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Origin and Evolution 1-11

The document outlines various theories and concepts related to the origin and evolution of life, including abiogenesis, spontaneous generation, and special creation. It presents questions and answers regarding the early atmosphere of Earth, the first life forms, and key evolutionary concepts such as homologous and analogous structures. Additionally, it discusses significant events in evolutionary history and the evidence supporting organic evolution.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
14 views12 pages

Origin and Evolution 1-11

The document outlines various theories and concepts related to the origin and evolution of life, including abiogenesis, spontaneous generation, and special creation. It presents questions and answers regarding the early atmosphere of Earth, the first life forms, and key evolutionary concepts such as homologous and analogous structures. Additionally, it discusses significant events in evolutionary history and the evidence supporting organic evolution.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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SUBJECT: NEET-Biology COURSE: Master Pro ELP No.

-01 to 11
Topic - Origin & Evolution
ELP NO.-01
1. Abiogenesis theory of origin supports
(1) spontaneous generation
(2) origin of life from blue-green algae
(3) origin of life is due to pre-existing organisms
(4) organic evolution is due to chemical reactions
2. Which one of the following experiments suggests that simplest living organisms could not have
originated spontaneously from non–living matter –
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter
(2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept sealed in a vessel
(3) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
(4) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic matter

3. The theory of special creation has three connotations. Which of the following is not true?
(1) The diversity was always the same since creation and will be the same in future also
(2) Earth is about 4000 years old
(3) Species are immutable
(4) There has been gradual evolution of life forms
4. The theory of spontaneous generation says that
(1) Life originated from the decaying and rotting matter like straw, mud etc.
(2) Life came on the earth from outer space
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life only
(4) Life started with the replication of self replicating metabolic capsules
5. Louis Pasteur by careful experimentation demonstrated that the
(1) Phenomenon of chemical evolution (2) There is spontaneous generation of life
(3) Life comes from pre-existing life (4) Abiogenic origin of life
6. Evolution is defined as
(1) History of race
(2) Development of race
(3) History and development of race with modification
(4) Progressive history of race
7. Origin of earth took place
(1) 4.5 bya (2) 4.5 mya (3) 20 bya (4) 20 mya

8. Origin of universe took place


(1) 4.5 bya (2) 4.5 mya (3) 20 bya (4) 20 mya

9. Most acceptable theory for origin of universe is


(1) Big-bang hypothesis (2) Nebular hypothesis
(3) Spontaneous generation (4) Special creation

10. According to special creation theory origin of earth took place


(1) 4.5 bya (2) 4000 yrs ago (3) 10000 yrs. ago (4) 20 bya
KTN01-B4049 1
ELP NO.-02

1. According to one of the most widely accepted theories, earth's atmosphere before origin of life was
(1) oxidizing (2) oxidizing along with H2
(3) reducing with O2 in small amount (4) reducing with oxygen absent as free O2

2. First life form on earth was a


(1) cyanobacterium (2) chemoheterotroph (3) autotroph (4) photoautotroph

3. The following are some major events in the early history of life:
P. First heterotrophic prokaryotes
Q. First genes
R. First eukaryotes
S. First autotrophic prokaryotes
T. First animals
Which option below places these events in the correct order?
(1) PQSRT (2) QSPTR (3) QPSRT (4) QSPRT

4. The first life originated


(1) on land (2) in air (3) in water (4) all of these

5. Which is true about the first living capsule


(1) Cantained self replicating molecules (2) Plasma membrane and cytoplasm was absent
(3) Non–cellular aggregates (4) All of the above

6. According to Oparin, which one of the following was not present in the primitive atmosphere of the
earth?
(1) Methane (2) Free Oxygen (3) Hydrogen (4) Water vapour

7. Miller used which of the following gases in his simulation experiment


(1) Methane, Hydrogen, Carbon monoxide
(2) Hydrogen, Ammonia, Carbon dioxide
(3) Ammonia, Hydrogen, Methane
(4) Carbon dioxide, Ammonia, Methane

8. Term “Coacervates” was given by


(1) Oparin (2) Haldane (3) Urey (4) Miller

9. In the ancient atmosphere free nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide were not present because
(1) Of the large amount of hydrogen and high temperature
(2) Carbon would have combined with hydrogen to form methane
(3) Any free oxygen would have combined with iron, silicon, aluminium etc. to form minerals of the
earth’s crust
(4) All of these

