The red APU FIRE light comes on and an external warning horn sounds
when the system detects an APU fire. The APU fire extinguisher
discharges automatically 3 s after the appearance of the fire warning.
The light goes out when the fire has been extinguished.
 AFT PEDESTAL MISC NOTES

1. When hand flying the aircraft can we trim the rudder?

Yes, by using the RUDDER TRIM rotary switch.

2. What happens if you turn the Rudder Trim with the autopilot engaged?
Nothing, The rudder trim rotary selector has no effect, when the
autopilot is engaged.

3. What is the RUD TRIM button used for?

To reset the rudder trim to 0°. (After the reset, an indication of up to
0.3° (L or R) may be observed in the rudder trim position indication).

4. Does the rudder RESET button work with the autopilot engaged?
No.

5. Is there any feedback in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or
turn coordination functions?
No.
 FLIGHT CONTROL NOTES

1. What does ELAC stand for?

Elevator Aileron Computer.

2. How many ELAC’s on the Airbus? And what do they control?

2 ELAC’s they control elevator, aileron and stabilizer.

3. What are the functions of the ELAC?

• Normal pitch, Alternate pitch, and Direct pitch.
• Normal roll and Direct roll.
• Abnormal attitude.
• Aileron droop.
• Acquisition of autopilot.

4. What does the amber FAULT light in the ELAC pb indicate?

Comes on amber, along with an ECAM caution:
• When a failure is detected
• During ELAC power-up test (eight seconds).
The ELAC power-up test occurs when electrical power is turned on, or after
the occurrence of an electrical transient lasting longer than 25 ms.
The FAULT light goes off, when the pilot selects OFF, or at the end of the
ELAC power-up test, if its results are satisfactory.

5. Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 1 control?

• Primary – Aileron control (roll).
• Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control (backs up ELAC 2).
• Provides 5 aileron droop.

6. Under Normal Law, what does ELAC 2 control?

• Primary – Elevator / Stabilizer (pitch).
• Standby – Aileron control (backs up ELAC 1).

7. What backs up ELAC 2?

ELAC 1 then SEC 2 then SEC 1.

8. What does happen to the ELACs if all ADIRs where lost?

Losing ELAC functions.

9. What dose SEC stand for? And how many are they?
Spoiler Elevator Computer.
3.

10. What function are performed by the SEC’s?

• Normal roll and Direct roll (by controlling the spoilers).
• Alternate pitch and Direct pitch (SEC 1 & 2 only).
• Speed brakes and ground spoilers (SEC1 & 3 only).
• Abnormal attitude.

11. Under normal low what are the 3 SEC’s control?

• Primary – Spoiler control (roll).
• Standby – Elevator / Stabilizer control (SEC 1 & 2 backup the ELAC’s).

12. What is the sole purpose of SEC 3?

Spoiler 1 and 2.
13. What does the amber FAULT light in the SEC and FAC pb indicate? NOTES
Comes on amber, along with an ECAM caution, when a failure is detected.
The FAULT light goes off, when the pilot selects OFF.

14. What dose FAC stand for? And how many are they?
Flight Augmentation Computer.
Two.

15. Under Normal Law, what functions do the FACs provide?

• Flight envelop function: (PFD speed scale, min & max speed, maneuvering
speed computation, and alpha floor).
• Low Energy Warning Protection “SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”.
• Yaw function (Yaw damping and turn coordination, rudder trim, and
rudder limiter).
• Windshear detection function.

16. If both FAC's fail, is the rudder available?

Yes, by the pedals.

17. If both FAC's fail, is maximum rudder deflection available?

Yes, after slat extension at the low-speed.

18. What is the computer and priority for the Ailerons?

ELAC 1 -> ELAC 2.

19. What is the computer and priority for the Elevator and Stabilizer?
ELAC 2 -> ELAC 1 -> SEC 2 -> SEC 1.

20. How are the flight control surfaces controlled and actuated?
All surfaces are controlled electrically and actuated hydraulically.

21. When is the automatic pitch trim available?

In flight under Normal law with bank angle less than 33° with or without
autopilot engaged.

22. If the active elevator actuator fails, what occurs?

Control is transferred the other actuator.

23. How the roll control is normally achieved?

1 aileron and spoilers 2, 3, 4, and 5 on each wing.

24. What items will be degraded if ELAC 1 and SEC 2 are lost?
None, ELAC 2 and sec 1 will back them up.

25. In case of elevator fault (left or right) what happen to the spoilers?
Spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited.

26. What happen to spoilers if electric is lost?

Spoilers retract to zero.

27. When does the ailerons go to the damping mode?

Failure of ELAC 1 & 2.

28. In alternate law, when does the aircraft go to flare mode?

With landing gear down.
29. How many motors in the vertical stabilizer? NOTES
3 motors.

30. When does the stab trim go to zero?

When the aircraft on ground and pitch below 2.5 degrees for 5 seconds
provided Sys G or Y is pressurized.

31. When flap 1+F configuration is presented?

In takeoff and go-around, (Speed 210).
 FLIGHT CONTROL LAWS NOTES

1. How many flights control law do we have?

Five laws:
• Normal law.
• Alternate law (with protection-without protection).
• Direct law.
• Mechanical backup. In flight, the alternate law pitch mode follows a
load-factor demand law much as the normal law
• Abnormal attitude law.
pitch mode does, but it has less built-in protection
(reduced protections).
2. What protections do you have in Normal Law?
• High Speed.
• High Angle of Attack (AOA alpha protection).
• Load Factor Limitation (+2.5 / -1.0).
• Pitch Attitude (30°- 25°- UP/15° DN).
• Bank Angle (67° max).

3. In alternate law, what happen to pitch and roll and yaw?

Pitch: load factor demand with auto trim.
Roll: direct law (no bank angle protection).
Yaw: yaw damping only.
Only the yaw damping function is available. Damper
4. When do we expect the flight controls to refer to direct law? What authority is limited to ±5 ° of rudder deflection.
protection or warnings are available?
Most likely when selecting gear down with alternate law, it's a direct
Maximum elevator deflection varies as a function of
stick to elevator relationship that varies with CG (pitch) and also a direct CG. Adequate controllability with the CG forward,
stick to surfaces relation (aileron or spoilers) that varies with and not-too-sensitive control with the CG aft.
configuration (roll). Aircraft handles like conventional A/C.
No protection is available, you have manual trim, stall and over speed To limit roll rate, the roll direct law uses only
ailerons and spoilers N° 4 and 5. If spoiler N° 4 has
warning are also available.
failed, spoiler N° 3 replaces it. If the ailerons have
failed, all roll spoilers become active.
5. If angle of attack (AOA) is active, what is the bank angle limit?
Maximum 45 degrees' and if released it goes back to 33 degrees.

6. If high speed protection is active, what is the bank angle limit?

Maximum bank is 40 degrees.

7. How does the High-Speed Protection operate?

If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system
induces a pitch-up input to limit aircraft speed.

8. Can the pilot override this pitch-up?

No.

9. What is Alpha Max?

The maximum angle of attack allowed in Normal Law, indicated by the
top of the red strip on the airspeed scale.

10. How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?

This protection has priority above all other protections because it
prevents A/C from stalling and ensure optimum performance in extreme
maneuvers like winds-hear and EGPW recovery. Without pilot input, the F/CTL computers will
When the angle of attack exceeds α prot pitch trim ceases and angle of maintain the AOA equal to αPROT
attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed α max
even with full aft side-stick deflection.
11. How many types of Alternate law, what protection is available for each one? NOTES
1- Alternate law with protection:
• Load factor.
• High speed stability.
• Low speed stability.
2- Alternate law without protection: This is identical to alternate law except that it does
• Load factor. not include the low-speed stability or the high-
12. Can you override the high or low stabilities in Alternate Law? speed stability. It includes only the load factor
Yes. limitation.

13. What protections do you have in Direct Law?

Above VMO or MMO, a nose up demand is
None.
introduced to avoid an excessive increase in speed.
The pilot can override this demand.)
14. If you are in Pitch Alternate Law, what law would Roll be? (and the low speed stability is active from about 5
Direct Law. kt up to about 10 kt above stall warning speed,
depending on the aircraft’s gross weight and
slats/flaps configuration.)
15. When the landing gear is extended, what happens to Pitch Alternate Law? (A gentle progressive nose down signal is
Degrades to Pitch Direct Law. introduced, which tends to keep the speed from
falling below these values. The pilot can override
16. How would you get into Abnormal Law? this demand.
By exceeding approximately double the Normal Law limits.
In the case of an extraordinary unpredictable
external event (e.g. mid-air collision) the flight
17. Can you stall the aircraft in Normal Law? parameters may go far beyond the limits of the
Not in Normal Law, but the aircraft can be stalled in all other laws. protected envelope)
(The abnormal attitude law is activated if any of the
following condition is true:
18. What is the purpose of Abnormal Alternate Law? Bank angle above 125 °
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude. Pitch attitude above 50 ° nose up or below 30 °
nose down
19. After recovery from an unusual attitude, what law will you be in? Speed below 60 to 90 kt (depending on the aircraft
pitch attitude), or above 440 kt
Abnormal.
Mach above 0.91
Angle of attack above 30 ° to 40 °, or below -10 °)
20. In abnormal attitude law, do we refer to direct law when selecting landing After recovery, the flight control system effects
gear down? are:
No, this mode last until landing. The pitch alternate law is active with no protection
and with auto trim.
The roll direct law is active
21. What PFD indications indicate Normal Law? The yaw alternate law is active.
• Green = for pitch, bank, and overspeed limits.
• Amber/black (alpha prot) airspeed tape.

