Exam Date 09/03/2025

Centre Name iON Digital Zone iDZ Kottayam

Exam Time 12:30 PM - 2:00 PM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.

2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1 Prakash and Vinesh can complete a certain piece of work in 17 and 15 days,
respectively, They started to work together, and after 4 days, Vinesh left. In how many
days will Prakash complete the remaining work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.2 A number when increased by 40 %', gives 3360. The number is:
Ans 1. 1200

2. 7200

3. 2400

4. 4800

Q.3

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.4 A 338 m long train crosses a man walking at a speed of 6.8 km/h in the opposite
direction in 12 seconds. What is the speed (in km/h) of the train ?
Ans 1. 94.6

2. 97.5

3. 90.5

4. 91.6

Q.5 Pankaj and Kamal can do a piece of work in 12 days and 16 days, respectively. In how
much time will they together complete the same work?
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.6 A shopkeeper buys a watch for ₹2,000 and sells it for ₹2,400. What is the percentage of
profit?
Ans 1. 20%

2. 22.67%

3. 25%

4. 16.67%

Q.7 In a business, A, B and C invest ₹1,00,000, ₹2,00,000 and ₹2,50,000, respectively. If B

gets ₹5,500 as profit, then the total profit (in ₹) is:
Ans 1. 15,552

2. 15,125

3. 15,512

4. 15,215

Q.8 A dinner set is sold at ₹9,775 after giving a discount of 15%. What is the marked price of
the dinner set?
Ans 1. ₹13,250

2. ₹10,500

3. ₹12,250

4. ₹11,500

Q.9 If the length of cuboid is 2 cm, breadth is 7 cm and the volume of cuboid is 5278 cm3,
then find the height of cuboid (in cm).
Ans 1. 377

2. 384

3. 372

4. 367

Q.10
Find the value of

Ans 1. 116

2. 107

3. 118

4. 110
Q.11 A sum of ₹5,000 is invested for 2 years at an annual interest rate of 6%.
What will be the difference in the Compound Interest (CI) and Simple
Interest (SI) at the end of 2 years? Use (1.06)2 = 1.1236
Ans 1. ₹28

2. ₹16

3. ₹18

4. ₹48

Q.12 The volume (in cm3) of a wire of diameter 2 cm and length 98 m is:

Ans 1. 30800

2. 27300

3. 31600

4. 29800

Q.13 In a sale, a trader offers several discount schemes. Choose a scheme that provides the
highest discount from the following options.
Ans 1. Two successive discounts of 8% and 12%

2. A single discount of 20%

3. Two successive discounts of 10% and 11%

4. Two successive discounts of 10% each

Q.14 The sum of 8 numbers is 912. Find their average.

Ans 1. 112

2. 115

3. 114

4. 113

Q.15 A certain sum invested at 8% per annum compound interest, compounded annually,
amounts to ₹10,580 at the end of 2 years. Find the sum.
Ans 1. ₹9,070.64

2. ₹9,007.64

3. ₹9,400.70

4. ₹9,600.70

Q.16 The smallest number which, when divided by 3, 5 and 7 leaves a remainder of 5 in each
case, is:
Ans 1. 115

2. 100

3. 110

4. 95

Q.17 The price of an item is initially increased by 20%, and then the new price is decreased
by 10%. What is the overall percentage change in the price?
Ans 1. 6% decrease

2. 8% decrease

3. 6% increase

4. 8% increase
Q.18 Pravin can do a piece of work in 8 hours. Rishi can do it in 24 hours. With the
assistance of Shan, they completed the work in 3 hours. In how many hours can Shan
alone do it?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 5

4. 6

Q.19 Evaluate: 41 - [36 - {48 ÷ 2 - (6 - 8 ÷ 2) ÷ 2}]

Ans 1. 28

2. 29

3. 27

4. 30

Q.20 A bike goes 7 meters in a second. Find its speed in km/hr.

Ans 1. 26.9

2. 25.1

3. 34.4

4. 25.2

Q.21
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.22 Which of the following ratio is smallest?

