22-09-2024

5301CMD303051240006 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A mass is suspended separately by two different springs in successive order then time period is t1
and t2 respectively. If it is connected by both spring as shown in figure then time period is t0, the

correct relation is :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) t0 = t1 + t2

2) The time period of a mass suspended from a spring is T. If the spring is cut into four equal parts
and the same mass is suspended from one of the parts, then the new time period will be :–

(1)

(2) T

(3)

(4) 2T

3) The acceleration displacement graph of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is shown in

figure. The time period of simple harmonic motion is :-

(1)

(2)

(3) The given graph doesn't represent simple harmonic motion

(4) Information is insufficient

4) Two springs of force constants K and 2K are connected to a mass as shown below. The frequency

of oscillation of the mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) A particle executes SHM of type X = asinωt. It takes time t from x = 0 to x = and

t2 from to x = a. The ratio of t1 : t2 will be :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 2 : 1

6) If time period of SHM is 2π. Find the acceleration at 3 cm away from mean position.

(1) 2π cm/s2
(2) 3 cm/s2
(3) 9 cm/s2
(4) 0

7) A pendulum has time period T in air when it is made to oscillate in water. It acquired a time
period. T' = T. density of the pendulum bob is equal to (density of water = 1)

(1)
(2) 2
(3)
(4) None of these

8) With the help of displacement, velocity (ν) equation For SHM, determine the time
period :
(1) 3.14 s
(2) 1.07 s
(3) 6.28 s
(4) 4.21 s

9) From the given displacement-time graph of an oscillating particle, find the maximum velocity of

the particle.

(1) 2 m s–1
(2) π m s–1
(3) 0.2 π m s–1
(4) π/2 m s–1

10) The period of a particle executing SHM is 8 s. At t = 0, it is at the mean position. The ratio of
distance covered by the particle in 1st and 2nd s will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) The angular frequency of motion whose equation is is (y = displacement and t =

time)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The x-t graph of a particle undergoing S.H.M. is shown below. The acceleration of the particle at
t = 8/3 s is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A particle executes SHM with frequency f. The frequency, with which its kinetic energy
oscillates, is :

(1)

(2) f
(3) 2f
(4) 4f

14) For a pendulum in a stationary lift, time period of oscillation is 4 s. When lift accelerates, time
period decreases to 3 s. Acceleration of the lift is :-

(1)
in upward direction

(2)
in downward direction

(3)
in upward direction

(4)
in downward direction

0
15) In SHM, maximum speed of the particle is v . Its speed at will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) v0
16) A particle executes a linear simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 3 cm. When the
particle is at 2 cm from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is equal to that of its
acceleration. Then its time period in seconds will be _____.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) What should be the displacement of a simple pendulum whose amplitude is A, at which potential

energy is th of the total energy ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) The temperature at which the velocity of sound in air becomes double its velocity at 0°C is

(1) 435°C
(2) 694°C
(3) 781°C
(4) 819°C

19) The superposing waves are represented by the following equations :

y1 = 5 sin 2π(10t – 0.1x),
y2 = 10 sin 2π(20t – 0.2x)

Ratio of intensities will be

(1) 1
(2) 9
(3) 4
(4) 16

20) For the wave shown in figure given below, the frequency and wavelength, if its speed is 320
m/sec, are :-

(1) 8 cm, 400 Hz

(2) 80 cm, 40 Hz
(3) 8 cm, 4000 Hz
(4) 40 cm, 8000 Hz

21) If the length of the simple pendulum is increased by 44%, then what is the change in time period
of pendulum

(1) 22%
(2) 20%
(3) 33%
(4) 44%

22) The vibrations of four air columns of same length are represented in figure. The ratio of
frequencies :
np: :nq : nr : ns is:

(1) 12 : 6 : 3 : 4
(2) 1 : 2 : 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 2 : 3 : 1
(4) 6 : 2 : 3 : 4

23) A transverse hormonic wave on a string is described by Y = 3sin(36t + 0.018x + π/4) Where x
and y are in m and t in s. If the linear density of the string is 10–4 kg/m then the tension in the string
will be

(1) 400 N
(2) 0.2 N
(3) 0.3 N
(4) 0.4 N
24) In a resonance tube at room temperature two successive resonance lengths of air column are 25
cm and 80 cm. If the frequency of tuning fork is 340 Hz then the speed of sound at that temperature
is

(1) 354 m/s

(2) 340 m/s
(3) 374 m/s
(4) 350 m/s

25) The Speed of transverse waves in a stretched string is 700 cm/s. If the string is 2 m long, the
frequency with which it resonantes in fundamental mode is:

(1) (7/2) Hz
(2) (7/4) Hz
(3) (14) Hz
(4) (2/7) Hz

26) What is the beat frequency produced when following two waves are sounded together?
x1 = 10 sin (404 t - 5 x),
x2 = 10 sin (400 t - 5 x)

(1) 4
(2) 1
(3) 3
(4) 2

27) An open pipe is suddenly closed so that the second overtone of the closed pipe is observed to be
higher in frequency by 100 Hz than the first overtone of the original pipe. The fundamental
frequency of the open end pipe will be

(1) 200 Hz
(2) 50 Hz
(3) 100 Hz
(4) 300 Hz

28) A closed pipe and an open pipe have their first overtone equal in frequency. Then the lengths of
these pipe are in the ratio

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 3
(3) 3 : 4
(4) 4 : 5

29) A string vibrates according to the equation where x and y are in

cm and t is in sec. The distance between two adjacent nodes is
(1) 1 cm
(2) 1.5 cm
(3) 2 cm
(4) 2.5 cm

30) When a wave travels in a medium, the particle displacements are given by y = a sin 2π (bt – cx)
where a, b, and c are constants. The maximum particle velocity will be twice the wave velocity if

(1)

(2)
(3) b = ac

(4)

31) A wave is represented by the equation x is in metres

and t is in seconds. The speed of the wave is :-

(1) 175 m/sec

(2) 49 π m/sec
(3) 49/π m/sec
(4) 0.28 π m/sec

32) What is the path difference for destructive interference?