22. What is indicated if the PFD pitch and bank limits are amber X's?
You are not in Normal Law.

23. What would cause you to revert to another law?

Multiple failures of redundant systems.

24. What law are you in when you perform the flight control check on the
ground?
Normal Law, Ground Mode.

25. Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all flight control computers?
Yes, with Mechanical Backup.

26. How is the airplane controlled in Mechanical Backup?

• Pitch – Trim wheel (horizontal stabilizer).
• Yaw – Rudder pedals (rudder).
• Speed – Thrust levers.
27. When will the FLARE mode engaged? NOTES
When the aircraft passes 50 ft RA, the THS is frozen and the normal flight
mode changes to flare mode as the aircraft descends to land.

28. When does the FD bar disappear from PFD?

• The FD pitch bar is removed when no vertical mode is engaged or when
ROLL OUT mode is engaged.
• The FD roll bar is removed when no lateral mode is engaged or when the
RWY or ROLL OUT mode is engaged.
• Both FDs are removed when the aircraft pitch exceeds 25 ° up or 13 °
down, or bank angle exceeds 45 °. (The flight director bars disappear from
the PFD when the pitch attitude exceeds 25 ° up or 13 ° down. They return
to the display when the pitch angle returns to the region between 22 ° up
and 10 ° down).

29. When does Automatic pitch trim freezes?

• The pilot enters a manual trim order.
• The radio height is below 50 ft (100 ft with autopilot engaged).
• The load factor goes below 0.5 g.

30. What is the function of LOAD ALLEVIATION FUNCTION (LAF) and how is it
operate?
The load alleviation function permits to alleviate the wing structure loads.
The function is achieved through the upward deflection of:
The two ailerons only, or
The two ailerons associated to the spoilers 4 and 5.
The LAF is available when the aircraft is in clean configuration and in
Normal law.
 FLAPS / SLATS NOTES

1. How many FLAP and SLAT for A320 and how they operate?
Two flap surfaces.
Five slat surfaces.
These surfaces are electrically controlled and hydraulically operated.

2. With only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available, will both the flaps
and slats operate?
WTBs activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism
Yes, at ½ speed. overspeed, symmetrical runaway, or uncommented
movement of the surfaces. They cannot be released
3. What system prevents Flap or Slat asymmetry? in flight.
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB).

4. What causes the WTB's to activate (ROAM)?

• Runaway.
• Overspeed (flaps).
• Asymmetry.
When in Configuration 1 + F, the flaps retract to 0 °
• Movement (un-commanded). automatically at 210 kt (before the airspeed reaches
VFE).
5. If the WTB activates due to a flap asymmetry can the slats still operate? When in configuration 1, the flaps extend to 10 °
Yes, only flap operation is inhibited. automatically at 100 kt.)

6. How may Slat/Flap Control Computers (SFCC) are installed?

Two.

1 + F (18 °/10 °) is selected

7. What would occur if one SFCC failed?
Configuration 1 (18 °/0 °) is selected
The slats and flaps would continue to operate, but at half speed.

8. What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS

lever and how do they differ?
• CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps.
• CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only.
The AOA is above 8.5 °, or the speed is less
than 148 kt.
9. When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F the FLAPS (not slats) will automatically
retract to 0 at 210 knots.

10. What is Alpha Lock?

inhibits slat retraction at high angles-of-attack and low speeds. (When
the aircraft is on ground and its speed is less than 60 kt, then the
function will not activate).

11. When the FLAP legend appears in cyan on the upper ECAM display what
is indicated?
Flaps/slats in transit.

12. What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
The ailerons droop 5°.

13. What happen if the pilot didn’t retract the flaps after takeoff?
If the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, the flaps retract
automatically at 210 kt
 TRIMMABLE HORIZONTAL STABILIZER NOTES

1. How the THS is normally operated in flight?

The flight control computers control trim functions automatically.

2. If NO hydraulic power is available can the THS be positioned?

No. The THS requires hydraulic power from the GREEN or YELLOW systems.

3. If a complete flight control computer failure occurs can the THS be

positioned?
Yes, mechanical trimming is possible by manually positioning the Pitch
Trim Wheel.

4. Can you move the PITCH trim wheel if all systems are working normally?
Manual inputs have priority over computer inputs. The autopilot will
disconnect.

5. What happens to the THS after landing?

The trim automatically resets to zero. Following nosewheel touchdown,
as the pitch attitude becomes less than 2.5 ° for more than 5 s, pitch
trim is automatically reset to zero.
 SPEED BRAKE / SPOILERS NOTES

RETRACTION
1. Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is The ground spoilers retract:
inhibited? After landing, after a rejected takeoff, when the
When Flaps FULL. ground spoilers are disarmed.
During a touch and go, when at least one thrust
lever is advanced above 20 °.
2. When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend during landing?
❖ When armed: If an inhibition occurs when the speedbrakes are
• Both thrust levers IDLE. extended, they retract automatically and stay
• Both main landing gear touched down. retracted until the inhibition condition disappears
and the pilots reset the lever. (The speedbrakes can
❖ When not armed: be extended again 10 s or more after the lever is
• Both main landing gear touched down. reset).
• One reverse is selected and the other engine is IDLE.

3. When do the Ground Spoilers automatically extend during rejected T/O?

❖ If ground spoilers armed with airspeed above 72 knots:
• When BOTH thrust levers at IDLE.
❖ If ground spoilers NOT armed with airspeed above 72 knots:
• When reverse thrust is selected on at least one engine with the other
thrust lever at IDLE.

4. Will the ground spoilers extend if Touchdown with reverse selected and
only one landing GEAR is compressed?
Partially – Full extension is limited until both main gears are compressed.

5. When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?

The ground spoilers retract:
• After landing,
• After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
• During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced
above 20 °.

6. When do the speed brakes inhibit?

Speed brakes (2-3-4) are inhibited when:
• SEC1 and SEC3, both have fault.
• A.O.A protection is active.
• Alpha floor activation.
• Thrust levers above MCT.
• Flap full. (Flaps are in configuration 3 or FULL, for A321)
• One elevator fault. (Spoiler 3, 4 inhibited).
• When speed brake fails on one wing, the symmetric one on the other
wing is inhibited.

7. In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is

lost?
The spoiler automatically retracts.
 FUEL PANEL NOTES

1. What is the normal in-flight fuel management usage?

Use center tank first, then the wing tanks.

2. Which tank feed fuel to the Engine?

CEO: The inner tanks feed fuel to the engines.
A320: The center tank feed fuel to the engines.
A321: The wing tanks feed fuel to the engines.

3. How many fuel pumps are installed?

• 2 in each wing tank. 1) Fuel recirculation to the tank is inhibited (FRV
• 2 in center tank. closed) in the following cases:
• 1 APU pump to provide fuel to the APU when the tank pumps are off. at engine shutdown, during takeoff and climb
if:
wing tank level is below about 300 kg. There is fuel
4. When the center tank fuel pumps operate in auto mode when do they overflow in the surge tank fuel feed is by gravity
come on? When do they stop? only. When fuel temperature in the wing tank in
• On For 2 minutes after BOTH engines are started (if slats are UP will flight is above 52.5 °C
continue to run).
(3) (ECAM Memo Green Msg CTR TK FEEDG
• After slat retraction. disappears.
• They stop 5 minutes after center tank low level is reached.
• They stop when inner tank overfills from fuel returned from IDG
cooling SYS until 500 kg is burned from inner tank.

5. What will cause a FUEL MODE SEL PB FAULT light illuminate?

• Failure of the AUTO mode.
• Center tank has more than 250 kg and either wing tank has less than
5000 kg.

6. When do the main tank outer cells drain into the inner tanks?
When the inner tank quantity reaches 750 kg.

7. If only one inner tank reaches 750 kg, what happens to the other
transfer valve?
All 4 transfer valves open.

8. Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling operation.
(6) The 750 kg value is based on a level aircraft
attitude, with no acceleration. During steep
9. How is the IDG cooled? descent or accelerations/decelerations, the
Some of the fuel flowing out of the HMU goes to cool the oil systems of transfer valves may open with more than 750 kg of
the Integrated Drive Generators (IDGs). It then returns to the fuel pump fuel in each inner tank, and the low-level warning
unit or to the tank. may be triggered.
(8) Two level sensors are installed in each inner
tank. Each sensor controls two transfer valves, one
10. If the IDG return fuel fills the wing tanks, what occurs? in each wing, ensuring simultaneous transfer to
The center tank pumps turn off until the wing tank quantity reduces by both wings.
500 kg.
(12) Determine Gravity Feed Ceiling. Center tank
11. What does an amber FAULT light in the FUEL PUMP pb indicate? pumps are not fitted with suction valves. Therefore,
gravity feeding is not possible from the center tank
Fuel delivery pressure drops.
(13) Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes
12. If the wing tank pumps fail, is suction feeding possible? from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine,
Yes – only from the inner wing tank. through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat
exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return
valve and to the outer fuel tank.
13. Can fuel be transferred from one tank to another? This operation ensures the IDG cooling when the oil
Only during ground refueling. temperature is high or when at low engine power
14. With full wing fuel what prevents the IDG fuel from overflowing the NOTES
wings?
(15) This pump normally runs off the AC ESS SHED,
If the outer tank is already full, the fuel overflows to the inner tank but runs off the AC STAT INV BUS if the AC ESS SHED
through a spill pipe. On ground, the fuel recirculation is not inhibited if fails
there is an overflow in the surge tanks
FUEL TANK INERTING SYSTEM in CTR Tank
15. Why does the fuel system keep fuel in the outer wing tanks and drain Conditioned Service Air System (CSAS)&Inert Gas
them last? Generation System (IGGS). CSAS extracts and
For wing bending and flutter relief. conditions some engine bleed air to adequate
pressure and temperature. Then, the air goes
16. What feeds the APU if all fuel pumps are off? through the IGGS where an Air Separation Module
taps the nitrogen molecules. Therefore, an oxygen-
Special pump feeds APU start if fuel pressure low. depleted air is produced (with less than 12 % of
oxygen) and replaces the ambient air of the center
17. What does the REFUEL message on the ECAM indicate? tank.
• The door of the refuel control panel on the fuselage or on the wing is An Inert Gas Generation System (IGGS).
open, or
• The PWR pb-switch of the refuel control panel in the cockpit is ON.
ACT transfer stops, if the center tank high level
becomes wet, by closing the ACTs transfer valve.
18. What does amber half box ECAM FOB indicates? The transfer valve reopens when the center tank
Some fuel is unusable. high-level sensor becomes dry for 10 min.