Ans 1. 29 : 36

2. 28 : 46

3. 24 : 31

4. 13 : 45

Q.23 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 75 and the third
number is 116. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 192

2. 194.5

3. 191

4. 195.5

Q.24

Ans 1. −31

2. −29

3. −25

4. −27
Q.25 After 62 litres of petrol was poured into an empty storage tank, it was still 10% empty.
How much petrol (in litres, rounded off to two decimal place) must be poured into the
storage tank in order to fill it?
Ans 1. 69.89

2. 63

3. 68.89

4. 67.89

Q.26 The sum of five numbers is 655. The average of the first two numbers is 76 and the third
number is 102. Find the average of the remaining two numbers?
Ans 1. 178

2. 200.5

3. 201.5

4. 179

Q.27 If the distance between A and B is 1404 Km. From A, Namit goes to B with speed 69
km/h and return to A with the speed 49 km/h. Find the average speed of Namit.(rounded
off to two decimal place)
Ans 1. 60.78 km/h

2. 52.33 km/h

3. 57.31 km/h

4. 63.38 km/h

Q.28 The average of first 113 even numbers is

Ans 1. 115

2. 114

3. 114.5

4. 113.5

Q.29 Two banks, A and B, offered loans at 3.5% and 6% per annum, respectively. Atul
borrowed an amount of ₹420000 from each bank. Find the positive difference between
the amounts of simple interest paid to the two banks by Atul after 3 years.
Ans 1. 33000

2. 32500

3. 31500

4. 31000

Q.30 Mukund bought 52 books for Rs 1130 from one shop and 44 books for Rs 910 from
another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
Ans 1. 24.25

2. 22.25

3. 21.25

4. 23.25

Q.31 A retailer buys an electronic item for ₹175. His overhead expenses are ₹25. He sells the
electronic item for ₹340 and makes x%' profit. The value of x is:
Ans 1. 50

2. 60

3. 90

4. 70
 Q.32 If the perimeter of a triangle is doubled, then its area is _______ times the previous area.
Ans 1. 2

2. 1.5

3. 2.5

4. 4

Q.33 Simplify the following:

12 ÷ (12 × 12) + (15 ÷15) ÷ 15 × 15 + 15
Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.34 Which of the following numbers is divisible by 5?

Ans 1. 24314

2. 24311

3. 24317

4. 24315

Q.35 In covering a distance of 40 km, Amit takes 2 hours more than Vinay. If Amit doubles his
speed, then he would take 8 hour less than Vinay. Amit's speed is:
Ans 1. 2 km/h

2. 4 km/h

3. 12 km/h

4. 11 km/h

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only two
people are sitting to the left of F. A is sitting to the immediate right of F. E is sitting
second to the right of A. B is sitting to the immediate right of E. C is sitting at the left
end of the line. G is not an immediate neighbour of F. Who is sitting between C and F?
Ans 1. E

2. D

3. B

4. A

Q.37 Refer to the following number, symbol series and answer the question. Counting to be
done from left to right only.
(Left) # 2 $ + / + 4 9 @ # > > > @ 9 8 # $ @ ^ 9 (Right)
How many such numbers are there each of which is immediately preceded by a symbol
and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. None

4. Three
Q.38 In a certain code language, ‘ETYJ’ is coded as ‘5970’ and ‘JEFT’ is coded as ‘0857’. What
is the code for ‘F’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 7

2. 8

3. 0

4. 5

Q.39 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

215 ? 221 223 227 229

Ans 1. 218

2. 219

3. 216

4. 217

Q.40 In a certain code language,

A + B means ‘A is the son of B’,
A – B means ‘A is the sister of B’,
A x B means ‘A is the father of B’,
A ÷ B means ‘A is the mother of B’.

Based on the above, how is P related to T if ‘P x Q ÷ R – S + T’?

Ans 1. Father’s father

2. Father’s brother

3. Mother’s father

4. Wife’s father

Q.41 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) & ^ 7 \ % 8 < 1 $ + \ 6 % > > 6 / * # & & (Right)

How many such numbers are there, each of which is immediately preceded by another
number and also immediately followed by a symbol?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Two

4. None

Q.42 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusion(s) logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
Some poems are songs.
All songs are essays.

Conclusions:
(I) Some poems are essays.
(II) All poems are essays.
Ans 1. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (II) follows.

4. Only conclusion (I) follows.

Q.43 The unit digit of a three-digit number is two less than the tens digit, and the hundreds
digit is three more than the tens digit. What number is it if the total of the digits is 16?
Ans 1. 673

2. 574

3. 358

4. 853

Q.44 Select the combination of letters that when sequentially placed in the blanks of the
given series will complete the series.