(1) nλ
(2) n(λ + 1)

(3)

(4)

33) If the intensity of sound increases by a factor of 20, then sound level increases by [log2 =
0.3010]

(1) 12 dB
(2) 10 dB
(3) 20 dB
(4) 13 dB

34) The kinetic energy and the potential energy of a particle executing S.H.M. are euqal. The ratio
of its displacement and amplitude will be :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

35) If the end correction of an open pipe is 0.8 cm, then the inner radius of that pipe is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 0.2 cm

SECTION-B

1) A wave represented by the given equation , where x is in meter and t

is in second. The expression represents :

(1) A wave travelling in the positive X direction with a velocity of 1.5 m/sec.
(2) A wave travelling in the negative X direction with a velocity of 1.5 m/sec
(3) A wave travelling in the negative x direction with a wavelength of 0.4 m
(4) A wave travelling in the positive X direction

2) A wave travelling in positive x-direction with a = 0.2 ms–2, velocity = 360 ms–1 and λ = 60 m, then
correct expression for the wave is :

(1)
y = 0.2 sin

(2)
y = 0.2 sin

(3)
y = 0.2 sin

(4)
y = 0.2 sin

3) A string is vibrating in its fifth overtone between two rigid supports 2.4 m apart. The
distance between successive node and antinode is

(1) 0.1 m
(2) 0.2m
(3) 0.6 m
(4) 0.8 m

4) A pipe closed at one end has length 83 cm. The number of possible natural oscillations of air
column whose frequencies lie below 1000 Hz are (velocity of sound in air = 332 m/s)
(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 6

5) The ratio of frequencies of fundamental harmonic produced by an open pipe having length ℓ1 to
that of closed pipe at one end of length ℓ2 is 3 : 5. Then find ℓ1 : ℓ2

(1) 10 : 3
(2) 3 : 10
(3) 13 : 10
(4) 10 : 13

6) Newton's formula for the velocity of sound in gases is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The equation of stationary wave on a string clamped at both ends and vibrating in third harmonic
is Y= 0.5 sin(0.314x) cos(600 t) where x and y are in cm, t in second. The length of the vibrating
string is

(1) 20 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 40 cm
(4) 30 cm

8) Superposition is the main characteristic of :

(1) wave motion

(2) particle motion
(3) wave and particle motion
(4) none of the two motions

9) The x-t graph of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is shown in figure. The
acceleration of particle at t=3 sec is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Statement-1 : In SHM particles total energy remains constant.

Statement-2 : In mean position during SHM; PE is max, and at extreme potential energy is
minimum.

(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true

(2) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is false

11) Find out angular frequency of given system.

(1) 3 rad/sec
(2) 4 rad/sec
(3) 3.33 rad/sec
(4) 4.33 rad/sec

12) A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according

to the relation v = 4t where v is velocity. The time period now becomes T2 the ratio of is (g = 10
m/s2)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = + A. It starts from x = 0

moves in + x-direction. The time taken for it to move from x = 0 to x = is T1 and to move

from to is T2, then :

(1) T1 < T2
(2) T1 = T2
(3) T2 = 2T1
(4) T1 = 2T2

14)

List-II
List-I
(Time
(Figure)
period)

(i) (P)

(ii) (Q)

(iii) (R)

(iv) (S)

(1) i-R ; ii-S; iii-P; iv-Q

(2) i-Q ; ii-P; iii-S; iv-R
(3) i-P ; ii-Q; iii-R; iv-S
(4) i-S ; ii-R; iii-Q; iv-P

15)

If the maximum velocity and maximum acceleration of a particle executing SHM are equal in
magnitude, the time period will be :-
(1) 6.28 sec
(2) 1.57 sec
(3) 3.14 sec
(4) 12.56 sec

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following compound, central atom has highest oxidation number ?

(1) Mn2O3
(2) OsO4
(3) Cl2O7
(4) H2SO4

2) What is the reducing agent in the reverse reaction?

(1) H2O2
(2) HI
(3) H2O
(4) I2

3)

The emf of the following three glavanic cells :

1. Zn/Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)/Cu
2. Zn/Zn2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+(1 M)/Cu
3. Zn/Zn2+ (1 M) || Cu2+(0.1 M)/Cu

are represented by E1, E2, E3. Which of the following statement is true ?
(1) E1 > E2 > E3
(2) E3 > E2 > E1
(3) E3 > E1 > E2
(4) E2 > E1 > E3

4) The correct representation of Nernst's equation is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) None of the above

5) Which of the following is correct ?

Conductivity of a solution decreases with dilution, whereas molar conductivity increases with
(1)
dilution
Conductivity of a solution increases with dilution, whereas molar conductivity decreases with
(2)
dilution
(3) Both conductivity and molar conductivity decrease with dilution
(4) Both conductivity and molar conductivity increase with dilution

6) Reduction potential of hydrogen half cell will be negative if-

(1) = 1atm and [H+] = 2M

(2) = 1atm and [H+] = 1M
(3) = 2atm and [H+] = 1M
(4) = 2atm and [H+] = 2M

7) For an electrolytic solution, specific conductance is 9.2 × 10–2 ohm–1 m–1 then, calculate the value
of molar conductance for solution having 0.02M concentration ?

(1) 4.6 × 10–3 Sm2mol–1

(2) 4.6 × 102 Sm2mol–1
(3) 9.2 × 10–2 Sm2mol–1
(4) 4.6 × 10–5 Sm2mol–1

8) (NaCl) = 126.5 S cm2/eq.

(KCl) = 150.0 S cm2/eq.
(KBr) = 151.5 S cm2/eq.
(Br–) = 78 S cm2/eq., then calculate (Na+) :-

(1) 128 S cm2/eq

(2) 125 S cm2/eq
(3) 49 S cm2/eq
(4) 50 S cm2/eq

9) The standard oxidation potentials of three anions X–, Y– and Z–2 are –0.52 V, –3.03 V and –1.18 V
respectively. The order of reducing power of the anions is :-

(1) X– > Y– > Z–2

(2) Y– > Z–2 > X–
(3) X– > Z–2 > Y–
(4) Y– > X– > Z–2

10) If the cell reaction is spontaneous then :-

(1) ΔG° = –ve
(2) E°red = –ve
(3) E°red = +ve
(4) ΔG = –ve

11) On the basis of the following E° values, the strongest oxidizing agent is :-
[Fe(CN)6]4– → [Fe(CN)6]3– +e–1,E° = – 0.35 V
Fe2+ → Fe3+ + e–1 ; E° = – 0.77 V

(1) Fe3+
3–
(2) [Fe(CN)6]
4–
(3) [Fe(CN)6]
(4) Fe2+

12) Which of the following is incorrect?

(1) Salt bridge contains inert electrolyte

(2) Ionic mobility of cation & anion of inert electrolyte should be nearly equal
(3) Cu can displace zinc from its salt solution
(4) SHE (Standard Hydrogen Electrode) can act as anode as well as cathode

13) An increase in molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to :

(1) Increase in ionic mobility of ions

(2) Increase in number of ions
(3) Increase in both numbers of ions and ionic mobility
(4) Statement is wrong

14) Which occurs at the anode of any voltaic cell ?

P) Metal electrode dissolves
Q) Substance undergoes oxidation
R) Positive ions are deposited from the solution.

