1.

The following statements are true regarding the menstrual cycle, EXCEPT
A. The release of the luteinizing hormone-releasing hormone/LHRH initiates the menstrual cycle.
B. The anterior lobe of the pituitary gland produces FSH and LH.
C. The usual time of ovulation is the midpoint of a woman’s menstrual cycle.
D. The ovum divides into two separate bodies by mitotic division.

2. What is the average amount of menstrual flow?

3. 50-100 mlUterine changes occur monthly due to hormones produced by the ovaries and this gives rise
to four phases of the menstrual cycle. The following are statements describing these four phases,
arrange accordingly.
I. The endometrium of the uterus degenerates as the corpus luteum regresses.
II. The glands of the uterine endometrium becomes corkscrew or twisted in appearance due to increased
levels of progesterone.
III. Menses or menstrual flow composed of blood, mucin, and fragments of endometrial tissue occur.
IV. The endometrium is very thin and responds to the release of estrogen from the ovaries.
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, III, IV, II
C. IV, II, I, III
D. IV, I, II, III

4. A16-year-old high school student comes to the school clinic complaining of severe dysmenorrhea.
Which among the actions of the nurse warrants further intervention?
A. Application of local heat through compress in the pelvic area
B. Giving of prostaglandin inhibitors to relieve the pain
C. Giving of salicylates to help relieve the pain
D. Advising the student to rest but continue usual activities as tolerated

A patient comes in at the maternal health clinic for her routine prenatal check-up. The following
questions apply.

5. The woman informs you that this is her fourth pegnancy. Her first child was born at 38 weeks, now
alive and well. Her second pregnancy resulted to a miscarriage at 12 weeks. She had twins during her
third pregnancy and delivered them at 39 weeks AOG, both alive and well. What is the woman’s GTPALM
score?
A. Gravida 4, para 20131
B. Gravida 4, para 30131
C. Gravida 3, para 20131
D. Gravida 3, para 30131

6. The patient informs you that her last menstrual period is June 22, 2024. Using Nagele’s Rule, when is
her expected date of delivery?
A. March 22, 2025
B. March 29, 2025
C. April 29, 2025
D. April 22, 2025

7. The patient informs you that she is in her second trimester of pregnancy. In measuring the fundic
height, what should the nurse expect to note with this measurement regarding gestational age?
A. It is normally less than gestational age
B. It correlates with gestational age
C. It is usually greater than gestational age
D. It has no correlation with gestational age

8. Upon reading the patient’s history, the nurse finds out that she has pre-existing heart disease. She
assesses the client’s vital signs, weight, fluid and nutritional status to detect for complications caused by
which pregnancy-related concern?
A. Fetal cardiomegaly
B. Hypertrophy and increased cardiac contractility
C. Rhincompatibility
D. Increased circulating blood volume

9. Which of the following data about the patient is considered a risk factor in developing gestational
diabetes?
A. Age of 22 years old
B. Height of 5’6” and weight of 130 lbs
C. Reports of feeling fatigued by night
D. History of unexplained miscarriage

10. The first morphologic sign of gastrulation is the formation of the:

11. Primitive nodeThree germ layers give rise to specific tissues and organs. Among the three, which is
the origin of the central and peripheral nervous systems, eyes and internal ears, and other connective
tissues of the head?
A. Embryonic ectoderm
B. Embryonic endoderm
C. Embryonic mesoderm
D. Embryonic intraderm

12. Which germ layer is responsible for the development of serous membranes lining the body cavities
such as the pericardium, pleura, and peritoneal membranes?
A. Embryonic ectoderm
B. Embryonic endoderm
C. Embryonic mesoderm
D. Embryonic intraderm

Nurse Nicole a newly-registered nurse assigned in the maternity ward. Patients in varying stages in their
pregnancy are under her care. The following questions apply.

13. Patient Nikki is undergoing a nonstress test to ensure her baby’s wellbeing. The following statements
are true regarding this procedure EXCEPT:
A. It measures the response of fetal heart rate to fetal movement
B. As the fetus moves, the fetal heart rate increases about 15 beats per minute and returns to baseline
thereafter
C. The test is done for 10-20 minutes with the attachments of a fetal heart rate and uterine contraction
monitor
D. If no fetal movement occurs or if there is low short-term fetal heart rate variability, the test is
interpreted as nonreactive

14. After the first nonstress test, no fetal movement was recorded and patient Nikki starts to get worried
that her baby is not well. To relieve her worries, which of the following is the appropriate action to take?