ED_C J_FH _NKM TS_R Y_UW

Ans 1. AILPX

2. AGOPX

3. AIOPX

4. AIOPV

Q.45 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

XVR : ZZU
PQV : RUY
Ans 1. QUS : SXW

2. UTL : WXN

3. NNT : PRX

4. VRQ : XVT

Q.46 XDOL is related to IMZU in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, PNGV is related to AWRE. To which of the given options is WONW related,
following the same logic?
Ans 1. HFXY

2. HXYF

3. HFYX

4. HXFY

Q.47 Read the given statement(s) and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statement(s) is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statement(s).

Statements:
Some clocks are frames.
Some frames are paintings.

Conclusions:
(I) Some clocks are paintings.
(II) All paintings are frames.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows.

2. Only conclusion (II) follows.

3. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

4. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

Q.48 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

911 912 914 917 921 ?

Ans 1. 926

2. 924

3. 925

4. 927
Q.49 Gimmy ranked 8th from the bottom and 9th from the top in his class. How many
students are there in his class?
Ans 1. 15

2. 16

3. 18

4. 17

Q.50 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

ONE QPF SRG UTH ?

Ans 1. WWI

2. WXI

3. WVJ

4. WVI

Q.51 Abhisht starts from Point A and drives 5 km towards north. He then takes a right turn,
drives 6 km, turns right and drives 10 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 11 km.
He takes a final right turn, drives 5 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance)
and towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns
are 90 degrees turns only unless specified)
Ans 1. ​6 km to the west

2. 5 km to the west

3. 5 km to the east

4. 6 km to the east

Q.52 Select the correct mirror image of the given figure when the mirror is
placed at MN as shown below.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.
Q.53 In a certain code language, 'review the bill' is coded as 'tk jb zb' and 'bill was paid' is
coded as 'ab tm tk'. How is 'bill' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tk

2. zb

3. jb

4. tm

Q.54 Each of C, O, M, I, N, G and S has an exam on a different day of a week, starting from
Monday and ending on Sunday of the same week. G has exam on the first day of the
week. Only five people have exam after S. Only three people have exam between C and
M. Only three people have exam between I and S. O has exam on some day before M
and on some day after N. How many people have exam before C?
Ans 1. One

2. Three

3. Four

4. Two

Q.55 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. XCH

2. FKP

3. QVA

4. MPW

Q.56 K, L, M, N, O, and P are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. K sits to the
immediate right of N. M sits third to the right of K. Only P sits between K and O. What is
the position of L with respect to K?
Ans 1. Third to the right

2. Second to the right

3. Second to the left

4. Immediate left
Q.57 Identify the option that when put in place of the question mark (?) will logically
complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.58 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

XGM GPV PYE YHN ?

Ans 1. HYU

2. HQW

3. HWQ

4. HQI

Q.59 Each of the digits in the number 6847521 is arranged in the ascending order from left to
right. The position(s) of how many digits will remain unchanged as compared to that in
the original number?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Three

4. None
Q.60 In a certain code language,

'A + B' means ‘A is the sister of B’,

'A – B' means ‘A is the brother of B’,
'A × B' means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
'A ÷ B' means ‘ A is the father of B’.

How is P related to T if ‘P + Q × R − S ÷ T’?

Ans 1. Mother's brother's wife's sister

2. Father's brother's wife's sister

3. ​Mother's brother's wife's mother

4. Father's brother's wife's mother

Q.61 In a certain code language, 'eat more fruits' is coded as 'lo tk jo' and 'fruits are
expensive' is coded as 'jo bk mb'. How is 'fruits' coded in the given language?
Ans 1. tk

2. jo

3. mb

4. lo

Q.62 Select the option in which the numbers share the same relationship as that shared by
the given pair of numbers.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without breaking down
the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 – Operations on 13 such as
adding/subtracting/multiplying etc. to 13, can be performed. Breaking down 13 into 1
and 3 and then performing mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
(60, 5, 12)
(72, 8, 9)
Ans 1. 46, 8, 6

2. 24, 5, 6

3. 36, 9, 3

4. 56, 7, 8

Q.63 ROPE is related to TSRI in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In the
same way, NEST is related to PIUX. To which of the following is FAIL related, following
the same logic?
Ans 1. HWKH

2. JCMN

3. DEHP

4. HEKP

Q.64 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
Some pens are sketch.
No sketch is colour.
All colours are water.
Conclusions:
I) No pen is water.
II) Some sketches are water.
III) Some water is not sketch.
Ans 1. Only III conclusion follows

2. Either conclusion II or III follows

3. Only I conclusion follows

4. Both conclusion I and II follow

 Q.65 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

201 202 204 207 211 ?