(1) P only
(2) Q only
(3) P and Q
(4) P and R

15) For the given Nernst equation

Ecell =
Which of the following representation is correct for given Nernst equation :-

(1) Ag+ | Ag || Mg2+ | Mg

(2) Mg2+ | Mg || Ag+ | Ag
(3) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag+ | Ag
(4) Mg | Mg2+ || Ag | Ag+

16)

The cell reaction for the given cell is spontaneous if :

(1) P1 > P2
(2) P1 < P2
(3) P1 = P2
(4) P2 = 1 atm

17) What will be the electrode potential of Cu electrode dipped in 0.025 M CuSO4 solution at 298 K.
Cu has the standard reduction potential 0.34 V :–

(1) 0.047 V
(2) 0.293 V
(3) 0.35 V
(4) 0.387 V

18) Statement-I : Zinc is more reactive than copper

Statement-II : Copper sulphate can be stored in zinc vessel.

Statement - I is correct while

(1)
Statement - II is incorrect
Statement - I is incorrect while
(2)
Statement - II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement - II are correct
(4) Both Statement - I and Statement - II are incorrect.

19) Which of the following can be oxidised to alcohol by KMnO4 :–

(1) n-pentane
(2) Isopentane
(3) Neopentane
(4) Propane

20) Which of the following compound gives CO2 on ozonolysis–

(1) CH2=CH―CH=CH2
(2) CH2=C=CH―CH3
(3) CH3―CH=CH―CH3
(4) CH2=CH―CH3

21) Which of the following alkene on ozonolysis give a mixture of ketones only ?
(1) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH3

22) Which of the following does not decolourise reddish brown solution of Br2/CCl4:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) when carbocation undergoes rearrangement, which the following

can not be obtained

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

24)
A is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) The reaction of propene with HOCl proceeds via the addition of –

(1) H⊕ in the first step

(2) Cl⊕ in the first step

(3) in the first step

(4) Cl⊕ and in a single step

26) Which doesn't follow Markownikoff's rule:

(1) CH3–CH=CH2
(2) CH3CH=CHCH3

(3)
(4) CH3–CH2–CH=CH2

27) Major product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Write rate of following alcohol in Acidic dehydration.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) A > B > C > D

(2) B > C > D > A
(3) D > C > B > A
(4) A > C > D > B

29) Trans-2-butene + Br2 gives-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

30) Which of the following not give the same product of hydroboration oxidation and acid catalysed
hydration :-

(1)

(2)

(3) CH2=CH2
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH3

31) ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) A reagent used to test for unsaturation of alkene is:-

(1) Con. H2SO4

(2) Ammonical Cu2Cl2
(3) Ammonical AgNO3
(4) Solution of Br2 in CCl4

33) Which of the following is most reactive towards Alc. KOH ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Which of the following reagent is used to distinguish propene and propyne?

(1) Br2, CCl4

Θ
(2) Dil. KMnO4 / OH
(3) Conc. H2SO4
(4) AgNO3 in NH4OH

35) A gas decolourises alkaline KMnO4 solution but does not give precipitate with AgNO3. It is:

(1) CH4
(2) C2H4
(3) C2H2
(4) C2H6

SECTION-B

1) Number of mole of MnO4– required to oxidise two moles of Ferrous oxalate completely in acidic
medium will be :-

(1) 0.6 mol

(2) 1.2 mol
(3) 2.4 mol
(4) 3.33 mol

2)

The equivalent weight of NH2OH in the equation.

2NH2OH + 4Fe+3→ N2O + H2O + 4Fe+2 + 4H+

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) The compound that can work both as oxidising and reducing agent is :

(1) KMnO4
(2) H2O2
(3) HNO3
(4) K2Cr2O7

4) Assuming complete ionisation, same moles of which of the following compounds will require the
highest amount of acidified KMnO4 for complete oxidation :-

(1) FeC2O4
(2) Fe (NO2)2
(3) FeSO4
(4) FeSO3

5) Which has the zero oxidation state :-

(1) Cl2
(2) Cd
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) O2–

6) A conductance cell when filled with 0.5 M KCl solution (conductivity = 6.67 × 10–3 Ω–1 cm–1)
registers a resistance of 243 Ω. Its cell constant is:-

(1) 1.62 cm
(2) 1.62 cm–1
(3) 1.62 dm–1
(4) 1.62 m–1

7) Molar conductance of 0.1 M acetic acid is 7 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1. If the molar conductance of acetic
acid at infinite dilution is 380.8 ohm–1 cm2 mol–1, the value of dissociation constant will be:-

(1) 226 × 10–5 mol dm–3

(2) 1.66 × 10–3 mol dm–1
(3) 1.66 × 10–2 mol dm–3
(4) 3.38 × 10–5 mol dm–3
8) Which of the following is not the product of dehydration of

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9)

Compound 'A' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Both (1) and (3)

10)
P and Q are respectively :-
(1) CH3CH2CHO, CH3COCH3
(2) CH3COCH3, CH3CH2CHO
(3) CH3CH2CHO(both)
(4) CH3COCH3(both

11)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following will not react with acetylene (CH≡CH)

(1) NaOH
(2) Tollen reagent
(3) Na Metal
(4) HBr

13) Major Product

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Correct order of rate of reaction with HBr :-

(1) R > P > Q

(2) R > Q > P
(3) P > R > S
(4) P > S > R

15) Major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-A
1) The following diagrams represent the nitrogenous bases of nucleic acid molecules. Identify the

correct combination.

(1) A - uracil, B - guanine, C - cytosine, D - adenine, E - thymine

(2) A - thymine, B - adenine, C - cytosine, D - guanine, E - uracil
(3) A - uracil, B - adenine, C - thymine, D - guanine, E - cytosine
(4) A - uracil, B - guanine, C - adenine, D - thymine, E - cytosine

2) Read the following four statements (A-D):-

(A) Backbone of DNA is formed by sugar and phosphate
(B) DNA and RNA have similar pyrimidine bases
(C) At each step of ascent, strand of DNA turns 36°
(D) Plane of one base pair stack over the other in DNA double helix. This, in addition to H-bonds,
confers stability of the helical structure
How many of the following statements are right ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

3) Enzymes used in above processes A, B and C are respectively :-

A B C

DNA dependent RNA dependent DNA dependent

(1)
DNA poymerase DNA polymerase RNA polymerase

DNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(2)
DNA polymerase RNA polymerase DNA polymerase

DNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(3)
RNA polymerase DNA polymerase DNA polymerase

