TEST 1

READING PASSAGE 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The life of Beatrix Potter

The children's author and illustrator who created Peter Rabbit
Beatrix Potter is one of the best-selling children's authors of all time. Her popular series of
books that includes The Tale of Peter Rabbit was first published over one hundred years ago,
and has never been out of print. Generations of children have enjoyed her many stories and
illustrations, all of which celebrate the English lifestyle and rural landscape through the
adventures of animals.

Born to a comfortable middle-class family in London in 1866, Potter spent much of her early
life in her own company. She was educated in her parents' house by a governess and rarely
saw her brother Bertram, who was sent to boarding school. Having little social contact with
children of her own age, Potter began to be drawn into her own world of writing. When
Beatrix was 15, she began to keep a diary written in a secret code of her own invention. Even
Beatrix herself, when she read back over it in later life, found it difficult to understand. It was
not until 15 years after her death that the code was cracked. To the outside world Beatrix
appeared a shy and reserved person, but in her diary she was able to express herself openly,
and she was critical of the paintings of a number of artists of the day.
Potter was a naturally gifted artist, and with the aid of some art lessons she also learnt the
technical side of drawing. During her childhood, she looked after many animals, such as
rabbits, frogs, and even bats. She drew these animals throughout her childhood, gradually
improving the standard of her work by sketching in museums. She was also interested in
natural history. She would spend many hours drawing wildlife such as fungi and flowers, and
at one time she had an ambition to develop this scientific interest. An uncle tried to help her
become a student at the Royal Botanic Gardens at Kew in London, but she was rejected
because of her gender. Nevertheless, she achieved a measure of respect from the scientific
establishment for her illustrations and contribution to mycology, the study of fungi.
When Potter was in her early 20s, her parents tried to arrange a partner for her to marry.
Many likely suitors were found; however, Potter turned them all down. She was a fiercely
independent woman, and she disliked the idea of being tied down to a domestic life that, at

5
that time, consisted mostly of staying at home and bringing up children. Thus, unusually for
British women of those times, she remained single and lived in her parents' home.
For several years, Potter tried to get her first children's book, The Tale of Peter Rabbit,
published. Her initial attempts proved unsuccessful, but she persevered and eventually the
book was accepted for publication by Frederick Warne & Company. The book finally came
out in 1902, when Potter was 36, but the publishers did not expect it would sell many copies.
In fact, the project was given to the youngest brother in the family company, Norman Warne,
for his first project as a kind of test. Luckily, he proved to be a good choice as he warmed to
both the book and Potter. He was determined to make a success of the book and developed a
good working relationship with Potter as they pored over the individual details of the book. It
was Norman who insisted that each drawing would be in colour. Potter insisted that the book
remain small so that it would be easy for children to hold, and by the end of the year, 28,000
copies were in print.

The relationship between Warne and Potter blossomed, and eventually they became engaged.
However, Potter's parents were unhappy about this because of his occupation. They
eventually relented, but insisted the couple live apart for six months to give Potter time to
change her mind. Tragically, before the wedding could take place, Warne developed
pernicious anaemia, a blood disease, and passed away. Potter was devastated and she wrote
in a letter to his sister, Millie, 'He did not live long, but he fulfilled a useful, happy life. I
must try to make a fresh beginning next year.'
After Warne's death, Potter moved to the Lake District in northern England. In 1905 she
bought a small farm there, and for the next eight years she busied herself writing more books,
some of which were based in or around the area. She lived there for the remainder of her life,
but due to failing eyesight she was forced to stop writing children's books. Instead, she
devoted her time to the breeding of sheep and helping with the conservation of farms in the
district. Using proceeds from her very successful books and later her inheritance, Potter was
able to buy many working farms. On her death, she left over 4,000 acres to the National
Trust, an organisation which protects historical buildings and areas of countryside in
England. It has meant that her beloved countryside is now accessible to many visitors.

6
Questions 1-6

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

Beatrix Potter

Success as an author

• Her books have been in print for more than 100 years.

Childhood

• She received lessons at home from a 1 .....................

• She wrote in her 2.......................in code.

• She disliked the work of some 3 ...................... of the time.

• She took lessons in drawing.

• She practised drawing things she saw when she visited 4 .....................

Life as a young adult

• Her 5...................... to have a career in natural history was not realised.

• Her illustrations were recognised as assisting research into 6 .....................

7
Questions 7-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7 The life of a typical married woman at that time appealed to Potter.