Ans 1. 218

2. 215

3. 216

4. 217

Q.66 Three of the following four letter-clusters are alike in a certain way and thus form a
group. Which is the letter-cluster that does NOT belong to that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
positions in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. ISC

2. LEO

3. PZJ

4. OYI

Q.67 If 1 is added to each odd digit and 2 is subtracted from each even digit in the number
56183472, what will be difference between the highest and lowest digits in the number
thus formed?
Ans 1. 6

2. 7

3. 8

4. 4

Q.68 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 2 7 4 9 3 5 7 6 4 5 6 4 1 9 5 1 3 5 8 4 2 7 8 4 2 6 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. Four

2. Three

3. Two

4. One

Q.69 Mr. Tqr starts from Point A and drives 23 km towards North. He then takes a right turn,
drives 7 km, turns right and drives 9 km. He then takes a left turn, drives 13 km, turns
right and drives 22 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 24 km. He takes a final
right turn, drives 8 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards
which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree
turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 8 km to the North

2. 4 km to the West

3. 4 km to the East

4. 8 km to the South

Q.70 Seven friends C, D, E, P, Q, R and S are sitting in a straight line facing north. Only three
people sits to the right of D. Only one person sits to the left of Q. C sits immediately to
the right of S. Only four people sit between C and Q. P sits some place to the left of R
but some place to the right of E. How many people sit between E and R?
Ans 1. One

2. None

3. Two

4. Three

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 The Oilfields (Regulation and Development) Amendment Bill, 2024, introduced in Rajya
Sabha in August 2024 expands definition of mineral oils to include which of the
following?
Ans 1. Crude oil and diesel

2. Biofuels and ethanol

3. Coal and lignite

4. Petroleum and natural gas

Q.72 Harmonium is a ___________ instrument made of wood, metal, brass and cloth.
Ans 1. string

2. wind

3. electronic

4. percussion

Q.73 On 7 October 2024, International Finance Corporation (IFC) and Axis Bank have
partnered for a loan of how many million to promote green and blue finance in India?
Ans 1. $700 million

2. $500 million

3. $1200 million

4. $300 million

Q.74 Who was the painter of the 1859 painting 'Relief of Lucknow'?
Ans 1. Thomas Jones Barker

2. Colin Campbell

3. James Outram Park

4. Joseph Noel Paton

Q.75 What was India’s per capita GDP for 2023-24, as reported by the National Statistical
Office?
Ans 1. ₹2,50,000

2. ₹1,80,000

3. ₹2,11,725

4. ₹3,00,000

Q.76 Which of the following literary works of Sangam period has been considered as a
collection of the oldest surviving Tamil Poetry?
Ans 1. Patinenmelkanakku

2. Ettuthokai

3. Pattuppattu

4. Manimekhlai

Q.77 Which river is known as the 'Sorrow of Bihar' due to its frequent course changes?
Ans 1. River Ghaghara

2. River Yamuna

3. River Ganga

4. River Kosi

Q.78 Which of the following statements best describes isomerism in chemistry?

Ans 1. The formation of compounds with identical chemical properties but different chemical formulas

2. The phenomenon where different elements have the same number of protons

3. The occurrence of compounds with the same molecular formula but different chemical properties

4. The process by which a compound changes its state of matter

Q.79 What was a major criticism of the agricultural strategy adopted during India’s “Green
Revolution”?
Ans 1. It focused on non-irrigated regions.