RNA dependent DNA dependent RNA dependent

(4)
DNA polymerase RNA polymerase DNA polymerase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) In capping of hnRNA, an unusual nucleotide called __(A)__ is added to 5'-end. In tailing, adenylate
residues of __(B)__ bases are added to 3'-end of hnRNA in __(C)__ manner :-

A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,

(1)
B = 2000-3000, C = Template-independent
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
(2)
B = 200-300, C = Template dependent
A = Methyl guanosine triphosphate,
(3)
B = 200-300, C = Template-independent
A = Poly(A)polymerase,
(4)
B = 200-300, C = Template-independent

5) Correct sequence of set of enzyme during replication process :-

Unwindase → H-bond break down → Between Amino acid

Topoisomerase ΙΙ → Remove super coil
(1) DNA Pol ΙΙΙ → Polymerisation → 5' → 3'
DNA Pol Ι→ Removal of primer → 5' – 3'
exonuclease activity
Unwindase – H-bond breakdown → between N2 Base
Topoisomerase ΙΙ → Remove super coil
(2)
DNA Pol ΙΙΙ → Removal of primer → 3'-5' exonuelease activity
DNA Pol Ι → Polymerisation → 3'-5'
Unwindase – H-bond breakdown → between N2 Base
Topoisomerase ΙΙ - Remove super coil
(3)
DNA Pol ΙΙΙ → Polymerisation → 5'-3'
DNA Pol Ι → Removal of primer → 5'-3' exonuclease activity
Unwindase → Remove super coil
Topoisomerase ΙΙ → H-bond breakdown → between N2 base
(4)
DNA Pol Ι → Polymersation → 3'-5'
DNA Pol ΙΙΙ → Remove primer → 5'-3' exonuclease activity

6) A N15 – N15 DNA molecule is continuously replicated in N14 medium, then what is the % of heavy
DNA in 4th generation?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 12.5%
(4) 100%

7) The given figure refers to the process of transcription in Eukaryotes. A, B, C and D are
respectively

A–RNA polymerase ΙΙ, B–Intron,

(1)
C–Exon, D–Poly G–tail
A – RNA polymerase ΙΙ, B – Intron,
(2)
C – Exon, D – Poly A–tail
A – DNA polymerase ΙΙ, B – Exon,
(3)
C – Intron, D – Poly A–tail
A – RNA polymerase ΙΙ, B – Exon,
(4)
C – Intron, D – G–tail

8) From the given table which one of the following option is true for m-RNA, t-RNA and r-RNA :-

m-RNA t-RNA r-RNA

Highly Soluble Act as an

(1)
stable RNA enzyme

Largest Single
(2) Adapter RNA
RNA stranded

Have
message for Adapter Play catalytic
(3)
protein RNA role
synthesis

Highly Double
(4) Soluble RNA
stable stranded
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Transcription and translation are coupled in bacteria.
(b) The split gene arrangement represents advance feature of the genome.
(c) The process of splicing represents the dominance of RNA-world.
(d) The presence of introns in split gene is reminiscent of antiquity.

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) a, c and d
(4) b, c and d

10) Match the column-I with column-II :-

Codon Amino acid

a AUG i Methionine

b UUU ii Arginine

c AGA iii Phenylalanine

d GUG iv Serine

v Valine

(1) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-v

(2) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
(3) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

11) Identify the correct match from the column I, II and III.

Column I Column II Column III

DNA Work on
1 a i DNA Repair
polymerase I Bacteriophage

Meselson and Use N

2 b Form hnRNA ii
Stahl isotope

Proved
RNA Remove RNA genetic
3 c iii
polymerase II primer material is
DNA

Proved semi
DNA
Conservative
Hershey and dependent
4 d method of iv
Chase RNA
DNA
Polymerase
replication
(1) 1- b- iv, 2 -d - ii, 3-a-i, 4 -a - iii
(2) 1- c- i, 2 -d - ii, 3-b-iv, 4 -a - iii
(3) 1- c- i, 2 -a - iii, 3-b-iv, 4 -d - ii
(4) 1- c- i, 2 -d - iii, 3-b-iv, 4 -a - ii
12) Find the sequence of binding of the following aminoacyl t-RNA complexes during translation to a
mRNA transcribed by a DNA segment having base sequence 3' TACATGGGTCCG 5'. Choose the
answer showing the correct order of t-RNA :-

(1) 2, 1, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2, 3, 4
(3) 1, 2, 4, 3
(4) 2, 1, 4, 3

13) Given below are two statement:

Statement-I: Eukaryotic cells have multiple RNA polymerase that transcribe different types of RNA.
Statement-II: Transcription is the copying of genetic information from any DNA strand into RNA.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given
below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

14)

RNA can acts as :-

(a) Genetic material
(b) Messenger
(c) Adapter molecule
(d) Structural molecule

(e) Catalytic molecule

(1) b, c and e
(2) a, d and e
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c, d and e

15) Which of the following option is correct with respect to DNA replication-
(a) During DNA replication in the cell only DNA polymerase enzyme complete the process of
replication.
(b) Any mistake during replication would result into mutation.
(c) The average rate of polymerisation has to be approximately 2000 bp per second.
(d) On template with 3'→5' polarity the discontinuous strand is formed

(1) (b) and (d)

(2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (b) and (c)
(4) (b) and (c)

16) Find out the correct match

a RNA Polymerase-I (i) 28 S rRNA

b RNA Polymerase-II (ii) 5.8 S rRNA

c RNA Polymerase-III (iii) tRNA

(iv) hn RNA

(v) 18 S rRNA

(vi) Sn RNA

(vii) 5 S rRNA

(viii) mRNA

a b c

(1) i, ii, v, vii iv, viii iii, vi

(2) i, ii, vii iv, vi, viii iii, v

iii, vi,
(3) i, ii, v iv, viii
vii

(4) v, vii, ii i, iv, viii iii, vi

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding strand of a gene. What will be the corresponding
sequence of the transcribed mRNA ?

(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(2) UCCAUAGCGUA
(3) ACCUAUGCGAU
(4) UGGTUTCGCAT

18) Which is incorrect :-

(i) Ori site is rich in G-C content
(ii) DNA dependent RNA polymerases activity provides free –OH group to DNA polymerase
(iii) The only enzyme having exonuclease activity in both the direction is DNA polymerase-I
(iv) More number of RNA primers are formed in eukaryotes than prokaryotes
(v) NTPs serves dual function while in replication

(1) i, iv
(2) ii, iii
(3) iii, iv
(4) i, v

19) Given below are the two statement :-

Statement-I :- A typical nucleosome contains 200bp of DNA helix.
Statement-II :- There are 3.3 × 107 nucleosome present in a mammalian cell.
In the light of the above statement, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

20) How many statements are correct ?

