Test ID : 303

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.MOCK
MOCKTEST
TEST – VII.
- VIII S0
Std : Long Term, XII (REGULAR), CC Max. Marks : 720
Test Date : 29.04.25
28.04.2025 Time : 3.00 Hrs.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

General Instructions :
1) The duration of the test is 180 minutes and the maximum mark is 720.
2) This test booklet contains 180 multiple choice questions (four options with a single correct answer)
from Physics, Chemistry, Botany and Zoology. 45 questions in each subject.
3) There is only one correct response for each question. Each correct answer will be given 4 marks
while 1 mark will be deducted for a wrong response. Zero mark will be given for unanswered
questions.
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for rough work.
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Stay Calm … Think Twice … Analyse Well … Confirm the Answer … Success is Assured !

Name of the Candidate : ___________________________________

Section : ___________________________________
 1 Test ID : 303 [S0]
PHYSICS
1. In the given figure, a diode is connected to an 5. A particle is projected with an initial velocity
external resistance 100  and an emf of 3.5 V. U  3iˆ  4ˆj (x-axis along horizontal and
If the barrier potential of diode is 0.5 V, the y-axis along vertical). Its velocity vector when
current in the circuit is
it returns to the same horizontal level is
1) 3iˆ  4ˆj 2) 4iˆ  3jˆ
3) 4iˆ  3jˆ 4) 3iˆ  4ˆj
6. A man of mass ‘m’ is standing on an elevator
g
that is moving down with acceleration . The
1) 20 mA 2) 35 mA 5
3) 30 mA 4) 40 mA force exerted by the elevator on the man
2. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd is
harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f1. 4mg 6mg
Now, it is closed at one end and frequency of 1) 2)
5 5
the tuning fork is increased slowly from f1, 2mg 8mg
then again a resonance is obtained with a 3) 4)
5 5
frequency f2 . If in this case the pipe vibrates
7. A body of mass 2kg attains a maximum height
in nth harmonic, then
‘h’ when thrown vertically up. At what height
3 5
1) n = 3, f 2  f1 2) n = 3, f 2  f1 its kinetic energy is 75% of its initial value
4 4
h h
5 3 1) 2)
3) n = 5, f 2  f1 4) n = 5, f 2  f1 4 2
4 4
3h 3h
3. N divisions on the main scale of a vernier 3) 4)
4 8
caliper coincide with (N + 1) divisions on
vernier scale. If each division on main scale is 8. Moment of inertia of a thin rod about an axis
of ‘a’ units, then least count of the instrument perpendicular to the rod and passing through
is one end is I1. When the same rod is bent into
a a a ring, its moment of inertia about any of its
1) 2) I
N N 1 diameter is I2, then 1 is
a a I2
3) 4)
N 1 2N 3 2 8 2
1) 2)
4. From the acceleration-time graph the average 8 3
acceleration in initial 30 sec is (in ms-2) 22 3 2
3) 4)
3 2
9.  
A force F  4iˆ  3jˆ  5kˆ N moves a particle

   
from r1  2iˆ  3jˆ  4kˆ m to r2  5iˆ  ˆj  7kˆ m
then work done by the force is
1) 33 J 2) -33 J
3) 34 J 4) 35 J
1) 20 2) 15
3) 30 4) 25
 2 Test ID : 303 [S0]
10. A 3 kg ball falls from a height of 64 cm and 1) A – P, B – Q, C - R
rebounds to a height of 25 cm. The coefficient 2) A – R, B – Q, C - P
of restitution is 3) A – P, B – R, C - Q
25 5 4) A – Q, B – P, C - R
1) 2)
64 8 15. The linear expansion coefficient of a material
3)
64
4)
8 is 10-6/oC in x-direction, 2 x 10-6/oC, in y-
25 5 direction and 3 x 10-6/oC in z-direction. The
11. A crane uses a rope of area of cross-section ratio of coefficient of area expansion in xy
4 x 10-4m2 and its maximum lifting capacity is plane, yz plane and xz plane is
30 metric tons. Find the area of cross section 1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3 : 6
of the rope to be used to increase the lifting 3) 1 : 5 : 6 4) 3 : 5 : 4
capacity of the crane to 90 metric tons
16. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a
1) 8 x 10-4 m2 2) 2 x 10-4 m2 gas is proportional to the cube of its absolute
3) 6 x 10-4 m2 4) 12 x 10-4 m2
C
12. Given below are two statements. One is temperature. The value of P for that gas
CV
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
is
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : Hot soup tastes better than the 3 4
1) 2)
cold soup. 5 3
Reason (R) : Hot soup spread properly on our 5 3
3) 4)
tongue due to lower surface tension. 3 2
In light of the above statements, choose the 17. The mean translational kinetic energy per unit
correct answer from the options given below. volume (E) and the pressure (P) of a perfect
1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the gas are related as
correct explanation of (A) E 2E
1) P  2) P 
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not 2 3
the explanation for (A) 3E 3E
3) P  4) P 
3) (A) is true and (R) is false 2 4
4) (A) is false and (R) is true 18. Charge of a body is +14.4 x 10-19C. The body
13. If the distance between the earth and the sun has
becomes half of its present value. The number 1) 9 electrons in excess
of days in a year would have been nearly 2) 9 electrons short
1) 64.5 days 2) 130 days 3) 18 electrons in excess
3) 182.5 days 4) 730 days
4) 18 electrons short
14. Match the following:
19. Given below are two statements. One is
In linear simple harmonic motion, F : net
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled
force, v : velocity, a : acceleration, r :
Reason (R).
position vector. (excluding mean position)
Assertion (A) : Electric field created by a
Column – I Column – II
point charge is non-uniform.
A) F.r P) Positive Reason (R) : Electric field at a distance ‘r’
B) Q) Negative 1 q
F.a from a point charge ‘q’ is E  .
40 r
C) v xr R) Zero
 3 Test ID : 303 [S0]
In light of the above statements, choose the 1) 60 Ω 2) 80 Ω
correct answer from the options given below. 3) 100 Ω 4) 120 Ω
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 23. A proton, deuteron and an  -particle are
explanation of A accelerated by same potential difference
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the enter into a perpendicular uniform magnetic
explanation for A field. The ratio of radii of their circular paths
3) A is true and R is false respectively is
4) A is false and R is true 1) 1 : 2 : 2 2) 2 : 2 :1
20. A capacitor of 2µF is connected as shown in 3) 1 : 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1 : 1
the circuit.
24. The magnetic susceptibility of paramagnetic
substance is 4 x 10-4. The intensity of
magnetization when it is placed in external
magnetizing field of magnitude 3 x 104 A/m is
4 3
1) x108 A / m 2) x108 A / m
3 4
If internal resistance of the battery connected 3) 12 A/m 4) 12  A/m
is 1Ω, the charge on the plates of the capacitor 25. Primary side of a transformer is connected
in the steady state is to 230V, 50Hz ac source. The turn ratio of
1) 12 C 2) 9 C primary to secondary winding is 10 : 1. If a
3) 8C 4) 6 C load resistance of 46 Ω is connected in the
21. In the circuit shown, if the variable resistance secondary, the power consumed in it is
‘R’ is increased, the reading of the voltmeter 1) 8.5 W 2) 95 W
(consider the cell to be ideal cell) 3) 10.5 W 4) 11.5 W
26. A parallel plate capacitor has a capacitance
C = 200 pF. It is connected to 230V supply
with an angular frequency of 300 rad/s. The
rms value of conduction current in the circuit
and displacement current in the capacitor
respectively are
1) 13.8 A , 13.8 A
1) increases
2) 1.38 A , 1.38 A
2) decreases
3) remains unchanged 3) 1.38 A , 13.8 A
4) is zero always 4) 14.3 A , 14.3 A
22. If the galvanometer shows null deflection in 27. When the momentum of a proton is changed
the meter bridge circuit by an amount P0 , the corresponding change
in the de-Broglie wavelength is found to be
0.25%. Then, the original momentum of the
proton was
1) P0 2) 100 P0
3) 400 P0 4) 4 P

