CHAPTER ONE: MEASUREMENT AND UNIT 8.

8. An object moves 4m eastwards (E) and then 3m the collision, the two balls coalesce and move in the
1. In order to remove the error of parallax when southwards (S). Its displacement from its original same direction. Calculate the velocity of the
taking measurements with a meter rule, the eye position is? (a) 1m SE (b) 5m SE (c) 7m SE (d) 12m composite body (a) 5.00m𝑠 −1 (b) 6.25m𝒔−𝟏 (c)
should be focused (a) slantingly towards the left on SE 8.75m𝑠 −1 (d) 12.00m𝑠 −1 (e) 30.00m𝑠 −1.
the markings (b) slantingly towards the right on the 9. A man walks 1km due east and then 1km due 6. A body of mass 4.2kg moving with velocity
markings (c) vertically downwards on the markings north his displacement is (a) 1km N15°𝐸 (b) 1km 10m𝑠 −1 due east, hits a stationary body of mass
(d) vertically upwards on the markings N30°𝐸 (c) 2km N𝟒𝟓°𝑬 (d) 2km N 60°E (e) 2km 2.8kg. If they stick together after collision and move
2. Which of the following represents the correct N75°E with velocity v due east, calculate the value of v. (a)
precision if the length of a piece of wire is measured 10. A man walks 8km north and then 5km in a 3m𝑠 −1 (b) 6m𝒔−𝟏 (c) 7m𝑠 −1 (d) 15m𝑠 −1 (e)17m𝑠 −1
with a meter rule? (a) 35mm (b) 35.0mm (C) direction 60° east of north. Find the distance from 7. A gun of mass 2.0kg fires a bullet of mass
35.00mm (d) 35.01mm his starting point. (a) 11.36km (b) 12.36km (c) 1.6× 10−2 due east. If the bullet leaves the nozzle of
3. Which of the following readings cannot be 13.00km (d) 14.36km the gun with a velocity of 150m𝑠 −1,what is the recoil
determined with a meter rule? (a) 2.56cm (b) CHAPTER THREE: MOTION velocity of the gun? (a) 150m𝑠 −1 due west (b) 1.2
2.55cm (c) 2.50cm (d) 2.05cm (e) 2.00cm 1. During the same interval, it is observed that a train × 10−4 𝑚𝑠 −1 due west (c) 1.2m𝒔−𝟏 due west
4. Which of the following instruments has a reading travels the same distance as does a lorry. The two (d)1.2m𝑠 −1due east (e) 150m𝑠 −1 due east.
accuracy of 0.5mm? (a) vernier caliper (b) vehicles therefore have the same (a) uniform 8. A machine gun with a mass of 5kg fires a 50g bullet
micrometer screw gauge (c) meter rule (d) acceleration (b) instantaneous velocity (c) initial at a speed of 100m𝑠 −1. The recoil speed of the
protractor (e) spring balance velocity (d) average velocity (e) average speed machine gun is (a) 0.5m𝑠 −1 (b) 1.5m𝑠 −1 (c) 1m𝒔−𝟏
5. Which of the following can be used to measure 2. A moving object has a uniform acceleration. Its (a) (d)2m𝑠 −1 (e) 4m𝑠 −1
accurately to three decimal places in centimeters? displacement increases at a constant rate (b) speed 9. The recoil velocity of a gun is less than that of the
(a) meter rule (b) ruler (c) vernier caliper (d) is directly proportional to time (c) velocity varies bullet fired from it because of the difference in (a)
micrometer screw gauge (e) none of the above inversely with time (d) velocity increases by equal force (b) mass (c) time (d) momentum
I. Diameter of a small ball bearing amounts in equal time intervals. CHAPTER FIVE: CIRCULAR MOTION
II. Thickness of a piece of paper 3. when a ball rolls on a smoot level ground, the 1. An object moving in a circle has an acceleration
III. Diameter of a measuring cylinder motion of it’s center is (a) translation (b) towards its center. This is proved by (a) a change of
IV. Length of a piece of wire oscillatory (c) random (d) rotational momentum (b) a centripetal force (c) a centrifugal
6. Which of the above can be measured using a 4. If a body moves with a constant speed and at the force (d) newton’s force of gravitation (e) an
micrometer screw gauge? (a) I, II and IV only (b) I same time undergos an acceleration, it’s motion is acceleration due to gravity
and II only (c) II and III only (d) III and IV only said to be (a) circular (b) oscillatory (c) rectilinear 2. A gramophone record takes 5s to reach its
7. The unit of moment of a couple is measured in (a) (d) rotational constant angular velocity of 4𝜋 rad𝑠 −1 from rest.
Nm (b) Nm−1 (c) Nm2 (d) Nm−2 5. The motion of a moving skin of a talking drum can Find its constant angular acceleration. (a) 20.0𝜋
8. This of the following is equivalent to kgms rightly be described as (a) translational (b)random rad𝑠 −2 (b) 1.3𝜋 rad𝑠 −2 (c) 0.8𝝅 rad𝒔−𝟏 (d) 0.4𝜋
(a) Ns −1 (b) Nms (𝐜) 𝐍𝐬 (d) Js −1 (c) rotational (d) oscillatory (e) transitory rad𝑠 −1
9. Which of the following quantities has the same 6. A car moving with a soeed of 90km/hr was 3. Which of the following statement is/are correct
unit as the Watt? (a) force × time (b) force × brought uniformly to rest by the application of the about a car moving moving aroind a circular track at
distance (c) force × acceleration (d) force ×velocity breakes in 10s. How far did the car travel after the a uniform speed.
10. The physical quantity that has the same breaks were applied? (a) 125m (b) 150m (c) 250m I) Its velocity is uniform (II) it undergoes an
dimensions as impulse is? (a) energy (b) momentum (d)15km acceleration (III) the friction between its tyres and
(c) surface tension (d) pressure 7. Two particle X and Y starting from rest cover the the ground provides the necessary centripetal force.
11. The dimensions of surface tensions are (a) same distance. The acceleration of X is twice that of (a) I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) II & III only (e)
MT 2 L−1 (b) M−1 T 2 L−1 (c) 𝐌𝐓 −𝟐 (d) M 2 T −2 Y, the ratio of the time taken by X to that taken by Y I,II,&III
1
12. Which of the following is the dimension of is. (a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 1/√𝟐 (d) √2 (e) 4 4. A particle moves in a circular orbit of radius
pressure? (a) 𝐌𝐋−𝟏𝐓 −𝟐 (b) MLT 2 (c) ML2 T −3 (d) 8. The driver in a motor car of which the total mass 0.02m. if the speed of the particle is 0.88m𝑠 −1,
ML−3 is 800kg and which is travelling at 20m/s, suddenly calculate its frequency in cycles per second. (a) 2.0
13. At what respective values of x, y and z would the observes a stationary dog in his path 50m ahead. If (b) 8.8 (c) 7.0 (d) 17.0 (e) 17.6.
unit of force, the newton, be dimensionally the car brakes exert a force of 2000N, what will most 5. The force required to make an object of mass, m,
equivalent to 𝑀 𝑥 𝐿𝑦 𝑇 𝑧 ? (a) -1, 1, 2 (b) 1, 1, -2 (c) 1, - likely happen? (a) the car will be able to stop travelling with velocity, v, turn in a circle of radius r
1, 2 (d) -1, 1, 2 𝐦𝐯 𝟐 mr2 mr mv mv
immediately the driver notices the dog (b) the car is (a) 𝐫 (b) v (c) v (d) r2 (e) r .
14. What is the percentage reading error in will stop 30m after hitting the dog (c) the car will
measuring a distance of 5.00cm using a meter rule 6. A car of mass 1500kg goes round a circular curve
stop 20m in front of the dog (d) the driver will of radius 50m at a speed of 40m𝑠 −1. The magnitude
marked in mm? (a) 10.0% (b) 5.0% (c) 1.0% (d) quickly reverse the car (e) the car will stop 5m
0.5% of the centripetal force on the car is (a) 1.2 × 102 𝑁
beyond the dog. (b) 1.2 × 103 𝑁 (c) 4.8 × 103 𝑁 (d) 𝟒. 𝟖 × 𝟏𝟎𝟒 𝑵.