(A) DNA in human is double stranded.
(B) DNA is a polymer of nucleotides.
(C) DNA has negative charge because of phosphate group.
(D) Histene octamer has negative charge on it.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

21) Assertion : In a ds DNA, the ratio between Adenine and Thymine is constant and equals one.
Reason : In a ds DNA, Adenine always pairs with Thymine.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

22) Assertion : RNA can easily express the characters.

Reason : RNA can directly code for the synthesis of proteins.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

23) Assertion (A) : If the sequence of bases in one strand of DNA is known then the sequence in
other strand can be predicted.
Reason (R) : Both the strands of DNA are complementary of each other.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
24) Which of the following enzymes helps in DNA replication.
(a) Topoisomerase
(b) DNA polymerase
(c) RNA polymerase
(d) Helicase
(e) DNA ligase
(f) DNA gyrase

(1) a, c, d, e only
(2) a, c, d only
(3) a, d, e, f only
(4) a, b, c, d, e, f

25) If in a bacterial cell 5 types of Nitrogenous base are present in m-RNA which code 20 types of
amino acid then genetic code will be :-

(1) Singlet
(2) Doublet
(3) Triplet
(4) Pentaplet

26) Consider the following statements.

Statement-I : Scvero ochoa enzyme helpful in polymerising DNA in a template independent
manner.
Statement-II: In prokaryotes, control of the rate of transcriptional initiation is the predominant site
for control of gene expression.

(1) Both statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct while statement-II is incorrect
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct
(4) Statement-I is incorrect while statement-II is correct

27) Assertion :- RNA polymerase associates with σ-factor and ρ-factor to terminate and initiate the
transcription respectively.
Reason :- Association with these factors will not alter the specificality of the RNA polymerase.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

28) Given below are two statements

Statement I : In prokaryotes, the positively charged DNA is held with some negatively charged
proteins in a region called nucleoid
Statement II: In eukaryotes, the negatively charged DNA is wrapped around the positively charged
histone octamer to form nucleosome
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below
(1) Both Statements I and Statement II are false
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Statement I false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

29) Which of the following cytogenetical event is not execuiting here :-

(1) Segregation of factors

(2) Pairing of factor
(3) Independent assortment of factors
(4) Descrete nature of factors

30) The figure given below is of experimental technique of Mendel. Select the option giving correct
identification of A, B & C :-

A-Artificial cross pollination;

(1) B-Hybrid offsprings;
C-Emasculation.
A-Emasculation;
(2) B-Bagging & tagging;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Emasculation;
(3) B-Artificial cross pollination;
C-Hybrid offsprings.
A-Bagging & tagging;
(4) B-Emasculation;
C-Hybrid offsprings.

31) How many genotypes are found in F2 progeny obtained by self pollination of the F1 dihybrid ?

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 6
(4) 9
32) Identify A, B and C from the following diagram.

(1) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Glu

(2) A: GAG; B: CTC; C: Pro
(3) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Thr
(4) A: CTC; B: GAG; C: Leu

33) Assertion: In snapdragon, F1 plants do not have red or white flowers.

Reason: In snapdragon, the phenotypic ratio is 3 : 1.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false but reason is true.

34) Which of the disorder is related with the Karyotype given below ?

(1) Turner's syndrome

(2) Down's syndrome
(3) Myotonic dystrophy
(4) Cystic fibrosis

35) Select the incorrect matching.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

SECTION-B

1) Which of the following statements are correct :-

A- A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a N-glycosidic linkage to form a
nucleotide.
B- Two nucleotides are linked through 5'–3' phosphodiester linkage to form a dinucleotide.
C- Double Helix model of watson and crick was based on X-Ray diffraction data produced by Wilkins
and Franklin
D- One of the hallmarks of double helix model was base pairing between the two strands of
polynucleotide chains
E- If each strand from a DNA, acts as a template for synthesis of a new strand the two double
stranded DNA thus, produced would be identical to the parental DNA molecule

(1) A, B and E
(2) A,C and E
(3) C,D and E
(4) All of these

2) If you grow some bacteria in heavy nitrogen for many generations and then shift them to light
nitrogen. How many generation after shifting, bacteria would have some light DNA?

(1) First generation

(2) Second generation
(3) Only the third generation
(4) Never as DNA replication is semi-conservative

3) Consider the following statements and choose the correct option :-

(a) Six codons do not code for any amino-acid.
(b) Codon is read on m-RNA in a contiguous fashion.
(c) Three codons function as stop codons.
(d) The initiator codon AUG codes for methionine.
Option :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) are wrong

(2) (a), (b) and (c) are wrong
(3) (b), (c) and (d) are wrong
(4) (a) is wrong

4) The presence of __'A'___ is reminiscent of antiquity and process of __'B'__ represent Dominance of
___'C'___.
Identify A, B and C :-

A B C

(1) Exon Splicing RNA world

Ploy A
(2) SnRNA Tailing
polymerase

(3) Intron Splicing RNA world

(4) Split gene Splicing Spliceosome

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

5) Fill up the blanks A to D

(I) Amino acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is ......A...... ?
(II) One codon codes for only one amino acid, hence, it is ......B......
(III) The codon is read in mRNA in ......C..... fashion
(IV) ......D...... in bacteria is the ribozyme for formation of peptide bond

A–degenerate, B–unambiguous,
(1)
C – contiguous, D–23s rRNA
A–unambiguous, B–degenerate,
(2)
C–discontinuous, D–23s rRNA
A – degenerate, B–contiguous,
(3)
C–23s rRNA, D–unambiguous
A–universal, B–degenerate,
(4)
C–Contiguous, D–28s rRNA

6) Find out the correct options :-

1. One amino acid may have more than one codon
2. All amino acids have more than one codon
3. Codons are common for higher and lower organisms
4. Codons are not found in bacteria

(1) 1, 2, 3 correct
(2) 1, 2 correct
(3) 2, 4 correct
(4) 1, 3 correct

7) In DNA segment of six helix, 22 base-pairs are linked by two hydrogen bonds. How many cytosine
bases would be present ?

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 44
(4) 76

8) The diagram below refers to clover leaf model of tRNA or sRNA (soluble RNA) given by Holley. In
which one of the options all the four parts P, O, R and S are identified with their respective functions
correctly ?

P Q R S

(1) Anti codon Carry AA TψC DHU

(2) DHU TψC Anti codon Carry AA

(3) Carry AA TψC Anti codon DHU

(4) Anti codon DHU Carry AA TψC

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) The given sequence when translated must form a polypeptide of how many amino acids ?
5'-CUCAAAUCCAUGCCCUGGGCUUGUUAGCGA-3'

(1) Eight
(2) Nine
(3) Six
(4) Five

10) Assertion :- N-base is heterocyclic compound.