The value of unknown resistance ‘R’ is

 4 Test ID : 303 [S0]
28. The orbital speed of electron in the ground 33. Yellow light is used in single-slit diffraction
state of hydrogen is ‘’ . Its orbital speed when experiment with slit width 0.6mm. If yellow
it is excited to the energy state – 3.4eV is light is replaced by X-rays then the pattern
 will reveal
1) 2 2)
2 1) that the central maxima is narrower
  2) no diffraction pattern
3) 4)
4 8 3) more number of fringes
238 222
29. When 90 Th decays into 83 Bi , then the 4) less number of fringes
number of emitted  and  particles 34. In Young’s double slit experiment, the
respectively are experimental chamber which contains air
1) 8, 7 2) 4, 7 initially is now evacuated. Fringe width
3) 4, 4 4) 4, 1 1) remains constant 2) increases
30. Given below are two statements: 3) decreases 4) fringes disappear
Statement-I : LED is a heavily doped p-n 35. The number of insignificant zeros in
junction diode usually connected in reverse 0.0048050 is
bias. 1) 1 2) 3
Statement-II: GaAs is a better material than Si 3) 2 4) 4
used in solar cell because of its relatively 36. Width of the river is 4 km and speed of water
higher absorption coefficient. is 3 kmph. A swimmer can swim with a speed
In light of the above statements, choose the of 5 kmph relative to water and wants to cross
correct answer from the options given below. the river. Time taken to cross the river along
1) Both statements I and II are correct the shortest path is
2) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is 1) 1 hr 2) 2 hr
incorrect 3) 3 hr 4) 4 h
3) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II 37. Position (x) of a particle of mass 2kg varies
is correct t2
with time as x  (‘x’ in meter and ‘t’ in
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect 3
31. A spherical mirror forms an erect image three seconds). The work done by the net force
times the linear size of the real object. If the acting on the particle in first two seconds is
distance between the object and the image is 2 4
1) J 2) J
80 cm, the focal length of the mirror. 3 3
1) 15 cm convex 2) 15 cm concave 4 16
3) J 4) J
3) 30 cm concave 4) 40 cm convex 9 9
32. A simple telescope, consisting of an objective 38. A particle, started from rest and moves along
of focal length 60cm and a single eye lens of 2
a circle of radius   m with constant
focal length 5cm is focused on a distant object 
in such a way that parallel rays emerge from tangential acceleration. If the velocity of the
the eye lens. If the object makes an angle of particle at the end of one revolution is 4 m/s
2° at the objective, the angular width of the its tangential acceleration is
image is 1) 1 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2
1)10o 2) 24o 3) 3 m/s2 4) 4 m/s2
3) 50o 4) 48o
 5 Test ID : 303 [S0]
39. Match the following. 42. Near a circular loop of conducting wire as
List – I List – II shown in the figure, an electron moves along a
straight line. The direction of induced current,
A) It is possible to e) Isothermal
if any in the loop is
change the process
temperature of a
gas without
supplying heat
B) Change in internal f) Adiabatic 1) variable 2) clockwise
energy is zero process 3) anti- clockwise 4) zero
C) Work done is zero g) Isochoric 43. In an LCR series circuit connected with
process alternating source the average power loss is
D) Work done by the h) Isobaric v 2rms
1) .R
R 2   XL  XC 
2
gas is maximum process
for a given
v 2rms
increment in 2)
R
volume in the
given processes v 2rms
3)
R 2   XL  XC 
2
1) a-f, b-h, c-g, d-e
2) a-f, b-e, c-g, d-h v 2rms 2
(R   X L  X C  )
2
3) a-e, b-f, c-g, d-h 4)
R
4) a-g, b-e, c-h, d-f
44. The magnetic moment (  L ) of an electron (e)
40. In a region of electric field, the potential V
revolving in an orbit around nucleus with an
varies as V = -10(x2 + y) volt. The magnitude
of electric field at point (1m, 1m) is orbital angular momentum (L) is given by

1) 10 5 V/m 2) 10 2 V/m eL eL
1)  L  2)  L  
2m 2m
3) 5 10 V/m 4) 5 5 V/m
eL 2eL
41. A current of 5A is passing through a circular 3)  L   4)  L  
m m
conducting wire of diameter 10cm as shown.
(AB is diameter and ‘O’ is the center) 45. A rod of mass M and length l hinged about a
point A in vertical plane as shown below. Find
its initial angular acceleration when it is
released from rest.