15. The external and internal diameters of a tube are 9. If a car starts from rest and moves with a uniform
measured as (32±2)mm and (21±1) mm 7. A stone tied to a string is made to revolve in a
acceleration of 10m/𝑠 2 for ten seconds. The distance horizontal circle of radius 4m with an angular speed
respectively. Determine the percentage error in the it covers in the last one second of it’s motion is (a)
thickness of the tube. (a) 27% (b) 14% (c) 9% (d) of 2rad/s. With that tangential velocity will the stone
95m (b) 100m (c) 500m (d) 905m (e) 1000m move off the circle if the string cuts? (a) 16.0m𝑠 −1
3% 10. A body starts from rest and moves with uniform
CHAPTRER TWO: VECTORS AND SCALAR (b) 8.0m𝒔−𝟏 (c) 6.0m𝑠 −1 (d) 2.0m𝑠 −1 (e) 0.5m𝑠 −1
acceleration of 6m/𝑠 2. What distance does it cover in 8. An object of mass 6kg is whirled round a
1. An example of scalar quantity is (a) velocity (b) the third second? (a) 15m (b) 18m (c) 27m (d) 30m.
weight (c) electric charge (d) acceleration due to horizontal circle of radius 3m by a revolving string
CHAPTER FOUR NEWTONS LAW inclined to the vertical. Calculate the tension in the
gravity (e) momentum 1. A body of mass 100g moving with a velocity of
2. Which of the following is a set of vectors? (a) force, string if the uniform speed of the object is 9m𝑠 −1 (g
10.0m/s collides with a wall. If after the collision, it = 10m𝑠 −2). (a) 27N (b) 54N (c) 162N (d) 173N.
mass and moment (b) acceleration, velocity and moves with a velocity of 2.0m/s in the opposite
moment (c) mass, weight and density (d) mass, CHAPTER SIX: SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION
direction, calculate the change in momentum. (a) 1. The motion of a body is simpleharmonnic if the (a)
volume and density 8.0Ns (b) 1.2Ns (c) 12.0Ns (d) 80.0Ns
3. Which of the following physical quantities is not a acceleration is always directed towards a fixed point
2. When taking a penalty kick, a footbaler applies a (b) path of motion is a straight line (c) acceleration
vector? (a) velocity (b) work (c) force (d) electric force of 30.0N for a period of 0.05s. if the mass of the
field intensity (e) magnetic induction is directed towards a fixed point and proportional to
ball is 0.075kg, calculate the speed with which the its distance from the point (d) acceleration is
4. Which of the following quantities are scalar? ball move off. (a) 4.50𝑚𝑠 −1 (b) 11.25𝑚𝑠 −1 (c)
I. Electric potential II. Torque constant and directed towards a fixed point.
20.00𝒎𝒔−𝟏 (d) 45.0𝑚𝑠 −1 2. A body moves in SHM between two points 20m on
III. Momentum IV. Kinetic energy 3. A jet engine develop a trust of 270Ns when the
(a) II and III (b) I and II (c) III and IV (d) I and IV only the straight line joining the points. If the angular
velocity of the exhaust gases relative to the engine is speed of the body is 5rad𝑠 −1, calculate its speed
5. Which of the following is not a vector quantity? (a) 300𝑚𝑠 −1. What is the mass of the material ejected
force (b) altitude (c) weight (d) displacement (e) when it is 6m from the center of the motion. (a)
per second? (a) 81.00kg (b) 9.00kg (c) 0.90kg (d) 20m𝑠 −1 (b) 30m𝑠 −1 (c) 40m𝒔−𝟏 (d) 50m𝑠 −1.
acceleration 0.09kg
6. A lorry travels 10km northwards, 4km eastwards, 3. A particle executing a simple harmonic motion has
4. A ball of mass 200g travelling with a velocity of a frequency of 50Hz and an amplitude of 8.0×
6km southwards and 4km westwards to arrive at a 100m𝑠 −1 collides with another ball of mass 800g
point T. what is the total displacement? (a) 6m south 10−3 𝑚. Calculate the maximum velocity of its
moving at 50m𝑠 −1 in the same direction. If they stick motion. (a) 2.51m𝒔−𝟏 (b) 2.20m𝑠 −1 (c) 2.00m𝑠 −1
(b) 4km north (c) 6km north (d) 4km east together, what will be their common velocity? (a)
7. A boy travels 12km eastwards to a point B and (d) 1.50m𝑠 −1.
20m𝑠 −1 (b) 50m𝑠 −1 (c) 60m𝒔−𝟏 (d) 75m𝑠 −1 (e) 4. A vibrating diving board has a frequency of 20Hz.
then 5km southwards to another point C. calculate 150m𝑠 −1 What is the angular velocity of the board? (a)
the difference between the magnitude of the 5. A ball of mass 6.00kg moving with a velocity of 2𝜋𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑠 −1 (b) 20𝜋𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑠 −1 (c) 30𝜋𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑠 −1 (d)
displacement of the boy and the distance travelled 10.0m𝑠 −1 collides with a 2.00kg ball moving in the 40𝒓𝒂𝒅𝒔−𝟏 (e) 53𝜋𝑟𝑎𝑑𝑠 −1.
by him. (a) 4.0km (b) 7.0km (c) 13.0km (d) 17.0km opposite direction with a velocity of 5.0m𝑠 −1. After
(e) 30.0km
1
5. The bob of a simple pendulum of mass 0.025kg is 11. A satelite is in a parking orbit, if its period is (a) the ground. (a) 250J (b) 1000J (c) 10000J (d)
displaced 0.1m from its equilibrium position. If the more than the period of the earth (b) equal to the 100000J (g = 10ms-2)
angular frequency is 4rad𝑠 −1 and assuming SHM, period of the earth (c) the square of the priod of the 8. A force of 6N acts horizontally on a stationary
calculate the energy of the system. (a) 5× 10−4J (b) earth (d) less than the period of the earth mass of 2kg for 4s. the kinetic energy gained by the
2× 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 J (c) 5× 10−3J (d) 7.9× 10−3J. CHAPTER NINE: EQUILIBRIUM OF FORCES mass is (a) 12J (b) 24J (c) 48J (d) 72J (e) 144J
6. Which of the following processes will increase the 1. The term torque means 9. Which of the following correctly describes the
rate of oscillation of a pendulum? (a) increasing the A. The moment of a couple about an axis energy changes in the generation of light by hydro-
length of the pendulum (b) decreasing the length of B. The resultant of several forces acting on a body electric power station?
the pendulum (c) increasing the mass of the in equilibrium A. Electrical – mechanical – potential –light
pendulum (d) decreasing the mass of the pendulum C. Two equal and opposite forces whose lines of B. Potential – mechanical –electrical – light
(e) decreasing the amplitude of oscillation of the action do not coincide. C. Mechanical – sound – electrical – light
pendulum. D. Two coplanar forces at right angles to each D. Kinetic – mechanical – electrical – light
7. Which of the following affects the period of a other. 10. How long will it take a 60kg man to climb a
simple pendulum? I. Mass of the pendulum bob II. E. The equilibrant of two concurrent forces. height of 22m if he expended energy at the rate of
Length of the pendulum III. Acceleration due to 2. An object is acted upon by a system of parallel 0.25KW? (a) 5.3s (b) 34.5s (c) 41.6s (d) 52.8s
gravity (a) I,II and III (b) II and III only (c) I and III forces causing the object to be in static equilibrium. 11. On top of a spring of force constant 500Nm -1 is
only (d) I and II only. Which of the following statements is not correct? placed a mass of 5 x 10 -3kg. If the spring is
8. A student found out from a simple pendulum A. The resultant of the parallel forces is zero compressed downwards by a length of 0.02m and
experiment that 20 oscillations were completed in B. The algebraic sum of all the moments of the then released, calculating the height to which the
39 seconds. What is the period of oscillation of the forces is zero. mass is projected. (g = 10ms -2) (a) 1m (b) 8m (c) 4m
pendulum? (a) 8.0s (b) 3.8s (c) 2.0s (d) 1.9s (e) 0.5s. C. All the parallel forces must be equal in (d) 2m
CHAPTER SEVEN: PROJECTILE magnitude and direction. 12. If a pump is capable of lifting 5000kg of water
1. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a D. The sum of the forces in one direction must be through a vertical height of 60m in 15min, the power
hill with a velocity of 20𝑚𝑠 −1. if it reaches the equal to the sum of forces in the opposite of the pump is (a) 2.5x104Js-1 (b) 3.3x103Js-1
ground 4s later, what is the height of the hill? (g = direction. (c)2.5x105Js-1 (g = 10ms-2)
10𝑚𝑠 −2). (a) 20m (b) 40m (c) 80m (d) 160m (e) 3. A technician applied a force of 250N at the end of CHAPTER ELEVEN: FRICTION
200m a spanner of length 0.25m in order to loosen a nut. 1. Which of the following statements are true of
2. An object is projected with a velocity of 100𝑚𝑠 −1 Determine the moment applied to the nut. (a) friction?
at an angle of 60° to the vertical. Calaulate the time 1000.0Nm (b) 625.0Nm (c) 62.5Nm (d) 10.0N I. Frictional force opposes motion
taken by the object to reach the higest point (g = 4. A weight of 1000g hangs from a lever 20cm to the II. Rolling friction between two surfaces is greater
10𝑚𝑠 −2). (a) 5.0s (b) 8.7s (c) 10.0s (d) 17.3s (e) right of the fulcrum. At the left is a 500g weight 20cm than sliding friction between the same two surfaces.
20.0s from the fulcrum. If a 200g weight is Xcm away from III. Co-efficient of friction is proportional to the
3. A projetile is lunched from the ground levels with the fulcrum, what is the value of X that will make the limiting frictional force.
a velocity of 10𝑚𝑠 −1 at an angle of 15° to the lever balance? (a) 50cm (b) 20cm (c) 10cm (d) IV. It will be impossible to stop a moving car if there
horizontal. Calculate tha range. (a) 17.32m (b) 30cm (e) 70cm were no friction between the road and the tyres.