19. What is the main function of the suction valves?

They allow engines to be fed by gravity if the inner tank pumps fail.

20. When the ACT tank start transfer fuel to the Center Tank if the Aircraft
equipped with One ACT?
ACT transfer automatically starts after takeoff at slats' retraction, if the
center tank high-level sensor has been drying for
10 min, and the ACT is not empty.

21. When does the fuel transfer stop from the Center Tank?
The FLSCU automatically closes the associated center tank transfer valve
when the inner tank is full. The FLSCU then reopens the center tank
transfer valve when the engines have used 500 kg of inner tank fuel.
(And 250 kg for A321)

22. What is the approximate refueling time under normal pressure?

Approximate refueling time at nominal pressure is:
• 17 min for wing tanks
• 20 min for all tanks wing + center (without ACT)
• 25 min for all tanks wing + center (with one ACT)

23. When the center tank pumps operate in the automatic mode?
• They run at engine start for 2 min,
• Before or after the engine start sequence, the pumps run if the slats
are retracted,
• They stop automatically 5 min after center tank low level is reached.

24. What is the FUEL TANK INERTING SYSTEM for?

To reduce the flammability in the center tank, the Fuel Tank Inerting
System produces an oxygen-depleted air that goes in the center tank to
replace the ambient air. The aim of this system is to reduce the
flammability in the fuel tanks that have a high flammability exposure.
(with less than 12 % of oxygen)
 HYDRAULIC PANEL
NOTES

1. How many hydraulic systems are there?

The aircraft has three hydraulic systems:
BLUE, GREEN, and YELLOW.
Each system has its own hydraulic reservoir.

2. Which bleed system pressurizes the hydraulic reservoirs?

Normally, HP bleed air from engine 1 pressurizes the hydraulic
reservoirs automatically.
If the bleed air pressure is too low, the system takes bleed air pressure
from the cross-bleed duct.

3. Can the aircraft be flown with a loss of all hydraulic systems?

No – you must have at least one.

4. What occurs when you press the RAT MAN ON pb?

The RAT extends providing pressure to the BLUE hydraulic system.

5. Does the PTU transfer hydraulic fluid?

No.

6. How many hydraulic pumps are in the GREEN system?

• 1 Engine driven pump.
• 1 PTU POWER TRANSFER UNIT.

7. How many hydraulic pumps are in the BLUE system?

• 1 Electric. (A pump driven by a ram air turbine (RAT) pressurizes this
system in an emergency).

8. How many hydraulic pumps are in the YELLOW system?

• 1 Engine driven pump.
• 1 Electric (which allows yellow hydraulics to be used on the ground when the
engines are stopped).
• 1 PTU.
• 1 Hand pump (in order to operate the cargo doors when no electrical power is
available).

9. When does the BLUE ELEC PUMP operate when set to auto?
If AC power is available the electric pump operates on:
• In flight.
• On ground if one engine is running.
• If the BLUE PUMP OVRD pb on maintenance panel was pushed.

10. What is normal system hydraulic pressure?

Normal system operating pressure is 3000 PSI (2500 PSI when powered
by the RAT).

11. Does the RAT automatically deploy with the loss of BLUE pressure?
No, it must be deployed manually by the RAT MAN ON pb. It can be
stowed only when the aircraft is on the ground.

12. If the ACCU PRESS indicator is low, what should you do?
Obtain ground clearance, and then turn ON the YELLOW ELEC PUMP to
pressurize the accumulator.
13. When does the PTU operate with pb in AUTO? NOTES
• When the differential pressure between the GREEN and YELLOW
systems is more than 500 PSI.
• And automatically tested during the second engine start.

14. When is the PTU inhibited?

On ground:
• PTU pb OFF.
• First Engine start.
• One engine is running and Parking brake is ON or NWS deactivation
pin installed.
• Cargo door operation After 40 second.

15. If the ECAM actions lead you to turn OFF the PTU for a Reservoir
Overheat, will the FAULT light go out?
No, not until the overheat subsides.

16. If the FAULT light in the PTU pb is ON, are there any other indications on
the HYD Panel?
Yes – also a FAULT light illuminated in the respective ENG PUMP pb.

17. When is the blue pump inhibited?

On ground with both engines are shutdown.

18. Name several items that run from only the GREEN system?
• Landing gear.
• Normal Brakes.
• Number 1 Thrust reverser.

19. Name several items that run from only the YELLOW system?
• Alternate Brake.
• Break accumulator.
• Cargo doors.
• Number 2 Thrust reverser.
• Nose wheel steering.

20. What does an amber FAULT light in the PTU pb indicate?

• The GREEN or the YELLOW reservoir overheats.
• The GREEN or the YELLOW reservoir has low air pressure.
• The GREEN or the YELLOW reservoir has a low fluid level.

21. What does an amber FAULT light in the ENG PUMP pb indicate?
• Pump pressure low (inhibited on the ground, when the engine is stopped).
• Over-temp in reservoir.
• Low air pressure in the reservoir.
• Low quantity in the reservoir.

22. What does a FAULT light in the BLUE or YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb indicate?
• The reservoir level is low.
• The reservoir overheats.
• The air pressure in the reservoir is low.
• The pump is delivering low pressure.
• The pump overheats.
23. With the switch set to off, when does the YELLOW electric pump comes NOTES
on automatically f, and what does its power?
When the cargo door lever is set to open or close, this inhibits the
operation of all system components except ALT braking and engine #2
reverser.

24. What is the function of the hydraulic priority valves?

Priority valves cut off hydraulic power to heavy load users if hydraulic
pressure in a system gets low.

25. What is the purpose of the hand pump?

To provide YELLOW hydraulic pressure for cargo door operation. when
no electrical power is available.
 ANTI ICE PANEL NOTES

1. What kind of heating protection the aircraft has? And in which areas?
Either hot air or electrical heating
a. HOT AIR:
• Three outboard leading-edge slats of each wing.
• Engine air intakes.
b. ELECTRICAL HEATING
• Flight compartment windows. The valve automatically closes, if air is unavailable
• Sensors, pitot probes and static ports. (engine not running).
• Waste-water drain mast. The amber FAULT light comes on briefly as the
valves transit.
2. Is the engine anti-ice part of the normal pneumatic system?
No – it is a separate system independent of the pneumatic ducting.

3. What does a FAULT light in the ENG ANTI ICE pb indicate?

• The anti-ice valve disagrees with the ENG 1 (2) pushbutton selection.
• Amber FAULT light comes on briefly as valve transits.

4. With ENG ANTI ICE ON what indications will you see?

• Blue ENG ANTI ICE light ON.
• ECAM: ENG ANTI ICE (ECAM MEMO displays “ENG A. ICE”).
• N1 limit is reduced (amber tick on N1 indicator).
• N1 idle is increased.

5. What should you do if there is significant engine vibration due to ice?

• A/THR OFF
• THRUST (one engine at a time) IDLE THEN INCREASE N1 > 80 %
• If ENG ANTI ICE is off, switch it ON at idle fan speed, one engine after
the other with approximately 30 s interval.

6. With engine anti-ice ON, is your descent affected?

Yes, because idle thrust is increased.

7. Can you use the wing anti-ice on the ground?

No.

8. What happens if you turn the switch on the ground?

The wing anti-icing valves will open for a 30 second test.

9. What part of the wing is heated?

Out board 3 slats. (No 3,4,5 Each Wing).

10. When do the wing anti-ice valves automatically close?

On landing
• Bleed leak detected.
• Loss of electrical power.

11. Can you use the APU bleed for wing anti-ice?
No.

12. How do you know present of ICING condition?

An external visual ice indicator is installed between the two windshields.
Indicator has also a light. The ice detection system has two separate ice
detector probes on the forward lower section of the fuselage. ECAM
MEMO display, icing conditions.
13. What does the amber FAULT light in the WING ANTI ICE pb indicate? NOTES
• Low pressure is detected.
• Switch- valve disagreement.

14. In what position do the Wing and Engine Anti-Ice valves fail if electrical
power is lost?
• Wing – valves CLOSE.
• Engine – valves OPEN

15. What does the memo message ICE NOT DET mean?
This memo appears in green, if ice is no longer detected after 190 s.

CARGO HEAT PANEL COLD position 5 °C Middle position 15 °C HOT

position 26 °C

1. What does the CARGO HEAT HOT AIR amber FAULT light indicate?
AFT ISOL VALVE pb-switch
Duct overheat (detected 88 ° C and the light goes out when TEMP drops The switch controls the isolation valves and the
below 70 ° C). extraction fan.
Auto:
2. What does the CARGO HEAT AFT ISOL VALVE amber FAULT light The inlet and outlet isolation valves open, extraction
fan runs if there is no smoke detected in the aft
indicate? cargo bay.
Valve disagreement of inlet or outlet valve. OFF:
The inlet and outlet isolation valves and the trim air
CARGO SMOKE PANEL valve close, the extraction fan stops.