10. Which one was absent in the atmosphere at the time of origin of life.?
(1) NH3 (2) H2 (3) Free O2 (4) CH4

KTN01-B4049 2
ELP NO.-03

1. Which one of the following correctly describes the homologous structures?


(1) Organs with anatomical similarities, but performing different functions
(2) Organ with anatomical dissimilarities, but performing same function
(3) Organs that have no function now, but had an important function in ancestors
(4) Organs appearing only in embryonic stage and disappearing later in the adult
2. What can you infer about the structures shown in figure?

(1) They are homologous structures (2) They are vestigial structures
(3) They are analogous structures (4) they have nothing to do with each other
3. The given figure shows an example of

(1) Homologous organs (2) Convergent evolution


(3) Divergent evolution (4) Both (1) and (3)
4. Which of the following is connecting link between Annelida and Arthropoda
(1) Neopilina (2) Sphenodon (3) Peripatus (4) Protopterus
5. Which one of the following is incorrect about the characteristics of protobionts (coacervates and
microspheres) as envisaged in the abiogenic origin of life?
(1) They were partially isolated from the surroundings
(2) They could maintain an internal environment
(3) They were able to reproduce
(4) They could separate combinations of molecules from the surroundings
6. Which one of the following amino-acids was not found to be synthesized in Miller's experiment–
(1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid (3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine

7. Which of the following is true?


(1) Wings of birds and insects are homologous organs
(2) Human hands and bat's wings are analogous organs
(3) Hind limbs of human and feathers of birds are analogous organs
(4) Flipper of seal and wing of birds are homologous organs
8. Which ones are the most essential for origin of life?
(1) Enzymes (2) Proteins (3) Carbohydrates (4) Nucleic acid

9. All the following are examples of homologous organs, except


(1) Arm of man and flipper of whale (2) Thorn of Bougainvillaea and tendril of Cucurbita
(3) Eye of an octopus and eye of a mammal (4) Brain of frog and man
10. Which one of the following scientist's name is correctly matched with the theory put forth by him?
(1) Mendel-Theory of Pangenesis (2) Weismann - Theory of continuity of Germplasm
(3) Pasteur-Inheritance of acquired characters (4) de Vries - Natural selection

KTN01-B4049 3
ELP NO.-04
1. Evolutionary convergence is characterized by
(1) development of dissimilar characteristics in closely related groups
(2) development of a common set of characteristics in groups of different ancestry
(3) development of characteristics by random mating
(4) replacement of common characteristics in different groups

2. The presence of gill slits, in the embryos of all vertebrates, supports the theory of
(1) metamorphosis (2) biogenesis
(3) organic evolution (4) recapitulation

3. The phenomenon 'ontogeny repeats phylogeny' is explained by


(1) recapitulation theory (2) inheritance theory
(3) mutation theory (4) natural selection theory

4. Dinosaur with dagger like teeth was


(1) Tyranosaurs (2) Brachiosaurs (3) Triceratops (4) Pteranodon

5. Eye of cockroach, eye of cephalopods and eye of human being is an example of


(1) Analogous organs (2) Homologous organs
(3) Vestigeal organs (4) Retrogressive evolution

6. Mosquitoes, pigeons and bats provide evidence of which type of evolution


(1) Convergent (2) Parallel (3) Divergent (4) None of these

7. Presence of gills in the tadpole of frog indicates that :-


(1) Fishes evolved from frog like ancestors
(2) Frogs will have gills in future
(3) Frogs evolved from gilled ancestors
(4) Fishes were amphibious in the past

8. An important evidence in favour of organic evolution is the occurrence of


(1) Homologous and vestigial organs
(2) Analogous and vestigial organs
(3) Homologous organs only
(4) Homologous and analogous organs

9. Potato and sweet potato: –


(1) have edible parts which are homologous organs
(2) have edible parts which are analogous organs
(3) have been introduced in India from the same place
(4) are two species of the same genus