8.66m (c) 5.00m (d) 2.50m 5. Two masses 40g and 60g respectively, are (a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, III and IV only (c) I and IV
4. An object is projected from a height of 80m above attached firmly to the ends of a light meter rule. The only (d) I, II and IV only (e) II, III and IV only
the ground with a velocity of 40𝑚𝑠 −1 at an angle of centre of gravity of the system is (a) at the mid-point 2.The coefficient of friction between two perfectly
30° to the horizontal. The thime of flight is (a) 16s of the meter rule (b) 40cm from the lighter mass (c) smooth surface is (a) one (b) half (c) zero (d)
(b) 10s (c) 8s (d) 4s 40cm from the heavier mass (d) 60cm from the infinity
CHAPTER EIGHT: GRAVITATIONAL FIELD heavier mass (e) indeterminate because the meter 9.Which of the following could be effectively used to
1. Gives that the gravitational constant is 7× rule is light. reduce friction? (a) water (b) petrol (c) kerosene
10−11 𝑁𝑚 2 𝑘𝑔 −2 , what is the force of attraction 6. A cone is in unstable equilibrium has its potential (d) grease
between 106 𝑘𝑔 mass of copper hanging one meter energy (a) decreased (b) increased (c) unchanged 3. What is the coefficient of static friction between a
away from a 103 𝑘𝑔 mass of iron? (a) 7 × 10−20N (b) (d) oscillating load of mass 0.75kg and a horizontal surface, if the
7 × 10−8N (c) 7 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟐 N (d) 7 × 103N (e) 7 × 108N CHAPTER TEN: WORK ENERGY AND POWER limiting frictional force is 5N? (g = 10ms-2) (a)
2. A skylab is moving in a circular orbit or radius 𝑅° 1. Which of the following statements correctly 0.066 (b) 0.15 (c) 0.66 (c) 1.50 (e) 3.75
round the center of the earth of radius R. defines quantitatively, the workdone by a force? The 4. A block of mass 50kg slides down a plane
3. An astronaut experiences weightlessness in space product of the force and the distance moved. (a) inclined at an angle of 30o to the horizontal. If the
when he (a) does not hold anything while in space parallel to the lien of action of the force from a coefficient of friction is 0.4, calculate the frictional
(b) is midway between the sun and the earth (c) is reference point (b) perpendicular to the line of force between the two surfaces (g = 10m/s 2) (a)
free from the earth’s gravitational field (d) is action of the force from a reference point (c) on a 200.00N (b) 173.21N (c) 100.00N (d) 62.50N
walking on the moon line through the reference point (d) by the object 5. A spherical metal ball falling through a viscous
4. Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3 : 1. They 2. One newton x 0] one-meter equals? (a) one watt liquid is acted upon by the
experience forces which impact to them (b) one joule (c) one ampere (d) one kilogram (e) I. Weight of the ball
accelerations in the ratio 2 : 9 respectively. Find the one meter II. Viscous force of the liquid of the ball
ratio of the forces the masses experience. (a) 1 : 4 (b) 3. A stone of mass m kg is held h meters above the III. Upthrust of the liquid on the ball
2 : 1 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 5. floor for 50s. the work done in joules over this period (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c) II and III only
5. An astronaut has a mass of 100kg on the earth’s is (a) mh (b) mgh (c) mgh/50 (d) 0 (d) I, II and III
surface where the acceleration due to gravity is 4. A constant force of 40N acting on a body initially CHAPTER TWELVE: SIMPLE MACHINE
10m/𝑠 2. What would be his mass on the surface of at rest gives it an acceleration of 0.1ms -2 for 4s. 1. In practice, a machine can never be 100% efficient.
another planet where acceleration due to gravity is Calculate the workdone by the force (a) 8J (b) 10J (c) This statement implies that;
one half of earth’s value. (a) 100kg (b) 75kg (c) 50kg 32J (d) 160J A. The mechanical advantage of any machine is
(d) 20kg (e) 10kg. 5. The area under a force-distance graph represents always less than 1.
6. The gravitational force of the moon is one sixth (a) acceleration (b) velocity (c) power (c) work (d) B. The velocity ratio of a machine is always more
that of the earth. if a body weights 6.0N on the moon, momentum than 1.
calculate its weight on the earth. (a) 36.0N (b) 12.0N 6. A boy drags a bag of rice along a smooth horizontal C. The velocity ratio of a machine is never greater
(c) 6.0N (d) 2.0N (e) 1.0N. floor with a force of 2N applied at an angle of 60° to than the mechanical advantage.
7. The force experienced by an object of mass 60.0kg the floor. The work done after a distance of 3m is (a) D. The useful work obtained from a machine is
in the earht’s gravitational field is 1.002 × 102 𝑁. 6J (b) 5J (c) 4J (d) 3J always less than the workdone by it
What is the intensity of the gravitational field? (a) 7.Which of the following statement is not correct? E. The ratio of the work output of a machine to the
0.60Nk𝑔 −1 (b) 1.67Nk𝒈−𝟏 (c) 6.12 × 102 𝑁𝑘𝑔 −1 (d) A. The P.E of a body is equal to the work the body work input is always greater than 1.
9.81m𝑠 −2. can do because of its position 2. Which of the following levers is not in the same
8. A satellite moves in a circular orbit of radius 2R B. The P.E is the ability a body possesses to do class as the others in respect of the locations of the
round the earth. What is the accleration of the work because of stored up energy. load, the effort and the fulcrum? (a) pincers (b) see-
satellite? (a) 4g2 (b) g/4 (c) g/2 (d) 2g C. The P.E is the ability a body possesses to do saw (c) pliers (d) sugar tongs (d) scissors
9. What is the accelration due to gravity ‘g’ on the work because of stored up energy owing to the 3. Which of the following instruments, in its normal
moon if g is 10ms-2 on the earth? (a) 0.10ms-2 (b) movement of its molecules. use, serves as a first class lever? (a) pair of scissors
0.74ms-2 (c) 1.67ms-2 (d) 10.00ms-2 D. Energy cannot normally be destroyed but can (b) a pair of sugar tongs (c) a bottle opener (d) a
10. The earth is four times the size of the moon and be changed into another form of energy. knife (e) a nut cracker
the accleartion due to gravity of the earth is 80 times E. A body can have both kinetic and potential 4. A block and tackle system is used to lift a load of
that on the moon. The ratio of the mass of the moon energy at the same time. 20N through a vertical height of 10m. if the efficiency
to that of the earth is (a) 1:4 (b) 1:80 (c) 1:320 (d) 8. An object of mass 50kg is released from a height of the system is 40%, how much work is done
1:1280 of 2m. find the kinetic energy just before it strikes against friction? (a) 80J (b) 120J (c) 300J (d) 500J

2
5. Which of the following actions will improve the 8. A well 1km deep is filled with a liquid of density pressure (c) of zero degree on the Celsius scale (d)
efficiency of a pulley system? (a) reducing the mass 950kg/m3. If the atmospheric pressure is at which pure water and steam co-exist.
of the pulley (b) increasing the frictional force 1.00x105Nm2 and g = 10m/s2, the pressure at the 2. The absolute zero temperature is defined as the
between the string and the pulley (c) increasing the bottom of the well is (a) 9.6x10 6N/m2 (b) temperature at which (a) thermal motion ceases (b)
mass per unit length of the string of the pulley (d) 9.5x105N/m2 (c) 9.4x106N/m2 (d) 9.5x105N/m2 the temperature of a gas is 273 oC (c) ice melts (d)
increasing the mass of the pulley 9. Two divers G and H are at depth 20m and 40m the volume of real gas is maximum (e) the pressure
6. An inclined plane of angle 𝜃 acting as a simple respectively below the water surface in a lake. The of a real gas is maximum
machine has a velocity ratio (a) sin 𝜃 (b) 1/sin 𝜽 (c) pressure on G is P1 while the pressure on H is P2, if
cos 𝜃 (d) 1/cos 𝜃 (e) sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 the atmospheric pressure is equivalent to 10m of I. High terminal capacity
7. An inclined plane which makes an angle of 30 o water, the value of P2/P1 is (a) 0.50 (b) 60 (c) 1.67 II. High sensitivity
with the horizontal has a velocity ratio of (a) 2 (b) 1 (d) 2.00 (e) 3.00 III. Easy readability
(c) 0.866 (d) 0.50 CHAPTER FIFTEEN: DENSITY AND UPTHRUST IV. Accuracy over a wide range of temperatures.