1. How many fire extinguishers are provided for the cargo compartments?
1 bottle, which can be discharged within 60 seconds to either 4 smoke detectors that are in the forward cargo
compartment. compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector
is linked to one of the two detection loops (dual
loop principle).
2. Do we do the CARGO fire test? Why?
NO, because it is self-test. 6 smoke detectors that are in the aft cargo
compartment ceiling panel cavities. Each detector is
3. What happened if we pressed the TEST PB? linked to one of the two detection loops (dual loop
principle).
Pressing Test button for at least 3 s, and until it is released. Tests the
smoke detectors in sequence, turns on the red smoke lights twice, and
displays the ECAM warning, Closes the ventilation system's isolation
valves. Turns on the amber DISCH light.

4. What does the red SMOKE light in the FWD or AFT pb indicate?
• Both channels detect smoke, or
• One channel detects smoke and the other is faulty.

5. How many smoke detectors are there (cavities)?

• 1 cavity (two smoke detectors) FWD, 2 cavities (four smoke detectors)
AFT (each cavity is dual loop A+B).
• One fire bottle with 3 nozzles (1 FWD 2 for AFT cargo).

6. With a CARGO SMOKE warning what happens to the Isolation Valve and
Extract Fan?
• Isolation Valve closes.
• Extract Fan stops.
 PROBE / WINDOW HEAT PANEL NOTES

Windshield and pitot heat operate at low power on

1. With the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb in AUTO, when will the probes and ground and normal on flight.
windows heated?
In flight OR On ground with one engine running (except TAT probes). Three independent Probe Heat Computers
(PHCs) automatically control and monitor:
• Captain probes
2. What does the PROBE/WINDOW HEAT pb do in the ON position?
• F/O probes
When do we normally do that? • STBY probes.
Probes and windows are heated permanently; blue light comes on They protect against overheating and indicate
(windshield, side windows, Pitot tube, static port, TAT) We set the switch faults.
to on after preliminary cockpit preparation in cold weather operation.
When AC1 and AC2 are lost and AIR DATA is
switched to “CAPT 3”, the STBY pitot is switched to
3. What does the ice detect and does it control the ENG or WING inti-ice sys? AC ESS bus and CAPT pitot heating is lost.
The probes detect ice accretion. The ice detection system does not control
the ENG or WING anti-icing systems.

4. At which power does the Windshield heating operates?

Windshield heating operates at low power on the ground and at normal
power in flight. The changeover is automatic.

5. Which probes are electrically heated?

Electrical heating protects:
• Pitot probes
• Static ports
• Angle-Of-Attack (AOAs) probes
• Total Air Temperature (TAT) probes.

RAIN PANEL

1. When the rain repellent is inhibited?

On the ground and engines are stopped.

2. When can flight crew spray a rain repellent liquid on the windshield and
Why?
In moderate to heavy rain, the flight crew can spray a rain repellent liquid
on the windshield to improve visibility.
 ECAM SWITCHING PANEL (Electronic Centralized Aircraft Monitoring) NOTES

1. If the UPPER DISPLAY knob was switched to OFF what would occur?
The E/WD display would automatically transfer to the lower display.

2. With the E/WD displayed on the lower screen, how else can you view SD
information?
Press and hold the appropriate system button on the ECAM CONTROL
panel you wish to view.

3. How long will this information be available?

30 seconds.

4. What does the ALL pb do?

• Displays ALL the system pages successively in 1-second intervals when
held down.
• Release the pb to maintain display of the selected page.

5. What does by pressing the RCL pb?

• Allows you to recall any warning or caution messages that the When only one ECAM display is on, the pilot can
activation of the CLR pb or flight phase inhibition may have display a system page for up to 3 min.
suppressed. (When this pushbutton is pressed and held down,
the SD successively displays all the system pages at
• If held longer than 3 seconds, the E/WD will show any caution 3 s intervals).
messages suppressed by the EMER CANC pb.
When pressed, the E/WD displays all alerts
6. If you press the STS pb and the system has no STATUS messages what previously cleared via the CLR pb that are still active.
will be displayed? When pressed for more than 3 s, the E/WD displays:
All alerts previously cleared via the CLR pb that are
The status page displays “NORMAL” for 3 seconds.
still active all alerts previously cancelled via the
EMER CANC pb
7. If power fails to the ECAM CONTROL panel which buttons are still
functional?
* EMER CANC. *ALL. *CLR. *STS. *RCL.

8. What does the EMER CANC do?

• Cancels the current Level 1 or 2 warning for the remainder of the
flight.
• Cancels the current Level 3 warning for that occurrence.

9. What do you look for on the FHED check? If the ECAM control panel fails, the CLR, RCL, STS,
• Fuel – fuel quantity, configuration, and balance. EMER CANC, and ALL pushbuttons remain operative,
because their contacts are directly wired to the flight
• HYD – hydraulic quantity. warning and display management computers.
• ENG – oil quantity above 9.5 quarts + estimated consumption (max .5 EMER CANC pb
quarts/hour). This pushbutton affects the following:
• Door – doors closed, slides armed, crew oxygen pressure Warnings:
Cancels (stops) an aural warning for as long as the
failure condition continues.
10. What occurs during the Before Takeoff Checklist when the T.O. CONFIG Extinguishes the MASTER WARNINGS lights
pb is pressed? Does not affect the ECAM message display.
• The system simulates the application of T.O. power and checks certain Cautions:
Cancels any present caution (single chime, MASTER
systems for proper configuration.
CAUTION lights, ECAM message) for the rest of the
• A warning is displayed if and system is not configured properly. flight.
• “TO CONFIG NORMAL” is displayed in the TO MEMO section if the
configuration is correct. RSVR LO LVL fluid quantity:
< 3.5 L (0.92 US Gal) (G &Y) & < 2.4 L (0.63 US Gal).
 ENGINE / WARNING DISPLAY (2) (3) NOTES
ADVISORY:
System parameters monitoring
1. What are the 3 levels of ECAM Malfunction Notifications? MEMO:
• WARNINGS (LVL 3) – Associated with the red MASTER WARN light, Information: Recalls normal or automatic selection
CRC, and require immediate action. of functions which are temporarily used

• CAUTIONS (LVL 2) – Associated with the amber MASTER CAUT light,

single chime, and require crew awareness.
• ALERTS (LVL 1) – Associated with amber E/WD message, no aural
signal, and requires crew monitoring.

2. If simultaneous failures occur, how will they be presented to the crew?

A level 3 Warning has priority over a level 2 Caution which has priority
over a level 1 Alert.

3. What types of failures are presented to the crew?

• Independent – Failure affecting an isolated system/item without
degrading other systems/items.
• Primary – Failure of a system/item that affects the use of other
systems/items.
• Secondary – Loss of a system/item resulting from a primary failure.

4. Which part of the E/WD would the crew find indication of Primary
failures?
On the lower left portion of the screen.

5. What indication does the E/WD provide for secondary failures?

Secondary failures are displayed on the lower right portion of the E/WD
and are preceded by an *.

6. What does the appearance of a green arrow indicate at the bottom of

the E/WD screen indicate?
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll T/O Inhibit: T/O Thrust till 1500ft or 2 Min from Lift
down using the CLR pb on the ECAM panel. off. LDG Inhibit: from 800 ft to 80 Kts

7. What does the display of T.O. INHIBIT or LDG INHIBIT indicate?

Most warnings and cautions are inhibited to avoid unnecessary
distractions during critical phases of flight. • ENGINE FIRE • APU FIRE • ENG FAIL (ENG SHUT
DOWN) • ENG OIL LO PR • L+R EVEV FAULT • A/P
OFF • CONFIG • FWC 1+2 FAULT
8. What types of warnings are NOT inhibited during takeoff?
Any amber ECAM caution listed below:
• F/CTL SIDESTICK FAULT.
• ENG FAIL.
• ENG REVERSER FAULT.
• ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED.
• ENG 1(2) THR LEVER FAULT.
• Fire warning or severe damage. After a go-around, if the aircraft does not climb
• Sudden loss of engine thrust. above 2 200 ft RA, the landing memo appears only
below 800 ft RA during the subsequent approach
9. When does the Landing Memo appear?
• Below 2,000' RA with gear down or 800' RA with gear up.
• Below 2,000 feet RA regardless of gear position (aircraft with new
FWC).
• Memo disappears after touchdown (80 knots).
10. What are the Takeoff Configuration Warnings/Cautions? NOTES
• SLATS/FLAPS NOT IN T.O. RANGE.
• PITCH TRIM NOT IN T.O. RANGE.
• SPEED BRAKES NOT RETRACTED.
• SIDESTICK FAULT.
• DOOR NOT CLOSED.
• PARK BRAKE ON.
• HOT BRAKES.
• FLEX TEMP NOT SET (unless thrust levers in TOGA detent).

11. When does the Takeoff Memo appear?

• 2 minutes after the 2nd engine is started or when the T.O. CONFIG
TEST pb is pressed with one engine.
• Memo is removed when takeoff power is applied.