10. Dinosaur with aquatic adaptation was


(1) Stegosaurs (2) Brontosaurs
(3) Ichthyosaurs (4) Tyranosaurs

KTN01-B4049 4
ELP NO.-05

1. Which one is not a vestigial organ?


(1) Wings of kiwi (2) Coccyx in man
(3) Pelvic girdle of python (4) Flipper of seal

2. Which of the following are the two key concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution?
(1) Genetic drift and mutation
(2) Adaptive radiation and homology
(3) Mutation and natural selection
(4) Branching descent and natural selection

3. Which of the following is not a characteristic of short term adaptation ?


(1) It appears for a short period
(2) The adaptation develops in response to some specific stimulus
(3) Such adaptation can be inherited to next generation
(4) It has little effect in evolutionary process

4. Darwin finches are an example of


(1) Convergent evolution (2) Divergent evolution
(3) Parallel evolution (4) Sympatric species

5. There are few placental mammals in Australia because


(1) Environmental conditions are unsuitable for placental mammals
(2) Marsupial mammals are well adapted to their niches
(3) Australia was isolated geographically thus preventing invasion by placental mammals
(4) Diseases have killed most of the placental mammals

6. Galapagos island is associated with


(1) Wallace (2) Lamark
(3) Malthus (4) Darwin

7. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide __________ evidence in favour of evolution :


(1) Palaentological
(2) Embryological
(3) Anatomical
(4) Biogeographical

ELP NO.-06

1. Earliest fossil form in the phylogeny of horse is :-


(1) Mesohippus (2) Equus (3) Merychippus (4) Eohippus

KTN01-B4049 5
2. Following diagram provides an examples of

(1) convergent evolution (2) parallel evolution


(3) recapitulation (4) divergent evolution

3. Mosquitoes, pigeons and bats provide evidence of which type of evolution


(1) Convergent (2) Parallel (3) Divergent (4) None of these

4. The palaeontological evidences are obtained from


(1) Homologous structures (2) Analogous structures
(3) Fossils (4) Lichens

5. Age of fossils in the past was generally determined by radio-carbon method and other methods
involving radioactive elements found in the rocks. More precise methods, which were used recently
and led to the revision of the evolutionary periods for different groups of organisms include–
(1) Study of the conditions of fossilization
(2) Electron spin resonance (ESR) & fossil DNA
(3) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in rocks
(4) Study of carbohydrates/proteins in fossils

6. Evolutionary history of an organism is known as –


(1) Phylogeny (2) Ancestry (3) Palaeontology (4) Ontogeny

7. Given below are four statement (A-D) each with one or two blanks. Select the option which is
correctly fills up the blanks :
(A) Fore limbs of whale bat cheetah and human share similarity in pattern of bone and are the
result of __(i)__ evolution.
(B) Miller showed that (i) , H2, NH3 and H2O when exposed to electrical discharge in a flask resulted
in formation of (ii)
(C) Archaeopteryx is a (i) and an (ii) evidence of evolution
(D) According to Darwin evolution took place are to (i) and (ii) of fittest.
(1) (C) : (i) Missing link, (D) : (ii) natural selection
(2) (B) : (ii) Amino acid, (A) : (i) convergent
(3) (D) : (ii) Palaeontological, (B) : (i) CH4

(4) (A) : (i) Divergent, (C) (ii) Embryological


KTN01-B4049 6
ELP NO.-07

1. Which one of the following phenomena supports Darwin's concept of natural selection in organic
evolution –
(1) Production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning
(2) Development of organs from 'stem cells' for organ transplantation
(3) Development of transgenic animals
(4) Prevalence of pesticide resistant insects

2. Which of the following is not true for a species


(1) Members of a species can interbreed
(2) Variations occur among members of a species
(3) Gene flow does not occur between the populations of a species
(4) Each species is reproductively isolated from every other species

3. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they :
(1) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
(2) have more than 90 percent similar genes
(3) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites.
(4) have same number of chromosomes

4. Fitness, according to Darwin refers ultimately and only to


(1) Dominance over others (2) Ability to defend
(3) Strategy for obtaining food (4) Number of offsprings

5. Select the correct statement :


(1) Darwinian variations are small and directionless
(2) Mutations are random and directional
(3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt and get selected by nature
(4) All mammals except whales and camels have seven cervical vertebrae