I. Provide the patient with an oral carbohydrate snack

15. Nurse Nicole is caring for patient Annie who underwent testing for maternal serum alpha-
fetoprotein. High levels of the substance were detected and is indicative of which defect in the fetus?
A. Trophoblastic disease
B. Open spinal or abdominal defect
C. Down syndrome
D. Cardiac septal defect
16. Another patient is 7 weeks into her pregnancy and expressed that sometimes, she feels ambivalent
regarding her situation. What psychological task would Nurse Nicole want her patient to achieve at this
time?
A. Explain her symptoms as they occur
B. Accept the fact that she is pregnant
C. Accept the arrival of a baby
D. Devise a birth plan

Nurse Rafaelle is reviewing her knowledge regarding assessment of pregnant clients. The following
questions apply.
17. She knows that all of the following probable signs of pregnancy appear by the sixth week, EXCEPT:
A. Chadwick’s sign
B. Ballottement sign
C. Goodell’s sign
D. Hegar’s sign

18. Nurse Rafaelle is assessing a client diagnosed with cardiac disease at the 30 weeks’ gestation
antenatal visit. She assesses lung sounds in the lower lobes after a routine blood pressure screening. The
nurse performs this assessment to elicit what information?
A. Identify mitral valve prolapse
B. Identify cardiac dysrhythmias
C. Rule out the possibility of pneumonia
D. Assess for early signs of heart failure (HF)

19. The nurse is reviewing the results of the rubella screening (titer) of a pregnant client. The results
came back positive and the client asks if it is safe for her toddler to receive the vaccine. Which response
by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. “Most children do not receive the vaccine until they are 5 years of age.”
B. “You are still susceptible to rubella, so your toddler should receive the vaccine.”
C. “It is not advised for children of pregnant women to be vaccinated during their mother’s pregnancy as
they may shed the virus.”
D. “Your titer supports your immunity to rubella, and it is safe for your toddler to receive the vaccine.”

20. In assessing a pregnant patient with a history of cardiac disease, which body area will Nurse Rafaelle
expect venous congestion to be notable?
A. Vulva
B. Around the eyes
C. Fingers of the hands
D. Around the abdomen
21. While in the emergency room, you receive a pregnant client at 32 weeks AOG who had a motor
vehicle crash. She verbalized experiencing mild cramps and had slight vaginal bleeding. Which action will
you take to support the viability of the fetus?
A. Position and connect a spiral electrode to the fetal monitor for internal fetal monitoring
B. Administer oxygen to the mother via face mask at 7-10 LPM
C. Position and connect the ultrasound transducer to the external fetal monitor
D. Insert an intravenous line and begin an infusion at 125 ml per hour

22. Nurse Kate is caring for a 33-week pregnant client who had premature rupture of membranes
(PROM). Which interventions should the nurse expect to be part of her care? Select all that apply.
I. Perform frequent biophysical profiles
II. Monitor for elevated serum creatinine
III. Monitor for signs of infection
IV. Teach the client how to count fetal movements
V. Use strict sterile technique for vaginal examinations
VI. Inform the client about the need for tocolytic therapy
A. I, II, III, IV, V, VI
B. I, III, IV, V, VI
C. I, III, IV, V
D. I, II, IV, V

23. Immediately after delivery, the nurse assesses the client for uterine involution. The nurse determines
that the uterus is progressing normally toward its pre-pregnancy state when palpation of the client’s
fundus is at which level at this time of assessment?
A. At the level of the umbilicus
B. Two fingerbreadths below the umbilicus
C. One fingerbreadth below the umbilicus
D. Midway between the umbilicus and symphysis pubis

24. Patient Joy, a new mother at 38 weeks AOG, shared that she has a sudden burst of energy and has
started to prepare the child’s room for when they come home after delivery. This may be explained by
the sudden increase in the level of _________ and decrease in the level of ________.
A. Oxytocin, progesterone
B. Progesterone, Oxytocin
C. Epinephrine, progesterone
D. Progesterone, epinephrine