8. The pitch of a screw jack is 0.45cm and the arm is 1. The density of a solid is defined as the (a) mass of 3. From the statements above, the qualities of a good
75%
60cm long. If the efficiency of the jack is 𝜋 calculate the solid compared to the mass of an equal volume thermometer is (a) I, III and IV (b) II, III and IV (c) I
of water (b) amount of water displaced when a unit and II (d) I, II, III and IV
the mechanical advantage (a) 400 (b) 300 (c) 200
mass of the solid is immersed in it (c) weight per unit 4. In the construction of a liquid in glass
(d) 150
volume of the solid (d) volume per unit mass of the thermometer, the sensitivity is enhanced if the (a)
9. Calculate the velocity ratio of a screw jack of pitch
solid (e) mass per unit volume of the solid volume expansivity of the liquid is high (b) thermal
0.3cm if the length of the tommy bar is 21cm (a)
2. The density of water is 1gcm -3 while that of ice is conductivity of the liquid is low (c) diameter of the
1/140 𝜋 (b) 14 𝜋 (c) 70 𝜋 (d) 140 𝝅
0.9gcm-3. Calculate the charge in volume when 90g capillary tube is large (d) the boiling point of the
10. An electric water pump rated 1.5KW, lifts
of ice completely melted (a) 0cm 3 (b) 9cm3 (c) liquid is high
200kg of water through a vertical height of
10cm3 (d) 90cm3 (e) 100cm3 5. One special advantage of alcohol over mercury as
6meters in 10 seconds. What is the efficiency of
3. A ship floating in clear water of density 1000kgm- a thermometric liquid is (a) low freezing point (b)
the pump? (a) 90.0% (b) 85.0% (c) 80.0% 3 moves to sea water of density 1050kgm -3 where it high specific heat capacity (c) low boiling point (d)
(d) 65.0% [g = 10ms 2 neglect air resistance]
floats again. The upthrust on the ship then (a) stays low density
CHAPTER THIRTEEN: ELASTICITY
constant (b) decreases (c) increases (d) increases 6. The clinical thermometer differs from other
1. The total length of a spring when a mass of 20g is
by 0.05 times (e) decreases by 0.05 times mercury in glass because it has I. a constriction II. A
hung from its end is 14cm, while its total length is
4. A test tube of radius 1.0cm is loaded to 8.8g. if it is narrow bone III. A wide rage IV. A short range (a) I
16m when a mass of 30g is hung from the same end.
placed upright in water, find the depth to which it and II only (b) II and III only (c) I and IV only (d) I, II
Calculate the unstreteched length of the spring
would sink. (g = 10ms-2, density of water = and III only (e) I, II, III and IV only
assuming Hooke’s law is obeyed. (a) 9.33cm (b)
1000kgm-3) (a) 25.5cm (b) 2.8cm (c) 28.0cm (d) 7. The thermometric property of a thermocouple is
10.00cm (c) 10.66cm (d) 12.00cm (e) 15.00cm
5.2cm that (a) volume changes with temperature (b)
2. A string of length 4m is extended by 0.02m when
5. A balloon of volume 100m 3 and mass 2kg is filled electromotive forces changes with temperature (c)
a load of 0.4kg is suspended at its end. What will be
with helium of density 0.18kgm-3 at ground level. atmospheric pressure changes with temperature (d)
the length of the string when the applied force is
The surrounding air has a density of 1.28kgm -3. resistance changes with temperature
15N? (g = 10ms-2) (a) 5.05m (b) 6.08m (c) 4.05m
Calculate the maximum mass which the balloon can 8. A temperature of 20oC is the same as (a) 36oF (b)
(d) 4.08m
lift at the ground 68oF (c)11.1oF (d) 43.1oF
3. A load of 20N on a wire of cross-sectional area 8 x
6. If the relative density of a metal is 1.9. what will be 9. A well lagged bar of 100cm has its ends
10-7m2 produces an extension of 10 -4m. Calculate
the mass of 20cm-3 of the metal when immersed in maintained at 100oC and 40oC respectively, what is
Young’s modulus for the material of the wire if its
water? (a) 380g (b) 400g (c) 360g (d) 39g (e) 180g the temperature at a point 60cm from the hotter
length is 3m (a) 7.0 x 10 11Nm-2 (b) 7.5 x 1011Nm-2 (c)
7. An object of volume 1m3 and mass 2kg is totally end? (a) 58oC (b) 62oC (c) 64oC (d) 76oC
8.5 x 1011Nm-2 (d) 7.0 10-3 [young modulus =
immersed in a fluid of density 1kgm -3. Calculate is 10. The resistance of a platinum wire at the ice and
1.1x1011Nm-2]
apparent weight (a) 20N (b) 10N (c) 2N (d) 1N steam point are 0.7ohm and 1.05ohm respectively.
4. The energy per unit volume of stretched wire
8. A solid of weight 0.600N is totally immersed in oil Determine the temperature at which the resistance
given by the relation (E = energy per unit volume) is
and water respectively. If the upthrust in oil is of the wire is 0.90ohm (a) 43.0oC (b) 50.0oC (c)
(a) E = 2 strain x stress (b) E = 2 strain ÷ stress (c)
0.210N and the relative density of oil is 0.875, find 69.0oC (d) 87.0oC
E = 1/2 stress ÷ strain (d) E = 1/2 strain x stress
the upthrust in water (a) 0.600N (b) 0.360N (c) CHAPTER EIGHTEEN: THERMAL EXPANSION
5. If a wire 30m long is extended to 30.5m by a force
0.240N (d) 0.180N 1. In which of the following devices is the expansion
of 300N, find the strain energy of the wire (a)
9. A uniform cylindrical block of wood floats in water of solid a disadvantage I. fire alarms II. Thermostat
750.00J (b) 75.00J (c) 7.50J (d) 0.75J
with one third of its length above the water level. In III. Simple pendulum IV. Bimetallic thermometer (a)
CHAPTER FOURTEEN: PRESSURE
a liquid of relative density 0.8, what fraction of its I only (b) II only (c) III only (d) I and IV only
1. A man on a bench will exert the greatest pressure
height will be above the liquid level? (a) 1/6 (b) 1/5 2. When very hot water is poured into a thin-walled
on the bench when he (a) lies flat on his back (b) lies
(c) 1/3 (d) 4/5 (e) 5/6 glass container, it is less likely to break because (a)
flat on his belly (c) stands on both feet (d) stands on
CHAPTER SISXTEEN: SURFACE TENSION (FLUID) thin glass does not expand fast (b) glass can
one foot only (e) stands on the toes of one foot
1. I. mass II. Density III. Temperature IV. Nature of withstand very high temperature (c) all parts of the
2. A rectangular solid block has length 10cm, breadth
substance. Which of the above affects diffusion? (a) container get heated uniformly (d) the other part of
5cm and height 2cm. If it lies on a horizontal surface,
I, II and IV only (b) II, III and IV only (c) I, II and IV the container is cooled than the inner part (e) the
and has density 100kg/m 3, calculate the pressure it
only (d) I and II only molecules of glass are too far apart to cause
exerts on the surface.
2. If it takes 5.0 hours to drain a container of 540.0m 3 breakage of the container.
3. For accurate measurement of atmospheric
of water. What is the flow rate of water from the 3. A metal has a linear expansivity of 0.002K-1. What
pressure, it is preferable to use which of the
container in kg/s (a) 32.5 (b)31.5 (c) 30.8 (d) temperature rise would cause it to increase by1/10
following instrument (a) pressure guage (b) water
30.0 of its original length (a) 200K (b) 250K (c) 500K (d)
manometer (c) mercury manometer (d) fortin
3. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its 1000K
barometer
surface tension (a) decreases (b) increases (c) 4. Two metals P and Q are heated through the same
4. The height at which the atmosphere ceases to exist
remains constant (d) increases then decreases temperature difference. If the ratio of the linear
is about 80km. if the atmospheric pressure on the
4. Which of the following can not be correctly expansivities of P to Q is 2:3 and the ratio of their
ground level is 760mmHg, the pressure at a heath of
explained using the concept of surface tension? (a) length is 3:4 respectively, the ratio of the increase in
20km above the ground level is (a) 380mmHg (b)
floating of balloon in the air (b) crawling of insects length of P to Q is (a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 8:9 (d) 9:8
570mmHg (c) 190mmHg (d) 480mmHg
of the surface of a pond (c) formation of spherical 5. A thin square sheet of metal of sides 0.20m is
droplets when water drips from a tap (d) formation heated from 15oC to 75oC. If the linear expansivity of
I. Density of the liquid
of soap bubbles. the metal is 1.2x10-5K-1, find the increase in its area
II. Depth below the surface of the liquid
5. It is observed that water will wet a clean glass (a) 6.05x10-5m2 (b) 5.76x10-5m2 (c) 5.05x10-5m2 (d)
III. Surface area of the liquid
because the (a) cohesion of water to glass is stronger 3.75x10-5m2
5. In which of the statements above will pressure be
than the cohesion of water molecules (b) adhesion 6. A metal of volume 40cm2 is heated from 30oC to
dependent? (a) I, II, and III (b) I and III only (c) I and
of water molecules is weaker than the cohesion of 90oC, the increase in volume is (a) 1.20cm 3 (b)
II only (d) II and III only
water to glass (c) cohesion of water to glass is 0.40cm3 (c) 0.12cm3 (d) 4.00cm3
6. Mercury is suitable as a barometric fluid because
weaker than the cohesion of water molecules (d) 7. The length of a side of a metallic cube at 20 oC is
it (a) expands uniformly (b) is opaque (c) is several
adhesion of water molecules is stronger than the 5.0cm. Given that the linear expansivity of the metal
times denser than water (d) is a good conductor of
cohesion of water molecules is 4.0x10-5K-1, find the volume of the cube at 120 oC
heat
CHAPTER SEVENTEEN: TEMPERATURE (a) 126.50cm3 (b) 126.25cm3 (c) 126.00cm3 (d)
7. Normal atmospheric pressure at sea-level is
1. Absolute zero temperature can be defined as the 125.00cm3
105N/m2. The acceleration due to gravity is
temp (a) at which the average kinetic energy of 8. Which of the following is observed when water at
approximately 10m/s2. If the atmosphere has
particles making up a body is zero (b) at which pure 0oC is heated to 4oC? (a) the water expands steadily
uniform density 1kg/m 3, the height is (a) 100m (b)
water changes to ice at standard atmospheric (b) the volume of the water remains constant (c) the
1000m (c) 10000m (d) 100,000m (e) 1000000m

3
volume of water contracts (d) the density of water 3. The boiling point of water exceeds 100oC when D. Physical property and is proportional to the
decreases (a) its vapour is less than the atmospheric pressure average kinetic energy of the molecules.