6. The two key concepts of Darwinian theory of Evolution are


(1) Fitness (2) Branching descent (3) Natural selection (4) Both (2) & (3)
7. Neo-Darwinism believes that new species develop through
(1) Mutations with natural selection
(2) Continuous variations with natural selection
(3) Hybridisation
(4) Mutations

8. Which is not a concept of Lamarckism?


(1) Rate and survival of organisms are different due to variations
(2) Environmental pressure produces variations
(3) An organ in constant use will grow in size
(4) Inheritance of acquired characters

9. Select the incorrect statements


(1) Natural selection is a heritable variation & by reproduction leave greater number of progeny
(2) During stabilisation of natural selection more individuals acquire value other than mean
character value
(3) By the time of 500 million years ago invertebrates were formed and were active
(4) Reptiles lay thick shalled eggs which do not dry up in sun unlike those of Amphibians
KTN01-B4049 7
ELP NO.-08

1. In modern synthetic theory, the unit of evolution is


(1) Genus (2) Species (3) Population (4) Individual

2. Penguin is a bird that lost the use of its wings by not flying. Such statement would express the
views of
(1) Darwin (2) Wallace (3) Lamarck (4) Huxley

3. The main drawback of Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection was that it could not provide satisfactory
explanation of
(1) Survival of fittest
(2) Struggle for existence
(3) Mimicry
(4) Basis of variation and the mode of transmission of the variants to the next generation

4. Regarding evolution, Darwin’s explanation is that


(1) Certain species have ‘built-in’ plans of evolution
(2) Those traits used most often persist longer
(3) Progressive adaptations enable one species to have more offsprings
(4) Code determines which species should evolve

5. Ultimate source of variation is


(1) Recombination
(2) Mutation
(3) Genetic drift
(4) Intermingling of two widely separated populations

6. Modern synthetic theory of evolution is based upon


(1) Genetic and chromosomal mutations
(2) Genetic recombination and natural selection
(3) Reproductive isolation
(4) All of these

7. Ship used by Darwin


(1) HSM Beagle (2) Her Majesty service
(3) HMS Beagle (4) He Majesty ship

8. Industrial melanism as observed in peppered moth proves that :-


(1) The true black melanic forms arise by a recurring random mutation
(2) The melanic form of the moth has no selective advantage over lighter form in industrial area
(3) The lighter-form moth has no selective advantage either in polluted industrial area or non-
polluted area.
(4) Melanism is pollution-generated feature.

9. Reproductive isolation is
(1) Inability to interbreed in natural populations
(2) Ability to interbreed in natural populations
(3) Breeding in isolation
(4) Intraspecific breeding
KTN01-B4049 8
ELP NO.-9

1. Jurassic period of the Mesozoic era is characterised by –


(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds appear
(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like reptiles
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms appear
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear

2. Gene pool of a population tends to remain stable if the population is large, without large scale
mutations, without migration and with
(1) Random mating (2) Moderate environmental changes
(3) Natural selection (4) No predator control

3. Mass extinction at the end of Mesozoic era was probably caused by


(1) Continental drift (2) Massive glaciation
(3) Collision of earth with large meteorite (4) Both (2) and (3)

4. Genetic drift :
(1) Is random change in gene frequency
(2) Has nothing in common with inbreeding
(3) Is appearance of recessive genes
(4) Produces greatest fluctuation in large populations
5. Mesozoic era is known as golden age of
(1) Fishes (2) Amphibians (3) Reptiles (4) Molluscs

6. Two plants can be conclusively said to belong to the same species if they :
(1) can reproduce freely with each other and form seeds.
(2) have more than 90 percent similar genes
(3) look similar and possess identical secondary metabolites.
(4) have same number of chromosomes

7. Dinosaurs were abundant in


(1) Jurassic period (2) Devonian period
(3) Permian period (4) Pleistocene period

8. The origin of seeds in the land plants was achieved about 345 million years ago, in lineages
recognised as ancestral to all more advanced vascular plants in
(1) Rhynia (2) Tracheophyte ancestor
(3) Seed ferns (4) Conifers

ELP NO.-10

1. Which of the following is not true?


(1) About 15 mya, primates called Dryopithecus and Ramapithecus were existing
(2) Ramapithecus was more ape like
(3) Homo erectus had a large brain around 900 cm3
(4) The brain capacities were between 650 to 800 em3 of Homo habilis