The magnetic field at ‘O’ is 2g gl

1) 2)
1) 2 x 10–5 T, into the plane 3l 2
2) 1 x 10–5 T, into the plane 3 3g
3) gl 4)
3) 1 x 10–5 T, out of the plane 2 2l
4) 2 x 10–5 T, out of the plane
 6 Test ID : 303 [S0]

CHEMISTRY
46. Match column I with column II and choose the 51. The correct order of acidic strength of
correct answer. (z-axis is internuclear axis) following compounds is
Column I Column II
(Type of (Overlapping of
overlapping) atomic orbitals)
A) B)
A p-p bonding I

s-p
B II
antibonding
C) D)
p-p
C III
antibonding

D Zero overlap IV 1) A > B > C > D 2) D > C > A > B

3) C > A > B > D 4) B > C > A > D
A B C D
52. K 2 Cr2 O7 
KOH
 A 
Lead acetate
 B(Yellow ppt)
1) III IV I II
Chromite ore 
Na 2CO3
X  Fe2O3  Y
2) III II IV I O2

3) I IV III II (chromium (gas)

4) II III II IV compound)

47. The incorrect statement from the following. Which of the following is correct?
1) F2 oxidises water into oxygen 1) Anions of A, B & X are same
2) Cl2 oxidises bromide into bromine 2) Solution X is orange in colour
3) I2 oxidises water into oxygen 3) Y is very poisonous gas
4) Br2 oxidises iodide into iodine 4) Anions of B & X are different
48. The number of electrons passing through a 53. In the reaction 4NH3 + 5O2  4NO + 6H2O
cross-section of copper wire carrying 10-6 when one mole of ammonia and one mole of
ampere of current in a second is found to be oxygen are made to react to completion, then
1) 6.24 x1012 2) 6.24 x1035 1) 1.0 mole of H2O is produced
3) 6.24 x 1015 4) 1.06 x1019 2) All the oxygen is consumed
49. The number of moles of AgNO3 required to 3) 1.5 mole NO is formed
completely reacts with one mole of a
4) All the ammonia is consumed
compound CrCl3.6H2O is
[Given that van’t Hoff’s factor (i) = 2.5 and 54. Match the column
degree of ionization of the compound = 75%] Column – A Column – B
1) 3 2) 1 (Reaction) (Product name / Formula)
3) 4 4) 2
50. Find the pair of species in which both have I) p) Glyoxal
half-filled f-subshell.
1) Gd, Gd+2 2) Gd+3, Eu+3
3) Cm+3, Bk+3 4) Ho+3, Tb+3
 7 Test ID : 303 [S0]
Assertion (A) : Heterolytic cleavage of
II) q) C6H6Cl6 bromomethane will give CH3+ and Br as
shown below .
CH3Br  H3C+ + Br
III) r) Benzaldehyde Reason (R) : In heterolytic cleavage, one of
the electrons of the shared pair in a covalent
bond goes with each of the bonded atoms.
IV) s) C6Cl6 In light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below.
1) I-q, II-s, III-r, IV-p 1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
2) I-q, II-s, III-p, IV-r correct explanation of (A).
3) I-s, II-q, III-r, IV-p 2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not
4) I-s, II-q, III-p, IV-r the correct explanation of (A).
55. Given that 3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
O(g) + e–  O–(g) ; H = –142 kJ mol–1
59. pH of a solution is 2 and that of another is 4.
O(g) + 2e–  O2–(g) ; H = +638 kJ mol–1
When equal volumes of these two are mixed,
The heat change for the reaction
pH of the resulting solution is
O–(g) + e–  O2–(g) ; H = ?
1) 2.3 2) 3
1) –570 kJ 2) 570 kJ
3) 3.2 4) 3.7
3) +780 kJ 4) –780 kJ
60. Which of the following aqueous solutions has
56. Entropy is maximum for 10 grams of
the highest boiling point?
1) Methane
1) 0.1 M KNO3 2) 0.1 M Na3PO4
2) Water
3) 0.1 M BaCl2 4) 0.1 M K2SO4
3) Carbon
61. Potential energy of an electron present in an
4) Phosphorous
orbit of He+ is –6.8 eV. The angular
57. Match List-I with List-II :
momentum of same electron revolving in the
List-I List-II same orbit of He+ is
Wuseful done by h h
A. ∆total S> 0 P. 1) 2)
system  2
B. ∆total S < 0 Q. Spontaneous 2h 2
3) 4)
 h
C. ∆H R. Non-spontaneous
62. In ψ(3,2,1), the sum of orbital angular
D. –∆G S. ∆U+∆ngRT momentum, spherical nodes and angular nodes
Choose the correct answer from the options is
given below :
6h  4 6h
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1) 2) 3
2 2
1) R P S Q
6h  2 6h  8
2) S Q P R 3) 4)
2 2
3) R S P Q
63. On strong heating, 2.76 g of Ag2CO3 yields a
4) Q R S P
residue weighing
58. Given below are two statements. One is
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled Ag2CO3  2Ag + ½ O2 + CO2
Reason (R). 1) 3.48 g 2) 1.44 g
3) 2.16 g 4) 4.16 g
 8 Test ID : 303 [S0]
64. Match List-I with List -II : 1) Phenol
List-I List-II 2) Ethoxy Ethane
(Reactions) (Reagents) 3) Ethanal
4) Propanone
Ethane nitrile
A. p. PCC 70. Given below are two statements :
to ethanal
Statement-I : Vapour pressure of 0.5 M sugar
Allyl alcohol to solution is more than 0.5 M KCl solution.
B. q. DIBAL-H
propenal Statement-II: Relative lowering of vapour
But-2-ene to pressure is equal to mole fraction of non
C. r. O3. Zn/H2O
ethanal volatile solute particles in the solution.
Choose the correct answer from the options In light of the above statements, choose the
given below : correct answer from the options given below.
(A) (B) (C) 1) Both statement I and statement II are
1) q p r correct.
2) r q p 2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II
3) r p q is correct.
4) q r p 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
65. Which of the following ions does not exist in incorrect.
an aqueous solution? 4) Both statement I and statement II are
1) Pb2+ 2) Sn4+ incorrect.
3) B3+ 4) Tl+ 71. How many faradays are required to reduce 1
66. Exothermic and endothermic hydrides of 16th mole of BrO3– to Br– ?
group are respectively 1) 3 2) 5
1) H2O, H2S 2) H2Se, H2O 3) 6 4) 4
3) H2Te, H2S 4) H2S, H2Se 72. Calculate the half-life of the first-order
67. Arrange the following resonating structures of reaction
vinyl chloride in order of decreasing stability. C2H4O(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g)
if the initial pressure of C2H4O(g) is 80 mm
and the total pressure at the end of 20 minutes
is 120 mm.
1) 40 min 2) 120 min
3) 20 min 4) 80 min
1) I > II > III 2) II > I > III 73. In a chemical reaction A → B, it is found
3) III > II > I 4) I > II = III that the rate of the reaction doubles when the
68. The IUPAC name of concentration of A is increased four times.
The order of the reaction with respect to A is
is
1) 0 2) ½
3) 1 4) 2
1) 3-methyl-5-cyclohexyl-pent-1-ene 74. The IUPAC name for the complex compound
2) 1-cyclohexyl-3-methyl-1-pentene Li[AlH4] is
3) 1-cyclohexyl-3-ethyl-but-1-ene 1) lithium aluminium hydride
4) 1-cyclohexyl-3,4-dimethyl-but-1-ene 2) hydrido aluminium lithium (III)
69. Which one of the following gives positive 3) lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (III)
neutral FeCl3 solution test? 4) lithium tetrahydridoaluminate (I)
 9 Test ID : 303 [S0]
75. Which of the following statements is correct? 79. Read the following
1) The [Ni(CN)4]2– ion has tetrahedral
geometry and is diamagnetic.
2) The [Ni(CN)4]2– ion has a square-planar
geometry and is paramagnetic.
The products A and B respectively are
3) The [Ni(CN)4]2– ion has a square-planar
geometry and is diamagnetic.
4) The [Cu(NH3)4]2+ ion has a tetrahedral
geometry and is diamagnetic. 1)
76. The major product obtained in the reaction