CHAPTER NINTEEN: EXPANSION OF GASES (b) its vapour pressure is greater than atmospheric 3. The absolute temperature of a perfect gas is
1. Which of the following gas laws is equivalent to pressure (c) it is slowly heated (d) it is rapidly proportional to the average (a) potential energy of
the work done? (a) pressure law (b) Van der Waal’s heated the molecules (b) separation between the molecules
law (c) Boyle’s law (d) Charles’ law 4. A pressure cooker saves both time and fuel in (c) kinetic energy of the molecules (d) velocity of the
2. A column of air 10.0cm long is trapped in a tube at cooking because inside the cooker the (a) boiling molecules
27oC. What is the length of the column at 100 oC (a) point of water is raised (b) pressure is constant (c) 4. The pressure of a gas when cooled at constant
12.4cm (b) 13.7cm (c) 18.5cm (d) 37.0cm heat is completely trapped (d) temperature is volume will decrease because the molecules (a)
3. Before starting a journey, the tyre pressure o f a evenly distributed (e) volume of steam varies collide less frequently with the walls of the container
car was 3x105Nm-2 at 27oC. At the end of the journey, 5. Blowing air over a liquid aids evaporation by (a) (b) have the same average kinetic energy (C) break
the pressure rose 4x105Nm-2. Calculate the decreasing its vapour pressure (b) decreasing its up into smaller molecules (d) decreases in number
temperature of the tyre after the journey assuming density (c) increasing its surface area (d) increasing 5. I. change of state II. Diffusion III. Radiation IV.
the volume is constant. (a) 400 oC (b) 300oC (c) its temperature Osmosis
273oC (d) 127oC 6. The small droplet of water that forms on the grass Which of the processes above can be explained using
4. If the volume of a gas increases steadily as the in the early of the morning is (a) dew (b) fog (c) mist the kinetic theory? (a) I, III and IV (b) I, II and IV (c)
temperature decreases at constant pressure, the gas (d) hail I, II III and IV (d) I, II and III
obeys (a) pressure law (b) Charles’ law (c) Graham’s 7. Dew forms readily on a cloudless might because 6. A few grains of table salt were put in a cup of cold
law (d) Boyle’s law under this condition (a) there is no sun to dry up the water at a constant temperature and left
5. When the volume of a given gas is halved and its moisture (b) there is no cloud from which moisture undisturbed. Eventually all the water tasted salty.
temperature doubled, the pressure (a) remain can fall (c) the earth loses heat by radiation more This action is due to (a) Convention (b) osmosis
constant (b) increases by a factor of 4 (c) increase by easily (d) the atmospheric pressure is very high. (c) capillarity (d) diffusion
a factor of 3 (d) decrease by a factor of 4. 8. The air temperature on a certain day was 26 oC and 7. The process by which molecules of different
CHAPTER TWENTY: SOURCES OF ENERGY the dew point of air was found to be 12oC. Calculate substances moves randomly is called (a) surface
1. The amount of heat required to raise the the relative humidity if the saturation vapour tension (b) diffusion (c) capillary (d) osmosis
temperature of a body is (a) thermal energy (b) pressure of water at 26oC and 12oC are 19mm and 8. I. Mass II. Density III. Temperature IV.
thermal conduction (c) heat loss (d) specific heat 10mm of mercury respectively (a) 36.5% (b) 42.6% Nature of substance
capacity (e) thermal capacity (c) 50.0% (d) 52.6% (a) I, II and IV only (b) II, III and IV only (c)
On a sunny day, sand on a beach is hotter than the 9. At which of the following temperatures will the I, II, III and IV (d) I and II only
sea water nearby mainly because (a) there is less relative humidity of the air in a room be least if the CHAPTER TWENTY FOUR: WAVE
sand than water (b) the specific heat capacity of dew point in the room is 20oC (a) 10oC (b) 15oC (c) 1. Which of the following is true of light and sound
water is higher than that of sand (c) the specific 20oC (d) 25oC (e) 30oC waves? (a) they both transmit energy (b) they both
heat capacity of sand is higher than that of water CHAPTER TWENTY TWO: HEAT TRANSFER need a material medium for propagation (c) they are
(d) the specific 1. The temperature gradient across a copper rod of both transverse waves (d) their velocities in air are
latent heat of water is higher than that of sand (e) thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature equal
the specific latent heat of sand is higher than that of junctions of 20oC and 80oC respectively is (a) 2. Any line or section taken through an advancing
water 3.0x102km-1 (b) 3.0x103km-1 (c) 5.0x103km-1 (d) wave in which all the particles are in the same phase
2. Two liquids X and Y having the same mass are 3.0x104km-1 is called the (a) wavelength (b) wave crest (c) wave
supplied with the same quantity of heat. If the 2. What are the units of thermal conductivity? (a) kg trough (d) wave amplitude (E) wave front
temperature rise in X is twice that of Y, the ratio of m sec2 (b) joule sec-1 K-1 (c) kg m (d) Newton sec-1 K- 3. A wave has a frequency of 2Hz and a wavelength
specific heat capacity of X to that of Y is (a) 1:2 (b) 1 (e) m3 of 30cm. the velocity of the wave is (a) 60.0ms -1 (b)
4:1 (c) 1:4 (d) 2:1 3. Which of the following properties makes metal 6.0ms-1 (c) 1.5ms-1 (d) 0.6ms-1
3. Two liquids, P at a temperature of 20oC and Q at a ideal for cooking utensils? (a) high coefficient of 4. What is the frequency of the sound made by a siren
temperature of 80oC have specific heat capacities of expansion (b) good conduction of heat (c) low having a disc with 32 holes and making 25
1.0Jkg-1C-1 and 1.5JKg-1C-1 respectively. If equal specific heat capacity (d) poor radiation of heat revolutions per second? (a) 80Hz (b) 600Hz (c)
masses of P and Q are mixed in a lagged calorimeter, 4. Heat may be transferred by conduction, 800Hz (d) 1600Hz
then the equilibrium temperature is (a) 44 oC (b) convection and radiation. By which of these methods 5. In a sound wave in air the adjacent refractions and
50oC (c) 56oC (d) 60oC (e) 70oC does heat travel through vacuum? (a) conduction compressions are separated by a distance of 17cm. if
4. When 100g of liquid L1 at 78oC was mixed with Xg only (b) convection only (c) radiation only (d) all the velocity of the sound wave is 340ms -1 determine
of liquid L2 at 50oC, the final temperature was 66 oC. three methods (e) none of the methods the frequency (a) 10Hz (b) 20Hz (c) 1000Hz (d)
Given that the specific heat capacity of L2 is half that 5. The heat from the sun reaches the earth by the 5780Hz
of L1, find X (a) 50g (b) 100g (c) 150g (d) 200g process of (a) insulation (b) precipitation (c) 6. The equation of a wave is; Y = 0.005sin
5. Two thermos flasks of volume Vx and Vy are filled conduction (d) convection (e) radiation [𝜋(0.5𝑥 − 200𝜋𝑡)] where x and Y are in metres and
with liquid water at an initial temperature of 0 oC. 6. A room is heated by means of charcoal fire. An t in seconds. What is the velocity of the wave? (a)
After some time, the temperature were found to be occupant of the room standing away from the fire is 4000 (b) 400 (c) 250 (d) 40
𝜃𝑥 , 𝜃𝑦 respectively. warmed mainly by (a) convection (b) radiation (c) 7. The equation of a transverse wave travelling along
Vx θx 1 conduction (d) reflection a string is given by; y = 0.3sin(0.5x – 500t) where y
Given that = 2 and = 7. The mode of heat transfer which does not require and x are in cm and t is in seconds. Find maximum
Vy θy 2
The ratio of the heat flow into the flasks is (a) ¼ (b) a material medium is (a) conduction (b) radiation displacement of the particles from the equilibrium
½ (c) 4 (d) 1 (e) 2 (c) convection (d) propagation position (a) 50.0cm (b) 2.5cm (c) 0.5cm (d) 0.3cm
6. An electric heater rated 220V, 1000 W is 8. Which of the following phenomena explains the 8. A progressive wave has wavelength of 50cm.