25. Patient Joy is CORRECT in differentiating false and true contractions if she sates which of the
following after a health teaching session?
A. False contractions start in the abdomen but is sometimes radiating
B. True contractions begin irregularly but become regular after some time
C. False contractions vary depending when walking or sleeping
D. True contraction begin in the lower back and move to the abdomen in a wave-like manner

26. The ease of delivery largely depends on the presentation and level of flexion of the fetal head. Which
of the following presentations is most ideal and the narrowest fetal head diameter?
A. Occipitomental diameter
B. Suboccipitobregmatic diameter
C. Occipitofrontal diameter
D. Biparietal diameter

27. After placental delivery, oxytocin is given intramuscularly or intravenously to increase uterine
contractions and minimize uterine bleeding. Which vital sign must be closely monitored upon the
administration of this medication?
A. Temperature
B. Heart rate
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood pressure

28. During delivery, patients may opt to receive analgesics and anesthetics to relieve pain. The following
are local anesthetics, EXCEPT:
A. Marcaine
B. Naropin
C. Thiopental
D. Xylocaine

29. The third stage of labor involves the delivery of the placenta which must be examined for anomalies
after birth. Which of the following defects is described when a placenta has one or more accessory lobes
connected to the main placenta by blood vessels?
A. Placenta succenturiata
B. Placenta circumvallata
C. Placenta marginata
D. Battledore placenta

30. The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with preeclampsia. When the client’s condition progresses
from preeclampsia to eclampsia, what should the nurse’s first action be?
A. Maintain an open airway
B. Administer oxygen via face mask
C. Assess maternal blood pressure and fetal heart rate
D. Administer magnesium sulfate intravenously

31. As the patient went into eclampsia, magnesium sulfate was administered. What intervention should
the nurse implement during the administration of this medication?
A. Schedule a daily ultrasound to assess fetal movement
B. Schedule a nonstress test every 4 hours to assess fetal well-being
C. Assess for signs and symptoms of labor since the client’s level of consciousness may be altered
D. Assess the client’s temperature every 2 hours because the client is at high risk for infection

32. Knowing that the patient is receiving magnesium sulfate, the nurse is prudent when she ensures that
which priority item is available?
A. Chlordiazepoxide
B. Kalcinate
C. Atropine
D. Deferoxamine

33. An infant with fetal alcohol syndrome exhibits the following characteristics, EXCEPT:
A. Fidgety and irritable
B. Short palpebral fissure
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Thin upper lip

You are assigned in the neonatal intensive care unit, caring for newborns with various congenital defects.
The following questions apply.

34. The Pierre Robin syndrome is a rare congenital disorder consisting of micrognathia, cleft palate, and
glossoptosis. In caring for a newborn with this syndrome, which of the following nursing actions is
INAPPROPRIATE?
A. Observe the child closely for any developing airway obstruction
B. Place the child in supine position to sleep
C. Provide nasopharyngeal suctioning as needed
D. Attach a suture to the anterior aspect of the tongue and pull it forward

35. A newborn was delivered to a with hydramnios and during the first feed, the child coughed, became
cyanotic, and had obvious difficulty of breathing. Knowing the present risk factor, which congenital
defect may the child have?
A. Cleft palate
B. Pierre Robin Syndrome
C. Tracheoesophageal atresia
D. Cleft lip

36. A preschooler with a history of cleft palate repair comes to the clinic for a routine well-child checkup.
To determine whether this child is experiencing a long-term effect of cleft palate, which question should
the nurse ask the parent?
A. “Does the child play with an imaginary friend?”
B. “Was the child recently treated for pneumonia?”
C. “Does the child respond when called by name?”
D. “Has the child had any difficulty swallowing food?”