8 Potter's publishers insisted on changing the title of her first book.

9 The publishers doubted whether Potter's first book would be successful.

10 Norman Warne suggested Potter include black and white illustrations in her first
book.

11 At first, Potter's parents disapproved of Norman Warne as a potential husband.

12 Potter continued writing children's books until her death.

13 Potter's gift to the National Trust was the largest in recent times.

8
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Questions 14-19

Reading Passage 3 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

New terminology reflecting changing attitudes to waste disposal

ii Fundamental changes in behaviour in the past and future

iii Ways of rewarding the public for recycling

iv A surprising approach to waste disposal by several countries

v Difficult choices for individuals and businesses

vi Arguments against incineration from a country that uses it

vii A number of justifications for the use of incineration

14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
17 Paragraph D
18 Paragraph E
19 Paragraph F

9
 Solving the problem of waste disposal
With the amount of rubbish being produced around the world
increasing, Mark Rowe asks whether a new generation
of incineration plants can help to solve the problem.

A For many years, burning rubbish has been portrayed as the lazy option when it comes to
dealing with the problem of waste disposal, since it sends toxic fumes into the air and
appears to support a consumerist, throwaway society. Norway, however, appears to be
burning its way through a sizeable chunk of Europe's municipal waste, using the heat
created by this process to warm and power homes in many of its cities. Norway isn't
alone: Germany, Sweden, Belgium and the Netherlands all bum significant quantities of
rubbish, and across Europe there are 420 plants burning municipal waste. With Europe
dumping 150 million tonnes of rubbish into landfill every year, there would seem to be
limitless supply.

B Those who support burning waste say that a new generation of incinerators have made it
a more attractive option. Filters and scrubbing mechanisms now capture harmful
substances such as mercury, hydrochloric acid and heavy metals. According to Ted
Michaels, president of the US-based Energy Recovery Centre, 'There has been constant
evolution in combustion engineering and emissions-control technology, and the output
from these facilities is now minuscule.' Above all, however, supporters say that
incineration is the only way of preventing the long-term impacts oflandfill. In ten years'
time, says the World Bank, humans will be generating 2.2 billion tonnes of solid waste
per year. Advocates see incineration as a practical way to deal swiftly with an
immediate problem.

C Levels of waste generation vary hugely around the world. 'It's a problem for the
developed nations,' says Joergen Fenhann, a senior scientist working with the UN
Environment Programme in Denmark. 'The more you develop, the more you produce,
buy and throw away.' But the growth of incineration hasn't been universally welcomed.
Lars Haltbrekken, chairman of Friends of the Earth in Norway, is concerned that
incineration plants appear to generate demand for their services. 'The problem in
Norway,' he explains, 'is that we have built too many waste-burning factories. So we've
ended up importing waste from other countries. If you look at this in a very small
perspective, it is, of course, better for the climate to bum rubbish from the UK rather
than leave it in landfill there,' he continues. 'But in a broader perspective, it's a lazy way
of getting rid of waste; you don't stimulate the goals of reducing, reusing and recycling.'

D Incineration is also at odds with EU policy, which promotes a 'recycling hierarchy':

ideally, we simply produce less waste in the first place; failing that, we reuse objects
more; the next best option is recycling; only then should we consider incineration, while
dumping in landfill is the last resort. Dealing with the problem of waste disposal

10
 involves tracing the whole process that took the material from its inception to landfill.
We used to call this the 'cradle to grave' life cycle; now, the talk is of 'cradle to cradle'
and an even more comprehensive concept known as 'zero waste'. 'The philosophy of
cradle to cradle is about designing products that are actually good for the environment at
the end of their life,' says Joan Marc Simon, European spokesman for the environmental
movement GAIA. 'You design a bottle that contains no toxins, is fully recyclable and
requires the minimum amount of energy to be produced.' As Simon points out,
however, without the right mechanisms in place, 'nothing guarantees that this bottle will
end up being properly collected and treated in the appropriate recycling facility.'

E Tim Burns, policy manager at Keep Britain Tidy, says, 'In the UK alone, people waste
10 billion of food every year. You can argue about composting that, or not buying it in
the first place-if you do that then that's money the retailers don't get, so it's not always
clear cut.' The implications of zero waste are that we' re going to have to take a good
long look at those well-stocked supermarket shelves, too. 'Supermarkets keep their
shelves stocked even when demand isn't there, which means they have to pay to dispose
of a lot of food,' says Bums. 'But that cost is less to them than the cost in brand damage
of having empty shelves.'