immersed into a bucket full of water. Calculate the fact that a house whose roof is coated with white Calculate the phase difference between two points at
mass of water if the temperature changes from 30 oC paint will be cooler in the hot season than one coated a distance 20cm apart. (a) 10 𝜋 /3 (b) 5 𝜋 /2 (c) 4 𝜋
to 100oC and the current flows for 300seconds. with black paint? (a) conduction (b) convection (c) /5 (d) 2𝜋/3
Specific heat capacity of water = 4200Jkg -1K-1 (a) refraction (d) reflection 9. Determine the distance between the consecutive
4.28kg (b) 42.86kg (c) 1.02kg (d) 7.14kg 9. The vacuum in a thermos flask helps to reduce antinodes XX. IF the wavelength is 60cm (a) 15cm
7. Change of state is accompanied by change of (a) heat transfer by (a) convection and radiation (b) (b) 30cm (c) 60cm (d) 120cm
temperature (b) volume (C) heat content (d) convection and conduction (c) conduction and 10. A wave of frequency 10Hz forms a stationary
temperature and volume (e) volume and heat radiation (d) radiation only wave pattern in a medium where the velocity is
content 20cm-1. The distance between adjacent nodes is (a)
8. The melting point of a solid is given at 80 oC. If 105J CHAPTER TWENTY - THREE: STRUCTURE OF 1.0cm (b) 1.5cm (c) 2.0cm (d) 5.0cm
of heat energy is required at this temperature to MATTER AND KINETIC THEORY 11. The following types of waves are all transverse
melt 10g of the solid, the specific latent heat of fusion 1. The differences observed in solids, liquids and except (a) light waves (b) radio waves (C) sound
of the solid is (a) 1.00x10 3Jkg-1 (b) 1.25x105Jkg-1 (c) gases may be accounted for by (a) their relative waves (d) surface on water (e) x-rays
1.00x107Jkg-1 (d) 8.00x108Jkg-1 masses (b) their melting points (c) the different 12. The combination of sound waves with different
CHAPTER TWENTY ONE: molecules in each other them (d) the spacing and frequencies is known as (a) interference (b)
1. When the vapour of a substance is in equilibrium forces acting between the molecules diffraction (C) superposition (d) resonance
with its own liquid, it is said to be (a) gaseous (b) 2. Form the kinetic theory of gases, temperature is a 13. The colours seen in the thin films of oil on the
unsaturated (c) liquefied (d) diffused (e) saturated A. Form of energy and is proportional to the total road and in soap bubbles are due to (a) reflection (b)
2. The saturated vaporu pressure of a liquid kinetic energy of the molecules. interference (c) diffraction (d) polarization
increases as the (a) volume of the liquid increases B. Form of energy and is proportional to the 14. Which of the following media allow the
(b) volume of the liquid decreases (c) temperature average kinetic energy of the molecules. transmission of sound waves through them I. air II.
of the liquid increases (d) temperature of the liquid C. Physical property and is proportional to the Liquid III. Solids (a) I and II only (b) I and III only (c)
decreases total kinetic energy of the molecules. II and III only (d) I, II and III

4
15. Which of the following characteristics of wave is 35. Heat from the sun is to be used to burn a piece of 4. The purpose of a dielectric material in a parallel
used in the measurement of the depth of the sea? (a) paper with the aid of a concave mirror of radius of plate capacitor is to (a) increase its capacitance (b)
diffraction (b) interference (c) refraction (d) curvature 32cm. to enable the paper to start burning decrease its capacitance (c) insulate the plates from
reflection in the shortest possible time, the paper is coloured X each other (d) increase the magnetic field between
16. The sound from a source travelled to the bottom and positioned at a distance Y from the mirror. What the plates
of the sea and the echo was heard 4s later. If the are X and Y respectively? (a) black and infinity (b) 5. The major defects of a simple cell are (a)
speed of sound in sea water is 1500ms-1, the depth white and 32cm (c) black and 16cm (d) black and polarization and local action (b) depolarization and
of the sea is (a) 6000m (b) 3000m (c) 15000m (d) 32cm (e) white and 16cm local action (c) polarization and discharging of the
375m 36. When an object is placed very close to the pole of cell (d) discharging of the cell and local action
17. The speed of sound in air at sea-level is 340ms-1 a concave mirror, the virtual image obtained is (a) 6. Which of the following components is not
while that of light is 300,000kms-1. How far (to the diminished and upright (b) diminished and inverted combined in a dry cell? (a) carbon rod (b) pastes of
nearest metre) from the centre of a thunderstorm in (c) enlarged and inverted (d) enlarged and upright manganese oxide (C) paste of ammonium chloride
an observer who hears a thunder 2s after a 37. An object is placed 15cm in front of a concave (d) zinc case (e) copper rod.
lightening flash? (a) 170m (b) 340m (C) 600m (d) mirror of radius 40cm. the image formed is (a) 7. Which of the following factors has no effect on
680m virtual and 60cm behind the mirror (b) real and the e.m.f of a primary cell? (a) temperature (b) size
18. Given that young’s modulus for aluminum is 60cm in front of the mirror (c) virtual and at infinity of the cell (C) nature of the plates (d) nature of the
7.0x1010Nm-2 and density is 2.7x10 3kmg-3, find the (d) real and infinity (e) virtual and 40cm from the electrolyte
speed of the sound produced if a solid bar is struck mirror. 8. Which of the following is a secondary cell? (a)
at one end with a hammer (a) 3.6x10 3ms-1 (b) 38. Light of velocity 3.0x108ms-1 is incident on a Daniel cell (b) Wet leclanche cell (c) voltaic cell (D)
2.8x103ms-1 (c) 4.2x103ms-1 (d) 5.1x103ms-1 material of refractive index n. if the velocity of light alkaline cell
19. Which of the following factors will affect the is reduced to 2.4x108ms-1 in the material, what is n? 9. The electrochemical equivalent of silver is
velocity of sound (a) an increase in the pitch of the (a) 2.33 (b) 2.25 (c) 1.33 (d) 1.25 0.0012g/C. If 36.0g silver is to be deposited by
sound (b) an increase in the loudness of the sound 39. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water electrolysis on a surface by passing a steady current
(C) wind travelling in the same direction of the are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively. The refractive index at of 5.0 minutes, the current must be (a) 6000A (b)
sound (d) change in the atmospheric pressure at the interface when a ray travels from water to glass 100A (C) 10A (d) 1A
constant temperature is (a) ½ (b) 8/9 (c) 9/8 (d) 17/12 (e) 2 10. According to Ohm’s law, the ratio V/I is constant
20. The pitch of an acoustic device can be increased 40. What must be the distance between an object for (a) an electrolyte (b) a diode (c) a transistor (d)
by (a) increasing the frequency (b) increasing the and a converging lens of focal length 20cm to silver (e) all of the above
amplitude (c) decreasing the loudness (d) produce an erect image two times the object height? 11. A high resistance voltmeter, reads 3.0V when
decreasing the intensity (a) 20cm (b) 15cm (c) 10cm (d) 5cm connected across the terminals of a battery on open
21. All the following frequencies are overtones of 41. An object is placed in front of a converging lens circuit and 2.6V when the battery supplies a current
320Hz except (a) 960Hz (b) 640Hz (c) 520Hz (d) of focal length 20cm. The image is virtual and has a of 0.2A through a lamp. The resistance of the lamp
is (a) 2.00  (b) 13.00  (c) 0.52  (d) 0.13 
1280Hz (e) 1600Hz magnification of 2. What is the distance of the object
22. When the length l of a piece of wire under from the lens? (a) 5cm (b) 10cm (c) 30cm (d) 40cm
constant tension is varied, the relationship of the 42. To obtain a magnification of 2.5, how far should (e) 1.50 
frequency of vibration f with l is (a) 𝑓 𝛼 𝐼 (b) F 𝛼 I1/2 an object be placed form the pole of a thin 12. Calculate the terminal potential difference
(C) F 𝛼 √𝑙 (d) 𝐹 𝛼 𝐼/𝑙 converging lens of focal length 0.2m? (a) 0.13m (b) across a 20  resistor connected to a battery of
23. A sonometer wire of length 100cm under a 0.25m (c) 0.28m (d) 0.50m
tension of 10N has a frequency of 250Hz. Keeping 43. A concave lens of focal length 20cm forms an emf 15V and internal resistance 5  (a) 60.0V (b)
the length of the wire constant, the tension is image ¼ the size of the object. The object distance is 15.0V (c) 12.0V (d) 6.3V (e) 0.5V