Reason :- Adenine and Guanine are found in both RNA & DNA
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

11) Assertion :- In splicing, introns are removed and remaining parts are joined in specific manner.
Reason :- In prokaryotes, splicing occurs prior protein synthesis.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

12) The 3' – 5' phosphodiester linkages inside a polynucleotide chain serve to join

(1) one DNA strand with the other DNA strand

(2) one nucleoside with another nucleoside
(3) one nucleotide with another nucleotide
(4) one nitrogenous base with pentose sugar.

13)
Above representative figure showing an individual affected with chromosomal disorder, The affected
individual have all the given features except :-

(1) Palm crease.

(2) Sterile
(3) Mental retardation.
(4) Furrowed tongue

14)
Given Pedigree shows

(1) X-linked recessive

(2) Autosomal recessive
(3) X-linked dominant
(4) Autosomal dominant

15) How many following statement are correct according to given diagram :

a. (I) determines the sex of the progeny

b. (II) determines the sex of the progeny
c. (I) are male have a pair zz chromosome besides autosomes
d. (I) are female have zw chromosome besides autosomes

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) None of these

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1)

Consider the following four statements (I-IV) regarding kidney transplant and select the two correct
ones out of these.
I. Even if a kidney transplant is proper the recipient may need to take immuno-suppressants for a
long time.
II. The cell-mediated immune response is responsible for the graft rejection.
III. The B-lymphocytes are responsible for rejection of the graft.

IV. The acceptance or rejecton of a kidney transplant depends on specific interferons.

(1) II and III
(2) III and IV
(3) I and III
(4) I and II

2) Which is necessary for achieving good health ?

(a) Awareness about diseases
(b) Proper disposal of waste
(c) Control of vectors
(d) Maintenance of hygienic food and water

(1) a
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b, c, d

3) Identify A, B, C, D and E in the diagrammatic representation of life cycle of a retrovirus (e.g.,

HIV):-

Op. A B C D E
Reverse
(1) Viral DNA Viral RNA Viral RNA incorporated into host genome New viruses produced
transcriptase
Reverse
(2) Viral DNA Viral DNA Viral DNA incorporated into host genome New viruses produced
transcriptase
Reverse
(3) Viral RNA Viral RNA Viral RNA incorporated into host genome New viruses produced
transcriptase
Reverse
(4) Viral RNA Viral DNA Viral DNA incorporated into host genome New viruses produce
transcriptase
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4)

Arrange the stages of life cycle of plasmodium starting from human host and ending in mosquito
host :-
(I) RBCs release the toxic haemozoin
(II) Parasite reproduces asexually in liver cells
(III) Parasites attacks RBC.
(IV) Sporozoites enters human body through the mosquito bite
(V) Mature sporozoites escape from intestine and migrate to the mosquito's salivary gland.
(VI) Fertilisation of gametocytes occurs in mosquito's intestine

(VII) Mosquito takes up gametocytes while sucking blood of an infected person

(1) (IV) → (II) → (I) → (III) → (VII) → (V) → (VI)
(2) (I) → (II) → (III) → (V) → (VI) → (IV) → (VII)
(3) (IV) → (II) → (III) → (I) → (VII) → (VI) → (V)
(4) (III) → (IV) → (II) → (I) → (V) → (VII) → (VI)

5) A male boy suffering from mental retardation, congenital heart disease and characteristic facial
features and also have psychomotor dysfunction. Identify abnormality and number of barr body ?

(1) 45+XY,0 barr body

(2) 45+XX,1 barr body
(3) 47+XY,0 barr body
(4) 44+XO,0 barr body

6) Read the following statements and choose the correct option

Statement-A : Allergy is due to the release of chemicals like histamine and serotonin from the mast
cells.
Statement-B : The use of drugs like antihistamine, adrenaline and steroids, quickly reduce the
symptoms of allergy.

(1) Both statement A and B are incorrect

(2) Both statement A and B are correct
(3) Only statement A is correct
(4) Only statement B is correct

7) Which of the following is correct?

(1) B -cells provide CMI

(2) Interferons prevent the neighbouring cells from further viral infection
(3) As the age increases, thymosin increases
(4) T-cells produces antibodies

8)

Select the incorrect option from the following w.r.t. item, category and one exception

Items Category Exception

Amoebiasis,
Protozoan
(1) Filariasis, Filariasis
diseases
Malaria
Peyer's
Secondary
patches,
(2) lymphoid Thymus
spleen, MALT,
organs
Thymus
N. K. Cells, B- Specific
(3) cells, immune N. K. Cells
T-cells response
HCl in
stomach,
Physiological Lysozyme
(4) lysozyme of
barriers of saliva
saliva, tears,
skin
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Antitoxin is a preparation containing :

(1) Antigens to the toxin

(2) Antibodies to the toxin
(3) Mixture of antigen and antibodies that given in tetanus
(4) Memory B and T cells

10) Which provide micro - environment for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes?

(1) Bone - marrow

(2) Spleen
(3) Thymus
(4) Both 1 and 3

11) Identify the correct option w.r.t sexually transmitted diseases is

(1) Not curable

(2) non -pathogenic
(3) not deadly
(4) curable except HIV, Genital Herpes, Hepatitis-B

12) The organs in which immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen sensitive lymphocytes are
:–
(A) Spleen (B) Thymus
(C) Bone marrow (D) Tonsils

(1) A only
(2) B and C
(3) B and D
(4) A, B, C and D

13) Rheumatoid Arthritis which affect many people in our society, is :-

(1) Auto Immune disorder

(2) Synovial joint disorder
(3) Genetic disorder
(4) (1) and (2)

14)

Which of the following is correct about pneumonia?

(a) It is caused by Haemophilus influenzae
(b) Infection by inhaling the droplets/aerosols released by an infected person.
(c) Infection of nose and respiratory passage but not the lungs.

(d) It is caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, b, d
(4) All are correct

15) Primary response which is of ____(A)____ intensity. Subsequent encounter with the same
pathogen elicit a ___(B)___intensified ___(C)___ response.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) High Low Anamnestic
(2) Low High Primary
(3) Low High Secondary
(4) High Low Primary
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

16) Which of the following statement is false for the structure given below ?

(1) Represented by H2L2

(2) These are found in blood so response is termed as humoral immune response
(3) These are secreted by T-cells
(4) They have four peptide chains

17) Which of the following statement is correct regarding the number of helper T cells and the viral
concentration in the blood ?

(1) As the number of HIV increase, so do the numbers of helper T cells.