F/CTL FLAP/MCDU DISAGREE caution is inhibited in

case of CONFIG FLAPS NOT IN T.O CONFIG warning.
 RCDR PANEL NOTES

1. When do the RCDR and CVR normally operate in AUTO? And manually?
a. ON:
• On the ground during the first 5 min after the aircraft electrical network
is energized.
• On the ground with one engine running.
• In flight. On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR
b. OFF: manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton
• Stops 5 minutes after the last engine is shut down provided the CVR jack
is not used. On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR
c. MANUALL: manually by pressing the GND CTL pushbutton
• On the ground, the crew can energize the CVR manually by pressing the
DFDR can store the last 25 hours of data
GND CTL pushbutton. The QAR recorder that stores the same data
as the DFDR. However, the QAR is more
2. What does the CVR record? accessible for the maintenance crew.
ACP's and cockpit area microphone, PA announcements if PA reception is
CVR ERASE pb pressed for 2 s:
selected on the 3rd ACP.
This completely erases the tape,
if:
3. How do you erase the RCDR tape? The aircraft is on the ground, and the parking
• RCDR ON (CVR, DFDR& QAR). brake is on
• Aircraft on the ground.
• Parking Brake ON.
• Press the CVR ERASE pb (2 seconds).

SYSTEM DISPLAY
Automatic, flight phase mode
1. In general, when are the system pages automatically displayed on the SD?
• Relative to the current phase of flight, or
• When a system malfunction is detected.

2. When is a STATUS page displayed?

• After a failure is displayed on the SD and all failure items have been
cleared.
• Display will reappear when the slats are extended.

3. What do the boxed STS indicate when displayed on the SD?

The STS reminder appears on the E/WD if both the following conditions
apply:
• The STATUS page is not empty: The STATUS page displays message
other than “CANCELLED CAUTION” or MAINTENANCE status.
• There is a MAINTENANCE status at engines shutdown.
• The MAINTENANCE status can appear only when the aircraft is on the
ground, before engine start or after engine shutdown.
 NOSE WHEEL STEERING NOTES

1. What hydraulic system supplies nose wheel steering?

YELLOW system.

2. Which unit control Steering?

Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU).

3. The steering hand wheels can steer the nose wheel up to how much in
each direction?
+/- 75°.

4. When does the steering system receives actuating hydraulic pressure?

• A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON
• Towing control lever is in normal position
• At least one engine is running
• Aircraft is on ground

5. When using the rudder pedals for steering, when does the steering
angle begin to reduce?
Starts reduction at 40 knots and progressively reduces to zero degrees
at 130 knots. (Start 6 deg).

6. What does the rudder PEDAL DISC button on the steering hand wheel
do?
Pressing the button removes control of nose wheel steering from the
rudder pedals until released.

7. What would occur if the A/SKID & N/W STRG switch were selected to
OFF?
• Nose wheel steering is lost.
• Anti-skid is deactivated.
• YELLOW hydraulic system would supply the brakes.
 PARKING BRAKE NOTES

1. What effect does set the Parking Brake has on other braking modes?
All other braking modes and anti-skid are deactivated.
Towing and pushback, the nosewheel steering angle
2. When brake accumulator pressure is low, how is it re-charged? is limited to 95 °. Towbar-less towing vehicles
With the YELLOW system electric pump. nosewheel steering angle must be limited to 85 °

3. By what means is the parking brake activated when you turn ON the
Parking Brake switch?
Electrically.

4. Is it required to depress the brake pedals while setting the Parking

Brake?
No.

5. How do you verify the Parking Brake is set?

• ECAM PARKING BRK memo.
• Triple indicator brake pressure.

6. If during an engine start with the parking brake ON, the aircraft starts to
move due to a parking brake failure, what must you quickly do?
Release the PARKING BRAKE handle to restore Normal braking with the
pedals.
 EXIT LTS PANEL NOTES

1. If the RWY TURN OFF, LAND, and NOSE switches are all in the ON position,
which lights automatically extinguish after takeoff?
The NOSE and RWY TURN OFF lights extinguish after landing gear
retraction.

2. Why do we have 2 positions for the NAV & LOGO switch?

We have 2 sets of navigation lights (2 bulbs) on each wing tip and at the tail
cone.
These lights provide lighting for the company logo
3. When does the LOGO light illuminate with the switch is in 2 or 1 position? on the vertical stabilizer provided the main landing
Main landing gear strut compressed or flaps extended at least 15 degrees. gear is compressed, or depending on the aircraft
configuration, when flaps are extended (at least 15
4. What position should the STROBE switch be in during preflight? ° on some aircraft) or slats are extended.
AUTO.

5. When do the strobes flash in AUTO?

The strobe lights come on automatically when the main landing gear is not
compressed.

6. If you notice during the walk around the NAV, LOGO LT blue light flashes
what does it mean?
flashes in blue if the navigation, Logo light replacement should be planned.

SIGNS Panel

1. When will the (FASTEN SEAT BELT & NO SMOKING) signs illuminate with
the respective switches set to auto?
• Slats (17 degrees') OR landing gear is extended.
• If cabin altitude goes above 11300 feet (+/-350) the cabin will illuminate Signs are on in the cabin when either landing gear is
and the SEAT BELT and NO SMOKING signs come on regardless of the extended or flaps/slats are extended (position 1, 2,
switch positions. 3, or FULL

2. When will the Exit markers automatically illuminate?

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and
• Normal AC power is lost or
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost.

3. When will the EXIT signs automatically illuminate?

With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and
• Normal AC power is lost or
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost.
• If the cabin altitude goes above 11 300 ft (± 350 ft).
• When NO SMOKING signs comes ON.

4. When will the overhead emergency lights and proximity emergency escape
path marking come on automatically?
With the EMER EXIT LT switch in ARM, and
• Normal AC power is lost or
• DC SHED ESS BUS power is lost or
• AC BUS 1 failed.
5. What lights illuminate when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to ON? NOTES
• Overhead emergency lighting.
• Floor proximity marking system.
The exit markers of the proximity emergency escape
• EXIT signs. path marking system are powered by internal
batteries for at least 12 min
6. What occurs when the EMER EXIT LT switch is placed to OFF?
• All lights OFF.
• Amber EMER EXIT LT OFF light illuminates. The LIGHT EMER pb on the purser's panel can turn
on the emergency lighting independently of the
positions of this selector switch
7. What is the power source of the overhead emergency light and the EXIT
signs?
DC SHED ESS BUS and if failed emergency internal batteries for 12 minutes.

8. Why do we keep NO SMOKING sign in auto?

To allow permanent charge of the emergency batteries from DC SHED ESS
BUS.

INT LTS PANEL

1. What flight deck lighting is available if normal electrical power is lost?

• Captain's Instrument Panel.
• Right Dome Light (provided DOME switch set in DIM or BRT).
• Standby Compass.
 Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) PANEL NOTES

1. Pressing the SYS pb does what?

Inhibits all basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5), the predictive mode (TERR)
won’t be affected.

2. What does an amber FAULT light in the system pb indicate on the GPWS
panel? Is the terrain mode affected?
This amber light comes on, along with an ECAM caution, if the Terrain
Awareness Display (TAD) or Terrain Clearance Floor (TCF) mode fails. The
terrain is not shown on the ND. The basic GPWS mode 1 to mode 5 are still
operative if the SYS pushbutton OFF or FAULT lights are not illuminated.

3. What does an amber FAULT light in the TERR pb indicate on the GPWS
panel?
Predictive mode fail, terrain is not shown on the ND.

4. What does LDG FLAP 3 ON light indicate?

The cockpit loudspeakers broadcast, even if
Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” inhibited for a Flap 3 landing. turned off, the aural warning or caution
(land MEMO displays FLAP 3 instead of full). messages associated with each mode

5. What does FLAP MODE OFF light indicate? The predictive functions give additional time for
the crew to respond
Mode 4 “Too Low Flaps” is inhibited when landing with less than Flap 3.

6. What are the 5 basic GPWS modes?

Five basic modes active up to radio height of 2500 ft.
• Excessive rate of descent (Mode 1) (“SINK RATE”).
• Excessive terrain closure rate (Mode 2) (“TERRAIN TERRAIN”).
• Altitude loss after takeoff or go-around (Mode 3) (“DON'T SINK”).
• Terrain clearance not sufficient, if not in landing configuration (Mode 4)
(“TOO LOW FLAP TOO LOW GEAR”).
• Excessive descent below the glide slope (Mode 5) (“GLIDE SLOP”).

7. What are the predictive functions of GPWS based on? If during final approach, the IF WET: RWY TOO
The predictive functions are based on a worldwide terrain database, and SHORT message is displayed on the PFD, the flight
on the modeling of the clime performance capability of the aircraft. crew must perform a go-around when the runway
condition is either not dry or contaminated. If the
runway condition is dry, the flight crew can
8. What do they provide more over the normal GPWS 5 basic functions? disregard the message and continue the approach.
• Terrain clearance floor (TCF).
• Terrain awareness display (TAD). If during final approach, the RWY TOO SHORT
message is displayed on the PFD, the flight crew
(20 - 132 Sec for TER AMBR, 8 - 120 Sec for TER RED).
must perform a go-around. In addition to the
Horizontal Envelope +- 90 degree. message displayed on the PFD, the aural alert
"RUNWAY TOO SHORT" triggers below 200 ft AGL
9. What is inhibited if the GPWS predictive functions are operative? to remind the flight crew of the necessity to
GPWS Mode 2 is inhibited. perform a go-around.

10. What is the Runway Overrun Prevention System (ROPS) System?

The ROPS is composed of two functions:
• The Runway Overrun Warning (ROW) function. It automatically arms at
500 ft AGL and works until start of braking,
• The Runway Overrun Protection (ROP) function. It works from start of
braking until the aircraft stops.
 NAVIGATION DISPLAY NOTES

1. What displays or modes are available on the ND?

* Rose ILS. * Rose VOR. * Rose NAV. * ARC. * PLAN.

2. What colors are used to represent the various displayed flight plans?
• Active – continuous green line.
• Secondary – continuous white line.
• Temporary – dashed yellow line.
• Alternate – dashed blue line.
• Missed approach – continuous blue line.