37. The nurse is assigned to care for an infant on the first postoperative day after a surgical repair of a
cleft lip. Which nursing intervention is appropriate when caring for this child’s surgical incision?
A. Rinsing the incision with sterile water after feeding
B. Cleaning the incision only when serous exudate forms
C. Rubbing the incision gently with a sterile cotton-tipped swab
D. Replacing the Logan bar carefully after cleaning the incision
38. In caring for a newborn with omphalocele, what is the most important nursing consideration?
A. Position the infant on his stomach to contain the intestine
B. Wrap the omphalocele in cold icy gauze to prevent fever
C. Keep the infant seated upright under a radiant warmer
D. Contain the intestine in a sterile saline–lined bowel bag
39. A newly admitted newborn with hydrocephalus is developing increased intracranial pressure. What
vital sign changes occur with this?
A. Decreased temperature; increased blood pressure
B. Increased respirations; decreased pulse rate
C. Increased temperature; decreased pulse rate
D. Decreased blood pressure; increased temperature
40. You are assessing an infant with developmental hip dysplasia and the clicking or clunking sound
which occurs when the femoral head re-enters the acetabulum is known as the:
A. Galeazzi sign
B. Trochanter sign
C. Ortolani’s sign
D. Barlow’s sign
41. Which of the following statements describes the procedure to assess for the Barlow’s sign?
A. Abduct the hips while applying upward pressure over the greater trochanter, and listen for a clicking
sound
B. Hold the hips and knees at 90° flexion, apply a backward pressure (down and laterally) and adduct the
hips. Note any feeling of the femoral head slipping
C. Lay the infant supine and flex the knees to 90° at the hips. Observe if a knee is lower than the other
D. Observe for asymmetry of skinfolds in the posterior thigh
42. After further assessment with imaging and radiography, it was found out that the child has a fully
dislocated hip with severe sublaxation. Which of the following treatment modalities will most likely be
used for the child?
A. Frejka splint
B. Hip abduction splint
C. Pavlik harness
D. Spica cast
43. Based on Erik Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development, which nursing action is MOST
APPROPRIATE for John, a four-year-old child?
A. Provide opportunities for exploring new places or activities; allow to play with water, clay, finger
painting
B. Provide opportunities for decision making such as offering choices of clothes to wear or toys to play
with
C. Provide experiences that add to security such as soft sounds and touch
D. Provide opportunities to allow child to assemble and complete a short project
44. Using Freud’s psychosexual theory, how must the nurse advise the parents to help John in his current
stage of development?
A. Help the child achieve bowel and bladder control
B. Accept the child’s sexual interest and answer questions about birth or sexual differences
C. Help the child have positive experiences with learning so their self-esteem continues to grow
D. Provide appropriate opportunities to relate with the opposite sex
45. John was asked to describe a banana and was only able to point the color yellow as its only
characteristic. Using Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, which stage is the child in?
A. Sensorimotor
B. Preoperational thought
C. Concrete operational thought
D. Formal operational thought
46. John’s little sister, Julia, is 6 months old and their mother asks what toy is good for this period to
support the infant’s development. Which should the nurse recommend?
A. Rattle
B. Blocks
C. Colored plastic ring
D. Mirror
47. Their mother asks Nurse Sofia what motor movement can be expected at Julia’s age. All of the
following are exhibited by most 6-month-olds, EXCEPT:
A. Hold an object in both hands
B. Sit momentarily with support
C. Bounce with enjoyment in a standing position
D. Support nearly their full weight when in a standing position
48. At six months, which tooth is most likely to have erupted with Julia?
A. Upper central incisor
B. Lower central incisor
C. Upper lateral incisor
D. Lower lateral incisor
49. On Julia’s next visit to the clinic after 4 months, which fine motor movement can be expected of her?
v
A. Uses palmar grasp
B. Transfer objects hand to hand
C. Holds a cup and spoon well
D. Uses pincer grasp to pick up small objects
50. What is the CORRECT sequence in introducing food items to the infant?
A. Vegetables, cereal, egg yolk, fruit, meat
B. Cereal, fruit, vegetables, egg yolk, meat
C. Cereal, vegetables, fruit, meat, egg yolk
D. Cereal, fruit, vegetables, meat, egg yolk
51. The nurse assessing the vital signs of a 3-year-old child hospitalized with a diagnosis of croup notes
that the respiratory rate is 28 breaths per minute. Based on this finding, which nursing action is