2. Who were the first to use hides to protect their body and buried their dead?
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Homo erectus (3) Cro-Magnon man (4) Homo habilis
KTN01-B4049 9
3. Modern Homo sapiens arose
(1) Near east and central Asia between 1,00,000 to 40,000 years back
(2) During ice age between 75,000 to 10, 000 years ago
(3) About 10,000 years back
(4) About 18,000 years ago

4. The most apparent change during the evolutionary history of Homo sapiens is traced in
(1) Loss of body hair (2) Walking upright
(3) Shortening of the jaws (4) Remarkable increase in the brain size

5. The first human like being the hominid was called


(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus (3) Homo habilis (4) Homo sapiens

6. What evidence suggests that chimpanzee is more closely related to humans than other hominoid
apes?
(1) DNA from sex chromosomes only
(2) Chromosome morphology only
(3) Fossil remains
(4) DNA of both autosomes and the sex chromosomes

7. Which of the following is direct ancestor of Homo sapiens?


(1) Homo erectus (2) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(3) Ramapithecus (4) Australopithecus

ELP NO.-11

1. The universe is almost ………… years old :


(1) 10 Billion (2) 20 Billion (3) 30 Billion (4) 5 Billion

2. Origin of universe is explained by :


(1) Nebular theory (2) Big Bang theory
(3) Doctrine of Uniformity (4) Theory of Geology

3. Which of the following gases were formed when the universe expanded and temperature came
down :
(1) Hydrogen and Chlorine (2) Oxygen and Helium
(3) Hydrogen and Helium (4) Carbon dioxide and Oxygen

4. Earth was formed around :


(1) 3.5 Billion years ago (2) 3.0 Billion years ago
(3) 4.0 Billion years ago (4) 4.5 Billion years ago

5. Choose incorrect statement :


(1) There was no atmosphere on early earth.
(2) Water vapour, methane, CO2 and ammonia were released from molten mass.
(3) Life appeared 500 million years after formation of earth.
(4) Galaxies are cluster of stars and are free from gases and dust.

KTN01-B4049 10
6. Read following statements (i to v) and identify them as true (T) or false (F).
(i) Louis Pasteur demonstrated that life comes only from pre – existing life.
(ii) Methane, ammonia, carbon dioxide and vapour were used by Miller to produce amino acids.
(iii) The first non-cellular forms of life could have originated 3 billion years back
(iv) According to Darwin fitness refers ultimately and only to reproductive fitness.

i ii iii iv v
(1) F T F T T

(2) T F T F T
(3) T F T T T
(4) T T T T T

7. Primitive world was :


(1) RNA world (2) DNA world (3) Protein world (4) Polysaccharide world
8. The ratio of methane, ammonia and hydrogen in Miller’s experiment was :
(1) 1 : 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 (3) 2 : 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 2 : 1
9. The theory of spontaneous generation stated that :
(1) Life arose from living forms only
(2) Life can arise from both living and non-living things
(3) Life can arise from non-living things only
(4) Life arises spontaneously, neither from living nor from the non-living

10. Evolution of life show that life forms had used a trend of moving from :
(1) Land to water (2) Dryland to wetland
(3) Freshwater to sea water (4) Water to land

11. Viviparity is considered to be more evolved because


(1) The young ones are left on their own
(2) The young ones are protected by a thick shell
(3) The young ones are protected inside the mother’s body and are looked after they are born
leading to more chances of survival
(4) The embryo takes a long time to develop

KTN01-B4049 11
COURSE: Master Pro
Topic – Origin & Evolution

Answer Key

ELP-01
1. (1) 2. (2) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2)

ELP-02
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (4) 10. (3)

ELP-03
1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (2)

ELP-04
1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (3)

ELP-05
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (4)

ELP-06
1. (4) 2. (4) 3. (1) 4. (3) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3)

ELP-07
1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1) 8. (1) 9. (2)

ELP-08
1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (1)

ELP-9
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (1) 8. (3)

ELP-10
1. (2) 2. (1) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (3) 6. (4) 7. (1)

ELP-11
1. (2) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1) 8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (4)
11. (3)

KTN01-B4049 12

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