3. Top of Descent and Continue Descent arrows are displayed in blue or

white. What is the difference?
• Top of Descent – Always white (never armed).
• Continue Descent – Blue indicates armed, white indicates NOT armed.

4. What color does each altitude constraint circle represent?

• White – constraint is not taken into account.
• Magenta – constraint is predicted to be satisfied.
• Amber – constraint is predicted to be missed.

5. If modes range data fails what should you expect to see on the ND?
ROSE NAV and 80 nm range.

6. Where is VOR data displayed?

Both ND's and the DDRMI (Digital Distance and Radio Magnetic
Indicator).
 NAVIGATION SYS NOTES
One ADIRS control panel (NAV, ATT, OFF).
The IR is initialized with the FMGS.
1. What does the amber ON BAT light indicate? Two GPS receivers, which are connected to the IR
The aircraft batteries are powering one or more IR’s, also comes ON for part of the ADIRU’s for GP/IR hybrid position
5 seconds at the beginning of a complete IRS alignment. calculation. Four types of sensors:
Pitot probes (3), STAT (6), AOA (3), TAT (2)
These sensors are electrically heated to prevent
2. How do you fast align an IR? from icing up.
Turn the NAV selectors OFF momentarily (not more than 5 sec) and (8) ADM which convert pneumatic data from PITOT
then back on to NAV. and STAT probes into numerical data for the
ADIRUs.
3. What does steady illumination of the amber IR FAULT light indicate? (2) A fast IRS alignment must be performed when
The respective IR is lost. the deviation of the IRS position from the FMGC
position is at or above 5 NM.
4. What does the flashing of the amber IR FAULT light indicate? To perform an alignment, the aircraft must be
stopped on ground. Any aircraft movement will
Attitude and Heading information may be recovered in ATT mode (you
automatically restart the IRS alignment.
have lost the navigation portion). Do not align IRS during engine start, or while the
engines are running
5. What does the amber ADR FAUL light indicate?
A fault is detected in the Air Data Reference system.

6. What Info does the IR supplies?

Heading, Attitude, Angular rate, Flight path vector, Track, Acceleration,
Ground speed, and Aircraft position.

7. What Info does the ADR supplies?

Altitude, Airspeed, Mach, Over speed warning, Angle of attack, and
Temperature.

8. What would be missing on the captain’s PFD if IR 1 failed or was turned

OFF?
Attitude and Navigation information.

9. What action would recover the attitude and navigation information?

Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS switching panel ATT/HDG selector. If IR alignment is lost, the navigation mode is
inoperative (red ATT flag on PFD and red HDG flag
on ND).
10. When do we need to select ATT and what must be done after selecting it?
QRH → Abnormal and Emergency Procedures → NAV → IR Alignment in
ATT Mode.

11. With the loss of ADR 1, what would be lost on the Captains PFD?
Airspeed and Altitude.

12. What would restore the loss of altitude and airspeed information?
Selecting CAPT 3 on the EIS Switching Panel AIR DATA Selector.

13. When ADR 2 is lost during taxi, what do we do?

Follow the ECAM action handling procedure.
14. When we do a complete IRS alignment? NOTES
A complete IRS alignment must be performed in the following cases:
• Before the first flight of the day, or When the aircraft is on ground and if at least one
ADIRU is supplied by aircraft batteries:
• When there is a crew change, or An external horn sounds
• When the GPS is not available and the NAVAIDS coverage is poor on the The ADIRU and AVNCS light comes on amber on the
expected route, or EXTERNAL POWER panel.
• When the GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than
IR/FCU parameters are only transmitted to:
3 h. ATC 1 by IR 1/FCU 1, ATC 2 by IR 2/FCU 2.
ALT RPTG switch
ON: The transponder sends barometric standard
altitude data.
OFF: No altitude data transmission. If the TCAS is
installed, the upper ECAM displays "TCAS STBY" in
green.
 TRANSPONDER NOTES

1. How many transponders are installed?

Two. The associated ADIRS (1 for transponder 1, etc....) supplies the
altitude for altitude reporting.

2. Does illumination of the ATC FAIL light indicate loss of all transponder
capability?
No – only the selected transponder has failed.

3. What is the different between AUTO on Ground and In Flight?

• AUTO:
In flight: Selected TRANSPONDERXPDR operates.
• AUTO:
On ground: Selected XPDR only operates in mode S (Selective
aircraft interrogation mode).

The Traffic alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS)

1. What are the TCAS intruder classification?

❖ Other intruders:
No collision threat non proximate, TA, or RA area closer than 30 NM
vertical.
❖ Proximate:
No collision threat Intruder (closer than 6 NM laterally and ±1 200
ft) ND intruder position.
❖ Traffic Advisory (TA):
Potential collision threat about 40 s ND intruder position Aural
messages.
❖ Resolution Advisory (RA):
Real collision threat about 25 s ND intruder position aural messages
PFD vertical orders Maintain actual V/S (Preventive Advisory) or
Modify V/S (Corrective Advisory).

2. What is the TCAS range?

The TCAS detection capability is limited to intruders flying within a
maximum range of 30 NM on either sides and approximately 30 NM to 80
NM longitudinally (depending on aircraft configuration and external
conditions), and within a maximum altitude range of 9 900 ft above and
below the aircraft.

3. What are the TCAS (THRT, ALL, ABV, and BLW) means?
• THRT :
Proximate and other intruders are displayed only if a TA or a RA
is present at the same time.
• ALL :
The other and proximate intruders are displayed even if no TA
or RA is present at the same time (full time function)
• ABV :
The other intruders are displayed within 9900 ft above the
aircraft and 2700 ft below
• BLW :
The other intruders are displayed within 9900 ft below the
aircraft and 2700 ft above
 RADAR NOTES
The weather radar has a Predictive Windshear
system (PWS) that operates when WXR/PWS sw is
1. What capabilities does the RADAR system have? in position 1 or 2 and the aircraft radio-height is
• Weather avoidance. below 1800ft, and CAPT or F/O display mode is
• Turbulence detection. different from OFF, or CAPT and F/O display modes
• Terrain mapping. are OFF, and at least one engine is running, and
aircraft ground speed is greater than 30 kt, or
• Predictive windshear detection. aircraft longitudinal acceleration is above a given
threshold during at least 0.5 s.
2. What would prevent the weather display on the ND?
• Mode selector in PLAN. The system scans the airspace for windshear within
a range of 5 NM ahead of the aircraft. Below 1 500
• TERR selected ON (Turbulence display is not available ELEVN MAP). ft, when the system detects windshear, a
windshear symbol appears on the ND
3. When is WX/TURB mode available?
The turbulence areas in magenta at ranges of 40 nm or less (A320) (within Predictive windshear warnings and cautions are
associated to an aural alert and to a red (warning)
60 NM for CEO). or amber (caution) "W/S AHEAD" message on the
PFD, whereas windshear advisories are only
4. Does predictive windshear detection work when the RADAR system is displayed on the ND
switched OFF?
Yes, if the Windshear switch is in AUTO.

5. What is the scanned area of the predictive wind-shear detection

feature?
The weather radar has a Predictive WindShear system (PWS) that
operates when WXR/PWS sw is in position 1 or 2 and the aircraft radio-
height is below 1800 ft.

6. When are predictive wind-shear alerts inhibited?

• When on the ground above 100 knots until reaching 50 feet AGL.
• When landing below 50 feet AGL.

7. How many RADAR systems are installed?

Two.
 OXYGEN PANEL NOTES

1. What does the PASSENGER SYS ON light mean?

The signal to release the oxygen mask doors has been sent.

2. When do the masks automatically deploy?

If the cabin pressure altitude exceeds 14000 ft (+ 250, -750 ft), or 16000 ft
(+ 250, -750 ft) for the operation on high altitude airfields.

3. What method is used to supply passenger cabin supplemental oxygen?

Chemical generators supply pure oxygen under positive pressure for about
13 min, 15 min, or up to 22 min, until the generator is exhausted.

4. Above what cabin altitude will the crew oxygen masks provide 100%
oxygen if the position set to the N/100% selector?
The mask provides the flight crew with a mixture of air and oxygen. This
mixture changes with cabin altitude. The higher the cabin altitude, the
more oxygen the mask provides, until the mask supplies 100 % oxygen.
Also, over pressure supply is automatically started at 30,000 cabin altitude.

5. What happens during the preflight when you push to extinguish the CREW
SUPPLY OFF light?
It opens a valve to supply low-pressure oxygen to the masks (normal
position in flight).

6. What would you notice on the DOOR ECAM?

“CKPT OXY” would change from amber to white.
Pulsing green less 600 PSI or Amber less 300 PSI.

7. What indication would you have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal

discharge?
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be
missing.

8. When amber half frame box appears on ECAM DOOR page, what does that
mean?
It is in amber, when the pressure is < 300 PSI.
On ground, an amber half frame appears when oxygen pressure is < 1 000
PSI.
In this case, the flight crew must check that the remaining quantity is not
below the minimum (Refer to LIM-OXY Minimum Flight Crew Oxygen
Pressure).

9. What is the function of EMERGENCY pressure selector?

Use of this selector creates on overpressure which eliminates
condensation or fogging of the mask, and prevents smoke, smell or ashes
from entering the mask.
10. What is the function of TMR RESET pushbutton? NOTES
The maintenance crew uses this pushbutton to reset the control circuit,
after the system has operated.
ON :
The PASSENGER SYS ON light goes off.
FAULT :
This light comes on in white, when the door latch solenoids are energized
for more than 30 s.
 APU PANEL NOTES

1. What does the green AVAIL light on the APU START pb indicate?
The APU is available to provide electrical power and/or bleed air.
This green light comes on when N is above 99.5 % or 2 s after N reaches
95 %.