adjusted to produce a new frequency of 350Hz. The (a) 100cm (b) 100/9cm (c) 60cm (d) 60/9cm (e) 13. An electric kettle, connected to 240V mains
new tension is (a) 5.1N (b) 7.1N (c) 14.0N (d) 19.6N none of the above produces 6.0x105J of heat energy to boil a quantity
24. If the fundamental frequency of a closed pipe 44. Which of the following statements is correct of water in 5minutes. Find the resistance of the
organ on a day when the speed of sound is 340ms -1 about a long sighted boy who does not put on kettle. (a) 14.4  (b) 28.8  (c) 144  (d) 288
glasses (a) he cannot see distant object clearly (b)
is 170Hz, then the length of the pipe is (a) 50cm (b)
rays of light from a close object are focused in front
 (e) 2880 
70cm (c) 100cm (d) 150cm (e) 200cm
25. A slight loading of a turning fork has the effect of of his retina (c) his eyeball is too long (d) parallel 16. A household refrigerator is rated 200watts. If
(a) decreasing its amplitude (b) increasing its rays of light are focused behind his retina electricity costs 5k per kWh, what is the cost of
amplitude (C) decreasing its frequency (d) 45. A far-sighted person cannot see objects that are operating it for 20 days. (a) N4.80 (b) N48.00 (c)
increasing its frequency less than 100cm away. If the person want to read a N480.00 (d) 4800.00
26. Which of the following pairs is not part of the book at 25cm, what type and focal length of lens 17. Which of the following is a desirable property of
electromagnetic spectrum? I. radio waves II. Beta does he need? (a) convex, 20cm (b) concave, 20cm fuse wire? (a) high specific heat capacity (b) low
rays III. Gamma rays IV. Alpha rays (a) I and II (b) III (c) convex, 33cm (d) concave 33cm melting point (c) low resistivity (d) high latent heat
and IV (c) I and III (d) II and IV 46. An observer with normal eye views an object of fusion (e) high expansivity
27. Shadows and eclipses result from the (a) with a magnifying glass of focal length 5cm. the 18. Electric power is transmitted at a high voltage
refraction of light (b) rectilinear propagation of light angular magnification is (a) -6 (b) -5 (c) 5 (d) 6 rather than low voltage because the amount of
(C) diffraction of light (d) reflection of light 47. Four lenses are being considered for use as a energy loss is reduced due to (a) heat dissipation
28. What is the effect of the increase in the size of the microscope objective. Which of the following focal (b) production of eddy currents (c) excessive
hole of a pinhole camera on the image? It (a) gives a lengths is most suitable (a) -5mm (b) +5mm (c) - current discharge (d) excessive voltage discharge
blurred image (b) corrects for chromatic aberration 5cm (d) +5cm CHAPTER TWENTY – SIX: MAGNETISM
(C) magnifies the image (d) brings the image into a 48. A projection lantern is used to give the image of 1. The angle between the magnetic medium and the
sharper focus a slide on a screen. If the image is 24 times as large geographic meridian at a locality on the earth is the
29. A boy 1.200m tall stands 3.600m in front of a as the slide and the screen is 72.0m form the (a) longitude of the locality (b) angle of inclination
pinhole camera. If his image is formed on a screen projecting lens, what is the position of the slide at the locality (C) latitude of the locality (d) angle of
30.00cm behind the pinhole, calculate the height of from the lens? (a) 0.3m (b) 3.0m (c) 3.5m (d) 4.0m declination of the locality
the image (a) 10.00cm (b) 5.00cm (c) 3.00cm (d) 49. When a yellow card is observed through a blue 2. An equipment that functions as a result of the
4.00cm (e) 0.33cm glass, the card would appear (a) black (b) green (c) magnetic effect of electric current is (a) rheostat (b)
31. Which of the following statements is not true of red (d) white Thermostat (c) electric bell (d) carbon microphone
the image in a plane mirror? The image is (a) the CHAPTER TWNETY – FIVE : ELECTRICITY, 3. The force exerted by a current carrying conductor
same size as the object (b) laterally inverted (c) ELECTROSTATIC, CAPACITOR AND ELECTROLYSIS on another is owning to (a) electrostatic effect (b)
virtual (d) magnified (e) the same distance behind 1. A charge 50C has an electric field strength of magnetic effect (C) gravitational effect (d)
the mirrors as the object in front 360NC-1 at a certain point. The electric field electromagnetic effect
32. An object is positioned between two plane strength due to another charge 120C kept at the 4. A particle carrying a charge of 1.0 × 108 C enters
mirrors inclined at right angles to each other. The same distance apart and in the same medium is (a) a magnetic field at 3.0 × 102 ms −1 at right angles to
object is 1 unit distance from each mirror. The 18NC-1 (b) 144NC-1 (c) 150NC-1 (d) 864NC-1 the field. If the force on the particle is 1.8 × 10−8 N,
number of images formed is (a) 1 (b) 2 (C) 3 (d) 4 2. A charged 50mC has an electric field strength of what isthe magnitude of the filed? (a) 6.0 × 10−1 T
(e) 5 360NC-1 at a certain point. The electric field (b) 6.0 × 10−2 T (c) 𝟔. 𝟎 × 𝟏𝟎−𝟑 𝐓 (d) 6.0 ×
33. When a plane mirror at which a ray is incident is strength due to another charge 120mC kept at the 10−4 T
5. Which of the following is not a part of a d.c. electric
rotated through an angle , the reflected ray will be same distance apart and in the same medium is (a)
18NC-1 (b) 144NC-1 (c)864NC-1 (d) 150NC-1 motor? (a) field motor (b) armature (c) commutator
rotated through (a) ½  (b)  (c) 2  (d) 3  3. If 8x10-2J of work is required to move 100mC of (d) transformer
34. The plane mirror in a kaleidoscope are usually charge from a point X to a point Y in an electrical 6. A galvanometer of resistance of 20  is to be
placed (a) at an angle of 60 o (b) parallel to one circuit, the potential difference between X and Y is provided with a shunt such that 1/10 of the whole
another (c) perpendicular to one another (d) at an (a) 4.0x102 (b) 4.0x104 (c) 8.0x102 (d) 8.0x104 current in a circuit passes through the galvanometer.
angle of 45o
5
7. The resistance of the shunt is (a) 2.00  (b) 2.22
5. The energy gained by a proton accelerated 24. If the uncertainty in the measurement of the
through a p.d. of 600V is (a) 2.66x10 -22J (b) 0.26x10- position of a particle is 5 × 10−10 m the uncertainty
 (c) 18.00  (d) 18.22  26J (c) 0.26x10-17J (d) 9.60x10-17 in the momentum of the particle is ℎ = 6.6 × 10−34 J
8. The magnetic flux in a coil having 200 turns 6. When a metal surface is illuminated with radiation (a) 1.32 × 10−44 NS (b) 3.30 × 10−44 NS (c)
changes at the time rate of 0.08Wbs -1. The induced of appropriate frequency, photo electrons are 1.32 × 10−24 NS (d) 3.3 × 10−24 NS
emf in the coil is (a) 250.0V (b) 25.0V (c) 16.0V (d) ejected from the metal surface. The number of photo 24. Caesum has a work function of 3 × 10−19 J. the
1.6V electrons ejected depends on the (a) source of maximum energy of liberated electrons when it is
9. A dynamo primarily converts (a) mechanical radiation (b) period of radiation (c) atmospheric illuminated by light of frequency 6.7 × 1014 Hz is (a)
energy into electrical energy (b) electrical energy pressure (d) nature metal surface (e) intensity of 1.42 × 10−19J (b) 3.0 × 10−19J (c) 4.42 × 10−19J
into mechanical energy (c) potential energy into radiation (d) 7.42 × 10−19J (h = 6.6 × 10−19J)
kinetic energy (d) kinetic energy into potential 7.The energy of a photon having a wavelength of 10 - 25. The energy associated with the emitted photon
energy 10m is (a) 1.7x10-13J (b) 2.0x10-12J (c) 1.7x10-12J (d) when a mercury action charges from one state to
10. A transformer which can produce 8V from 240V 2.0x10-15J (h = 6.63x10-34Js, C = 3.0x108ms-1) another is 3.3eV. Calculate the frequency of the
a.c. supply has an efficiency of 80%. If the current in 8. A metal has a work function of 3.3eV. Find its photon. (a) 1.3 × 10−15 Hz (b) 3.1 × 1052 Hz (c)
the secondary coil is 15A, calculate the current in the threshold frequency (a) 8x1014Hz (b) 8.25x1014Hz 3.2 × 10−53 Hz (d) 0.80 × 1014 Hz
primary coil (a) 0.625A (b) 1.600A (c) 2.500A (d) (c) 8.35x1014Hz (d) 8.4x1014Hz (h = 6.6x10-34) 26. If X is the uncertainty in the measurement of the
6.250A 9. In photo electric field, electrons will leave the position of a particle along the X-axis and Px is the