2)

1) 2) 3)

3) (4) 4)

 H2O
Ethylidene chloride   X   Y.
2KOH
77. Arrange the following compounds in 80.
(aq )

increasing order of boiling points
X and Y are
1) n-butane, ethoxyethane, pentanal, pentan-
1) C2H5OH and CH3CHO
1-ol
2) C2H4(OH)2 and CH3CHO
2) n-butane, pentanal, ethoxyethane, pentan-
1-ol
3) pentanal, pentan-1-ol, ethoxyethane, 3) & CH3CHO
n-butane
4) pentanal, ethoxyethane, pentan-1-ol,
4) C2H4(OH)2 & CH3COCH3
n-butane
81. The final product (III) obtained in the reaction
78. Among the following, which will react most
sequence
rapidly with HBr?
1) C6H5CH2CH2CH2OH
2)
1)
3)
2)

4) 3)
 10 Test ID : 303 [S0]
88. The final product obtained in the reaction
4)

82. Which reagent is used to distinguish between

(C2H5)2NH and (C2H5)3N? is
1) NaOH 2) Dilute HCl
3) C6H5SO2Cl 4) AgNO3(aq) 1) 2)
83. Which of the following indicates five OH
groups in glucose?
1) Penta acetyl derivative of glucose
3) 4)
2) Cyanohydrin formation of glucose
3) Reaction with Fehlings solution
4) Reaction with Tollen’s reagent 89. Read the following
84. The solution of a chemical compound (X) A. I– + S2O32– → I2 + S4O62–. In this reaction,
reacts with AgNO3 solution to form a white n-factor of thiosulphate ion is one.
precipitate of ‘Y’ which dissolves in NH4OH B. In Pb3O4, the oxidation states of each
to give a complex Z. The chemical compound oxygen is –2 and –1 respectively.
‘X’ can be : C. In the reaction of oxalic acid and potassium
1) NaCl 2) CH3Cl permanganate in acidic medium, the total
3) NaBr 4) NaI number of electrons involved in the net
85. Given below are two statements: reaction is ten.
Statement I : If ∆G is negative the reaction D. Thermal decomposition of KMnO4, KClO3,
is spontaneous. NaNO3 are all examples of
Statement II : If ∆G° is positive, the value of disproportionation reactions.
equilibrium constant is less than 1. Correct statements are
In light of the above statements, choose the 1) B and C only 2) A, B, C, D
correct answer from the options given below. 3) A, B and C 4) A and C only
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are 90. Given below are two statements :
true Statement-I : Resultant dipole moment of
2) Statement I is false but Statement II is NH3 molecule is greater than that of NF3
true molecule.
3) Statement I is true but Statement II is Statement-II: CO2 is a non-polar molecule
false with polar bonds.
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are In light of the above statements, choose
false the correct answer from the options given
86. K2[HgI4] detects the ion/group below.
1) NH2 2) NO 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
true
3) NH4+ 4) Cl
2) Statement I is false but Statement II is
87. E 0M2 /M of which two elements of 3d series
true
in transition elements have same value 3) Statement I is true but Statement II is
1) V, Mn 2) V, Cu false
3) Ti, Cr 4) Fe, Co 4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
false
 11 Test ID : 303 [S0]
BOTANY
91. Given below are two statements. One is B) Presence of Fruits
labelled Assertion(A) and the other is labelled C) Triploid endosperm
Reason(R). 1) A and B 2) B and C
Assertion (A) : Genus may have more than 3) A and C 4) A, B and C
one species epithet. 96. Match List-I with List-II.
Reason(R) : Genus comprises of a group of List-I List-II
related species.
Tetradynamous
In light of the above statements,choose the A. I. Fabaceae
stamens
correct answer from the options given below.
Perianth -
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the B. II. Malvaceae
lodicules
correct explanation of (A).
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not Monothecous
the correct explanation of (A). anthers and
C. III. Poaceae
3) (A) is true but (R) is false. monadelphous
4) (A) is false but (R) is true. stamens
92. Given below are two statements. Nitrogen fixing
D. IV. Brassicaceae
Statement I : Bacteria are the sole members symbiotic roots
of the Kingdom Monera Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement II : Hundreds of bacteria are given below.
present in a handful of soil. 1) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
In light of the above statements,choose the 2) A-II; B-I; C-IV; D-III
correct answer from the options given below. 3) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
1) Statement I is correct, but statement II 4) A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II
is incorrect. 97. Which of the following statements are
2) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II correct?
is correct. a) In maize embryo, scutellum is equivalent
3) Both Statement I and statement II are to cotyledon.
correct. b) Drupe in mango is developed from
4) Both Statement I and statement II are multicarpellary inferior ovary.
incorrect. c) Flowers are perigynous in Plum, Peach
93. Ectocarpus is a and Rose
1) Thalloid red alga d) In Argemone parietal placentation is
2) Colonial brown alga present.
3) Branched, filamentous brown alga 1) a and b only 2) a, c and d only
4) Filamentous green alga 3) c and d only 4) a, b, c and d
94. Which of the following is incorrectly 98. Which one of the following plants shows
matched? vexillary aestivation and diadelphous
1) Polysiphonia - Floridean starch. stamens?
2) Dictyota – Fucoxanthin 1) Pisum sativum
3) Ulothrix – Mannitol 2) Solanum nigrum
4) Spirogyra – Starch 3) Allium cepa
95. The unique features of angiosperms are 4) Helianthus annuus
A) Double fertilization
 12
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99. Given below are two statements. 102. The cristae of mitochondria are important in
Statement I : Presence of vessels is a 1) increasing surface area
characteristic feature of gymnosperms. 2) decreasing surface area
Statement II : In the phloem of angiosperms, 3) synthesising proteins
the sieve tube elements are present and are 4) having 80S ribosomes