2. With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on,
which system is powering the aircraft?
APU, If the aircraft was using APU bleed air, the APU keeps running for a
cooling period of 60 to 120 seconds.

3. If the APU is running, is it necessary to manually select APU BLEED OFF

(12) The Electronic Control Box (ECB) is a full-
prior to APU shutdown? authority digital electronic controller that
No. When the APU MASTER SW is selected OFF, the bleed air valve is performs the bulk of the APU system logic for all
closed and the APU is allowed to cool prior to shutdown. modes of engine operation, such as:
Sequences the start and monitors it.
Monitors speed and temperature.
4. During the cool down cycle can you still use the APU? Monitors bleed air.
Yes, press the APU MASTER SW pb. Sequences the shutdown.
Controls the automatic shutdown.)

START pb-sw
5. The APU generator can supply 100% load to what altitude?
ON:
25,000 feet. Blue ON light comes on.
When the flap is completely open, the APU starter
6. The APU can supply bleed air to what altitude? is energized.
20,000 feet. 1.5s after the starter is energized, the ignition is
turned ON.
When N = 55%. The APU starter is de-energized.
7. What does an amber FAULT light in the APU MASTER SW pb indicates? The ignition is turned off.
An APU auto shutdown has occurred. 2s after N reached 95%, or when N is above 99.5 %:
The ON light on the START pb goes out.
The APU may now supply bleed air and electrical
8. What would normally cause an APU shut down?
power to the aircraft systems.
• Fire (on ground only). • Over speed No acceleration. 10s later, the APU page disappears from the ECAM
• Slow start Low oil pressure. • High oil temperature. display.
• Air inlet flap not open. • EGT over temperature.
• No flame. • Loss of overspeed protection.
• Under Speed. • Reverse flow ECB failure.
• DC power loss (BAT OFF when air craft on batteries only).

9. What does an amber FAULT light in the APU BLEED pb mean?

APU bleed leak. The cross-bleed valve is closed if the APU bleed valve is
closed or, in case of a wing, pylon, or APU leak (except during engine start).

10. Does APU air or electric have priority?

Electric.

11. How do you shut down the APU in case of emergence?

• The flight crew can push the APU FIRE handle, or
• The ground crew can push the APU SHUT OFF pushbutton on the
interphone panel under the nose fuselage

12. Which unit control the APU?

The Electronic Control Box (ECB)
13. What happened when the aircraft is on the ground in case of fire in the NOTES
APU compartment?
• APU fire warnings operate in the cockpit.
• A horn in the nose gear bay sounds.
• The AVAIL light goes out.
• The FAULT light in the MASTER SW lights up.
• The APU shuts down.
• The APU fire extinguisher discharges.

14. Which fuel pump supply the APU?

The left fuel feed line supplies the APU.
If pressure is not available (batteries only or pumps off) the APU FUEL
PUMP starts automatically.
 ENGINE PANEL (1) NOTES

ON (in blue):
1. What type of Engine does the A320 has? Initiates the manual start sequence of the
The aircraft has two CFM International CFM56-5B engines associated engine, when the ENG MODE selector is
set to IGN/START, or
2. What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal Initiates the wet crank process of the associated
engine, when the ENG MODE selector is set to
automatic start? CRANK and the ENG MASTER lever is set to ON, or
• Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available during Initiates the dry crank process of the associated
manual start. engine, when the ENG MODE selector is set to
• In manual start the FADEC will only abort the start if on ground and CRANK and the ENG MASTER lever is set to OFF.
EGT limit is exceeded before N2 =50%. The FADEC system is self-powered above 12 % N2.

3. What is the FADEC authority during manual start?

FADEC has a limited authority:
• Opening and closing of the start valve (if ENG MODE is set to
IGN/SART and MAN START switch is pressed).
• HP fuel valve.
• Operating and cutting of both igniters.

4. Will the start valve then automatically close?

Yes, at 50% N2.

5. When a manual ENG start is recommended?

After aborting a start because of:
• Engine stall.
• Engine EGT over limit.
• Low start air pressure.

6. When expecting a start abort, because of?

• Degraded bleed performance, due to hot conditions, or at a high-
altitude airfield.
• An engine with a reduced EGT margin, in hot conditions, or at a high-
altitude airfield.
• Marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group.
• Intermittent ECAM ENG 1(2) IGN A(B) FAULT alert, during the first
start of the day.

ENGINES / THRUST LEVERS (1)

1. What controls the engines in all operating regimes?

FADEC's (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls).

2. What functions does the FADEC control?

• Control of gas generator • Protection against engine exceeding
limits
• Power management • Automatic engine starting sequence
• Manual engine starting • Thrust reverser control
sequence
• Fuel recirculation control • Detection, isolation, and recording of
failures
• FADEC cooling • Transmission of engine parameters and
engine monitoring information to
cockpit indicators
3. What redundancy does the FADEC have? NOTES
Dual channel redundancy – one channel is active while the other is
standby.

4. at is the power source for the FADEC?

• The system has its own alternator making it independent of the
aircraft electrical system when N2 is above a set value.
• If this alternator fails the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft
electrical power.

5. When will the FADEC abort a start?

* Hot start. * Hung start.
* Engine Stall. * No light up.

6. If the FADEC detects a fault during automatic start, is any crew

intervention required?
No. The FADEC will discontinue the start, clear the engine, and attempt
a restart (if warranted) automatically.

7. When does the FADEC command a higher engine idle speed?

• Bleed demands.
The ignition comes on automatically when N2
• Approach Configuration. reaches 16 % and cuts off automatically when N2
• High engine or IDG temperatures. reaches 50 %.

8. How many igniters fire during a Normal automatic ground start

sequence?
• One igniter with the other serving as a backup.
• The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A and B) at each start.

9. How many igniters fire on manual or In-flight starts?

Both A and B.

10. When does continuous ignition automatically operate?

• Ignition delay during start.
• Engine flameout detection. Setting the thrust lever out of FLX/MCT detent
without reaching TOGA or CL detent has no effect.
• Failure of the EIU (Engine Interface Unit).

11. What are the 5 detent positions of the thrust levers?

* TOGA. * FLX MCT.
* CL. * IDLE. * MAX REV.

12. On the ground, how do we arm the A/THR?

• By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX
temperature inserted in the MCDU).
• At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff.

13. What is the active range of the A/THR?

• Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines).
• Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine).

14. What is the normal operational position of the thrust levers when
A/THR is active?
The CL detent.
15. What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to NOTES
command?
The position detent of the thrust lever. Standard disconnection: By pushes the instinctive
disconnect pb on the thrust levers, or Sets both
thrust levers to IDLE detent. Non-standard
16. What are the 3 ways to disconnect the A/THR? disconnection: By pushes the A/THR pb on the FCU
• A/THR pb. while A/THR is active/armed, or Loses one of the
• Instinctive Disconnect buttons. arming conditions.

• Thrust Levers to IDLE.

17. What is the preferred method of disconnecting A/THR?

Set the thrust levers to match the TLA to the existing N1 and disconnect
using the instinctive disconnect pb.

18. How do you disconnect the A/THR for the remainder of the flight?
Press and hold the Instinctive Disconnect button for 15 seconds.

19. Will you be able to restore A/THR?

No.

20. What else will you lose?

Alpha Floor Protection.

21. What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA when you
ALPHA FLOOR calls up the following indications:
reach Alpha Floor? “A FLOOR” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber
• Thrust – TOGA. box on the FMA, and in amber on the engine
• FMA – A.FLOOR. warning display, (as long as α-floor conditions are
met)
“TOGA LK” in green, surrounded by a flashing amber
22. What occurs during Alpha Floor protection after speed increases above box on the FMA, when the aircraft leaves the α-floor
VLS? conditions. TOGA thrust is frozen.
FMA changes to TOGA LK.

23. How do you then regain normal A/THR?

1. Move Thrust Levers to the TOGA detent.
2. Press the Instinctive Disconnect button. ALPHA FLOOR is a protection that commands TOGA
3. Return Thrust Levers to CL detent. thrust, regardless of the thrust levers’ positions. This
protection is available from lift-off to 100 ft RA on
4. Push the A/THR pb to engage A/THR. approach

24. When is Alpha Floor Protection active? Thrust is locked at its level prior to disconnection.
From lift-off through 100 feet RA on approach. Moving the thrust levers out of CL or MCT
suppresses the thrust lock and gives the flight crew
manual control with the thrust levers
25. When would Thrust Lock occur?
• Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pb on the FCU is pushed, or
• A/THR disconnects due to a failure.

26. Explain the Normal start sequence?

• ENG MODE to IGN/START, FADEC is powered, ECAM displays ENG
page (start valve +bleed pressure), pack valve close.
• ENG MASTER to ON, LP fuel valve opens, start valve opens, fuel used
rest, N2 increases, oil pressure increases.
• N2 > 16% Ignition (A or B) ON.
• N2 > 22% HP fuel valve opens.
• 15 seconds (MAX), EGT increase, N1 increase.
• N2 > 50% start valve closes, igniter off.
• Approximately 58% gray N2 background disappears.
• Pack valve reopens with 30 sec delay (remains closed, if the other
engine is started).
27. Explain the Manual start sequence? NOTES
• ENG MODE to IGN/START, FADEC is powered, ECAM displays ENG
The position of the HP fuel shutoff valve is
page, pack valve closes.
abnormal, or
• ENG MAN START pb ON, start valve opens. The automatic start sequence of the associated
• At maximum N2 motoring speed (min 20%), ENG MASTER ON. engine aborts, or
• Observe both A+B Ignition, LP and HP fuel valves open, fuel flow There is a malfunction of the thrust control
increase, EGT and N1 increase in 15 seconds.
• N2 > 50% start valve closes, igniters off.
• ENG MAN START pb – OFF • Pack valve reopens with 30 sec delay
(remains closed, if the other engine is started).