2. It solved micronutrient deficiencies among the poor.

3. It benefited all farmers equally.

4. It primarily benefited large landowners, increasing economic disparities.

Q.80 The government extended 'Samarth' (Capacity Building Scheme in Textile Sector) by
_____ in October 2024.
Ans 1. five years

2. two years

3. six years

4. three years

Q.81 What event in April 2024 highlighted the deficiencies in Kotak Mahindra Bank's IT
infrastructure?
Ans 1. A service disruption in the bank's Core Banking System

2. A decline in customer deposits

3. A security breach of customer data

4. A failure to meet loan disbursement targets

Q.82 What is the expected trend in credit growth for Banks and NBFCs in FY25, according to
the ICRA report released on 24 October 2024?
Ans 1. A steady slowdown

2. A sharp decline

3. No change

4. A sharp increase

Q.83 What was a significant limitation of the Indian financial system before the enactment of
the Banking Companies Act, of 1949?
Ans 1. There was no comprehensive statutory regulation for commercial banks in India.

2. Cooperative banks were banned in rural areas until the late 20th century.
3. The Reserve Bank of India did not have the authority to control monetary policy.

4. The Companies Act of 1913 required high cash reserves for banks, limiting their growth.

Q.84 What is the minimum required experience as an advocate or pleader for a person to be
eligible for appointment as a district judge?
Ans 1. Five Years

2. Seven Years

3. Three Years

4. Ten Years

Q.85 Which of the following statements is/are correct in the context of Vedic Brahamans?

I. Aitareya Brahmana was associated with Rigveda.

II. Panchavimsha Brahmana was associated with Samveda.
Ans 1. Only II

2. Both I and II

3. Neither I nor II

4. Only I
Q.86 Which of the following languages was/were used in proclamations calling people to join
the 1857 Revolt?
Ans 1. English

2. Sanskrit

3. Hindi, Urdu and Persian

4. Arabic and Hindi

Q.87 Which of the following states is the leading producer of jute in India?
Ans 1. Madhya Pradesh

2. Punjab

3. West Bengal

4. Bihar

Q.88 Spain won its ______ UEFA European Championships title in history as it beat England
2-1 in the Euro Cup 2024 final on 15 July 2024.
Ans 1. third

2. fourth

3. fifth

4. second

Q.89 Who was the official democratic candidate for the US presidential elections, 2024?
Ans 1. Kamala Harris

2. Hillary Clinton

3. Donald Trump

4. Joe Biden

Q.90 In 2024, which Indian IT company announced the establishment of a new AI-Cloud lab in
Singapore to advance innovations in artificial intelligence and cloud computing?
Ans 1. HCL Tech

2. TCS

3. Infosys

4. Wipro

Q.91 Which radiation is emitted when a stream of accelerating electrons strikes a metal
target?
Ans 1. X-ray

2. γ-ray

3. Cathode ray

4. α-ray

Q.92 What was the main focus of the first Five-Year Plan?
Ans 1. Infrastructure development

2. Industrial development

3. Green revolution

4. Agricultural development

Q.93 Who is the Chief Executive Officer of the Union Territory of Delhi?
Ans 1. The Lieutenant Governor

2. The Chief Minister

3. The Prime Minister

4. The President of India

Q.94 During which Five-Year Plan did the focus shift towards industrialisation rather than
agriculture?
Ans 1. Third Five-Year Plan

2. Fifth Five-Year Plan

3. First Five-Year Plan

4. Second Five-Year Plan

Q.95 Where was the Battle of Chinhat in 1857 fought?

Ans 1. Near Lucknow

2. Near Kolkata

3. Near Rawalpindi

4. Near Satara

Q.96 With reference to the climate of India, the ‘Mango Showers’ phenomenon is associated
with which states of India?
Ans 1. Bihar and Jharkhand

2. Kerala and Karnataka

3. Maharashtra and Gujarat

4. West Bengal and Odisha

Q.97 Which of the following is a characteristic of rural settlements in India?

Ans 1. Limited access to infrastructure

2. Economic activities are mainly based on tertiary sector

3. High population density

4. High-rise buildings

Q.98 The 36th Amendment Act of the Indian Constitution, 1975, incorporated which of the
following as a part of India?
Ans 1. Dadra and Nagar Haveli

2. Goa

3. Puducherry

4. Sikkim

Q.99 In the Community Development Programme by the Government of India, __________

were identified as the development unit and an infrastructure of technical and
administrative staff provided to implement development programmes in different
sectors.
Ans 1. villages

2. districts

3. individuals

4. a block of villages

Q.100 What are the names of the three supercomputers developed under the National
Supercomputing Mission, and inaugurated by PM Modi, in September 2024?
Ans 1. PARAM Pravega