appropriate?
A. Begin administering supplemental oxygen
B. Document the findings according to facility policies
C. Notify the child’s primary health care provider immediately
D. Reassess the respiratory rate, rhythm, and depth in 15 minutes
52. The nurse is teaching the parents of a child diagnosed with celiac disease about dietary measures.
The nurse should instruct the parents to take which measure?
A. Restrict corn and rice in the diet.
B. Restrict fresh vegetables in the diet
C. Substitute grain cereals with pasta products
D. Avoid foods that are hidden sources of gluten
53. A 5-month-old infant was observed to have rapid, deep breathing and is difficult to arouse from sleep
and the physician ordered arterial blood gas testing. Which site is most often used for blood gasses in
infants?
A. Umbilical artery
B. Radial artery
C. Temporal artery
D. Brachial artery
54. Another child was undergoing pulmonary functions tests to measure lung capacity. Among the
following, which CORRECTLY describes peak flow?
A. The maximum amount of air expelled after a maximum inspiration
B. The strength of air expelled in a forceful expiration
C. The volume of air remining in the lungs after a normal expiration
D. The amount of air expired in 1 second
55. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of rheumatic fever. The nurse reviews the blood
laboratory findings, knowing that which finding will confirm the likelihood of this disorder?
A. Elevated leukocyte count
B. Decreased hemoglobin count
C. Increased antistreptolysin-O (ASO titer)
D. Decreased erythrocyte sedimentation rate
56. Megan was born with a congenital heart disorder wherein an opening is present in the septum
between the ventricles of her heart. In assessing the newborn, what type of heart murmur can be
heard?
A. “Machinery” murmur
B. Harsh systolic murmur
C. S2 splitting
D. Pansystolic murmur
57. Nurse Mar was floated to neonatal ICU and was assigned to a newborn, established to have patent
ductus arteriosus. The nurse knows that in providing the drug of choice, Indomethacin, which of the
following must be continuously assessed?
A. Temperature
B. Heart rate
C. Respiratory rare
D. Urinary output
A 7-year-old child weighing 16 kg was brought to the emergency room due to an allergic reaction to
peanuts. Upon assessment, Nurse Ren notes that the child has dyspnea and reddened, watery eyes.
After a few minutes, the child becomes nauseated and hypoxemic. Anaphylactic shock is ruled out and
the physician.
58. Nurse Ren knows that the drug of choice for anaphylactic shock is:
A. Diphenydramine hydrochloride
B. Pseudoephedrine
C. Adrenaline
D. Amiodarone
59. In administering this medication, what is the route and initial dosage to be given to the child?
A. Intramuscularly, 8 mg
B. Subcutaneously. 0.16 mg
C. Intravenously, 0.8 mg
D. Intrathecally, 1.6 mg
60. What is typically the first symptom of acute glomerulonephritis?
A. Low blood pressure from excessive aldosterone
B. Hematuria and abdominal pain
C. Persistent cough and coryza
D. Pain on urination from urethra inflammation
61. In acute glomerulonephritis, which antibody is usually elevated in the bloodstream to fight against
streptococci infection?
A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgE
62. A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome. The nurse expects to note
documentation of which manifestation in the medical record? Select all that apply.
I. Edema
II. Proteinuria
III. Abdominal pain
IV. Increased weight
V. Hypoalbuminemia
A. I, II, III, IV
B. I, II, IV, V
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV, V
63. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding nephrotic syndrome?
A. It is caused by an immune reaction to group A-beta hemolytic streptococcal infection
B. Its onset is abrupt
C. Hematuria rarely occurs in this condition
D. No dietary restrictions are necessary
As a newly registered nurse, you are aware that the privilege of practicing the profession comes with
responsibility and accountability. The following questions apply.
64. According to the Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses, the primary responsibility of nurses at all costs
is the:
A. Promotion of health
B. Prevention of illness and alleviation of suffering
C. Preservation of health
D. Restoration of health
65. The hallmark of nursing accountability is:
A. Quality nursing care rendered
B. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes
C. Safe delivery of care to the patients
D. Upholding of ethical principles at all times
66. A nurse committed gross incompetence and her certificate of registration was suspended this year,
2024. At the maximum, when can the Board of Nursing issue another copy of the certificate once the
cause of revocation has been resolved?
A. 2029
B. 2028
C. 2027
D. 2026
67. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the Board of Nursing?
A. The Board is appointed by the president of the Republic of the Philippines
B. Two nominees per vacancy are listed by the accredited professional organization in the Philippines
C. The Board is composed of seven registered nurses and holders of master’s degree
D. The nominees must have at least ten years of continuous practice prior to appointment
68. The PRC Modernization Act of 2000 aligns the conduct of the licensure examination. This Republic
Act is also known as:
A. RA 7160
B. RA 9211
C. RA 8981
D. RA 8976
In caring for patients, nurses encounter situations wherein ethical and moral challenges arise. The
following questions apply.
69. What situation exists when there are competing moral claims or principles although one claim or
principle is clearly dominant?
A. Moral dilemma
B. Moral problem
C. Moral uncertainty
D. Moral distress
70. During an 8-hour shift, the nurse was noticed to be spending more time caring for a patient who
happens to be a celebrity. What ethical principle is violated?
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Privacy
D. Justice
71. The principle of double effect may morally justify some actions and are based on four criteria. Which
of the following statements is NOT a criterion for it to be fulfilled?
A. The actions itself is good or morally neutral
B. The agent sincerely intends the good and not the evil effect
C. The good end justifies the means
D. There is favorable balance of good over evil
72. The nurse gives medical information regarding the client’s condition to a person who is assumed to
be a family member. Later the nurse discovers that this person is not a family member and realizes that
this violated which legal concepts of the nurse–client relationship? Select all that apply.
I. Duty to provide care
II. Client’s right to privacy
III. Client’s right to autonomy
IV. Client’s right to confidentiality
V. Duty to comply with nursing standards
A. II and V
B. IV and V
C. II and IV
D. II, IV, V
73. The nurse caring for a chronically ill client with a poor prognosis shows an understanding of the basic
values that guide the implementation of a living will by asking which question?
A. “Are you planning to become an organ donor?”
B. “Did you have the discussion with your son about being your health care surrogate?”
C. “Can we discuss what will happen if you decide to refuse antibiotics if you get an infection?”
D. “Has your family discussed their living arrangements after your hospitalization?”
74. The nurse is caring for a dying client who states, “Will you be the executor of my will?” How should
the nurse best respond to this client?
A. “I must decline your offer because I am your nurse.”
B. “I will carry out your will according to your wishes.”
C. “It is an honor to be named the executor of your will.”
D. “Tell me more so that I can understand your thinking.”
Nurses are involved in advancing the care provided to patients through leadership, research, and quality
improvement. The following questions apply.
75. If a nurse manager is efficient and produces good quality through following of standard procedures,
what type of leadership style is being used?
A. Autocratic
B. Bureaucratic
C. Democratic
D. Laissez-Faire
76. When a patient goes into cardiac arrest, which leadership style must be applied by the nurse-in-
charge?
A. Authoritative
B. Bureaucratic
C. Democratic
D. Authoritarian
77. The following are tasks that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel, EXCEPT:
A. Client transfers and ambulation
B. Postmortem care
C. Performing triage
D. Performing basic life support (CPR)
78. An element of quality improvement, rather than quality assurance, is which of the following?
A. Focus is on individual outcomes
B. Evaluates organizational structures
C. Aims to confirm that quality exists
D. Plans corrective actions for problems
79. If the nurse planned to evaluate the length of time clients must wait for a nurse to respond to a client
need reported over the intercom system on each shift, which process does this reflect?
A. Structure evaluation
B. Process evaluation
C. Outcome evaluation
D. Audit
80. In conducting quality improvement projects, what type of assessment is most often used to identify
factors that bring about deviations in the system?
A. Concurrent analysis
B. Retrospective analysis
C. Root cause analysis
D. Sentinel analysis
81. The following are components of evidence-based practice, EXCEPT:
A. Clinical expertise
B. Best evidence
C. Patient values and preferences
D. Trends in interventions
82. If a research study aims to answer the question, “How do individuals with hyperthyroidism cope?”,
what is the research design that must be used?
A. Phenomenology
B. Ethnography
C. Grounded theory
D. Qualitative study
83. A nurse researcher wants to describe and test the relationship between the age of children and their