associated with companion cells. 103. Match List-I with List-II
In light of the above statements,choose the List-I List-II
correct answer from the options given below.
Primary
1) Statement I is correct, but statement II
A. Cristae I. constriction of
is incorrect.
chromosome
2) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
is correct. Disc shaped sacs
B. Thylakoids II.
3) Both Statement I and statement II are of golgi apparatus
correct. Infoldings of
4) Both Statement I and statement II are C. Centromere III. inner membrane
incorrect. of mitochondria
100. Given below are two statements.One is Flattened
labelled Assertion(A) and the other is labelled D. Cisternae IV. membranous sacs
Reason(R). in chloroplasts
Assertion (A) : The vascular bundles of a
The correct match is
primary dicot stem are open.
1) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
Reason (R) : In open vascular bundles,
2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
there is no cambium present between xylem
3) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
and phloem tissues
4) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
In light of the above statements,choose the
104. Given below are two statements.
correct answer from the options given below.
Statement I : Inclusion bodies are
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the
nonmembrane bound structures which store
correct explanation of (A).
reserve materials in prokaryotic cells.
2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
Statement II : Flagella, pili and fimbriae are
the correct explanation of (A).
surface structures of bacteria which play role
3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
in motility.
4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
In light of the above statements, choose the
101. Study the following features and select the
correct answer from the options given below.
correct option.
1) Statement I and statement II are correct.
A) This is an extension of plasma membrane
2) Statement I is correct, but statement II
into the cytoplasm.
is incorrect.
B) This extension may be in the form of
3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
vesicles, tubules and lamellae.
is correct.
C) It helps in cell wall synthesis, DNA
4) Both Statement I and statement II are
replication and secretion processes.
incorrect.
The above features are attributed to bacterial
105. Identify the mismatch of the following
1) pili 2) fimbriae
1) RuBisCo-Most abundant polysaccharide
3) genophore 4) mesosomes
in the whole of the biosphere
2) Carboxypeptidase – Zinc (co-factor)
 13
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3) Lectins -Concanavalin A 1) Only (A) is correct.
4) Basic amino acid – Lysine 2) Only (B) is correct.
106. Arrange the following components in the 3) Both (A) and (B) are correct .
ascending order of their percentage in the 4) Both (A) and (B) are incorrect.
total cellular mass. 111. Match List-I with List-II

1) Nucleic acids – Lipids – Carbohydrates List-I List-II

– Water – Proteins Condensation
2) Nucleic acids – Lipids – Proteins – Water A. of chromosomal I. Prophase
3) Carbohydrates – Lipids – Nucleic acid material is initiated
– protein – Water. B. Centromere split II. Metaphase
4) Lipids – Carbohydrates – Nucleic acids Golgi complex and
C. III. Anaphase
– Proteins – Water ER reform
107. Identify the incorrect one w.r.t chitin. Chromosomes
1) It has amino-sugars D. move to equator IV. Telophase
2) It is a complex polysaccharide region.
3) It is a constituent of fungal cell wall Choose the correct answer from the options
4) It is a store house of energy given below.
108. Given below are two statements. One is 1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
labelled Assertion(A) and the other is labelled 2) A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV
Reason(R). 3) A-I; B-III; C-IV; D-II
Assertion (A) : Most of the enzymes have 4) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
112. Given below are two statements.
been classified into different groups based on
Statement I : The nuclear membrane
the type of reaction they catalyse.
disappears by the end of prophase in mitosis
Reason (R) : Enzymes that catalyse the
Statement II : The daughter cells formed at
removal of groups from substrates in the
the end of meiosis differs from parental cells
presence of water are Ligases.
in their ploidy.
In light of the above statements,choose the In light of the above statements,choose the
correct answer from the options given below. correct answer from the options given below.
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) 1) Both statement I and statement II are
is the correct explanation of (A). correct.
2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is 2) Statement I is correct, but statement II
not the correct explanation of (A). is incorrect.
3) (A) is true but (R) is false. 3) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II
4) Both (A) and (R) are false. is correct.
109. The heterocyclic ring is found in 4) Both statement I and statement II are
1) Lecithin 2) Nitrogen base incorrect.
113. This figure represents
3) Triglyceride 4) Glycine
110. Read the following statements and select the
correct answer.
A) During anaphase, the centromere of each
chromosome is towards the poles and
their arms trail behind.
B) Phenomenon of pairing of chromosomes
in zygotene is called crossing over.
 14
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1) Late Prophase 2) Metaphase A) Pyruvic acid B) Acetyl-CoA
3) Anaphase 4) Telophase C) Malic acid D) OAA
114. Select the incorrect statement for maize plant E) Water.
1) Production of C3 acid in bundle sheath 1) A, D and E only 2) B, D and E only
cells. 3) A, B and C only 4) A, B, C and D
2) Formation of PEP in bundle-sheath cells. 119. Match List-I with List-II