11. The best material for the core of the primary and metal surface when illuminated by light of uncertainty in the measurement of the linear
secondary coils of an induction cell is (a) copper, appropriate frequency if the photon energy is (a) momentum along the X-axis, then the uncertainty
because it is a good conductor of electricity (B) steel, greater than the work function (b) less than the principle relation is given as (a)∆𝑋 ∆𝑃, ≥ ℎ
because it become magnetic and retains its work function (C) equal to the work function (d) (b)∆𝑋 ∆𝑃, = 0 (c)∆𝑋 ∆𝑃 < ℎ (d) ∆𝑋 ∆𝑃𝑥 = ∞
magnetism for a long time (c) rubber, because it is a equal to the maximum kinetic energy of the 27. The particle nature of light is demonstrated by
good insulator and the user is prevented from the electrons the (a) speed of light (b) colors of light (c) diffraction
shock (d) soft iron, because it becomes magnetic but 10. Which of the following elements is the best of light (d) photoelectric effect
easily losses its magnetism (E) glass, because it is absorber of X-rays (a) hydrogen (b) oxygen (c) CHAPTER TWENTY NINE: SEMI CONDUCTOR
transparent calcium (d) copper (e) lead 1. Which of the following is a pure semi-conductor
12. The iron core of an induction coil is made from 11. A radioactive source emits X-rays of very short (a) silicon (b) carbon (c) transistor (d) phosphorus
bundles of wires so as to (a) minimize eddy currents wavelength (10-11) m. What is the frequency of these 2. For semiconductors to have negative temperature
(b) generate eddy currents (c) prevent sparking at rays? (a) 2x1018Hz (b) 3x1019Hz (c) 3x103Hz (d) coefficient of resistance implies that (a) their
the contact beaker (d) get the greatest possible 3x10-19Hz resistance increases with temperature (B) their
secondary voltage 12. Which of the scientists postulated that moving resistance decreases with temperature (c) they have
13. The principle of operation of an induction coil is particle exhibit wave properties? (a) Niels Bohr (b) electrons and holes at high temperature (d) their
based on (a) ohm’s law (b) ampere’s law (c) Ernest Rutherford (c) Werner Heisenberg (D) Louis resistance is constantly changing with temperature
faraday’s law (d) coulomb’s law de Broglie (e) Erwin Schrödinger 3. When impurities are added to semiconductors,
14. If two inductors of inductances 3H and 6H are 13. Radium has a half life of 1600 years. A lead box the conductivity of the semiconductor (a) increases
arranged in series, the total inductance is (a) 0.5H contained 24x106 atoms of radium in 1976. How (b) decrease (c) remains constant (d) increases then
(b) 2.0H (c) 9.0H (d) 18.0H many atoms of radium will remain in the box in the decreases
CHAPTER TWENTY – SEVEN: AC CIRCUIT year 5176 (a) 24x106 atoms (b) 18x106 atoms (c) 4. In semiconductors, the carriers of current at room
1. In an a.c. circuit, the alternating current across a 12x106 atoms (d) 6x106 atoms (e) no atoms temperature are (a) electrons only (b) electrons and
resistor is given by 𝑖 = 3 sin 100𝜋𝑡. Calculate the 14. A radioactive substance has a half-life of 20 days. holes (c) holes only (d) electrons and ions
𝟑√𝟐 What fraction of the original radioactive nuclei will 5. A certain manufacturer wishes to make a n-type
root mean square value of the current (a) 𝑨 (b)
𝟐
3√2
remain after 80 days? (a) 1/16 (b) 1/8 (c) ¼ (d) semiconductor. Which materials would be select for
√2 √2
𝐴 (c) 𝐴 (d) 5 𝐴 1/32 doping? (a) arsenic and antimony (b) aluminum and
2 3
2. A 120V, 60/𝜋 a.c source is connected across a 2𝜇𝐹 15. A substance has a half-life of 3min. after 6min, indium (c) boron and antimony (d) helium and
capacitor. Calculate the current passing through the the count rate was observed to be 400. What was its boron
circuit (a) 4.9x102A (b) 2.0x102 (c) 2.2x10-2 (d) count rate at zero time? (a) 200 (b) 1200 (c) 1600 6. In a semiconductor junction diode, as the
2.0x10-2 (d) 2400 depletion or barrier layer is forward biased, the
3. A series RLC circuit is said to resonate if the (a) 16.A piece of radioactive contains 10 26 atoms. If the layer (a) narrows (b) remain constant (c) widens
capacitive reactance is zero (b) inductive reactance half life of the material is 20seconds, the number of then narrows (d) widens
is zero (c) current is maximum (d) impedance is disintegration in the first second is (a) 3.47x10 18 (b) 7. The battery connection that permits current to
zero 6.93x1020 (c) 3.47x1026 (d) 6.93x1018 flow across a p-n junction is called (a) amplification
4. In a purely inductive circuit, the current (a) lags 17. A radioactive isotope has a decay constant of 10 - (b) rectification (c) forward biased (d) reverse
5S-1. Calculate its half life (a) 6.93x10 4s (b) 6.93x10 6s biased
behind the voltage in phase by 90 o (b) leads the
voltage in phase by 90o (C) is in the same phase with (c) 6.93x10-5s (d) 6.93x105s 8. A p-n junction diode is used as (a) a rectifier in a
the voltage (d) leads the voltage by 180 o 18. One of the features of the fission process is that d.c. circuit (b) an amplifier in an a.c. circuit (c) a
5. Determine the inductive reactance when a (a) its products are not radioactive (b) it leads to rectifier in an a.c. circuit (d) an amplifier in an a.c.
30.0mH inductor with a negligible resistance is chains reaction (C) neutrons are not released (d) the circuit
connected to a 1.30x10 3Hz oscillator (a) 39.0 (b) sum of the masses of the reactants equals the sum of 9. A semiconductor diode is used in rectifying
122.5 (c) 245.0 (d) 39000.0 the masses of the products. alternating current into direct current mainly
6. The power dissipated in an a.c. circuit with an 19. In a nuclear fusion process four protons each of because it (a) allows current to flow in either
r.m.s current of 5A, r.m.s voltage of 10V and a phase mass Mp were fused to produce a nucleus X of mass direction (b) is non-linear (c) offers a high input
angle of 60o is (a) 25W (b) 50W (C)120W (d) 125W Mx. Which of the following equation is correct? (a) resistance (d) allows current to flows only in one
7. A circuit contains 100𝜇𝐹 capacitor, 10  resistor
4Mp > Mx (b) 4Mp = Mx (c) 4Mp < Mx (d) Mp = Mx direction.
20. The graphite rods surrounding the uranium fuel 10. A transistor functions mainly as (a) switch and
and an inductor L, all connected in series. If the rods in a nuclear reactor are used to: (a) absorb the amplifier (b) rectifier and amplifier (c) charge storer
resonant frequency of the circuit is 100Hz, find the neutrons and hence halt the nuclear process (b) and amplifier (d) charge storer and switch
1 1
value of (a) 4𝜋 2 𝐻 (b) 2𝜋 2 𝐻 (c) 2𝜋 𝐻 (D) 4𝜋2 𝐻 create the neutrons and hence start up the nuclear 11. A transistor is used in the amplification of signals
8. At resonance, the phase angle in a.c circuit is (a) process (c) slow down the neutrons and hence slow because it (a) allows doping (b) controls the flow of
90o (b) 60o (c) 0o (d)180o the nuclear process (d) speed up the neutrons and current (c) contains electrons and hole carriers (d)
hence speed up the nuclear process consumes a lot of power
CHAPTER TWENTY EIGHT: ATOMIC AND 21. In a fission of uranium isotope, a mass defect of 12. When a base current of common emitter
QUANTUM PHYSICS 0.25 a.m.u is observed. Calculate the binding energy transistor is kept at zero, it operates in the (a) active-
1. The mass of a proton is approximately equal to of the isotope (a) 1.25x10-19J (b) 3.72x10-11J (c) on region (b) breakdown region (c) saturation
that of (a) an 𝛼−particle (b) a B-particle (c) a y-ray 1.49x10-10J (d) 1.86x10-9J (a.m.u = 931 MeV, IeV = region (d) cut off region
(d) an electron (e) neutron 1.6x10-19J)
𝑋 + 42𝐻𝑒 → 137𝑁 + 10𝑛 22. In a nuclear reaction, the mass defect is 2x10 -6g
2. The atomic number and mass number of X in the calculate the energy released, given that the velocity
equation above are respectively (a) 5 and 9 (b) 5 and of light is 3x108m/s (a) 9x107J (b) 1.8x108J (c)
10 (c) 9 and 13 (d) 9 and 14 1.8x109J (d) 9x1018J (e) 3.6x1011J
3. Calculate the wavelength of the photon emitted 23. In photo emission the number of photo electrons
when an electron falls from the energy level 4 to 2 as ejected per seconds depends on the (a) Threshold
shown by T. (a) 2.55m (b) 4.9x10-7m (c) 4.9x107m frequency (b) intensity of the beam (c) frequency
(d) 225m of the beam (d) work function of metal
4. What is the ionization of the hydrogen atom (a)
3.4eB (b) 13.6eB (C) -13.6eV (d) -3.4eV (e) 0
6