weight. Which tool in inferential statistics is appropriate for this study?
A. Independent t-test
B. Analysis of variance
C. Chi-square
D. Pearson’s r
Mima Otlum is a newly hired nurse at Grey Sloan Memorial Hospital. She's been asked to teach pregnant
women about genetic endocrine disorders as part of the hospital's annual program. Mima Otlum is
passionate about educating patients and wants to ensure that mothers-to-be understand these
disorders and how they might affect their pregnancies and their babies.
84. One of the participants expressed worry about the possibility of her offspring having a genetic
metabolic disease. She then asked Nurse Mima Otlum to provide an example of such a disease. Which of
the following disease mentioned is not correct?
A. Pompe disease
B. Infantile GM2 Gangliosidosis
C. Dupuytren disease
D. PKU
85. Sara, another participant, raised her concern about whether certain heritage is a factor in acquiring
genetic metabolic diseases. She stated that her husband came from an Eastern European Jewish
heritage. Sara then asked what potential health risk for their unborn child are highly linked to this
ancestry?
A. Tay-Sach disease
B. Turner disease
C. Sturge-Weber syndrome
D. Klinefelter syndrome
86. In the first few months of an infant with the said condition, which of the following manifestations is
expected?
A. extreme moro reflex and mild hypotonia
B. absent rooting reflex
C. absent Babinski reflex
D. hyperactive tonic neck reflex
87. Sara wanted to be fully informed about what to expect and how to manage the condition if her
offspring actually develops the condition. Which of the following manifestation, if stated by nurse Mima
Otlum is correct?
I. cherry-red macula
II. spasticity
III. generalized seizures
IV. pneumonia
V. cachexia
A. I, II, III
B. II, III
C. I, II, III, IV
D. I, II, III, IV, V
88. Sara became curious and asked why all these manifestations occur in the first place. Nurse Mima
Otlum explained that this condition arises due to the lack of an enzyme called?
A. Hyaluronidase
B. hexosaminidase A
C. Glucuronyl transferase
D. P450 Enzyme
Carlo, a 12-year-old boy, was recently diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Despite this new diagnosis, he
remains active in high school sports where he excels as a dedicated team player. He lives with his
supportive parents and two younger siblings, who are learning about Carlo's condition. Adjusting to his
new reality, Carlo now diligently manages his diabetes with daily insulin injections, regular glucose
monitoring, and adherence to a diabetic diet.
89. The nurse is teaching Carlo about other terms that are used interchangeably with Type 1 Diabetes
Mellitus. To evaluate the effectiveness of the health teaching, the nurse asks Carlo to repeat the terms
discussed. Carlo is incorrect if he states the following terms, except:
A. brittle diabetes
B. NIDDM
C. stable diabetes
D. ketosis-resistant diabetes
90. The disease seemingly arises from immune system damage to islet cells in individuals who are
susceptible. Research indicates that the cause of autoimmune destruction of islet cells is not well
understood. Nevertheless, children with Type 1 Diabetes have been observed to have elevated levels of
which of the following?
A. HLA-DR1
B. HLA-DR3
C. HLA-DR2
D. HLA-DR5
91. Carlo will be starting his first day of school next week. His mother, eager to ensure he has healthy
meals during the day, is uncertain about how to properly prepare his lunches. She wants to provide him
with nutritious options but feels unsure about what and how exactly to pack. The mother asked the
nurse on Untitled Section the considerations to take when preparing meals for Carlo. When asked to
repeat her learnings from the health teaching, which of the following statements by Carlo’s mother will
not require further teaching?
A. Foods high in carbohydrates, such as sucrose, should be eliminated from the diet.
B. The recommendations regarding fat content of the diabetic diet include limiting the total intake of
dietary cholesterol to less than 350 mg/day.
C. The meal plan include the use of some animal sources of protein only to help reduce saturated fat and
cholesterol intake.
D. The caloric distribution currently recommended is higher in carbohydrates than in fat and protein.
92. Carlo is currently undergoing health education on how to properly inject insulin on his own.
However, it is important to note that if Carlo repeatedly injects insulin into the same site because over
time, he may develop lipohypertrophy. This condition can subsequently interfere with the proper
absorption of insulin, rendering the injections less effective. Which of the following options refers to this
specific condition?
1 point
A. SARS
B. SERS
C. SIRS
D. SORS
93. Carlo's mother tells the nurse that he experienced a "honeymoon" phase when he was first
diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. The nurse knows that this phase would be characterized by which of
the following signs?
A. He developed an unnatural craving for sweets.
B. His metabolism increased because of glucose stimulation.
C. He became light-headed or “giddy” every afternoon.
D. His need for injected insulin was drastically reduced.
94. Carlo’s physician prescribed him exenatide 2 weeks after taking insulin. The nurse should plan to take
which most appropriate intervention?
A. Withhold the medication and call the physician, questioning the prescription for the client.
B. Teach the client about the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia.
C. Monitor the client for gastrointestinal side effects after administering the medication.
D. Withdraw the insulin from the prefilled pen into an insulin syringe to prepare for administration.
Maloi, 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by her parent with complaints of a persistent
limp. The parent reports that the Maloi has been limping for the past few weeks, but there has been no
fever and the she appears generally well. Maloi is able to walk, though the limp is noticeable, and there
is some guarding of the hip during movement. Upon physical examination, there is minimal pain on
motion of the hip.
95. The physician runs some tests and finds that there is destruction in the proximal femoral epiphysis
due to decreased blood flow. Based on these manifestations and test results, which of the following
diseases does Maloi have?
A. Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
B. Osgood–Schlatter disease
C. Calcaneal apophysitis
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
96. This is the first time Nurse Erika encounter this kind of disease and it sparked a sense of curiosity
within her. With a genuine interest in learning more, she dives into researching about it. Which of the
following findings of Erika regarding the condition is not incorrect?
A. The disorder occurs more often in girls than in boys.
B. The disorder occurs equally in girls and boys.
C. has a peak incidence between 7 and 18 years of age
D. has a peak incidence between 4 and 12 years of age.
97. After conducting additional research, Nurse Erika discovered that children with the aforementioned
disease progress through four distinct stages. What are the stages in their sequential order?
I. resorption of dead bone
II. pus production
III. painful inflammation
IV. bone in the femur head shrinks in size and shows increased density
V. deposition of new bone
1 point
A. III, IV, I, V
B. III, II, IV, I
C. IV, I, III, V
D. II, III, I, V
A neonatal male, diagnosed in utero with Osteogenesis Imperfecta was delivered stillborn at 36 weeks
gestation. Due to extreme bone fragility, the infant exhibited multiple fractures across various bones,
including the ribs and long bones. The skeletal abnormalities were evident on prenatal ultrasound,
showing deformed, shortened limbs and a soft calvarium, consistent with intrauterine fractures and poor
bone mineralization.
98. The mother of the stillborn child was deeply mourning and struggling to come to terms with the loss.
To help her better understand and accept the situation, the physician provided a detailed explanation of
the disease process. Drawing from your expertise as a nurse, to which specific classification of
Osteogenesis Imperfecta does this case most likely correspond?
1 point
A. type I
B. type II
C. type III
D. type IV
99. The mother appears more eager to comprehend what has occurred and begins to ask more
questions about it. Which of the following statements by the physician is not inaccurate?
A. All types of Osteogenesis Imperfecta are inherited through an autosomal recessive pattern.
B. Blue sclerae are a common clinical feature in all patients with Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
C. Osteogenesis Imperfecta is the most common osteoporosis syndrome in childhood but remains very
rare overall.
D. Hearing loss is not associated with Osteogenesis Imperfecta.
100. The mother is concerned about the possibility of her next offspring having the disease as well. She
asks the physician about the possible management strategies for OI to be prepared if her future child is
also affected. Which of the following statements provided by the physician is correct regarding the
therapeutic management of Osteogenesis Imperfecta?
A. Bisphosphonate therapy with IV pamidronate is primarily used to treat scoliosis rather than to
increase bone density and prevent fractures.
B. The primary goal of the rehabilitative approach is to cure fractures as they occur.
C. Lightweight braces and splints are used to support limbs, prevent fractures, and aid in ambulation.
D. Surgery is rarely used in the management of Osteogenesis Imperfecta and is generally considered
ineffective.