3) Lack of Photorespiration. List-I List-II

4) Occurrence of C3 pathway in bundle Inhibit seed
sheath cells. A. I. Gibberellins
germination
115. Given below are two statements. One is
Sprouting of potato
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled B. II. Ethylene
tuber
Reason (R).
Increase the yield
Assertion (A) : In C4 plants, photorespiration C. III. Zeatin
of sugarcane
does not occur.
Reason (R) : C4 plants have a mechanism that Promote the lateral
D. IV. ABA
increases the concentration of CO2 at the shoot growth
enzyme (RuBisCo) site 1) A-IV; B-II; C-I; D-III
In light of the above statements,choose the 2) A-II; B-IV; C-III; D-I
correct answer from the options given below. 3) A-III; B-II; C-IV; D-I
1) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the 4) A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I
correct explanation of (A) 120. Coconut milk stimulates cell division as it is

2) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not rich in
the correct explanation of (A) 1) Auxin 2) Ethylene
3) (A) is true but (R) is false 3) Gibberellin 4) Cytokinin
4) (A) is false but (R) is true 121. Select the incorrect statements of the
116. Consider the following statements related to following.
non-cyclic electron transport. A) DNA fragments are separated based on
I) FNR reduces NADP+ to NADPH+H+. their size in gel electrophoresis.
II) The movement of electrons from PC to B) Downstream processing is one of the
PS I is downhill. steps of polymerase chain reaction.
III) The electrons used up as they pass through C) Disarmed pathogen vectors are used to
the electron transport chain. deliver desirable genes into host cells.
D) ‘Taq’ polymerase is active in PCR
IV) It occurs in the membrane of grana
technique only during ‘Denaturation’
thylakoids.
but not extension
Identify the option with correct statements.
1) B and D only 2) A and B only
1) All except I 2) All except II
3) A, B and C only 4) A, B, C and D
3) All except III 4) All except IV
122. ‘Ti plasmid’ of Agrobacterium tumifaciens
117. Which of the following occurs during alcohol
stands for
fermentation? 1) Tumor inducing plasmid.
1) Decarboxylation of pyruvate 2) Temperature independent plasmid.
2) Decarboxylation of α-ketoglutaric acid 3) Tumor inhibiting plasmid.
3) Oxidation of NADH+ H+ 4) Tumor independent plasmid.
4) Both (1) and (3)
118. Which of the following are involved in the
first step of the TCA cycle.?
 15
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123. The ssDNA/RNA which is tagged with 1) A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I
radioactive molecule and is complementary to 2) A-IV; B-III; C-II; D-I
at least one part of desired DNA is called 3) A-III; B-IV; C-I; D-II
1) Primer 2) Probe 4) A-IV; B-III; C-I; D-II
3) Palindrome 4) EST 129. Given below are two statements.
124. Given below are two statements. Statement I : Each cell of the sporogenous
Statement I : A palindromic DNA sequence tissue is a potential microspore/pollen mother
is one that reads the same from 5 to 3 and cell.
also from 3 to 5 on the same strand. Statement II : Each cell of the sporogenous
Statement II : EcoRI cuts both DNA strands tissue in microsporangium is capable of giving
at exactly the same position and at the center rise to one microspore tetrad.
of the palindromic site. In light of the above statements, choose the
In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
correct answer from the options given below. 1) Both statement I and statement II are
1) Both statements I and II are correct. correct.
2) Both statements I and II are incorrect. 2) Both statement I and statement II are
3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect.
incorrect. 3) Statement I is correct, but statement II is
4) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is incorrect.
correct. 4) Statement -I is incorrect, but statement II is
125. How many copies of a desirable gene can be correct.
generated from a single copy by using PCR in 130. Frequency for pure round seeded pea plants