2. PARAM Shivay

3. PARAM Rudra

4. PARAM Ananta
Q.101 The Prime Minister of India is the Chairman of which of the following Constitutional
bodies?
Ans 1. Election Commission of India

2. Comptroller and Auditor General

3. Union Public Service Commission

4. Inter-State Council

Q.102 Oxygen is an essential element for all life forms on Earth. Its atomic number is:
Ans 1. 10

2. 6

3. 12

4. 8

Q.103 Padma Shri (2019) Sirivennela Seetharama Sastry is a renowned lyricist from _____.
Ans 1. Tamil Nadu

2. Kerala

3. Telangana

4. Maharashtra

Q.104 Which of the following options is true about the Nyayadhikari appointed to Gram
Nyayalayas?
Ans 1. The Nyayadhikari is only responsible for administrative functions, not judicial work.

2. The Nyayadhikari can be appointed from any field, including administrative services.

3. The Nyayadhikari must be a judicial officer with the same salary and powers as a First Class Magistrate.

4. The Nyayadhikari is appointed only from retired government officers.

Q.105 To increase the force between two charges from 25 N to 100 N, one should:
Ans 1. reduce the distance between the charges by one-fourth

2. reduce the distance between the charges by half

3. increase the distance between the charges twofold

4. increase the distance between the charges fourfold

Q.106 Published in January 2024, the book ‘Ek Samandar, Mere Andar’ was written by
__________, who also worked as the Deputy CEO at Brahmos Aerospace.
Ans 1. Atul Dinkar Rane

2. Sanjeev Kumar Joshi

3. Chandrabhan 'Rahi'

4. Ashok K Banker

Q.107 From which site of the Indus Valley Civilisation was the ‘Dancing Girl’, a bronze figurine,
found?
Ans 1. Mohenjo-daro

2. Lothal

3. Harappa

4. Rakhigarhi

Q.108 The fertile alluvial soils of the Great Indian Plains are mostly suited for the cultivation
of:
Ans 1. coffee and tea

2. cotton and tobacco

3. pulses and oilseeds

4. rice and wheat

Q.109 Athletes of which of the following disciplines were inducted into the Khelo India
Scheme in India in October 2024?
Ans 1. Cricket

2. Wrestling

3. Judo

4. Boxing

Q.110 In August 2024, the bilateral air exercise 'Udara Shakti 2024' was conducted between
the Indian Air Force (IAF) and the Royal Air Force of which country?
Ans 1. France

2. Canada

3. Japan

4. Malaysia

Q.111 Infrastructure primarily refers to which of the following?

Ans 1. Only government buildings

2. Facilities and systems necessary for economic activities

3. Educational degrees

4. Cultural events

Q.112 By how much did ICICI Bank’s net profit rise in Q3 2024 compared to the previous year?
Ans 1. 23.6 %

2. 26%

3. 18%

4. 22%

Q.113 According to the Indian Constitution, who can remove the members of the State Public
Service Commission?
Ans 1. The Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission

2. The Chief Minister of the concerned state

3. The Governor

4. The President of India

Q.114 In which of the following years, was the founder of Sikhism, Sri Guru Nanak Dev, born?
Ans 1. 1469

2. 1425

3. 1532

4. 1576

Q.115 In which year was the 42nd Amendment in the Indian Constitution passed?
Ans 1. 1974

2. 1978

3. 1980

4. 1976

Q.116 Where did the sepoys go after their mutiny in Meerut?

Ans 1. Delhi

2. Bareilly

3. Kanpur

4. Lucknow
Q.117 The Moderate leaders demanded simultaneous ICS examinations in
__________________.
Ans 1. India and England

2. India and Canada

3. India and United States of America

4. India and Australia

Q.118 Which of the following is a recognised tribe of the state of Himachal Pradesh?
Ans 1. Birhore

2. Chenchu

3. Bhil

4. Gaddi

Q.119 The Great Indian Plains are primarily formed by which river system?
Ans 1. Krishna-Godavari

2. Kaveri-Periyar

3. Indus-Ganga-Brahmaputra

4. Mahanadi-Narmada-Tapi

Q.120 The combination of alleles at specific gene locations on an organism's chromosomes,

representing its genetic constitution, is known as ______.
Ans 1. phenotype

2. double helix

3. genotype

4. DNA