(2) As the number of HIV increase, the number of helper T cells decreases.
(3) As the concentration of HIV decreases , the number of helper T cells increases.
(4) There is no relationship between the concentration of HIV and the number of helper T cells.
18) The principle of immunisation is based on :-

(1) Memory of immune system

(2) Opsonisation
(3) Diversity in immune system
(4) Inflammation

19) How many statements given below are the examples of "Naturally Acquired Passive Immunity"
(a) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients, contain preformed antibodies
against the snake venom.
(b) the foetus receives some antibodies from their mother through placenta during pregnancy.
(c) Colostrum secreted by mother during the initial days of lactation has abundant IgA antibodies to
protect the infant.
(d) 'ATS' (Anti-tetanus serum) provides temporary protection in case of injuries.
Options :-

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

20) Which of the followings are incorrect regarding cancer ?

(a) Non infectious
(b) Oncogenic transformation
(c) Neoplastic cell
(d) Do not show metastasis
(e) Caused only by oncogenic virus

(1) a, b, d
(2) d, e
(3) b, c
(4) a, e

21) In which of the following technique is in-vivo?

(1) ZIFT
(2) GIFT
(3) ICSI
(4) IUT

22) A condition having 47 chromosomes in human cells and seen only in male is :

(1) Down syndrome

(2) Edward syndrome
(3) Klinefelter syndrome
(4) Patau's syndrome
23) HIV is a member of a group of viruses called

(1) rota virus

(2) rhino virus
(3) retro virus
(4) none of these

24) A : The pathogen, Microsporum responsible for ringworm disease in humans belongs to same
Kingdom of organisms as that of Rhizopus.
R : They both belongs to kingdom Protista.

(1) A is correct, but R is incorrect.

(2) Both A and R are correct, but R is not correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are incorrect.

25) In the given list how many diseases are not auto immune disorders?
Hay fever, Myasthenia gravis, Hashimoto disease, Asthma, Pernicious anemia

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

26) How many of the following statement(s) is/are true about cancer ?
(A) Activation of protooncogene due to carcinogens, could lead to oncogenic transformation of the
cells.
(B) Ionizing radiations like UV cause DNA damage leading to neoplastic transformation.
(C) Best technique & safest technique for cancer detection is MRI & radiography respectively.
(D) Metastasis is the most feared property of benign tumor.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

27) How many of the given statements are incorrect about AIDS : –
(i) DNA genome of virus replicates to form DNA with help of enzyme reverse transcriptase
(ii) Virus released in blood initially attack TH cells
(iii) Incubation period vary from few month to years
(iv) Thalessemic patients have more chance of getting infected
(v) "Die of ignorance" slogan used to create awareness

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One
28) Assertion: MALA-D cause anovulation.
Reason : MALA-D results in low FSH and LH by negative feedback.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

29) Read the following statements regarding the various techniques used in cancer detection :
(i) Cancer detection is based on biopsy and histopathological studies of the tissue, and blood and
bone marrow tests for increased cell counts in case of leukaemia
(ii) In biopsy, a piece of the suspected tissue cut into thin sections is stained and examined under
microscope by a pathologist.
(iii) Techniques like radiography (use of X-rays), CT (computed tomography) and MRI (magnetic
resonance imaging) are very useful to detect cancers of the internal organs
(iv) Computed tomography uses strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiations to detect
physiological changes in living tissues
(v) MRI use X-rays and ionising radiations rays to generate a 3-D image of the internal structure of
an object
Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) i and iii

(2) ii and iv
(3) iii and iv
(4) iv and v

30) Assertion : Side effects of 'SAHELI' are less than 'MALA-D'.

Reason : 'SAHELI' is non-steroidal pill.

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(1)

(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Assertion and Reason both are false.

31)

Which of the following statements are true regarding a disease which show loss of contact inhibition
by cells :
(a) Low karyoplasmic index
(b) Rapid cell division
(c) Sensitive to drugs inhibiting DNA synthesis
(d) Secondary tumour formation.

(e) Infectious disease

(1) Only a, b, & e
(2) Only a, b & d
(3) Only b, c, d
(4) Only b, c, d & e

32) Which of the following is/are the correct statement with respect to HIV?
a. The viral RNA genome produces the viral DNA in the host cell by using enzyme reverse
transcriptase
b. Drug addicts, are at high risk of getting HIV infection
c. Retrovirus
d. Viral glycoprotein GP-120 binds with CD4 receptor of TH-lymphocytes

(1) a, b and c
(2) b, c and d
(3) a, b and d
(4) All of these

33) A widely used diagnostic test for HIV is___ and its conformatory test is done by ____. It is
basically a method of checking ___ in blood.

(1) PCR, Southern blotting, DNA

(2) ELISA, Western blotting, antibodies / proteins
(3) ELISA, Northern blotting, RNA
(4) Pap, ELISA, Antigen

34)

Estrogen is used to avoid pregnancy because it :-

(1) Prevents fertilisation

(2) Prevents ovulation and implantation
(3) Inhibit sperm motility
(4) Forms cervical plug

35)

Which of the following is not a method of birth control ?

(1) Tubectomy
(2) Vasectomy
(3) Periodic absenence of coitus from day 10 to 17 of the menstrual cycle
(4) Periodic abstinence of coitus from the day 6th to 9th of menstrual cycle.

SECTION-B

1) Uterine fibroid (Leiomyoma) is :-

(1) Hypophysealtumor
(2) Benign tumor of uterus
(3) Prostatic carcinoma
(4) Epithelial tumor of cervix

2) Which constitutes about 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body ?

(1) Spleen
(2) Lymph nodes
(3) Thymus
(4) MALT (Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue)

3)

Match column (A) with (B)?

A B
Heart valves of Pig
(i) (a) Autograft
utilised in Human
Thigh skin utilised in
(ii) (b) Isograft
case of facial burn
Lobular transplant of
(iii) liver (Genetically (c) Allograft
similar donor)
Coronary Artery
(iv) bypass grafting (d) Xenograft
(CABG)
i ii iii iv
(1) d a b a
(2) d a b c
(3) c a b d
(4) a c d b
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) The immune system plays an important role in :

(a) Recognition of foreign antigens
(b) Responds to antigens and remembers then
(c) Allergic reactions
(d) Auto-immune diseases
(e) Organ transplantation

(1) b, c and e
(2) a and b only
(3) a, b, c and d
(4) a, b, c, d and e

5) Most serious or even fatal type of malaria is caused by:-

(1) P. vivax
(2) P. falciparum
(3) P. ovale
(4) P. malariae

6) Which of the following is a communicable disease?