28. What controls the engine LP fuel valves?

• Engine MASTER switch.
• ENGINE FIRE pb.

29. What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?

• The position of the HP fuel shutoff valve is abnormal, or
• The automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
• There is a malfunction of the thrust control.

30. How many idle modes for the FEDAC and what are they?
three idle modes:
• Modulated idle
• Approach idle
• Reverse idle

31. How can the pilot change the thrust rating from FLX to MCT?
The pilot can change from FLX to MCT by moving the thrust lever to
TOGA or CL, then back to MCT. After that, he cannot use the FLX rating.
 MAINTENANCE PANEL NOTES
APU RESET pb:
Resets, the test circuit.
1. Do the pilots use the Maintenance panel?
No. ENG FADEC GND PWR PB-SW
Off:
The electrical network of the aircraft or the FADEC
2. If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pb what would alternator automatically supplies the FADEC.
occur? ON:
The APU will shut down. On ground, when pressed the electrical network of
APU TEST pb-switch tests the following APU circuits: the aircraft supplies the FADEC when:
The ENG FIRE pb-sw is not pressed,
Fire warning, auto extinguishing, and shutdown.
The FADEC alternator does not supply the FADEC.
During the test sequence, the APU MASTER switch must be ON.
If all circuits are operating correctly, the OK light comes on.

EIS SWITCHING PANEL (Electronic Instruments System)

1. What computers feed data to the six display units?

3 Display Management Computers (DMC).

2. What does each of the DMC's normally supply?

• DMC 1 – Captain PFD, ND, upper ECAM DU.
• DMC 2 – F/O PFD, ND.
• DMC 3 – Backup.

3. How can you tell if a DMC has failed?

A diagonal line will be displayed in the respective EFIS/ECAM display
unit.

4. What happens when the upper ECAM display fails?

The E/WD automatically replaces the SD on the lower ECAM display.

5. If both the E/WD and SD display units fail, how can you display E/WD
information? The crew manually selects the DMC 3 source (“CAPT
Select the ECAM/ND switch to CAPT or F/O to transfer the SD to either 3” or “F/O 3”). If DMC 1 fails (or DMC 3, if “CAPT 3”
ND. was selected), DMC 2 automatically drives the
ECAM.

DMC 1 drives the CAPT PFD, CAPT ND, and ECAM

DUs

If DMC 1 or 2 fails (the “INVALID DATA” message is

displayed on the DUs)
 FORWARD INSTRUMENT PANEL NOTES

1. With a total loss of electrical power, does the ISIS losses its power?
No, it will be powered by internal battery for 5 minutes.

2. What is the function of the 2 Landing Gear Control and Interface Units
(LGCIU)?
• Provide sequencing, operation, monitoring, and indications for the
landing gear.
• Provide aircraft “In Flight” or “On the Ground” signals to other aircraft
systems.

3. What hydraulic system powers the landing gear and doors?

GREEN.

4. What 3 things occur when you turn the Manual Gear Extension Handle? When a crew member turns the crank:
• Isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the GREEN hydraulic system Isolates the landing gear hydraulics from the green
• Unlocks the landing gear doors and the main and nose main gear hydraulic system unlocks the landing gear doors and
• Allows gravity to drop the gear into the extended position. the main and nose main gear allows gravity to drop
the gear into the extended position.

5. How many cranks does it take to lower the gear manually? To put the landing gear down by gravity, the flight
1 crank (but 3 clock-wise turns). crew must pull the gear crank out, then turn it
clockwise for 3 turns.
6. In what occasions is GREEN hydraulic power not available to the landing
gear?
• After Emergency Landing Gear Gravity Extension. There are four modes of operation:
• Speed is above 260 kts (safety valve automatically shuts it off). • Normal braking
• Alternate braking with antiskid
7. When does the red arrow in the LND panel illuminate? • Alternate braking without antiskid
• Parking brake.
When the aircraft is in the landing configuration
and the landing gear is not locked down. SKID & N/W STRG switch
ON:
8. What controls the LDG GEAR lights? If green hydraulic pressure is available, then antiskid
is available.
Landing Gear Control Interface Unit (LGCIU 1).
If green hydraulic pressure is lost, then:
Yellow hydraulic pressure automatically takes over
9. What do the red UNLK lights indicate? to supply the brakes
The landing gear is not locked in Antiskid and nosewheel steering remain available
the selected position. Triple indicator shows yellow system brake
pressure.

10. If LGCIU 1 fails will the lights still work? OFF:

Yes, as long as it is still powered. The yellow hydraulic system supplies pressure to
the brakes.
Antiskid is deactivated. The pilot must refer to the
11. What controls and manages all braking functions?
triple indicator to limit brake pressure and avoid
The Brake and Steering Control Unit (BSCU). locking a wheel
Nosewheel steering is lost
12. What happens when you switch the A/SKID & N/W STRG to OFF? Differential braking remains available through the
• Lose Nosewheel steering. pedals
Triple indicator displays yellow system brake
• Braking is powered by the Yellow system. pressure.
• Anti-skid is deactivated.
The antiskid system is either deactivated:
13. Which hydraulic systems provide pressure to the brakes? Electrically (A/SKID & N/W STRG switch OFF, or
power supply failure, or BSCU failure), or
• Normal brakes – GREEN. Hydraulically (Y + G system low pressure, the
• Alternate brakes – YELLOW backed up by a hydraulic accumulator. brakes are supplied by the brake accumulator
only).
14. When do the Autobrakes activate on landing if armed?
When the ground spoilers deploy.
15. How many modes are there for Braking system? NOTES
There are four modes of operation:
• Normal braking
• Alternate braking with antiskid
• Alternate braking without antiskid
• Parking brake
comes on green when the actual deceleration is 80
16. What is the difference between LOW and MED AUTO BRK? % of the selected rate
• LOW – progressive pressure applied to brakes 4 seconds after ground
spoilers deploy to decelerate at 1.7 MPS. (16) On slippery runways, the predetermined
deceleration may not be reached, due to antiskid
• MED - progressive pressure applied to brakes 2 seconds after ground operation. In this case, the DECEL light will not come
spoilers deploy to decelerate at 3 MPS. on. This does not mean that autobrake is not
working.
17. What does the AUTO BRK green DECEL light indicate?
Actual rate of deceleration is within 80% of the selected rate.

18. If you don't see DESEL after landing, will you call DESEL?
Yes, if deceleration is felt by the crew and confirmed by speed trend on
the PFD.

19. What is the Takeoff setting for Auto Brakes?

MAX.

20. What will cause the MAX AUTO BRK to activate on an RTO?
• Airspeed above 72 knots, and
• Thrust Levers at IDLE, and
Braking uses this mode when green hydraulic
• Ground spoiler extension.
pressure is insufficient, and:
Yellow hydraulic pressure is available
21. If you lose GREEN hydraulic pressure will you have Auto Brakes? A/SKID & N/W STRG switch is ON
No, not with the Alternate Brake system. Parking brake is not ON.

22. Is Anti-skid available with Alternate Brakes?

Yes, if certain conditions are met.
Green arc appears on the hottest wheel when one
brake temperature exceeds 100 °C.
23. With spoilers not armed will the spoilers deploy for an RTO? Green arc becomes amber, and an ECAM caution
Yes – when at least one engine is in reverse AND the other engine is in appears, when the corresponding brake
idle. temperature exceeds 300

Brake temperature is above 150 °C, takeoff must be

24. How many brake applications are available with accumulator pressure?
delayed
Approximately 7 full applications.

25. What is the maximum brake temperature for takeoff?

300° C. (150 C use brake fan ON “FCOM-SOP”)

26. When should the brake fans be selected to ON?

If an ARC is displayed on the ECAM WHEEL SD page above the brake
temperature, set the brake fan ON.

27. What does the BRAKES & ACCU PRESS triple indicator indicate?
Yellow hydraulic pressure delivered to the left and right brakes
Yellow system brake accumulator pressure.

28. How do you perform the brake check during initial taxi?
Press the brake pedals to ensure the aircraft slows, and check the brake
pressure on the triple indicator is zero, indicating the GREEN hydraulic
system has taken over.
29. For how long can the accumulator maintain the parking pressure? NOTES
The accumulator maintains the parking pressure for at least 12 h.

30. When you can arm the Auto-Brake?

by pressing the LO, MED, or MAX pushbutton provided all the following
arming conditions are met:
• GREEN pressure available.
• Anti-skid electrically-powered.
• No failure in the braking system. Auto brake may be armed with the parking brake on.
• At least one ADIRU is available. MAX autobrake mode cannot be armed in flight.

31. At what speed the anti-skid system deactivate automatically?

The antiskid system is deactivated below 20 kt (ground speed).
 EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT’S NOTES

1. What is the emergency equipment’s in the cockpit?

• 4 Flash lights.
• 4 Life jackets.
• 1 Axe.
• 1 Portable fire extinguisher.
• 2 Portable breathing equipment (PBE).
• 4 Oxygen masks.
• 2 Escape ropes.
• 1 Protective gloves.

2. Will the slides deploy if the over wing emergency doors were opened?
Yes, the slides are always armed.
 END

END OF A320 STUDY GUIDE.

WE WISH YOU ALL THE BEST.

CAPT ESSAM ALBARADIE

[email protected]

CAPT HANI SERDAR

[email protected]

FOR ANY INQUIRY| [email protected], this guide is only for training purpose, always refer to the official documents. ©