31 cycles? in F2 generation of a typical is dihybrid cross

1) ~1 billion 2) ~2 billion is
3) ~½ billion 4) ~¼ billion 1) 12.5% 2) 25%
3) 6.25% 4) 56.25%
126. One meiotic division in a megaspore mother
131. In Drosophila, the genes for yellow body (y)
cell in an ovule will produce how many
and white eye (w) showed 1.3%
female gametes ultimately in angiosperms?
recombination while, those of white body (w)
1) 4 2) 1
and miniature wing (m) showed 37.2%
3) 2 4) 8
recombination. It indicates that
127. Epiblast in monocot embryo is considered as
1) ‘w’ and ‘m’ are on different chromosomes
1) Single celled suspensor
2) ‘w’ and ‘m’ are closer than ‘w’ and ‘y’
2) Covering of embryo
3) ‘w’ and ‘y’ are on the same chromosome,
3) Nutritive tissue
while ‘m’ is on a different chromosome
4) Rudimentary cotyledon
4) ‘w’ and ‘y’ are closer than ‘w’ and ’m’
128. Match the following List-I with List-II
132. A graphical representation used to calculate
List-I List-II
the probability of all possible genotypes of
Non-albuminous offspring was developed by
A. I. Strawberry
seed 1) Gregor Mendel
B. Albuminous seed II. Mango 2) T.H. Morgan
C. True fruit III. Ground nut 3) Reginald C. Punnett
D. False fruit IV. Maize 4) Carl Correns
 16
Test ID : 303 [S0]
133. If Messelson and Stahl experiment is 135. Post – transcriptional modifications of primary
continued for four generations in bacteria, then transcript in eukaryotes does not involve
the ratio of 15N/15N : 15N/14N : 14N/14N 1) Addition of 7-methyl guanosine
containing DNA in the fourth generation triphosphate at 5’ end of hn RNA
would be 2) Tailing at 3’ end
1) 1:1:0 2) 1:4:0 3) Removal of introns and joining of exons in
3) 0:1:3 4) 0:1:7 a coordinated manner.
134. How many types of RNA polymerases are 4) Removal of RNA primers from ‘hnRNA’
present in the nucleus of eukaryotes?
1) Two 2) Three
3) Four 4) Only one
ZOOLOGY
136. Identify
the X from the following 139. Which of the following are not necessarily
diagrammatic section view of ovary. present in all the tissues?
a) Fibres
b) Cells
c) Large amounts of matrix
d) Fibroblasts / fibrocytes
1) a, b and d 2) a, b and c
1) primary follicle 3) b, c and d 4) a, c and d
2) corpus luteum 140. In
cockroach, the opening of the male genital
3) secondary oocyte pore is surrounded by
4) secondary follicle 1) left phallomere
137. Ctenophores are differentiated from cnidarians 2) right phallomere
in which of the following features? 3) ventral phallomere
i. Absence of asexual reproduction 4) all the above
ii. Having comb plates 141. Successful implementation of various action
iii. Absence of cnidoblasts plans to attain reproductive health requires
iv. Tissue level of organization 1) strong infrastructural facilities
v. Radially symmetrical, diploblastic forms. 2) professional expertise
1) i and v 2) ii, iii and iv 3) material support
4) all of these
3) i, ii and iii 4) iv and v
142. Pick out the oral contraceptive from the
138. Assertion (A): Echinoderms are spiny bodied
following
animals.
1) LNG-20 2) Saheli
Reason (R): Echinoderms have an
3) Cu7 4) multiload 375
endoskeleton of calcareous ossicles.
143. Choose the incorrect statement.
1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
1) Surgical techniques of contraception are
explanation of A
highly effective but their reversibility is
2) Both A and R are true and R is not the
very poor
correct explanation of A
3) A is true but R is false
4) A is false but R is true
 15 Test ID : 303 [S0]
2) In tubectomy, a small part of the fallopian 4) Nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea →
tube is removed through a small incision on bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli
the scrotum 148. Labia minora are paired folds of tissue under
3) The selection of a suitable contraceptive the
method and its use should always be 1) Mons pubis 2) Vagina
undertaken in consultation with qualified 3) Labia majora 4) Clitoris
medical professionals
149. Thepartial pressure of oxygen (pO2) in
4) Contraceptives interfere with natural
deoxygenated blood is
reproductive events
1) more than the pO2 in alveolar air
144. Statement-I: Pleiotropic gene influences on
single phenotype or trait. 2) equal to the pCO2 in alveolar air
Statement-II: Human height is the classic 3) less than pCO2 in atmospheric air
example for pleiotropy. 4) more than pCO2 in deoxygenated blood
1) Both Statements I and II are correct 150. Identifythe incorrect statement w.r.t the
2) Statement I is correct, Statement II is regulation of respiration.
incorrect 1) The pneumotaxic centre can moderate the
3) Statement I is incorrect, statement II is functions of the respiratory rhythm centre
correct 2) Receptors associated with the aortic arch
4) Both statements I and II are incorrect and carotid artery can recognise changes in
145. In which of the following animals the number CO2 but not H+.
of chromosomes is same but the type of sex 3) Human beings have a significant ability to
chromosomes is different? maintain the respiratory rhythm
1) Drosophila 2) Birds 4) The role of oxygen in the regulation of
3) Humans 4) all of the above respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant
146. The given symbol indicates/ represents
151. Find the mismatch from the following.
1) Left atrium – Receives oxygenated blood
from lungs through pulmonary arteries
2) Right ventricle – Pumps deoxygenated
blood to lungs through pulmonary arteries
1) unaffected parents with unaffected children 3) Right atrium – Receives deoxygenated
2) unaffected parents have a first child as blood from the coronary sinus, and the vena
daughter cavae
3) unaffected parents have a second child as 4) Left ventricle – Pumps oxygenated blood to
son the body parts through the aorta
4) all are correct 152. Which of the following is an incorrect match
147. Which of the following is the correct pathway of the organisms and their major excretory
of air in the respiratory system? waste?
1) Nose → larynx → pharynx → trachea → 1) Reptiles, land snails and birds – Uricotelic
bronchi → bronchioles → alveoli 2) Insects, frogs and bony fish - Ureotelic
2) Nose → pharynx → larynx → bronchi → 3) Mammals, frog and shark – Ureotelic
trachea → bronchioles → alveoli
4) Aquatic insects and aquatic amphibians –
3) Nose → pharynx → larynx → trachea → Ammonotelic
alveoli → bronchioles → bronchi
 16 Test ID : 303 [S0]
153. Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not
takes place in _A__ in the presence of __B__. the correct explanation of (A).
1) A - PCT; B - ADH 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
2) A - DCT; B - aldosterone 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
3) A – Descending limb of loop of Henle; 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
B - aldosterone correct explanation of (A).
4) A - Collecting duct; B - ANF 158. Whichof the following are the parts of the
154. Find the mismatch. forebrain?
1) Leucocytes – Amoeboid movement 1) Pons, medulla and cerebellum
2) Spermatozoa - Ciliary movement 2) Medulla, pons and cerebrum
3) Hydra – Tentacles 3) Thalamus, hypothalamus and cerebellum
4) Euglena – Flagellar movement 4) Cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus
155. Crossbridges pull the attached actin filaments 159. Whichof the following is not a function of
towards the centre of catecholamines?
1) ‘I’ band 1) Piloerection
2) ‘Z’ line 2) Increase in sweat secretion
3) dark band 3) Elevation of blood glucose levels by
4) light band promoting glycogen breakdown in the liver