(1) Cancer
(2) Alkaptonuria
(3) Hypertension
(4) AIDS

7) Statement 1: NK cells are found in blood

Statement 2: They are type of granular lymphocyte

(1) Only statement 1st correct

(2) Both statement correct
(3) Only statement 2nd correct
(4) None are correct

8) In full blown AIDS, opportunistic infections are especially caused by :-

(1) Mycobacterium
(2) Toxoplasma
(3) Viruses and fungi
(4) All of these

9)

Match the column I and column II and choose correct answer :-

Column I Column II

A Carcinoma (i) Cancer of pigment cells of skin

B Melanoma (ii) Cancer of gland

C Sarcoma (iii) Cancer of epithelial tissue

D Adenoma (iv) Cancer of connective tissue

(1) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(3) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(4) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

10) Which gene is not involved in normal cell growth ?

(1) Tumour suppressor gene

(2) Proto oncogenes
(3) Oncogenes
(4) Suicide gene

11)

Most cancers are treated by combination of:-

(a) Surgery (b) Radiotherapy

(c) Chemotherapy
(1) a and b
(2) a and c
(3) b and c
(4) a, b and c

12) Best investigation and safest investigation technique used for cancer detection respectively are:-

(1) Biopsy, Biopsy

(2) MRI, Biopsy
(3) Biopsy, MRI
(4) CTScan, Fine needle aspiration cytology

13)

In the given list ELISA test can be used for the detection of how many conditions ?
Hepatitis-B, HIV infection, Thyroid disorder, Rubella virus infection, STD

(1) 3
(2) 4
(3) 5
(4) 2

14)

Cellular changes associated with the progression from normal to malignant includes :-
(a) Increased mitotic rate
(b) Loss of contact inhibition
(c) Metastasis

(d) uncontrolled growth

(1) a & b only
(2) a, b & c only
(3) b & c only
(4) a, b, c & d

15) Find out which of the statements are true (T)/false (F) and choose the correct option:- (I) Cancer
causing viruses called oncogenic viruses modify the host’s genome (II) Cancer detection is based on
biopsy, bone marrow tests and histopathological studies of the tissue and blood (III) Techniques likes
radiography (X-rays), computed tomography (CT) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are very
useful to defect cancers of internal organs (IV) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are use
for the detection of certain cancers
I II III IV
(1) T T T F
(2) T F F T
(3) T T T T
(4) F F F T

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 3 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 1 3 2 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 2 2 1 3 2 4 1 3 2 1 1 4 4 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 3 3 3 4 1 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 3 1 2 1 2 2
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 3 4 3 2 2 2 2 3 2 2 4 4 4 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 1 4 1 3

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 2 3 3 2 2 3 3 1 2 1 2 4 4 3 1 4 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 1 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 4 2 3 3 2 2 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 4 4 3 1 2 2 4 2 4 4 2 4 3 3 3 2 1 2 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 3 3 1 3 4 3 1 4 1 3 4 2 2 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 4 1 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 4 3 3 4 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

3)

so,

4)
Springs are connected in parallel
Keff = K1 + K2 = K + 2K = 3K

6) a = ω2x

7)

ρ = density of liquid
σ = density of bob

1=
σ=2

8)

The equation can be rewritten as

ν2 = 100 – 4x2
= 4(25 – x2)
Compare the above equation with
ν2 = ω2(A2 – ω2)
we get, ω = 2 and A = 5

Time period = = π sec

9)

14)

⇒
(since acceleration is positive, lift accelerate upwards)

15)

⇒ (∵ vmax = ωA = v0)

17)

22)

25)
 26)

...(1)
...(2)
Comparing (1) and (2) by

We get

and
Beats frequency
= 2H2

28) First over tone of open pipe

For close pipe

As both are same

35)

For an open pipe, e = 0.6 d

41)

42) The standard equation of a standing wave is on comparing with

standard equation, and

The wavelength of the wave can be obtained by using the wave number. .
The wavelength is Frequency of the third harmonics is three times the
fundamental.
Therefore, length of the string is:
 44)

a = –ω2x =

a=

46)

47)

In 1st case T1 =
In 2nd case v = 4t
a=4

48)

50)

V0 = a0
ωA = ω2A
T = 2π = 6.28 sec

CHEMISTRY

56)

2H+(aq.) + 2e¯ → H2(g)

ERP = 0 – log

For ERP < 0; >1

58)

= + –

63)

NCERT theory

66)

Ecell =
when P1 < P2 then Ecell = +ve
and ΔG = –ve (spontaneous)

69)

3° Hydrogen Having alkane oxidised into alcohol by KMnO4/H+

70)

71)
 72)

Alkene and alkyne decolourise brown bromine solution but benzene does not decolourise.

80)

86) 3 × (8H+ + MnO4– + 5e– —→ Mn2+ + 4H2O)

5 × (FeC2O4 —→ Fe3+ + 2CO2 + 3e–)
3MnO4– + 5FeC2O4 + 24H+ → 3Mn2+ + 5Fe3+ + 10CO2 + 12H2O
5 mol FeC2O4 requires 3 mol MnO4–

2 mol FeC2O4 requires =

88)

In H2O2 oxgen atom is in –1 oxidation state.

89)

nƒ FeC2O4 = 3
nƒ Fe(NO2)2 = 1 + (2 × 2) = 5
nƒ FeSO4 = 1
nƒ FeSO3 = 1 + 2 = 3
Higher the nƒ , higher the amount of KMnO4 will be required

93)
→ So, option (4) is not possible.

94)

96)

There is anti-addition of –Cl and –OH

BOTANY

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 82

104)

NCERT XII Pg.# 111

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 89

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 94

109)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 93-94

110)

NCERT XII, Pg.# 112

114) NCERT XII, Pg. # 95, 114

 116)

NCERT Pg # 111

119)

NCERT XII Pg # 99

120)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 96, 99

121)

NCERT XII Pg#97 (E)

122)

NCERT Pg#103 (E)

NCERT Pg#114 (H)

124)

Module-09 Pg. No. 122, 123, 124

130)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 71

131)

Ncert Pg No: 63

133)

NCERT Page no. 76

134)

NCERT Page no. 92

135)

NCERT Page No. 70

136)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 69,97

140)

NCERT XII Pg.# 96.99

145)
NCERT-XI, Pg # 144, Last para

149) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 72

ZOOLOGY

154)

NCERT XIIth Pg.#147

162)

NCERT- (E) Page- 153

164)

NCERT Pg. # 147

167)

In general, as the concentration of HIV increases the number of helper T cells destroyed increases
causing the cell count to fall.

168)

Module-1 Pg # 167

169)

NCERT Page # 153, 152

170)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157

176) Only statement A is correct

NCERT Pg. No. 157

177)

NCERT XII, Page # 155-156

182)

NCERT Page-154, 155

187) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 138

195)

NCERT (XII) Pg. # 157, Para-8.4