156. The dorsal, flat, triangular body of the scapula 4) Decrease in the rate and force of muscular
has a slightly elevated ridge called the __A__, contraction of the heart
which projects as a flat, expanded process 160. Whichof the following is an incorrect
called the __B__, with which the __C__ statement about pancreas?
articulates. 1) The pancreas is a mixed or composite gland
Select the option that correctly identifies A, B 2) Islets of Langerhans constitute 99% of the
and C. pancreas
A B C 3) Insulin is secreted by beta cells of pancreas
1) Spine Coracoid First rib 4) Insulin and glucagon are peptide hormones
161. Which of the following hormone does not
2) Spine Acromion Clavicle
interact with intracellular receptors?
3) Dens Coracoid Clavicle
1) Testosterone
4) Coccyx Acromion First rib 2) Oestradiol
157. Given below are two statements. One is 3) Progesterone
labelled Assertion (A) and the other is labelled 4) Somatostatin
Reason (R). 162. How many of the following are paired
Assertion (A) : Tetany refers to rapid spasms structures in the human body?
in the muscles.
Ovary, Oviduct, Prostate gland, Uterus,
Reason (R) : Tetany is usually caused by Cervix, Vagina, Hymen, Bulbourethral
increased blood calcium levels. gland, Seminal vesicle, Penis
In light of the above statements, choose the
1) Four 2) Five
correct answer from the option given below.
3) Six 4) Seven
 17 Test ID : 303 [S0]
163. Choose the correct option with respect to the iv. According to Darwin, there has been a
labelling of the diagram given below. gradual evolution of life forms.
v. Homology is based on convergent
evolution, while analogy refers to a
situation exactly opposite.
i ii iii iv v
1) T T T F F
2) T F T F F
3) T T F T F
1) I-Endometrium; III-Isthmus, V-Uterus
4) T T T T F
2) II-Perimetrium; I-Myometrium,
IV-Ampulla 167. Match the following.
3) I-Endometrium; V-Cervical canal, List I List II
IV-Fimbriae Haemophilus Malignant
4) III-Ampulla; V-Uterus, VI-Cervical canal A. I.
influenza malaria
164. During oogenesis, the first meiotic division
Entamoeba
begins B. II. Elephantiasis
histolytica
1) just after birth 2) at puberty
Plasmodium
3) before birth 4) at menarche C. III. Pneumonia
falciparum
165. Read
the following statements and identify the
Wuchereria
incorrect one. D. IV. Typhoid
bancrofti
1) Homo habilis had a brain capacity of 650-
800 cc Salmonella
E. V. Amoebiasis
typhi
2) Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus existed 50
million years ago Choose the correct answer from the options
3) Australopithecines probably lived in East given below.
African grasslands (A) (B) (C) (D) (E)
4) Prehistoric cave art developed around 1) I V III II IV
18,000 years ago 2) III V I II IV
166. Considerthe following statements and select 3) V I III IV II
the correct option stating which ones are true 4) I III V II IV
(T) and which ones are false (F). 168. Whichof the following are correct
i. Tyrannosaurus was a dinosaur, about 20 statements?
feet tall, with huge, fearsome, dagger-like i. Ringworm is characterised by dry, scaly
teeth. lesions on various parts of the body, such as
ii. Some land reptiles went back into water to skin, nails and scalp.
evolve into fish-like reptiles, probably 200 ii. Plasmodium initially infects RBCs and then
million years ago. infects liver cells.
iii. According to the theory of spontaneous iii. Amoebiasis is caused by a protozoan
generation, spores were transferred to pathogen called Amoeba proteus.
different planets from outer space,
including Earth.
 18 Test ID : 303 [S0]
iv. Wuchereria is an intestinal parasite causing 172. Which of the following is the source of bhang,
internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, charas, ganja, hashish and marijuana?
anaemia and blockage of the intestinal 1) Papaver somniferum
passage. 2) Cannabis sativa
v. Ringworms are generally acquired from soil 3) Erythroxylum coca
or by using towels, clothes or even the 4) Claviceps purpurea
combs of infected individuals.
173. Choosethe incorrect match for the given
1) i and ii 2) ii and iv population growth curves.
3) i and v 4) iv and v
169. Allof the following are physiological barriers
that prevent microbial growth, except
1) saliva in mouth
2) tears from eyes
3) acid in stomach
4) mucus coating of the epithelium
170. Which of the following is not an example of
artificially acquired passive immunity?
1) Antivenom given to a person who had a dN KN 
snakebite 1) A :  rN  
dt  K 
2) Antigens given to a child in the form of
2) B: Carrying capacity
polio vaccine
3) C: More realistic population growth curve
3) Anti-tetanus serum given to a patient
dN
suffering from tetanus 4) C :  rN
dt
4) Anti-rabies serum given to a patient after a
174. Read the following.
dog bite
A. Fig and wasp
171. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding cancer? B. Cuscuta on hedge plants
i. Most cancers are treated by a combination C. Sparrow and seeds
of surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy. D. Tiger and deer
ii. Cancer cells show the property of contact E. Orchid on a mango tree
inhibition. F. Plasmodium vivax in the human
iii.Radiotherapy involves irradiation of cancer Which of the above interspecific interactions
cells lethally by taking proper care of exemplify a ‘+’, ‘–’ relation?
normal tissues. 1) B, C, D, and F 2) A and E only
iv. Alpha interferons are used for the treatment 3) B and C only 4) D and F only
of cancer. 175. Given below are two statements.
v. Non-ionising radiations like X-rays and Statement I : Dengue and chikungunya in
gamma rays cause DNA damage, leading to many parts of India are vector-borne diseases
neoplastic transformation. spread by female Anopheles mosquitoes.
1) i, ii, and iii 2) i, iii, and iv Statement II : In recent times, safer vaccines
3) ii, iii, and iv 4) iii, iv, and v are being produced through biotechnology.
 19 Test ID : 303 [S0]
In light of the above statements, choose the 1) key species 2) biome
correct answer from the options given below. 3) extinct species 4) habitat
1) Both statement I and statement II are 179. All
the biodiversity hotspots put together
correct cover ___ of the earth’s land area.
2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is 1) more than 30% 2) less than 0.5%
correct 3) more than 50% 4) less than 2%
3) Both statement I is correct and statement II 180. Given below are two statements.
is incorrect Statement I : The cerebral aqueduct passes
4) Statement I and statement II are incorrect through the midbrain.
176. Which of the following is correct? Statement II : Thyrocalcitonin (TCT) is an
1) Fragmentation – Breakdown of detritus into iodine-rich hormone produced by the thyroid
smaller particles gland.
2) Humification – Breakdown of humus into In light of the above statements, choose the
inorganic materials correct answer from the options given below.
3) Catabolism – Accumulation of a dark- 1) Both statement I and statement II are
coloured amorphous substance correct
4) Mineralisation – Conversion of minerals 2) Statement I incorrect but statement II is
into complex organic molecules correct
177. Reserpine,an active chemical drug, is 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is
obtained from incorrect
1) Atropa 2) Papaver 4) Statement I and statement II are incorrect
3) Datura 4) Rauwolfia
178. Inthe ‘Rivet popper hypothesis’ of Paul
Ehrlich, the rivets on the wings represent ____
in the ecosystem.

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