F Recent history and changes in trends in recycling suggest that we should be prepared for
unexpected developments. 'If someone back in the 1980s had suggested what waste
would be like now, they would be completely wrong,' says Richard Fisher, a PhD
researcher at Cranfield University. 'Consumerism has developed at a pace we never
expected. Nobody would have said there would be so much electronic waste. But
recycling has grown, too-ten years ago nobody would have predicted today's levels of
recycling.' But he points out that the need to reduce waste is still a difficult message to
sell to consumers. He suggests that what people are really concerned about is their loved
ones and the future they face. 'Perhaps we can align the environmental message to these
deep-seated values,' he says. 'We need to look at whether it's business that drives
consumers or the other way around. You need government to play a leadership role,
whereas countries such as the UK seem to be stepping away from the environment in
pursuit of short-term economic goals.'

11
Questions 20-23

Look at the following statements (Questions 20-23) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A-G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.

20 Ted Michaels

21 Joergen Fenhann

22 Joan Marc Simon

23 Tim Burns

List of options

12
Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

What recent history tells us about recycling

Richard Fisher, a researcher from Cranfield University, points out that the pace of
consumerism has increased more quickly than was predicted in the 1980s. There
has, for example, been unexpected growth in waste from 24 .............................. products.
He suggests that the need to protect the environment should be linked to basic
values, and adds that it might be better if consumers had more influence over
25 ..................... and more direction was provided by 26 .....................

13
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Movement Underwater

A Self-propelled motion is a fundamental ability in many organisms. From the beating

flagella of tiny plankton keeping afloat near the ocean surface to the playful perfection
of dolphins surfing the bow wave of a ship, marine creatures have adopted a huge
variety of styles, speeds, and methods of movement. Each species has its own particular
need for the evolutionary developments that have taken place, but the basic
requirements are the same-finding food, avoiding predation, seeking a mate or a safe
place to have young, or migrating to an area with more favorable conditions.

B The particular physical properties of water that most affect movement are density,
viscosity (stickiness), and buoyancy. Seawater is about 800 times denser than air and
nearly 100 times as viscous. Consequently, there is much more resistance to movement
than on land, as anyone will know who has ever tried to wade through waist-deep water.
However, with density comes much greater buoyancy, so that organisms need spend
relatively little energy to stay afloat. As they move through the ocean environment,
organisms seek to make wave motion, currents, and natural turbulence work to their
advantage, not detriment.

C Most fishes have swim bladders to help them offset the density of their bodies and so
maintain neutral buoyancy with minimal effort. These small, gas-filled chambers
contain specialized networks of blood vessels that can add or remove gases such as
oxygen and carbon dioxide. The ability to remain indefinitely at a constant depth
without expending energy is especially important for slow-moving fishes that seek food
in the shallows, or for those that hunt and scavenge in kelp forests. Active swimmers,
such as mackerel, skipjacks, and sharks, do not have swim bladders because they need
to change depth more rapidly than they could regulate the gas content. These fishes
must swim forever or they will sink.

D Many animals, especially the tiny zooplankton, have taken to a life of simply drifting
near the surface, contentedly feeding on the microscopic phytoplankton and bacteria
floating there. Although life among the plankton might seem easy, there is in fact a
remarkable range of movement. Some tiny plankton only 1-2 mm in length actually
travel long distances each day. Species that live below the level where sunlight reaches,
nightly swim hundreds of meters up to the surface to feed in the relative safety of
darkness. At dawn, they sink back down in an effort to escape predators-a double
journey equivalent to a person swimming 700 km a day.

14
E It has taken marine creatures millions of years of evolution to overcome the chief
deterrent to motion through a dense medium such as water-that of drag resistance.
Swimming efficiency has been achieved by minimizing the three types of drag created
by friction, turbulence, and body form. To reduce surface friction, the body must be
smooth and rounded. In addition, the scales of most fishes are coated with slime to
lubricate their passage through water. To reduce the turbulent drag created as water
flows around the moving shape, a rounded front end and tapered back end are required.
To reduce form drag, the cross-sectional area of the body should be minimal-a pencil
shape would be ideal. The combined shape, taking into account all three types of drag,
is the streamlined torpedo form of a tuna, the fastest-swimming of all fishes.

F Speed is only one of three important aspects of swimming ability. Tuna, swordfish, and
mackerel all specialize in fast, steady cruising, but there are many other fishes for whom
sustained speed is less important, such as the barracuda. This formidable predator
specializes in swift acceleration, and has a far higher success rate for its attacks than its
steady-cruising cousins. The freshwater pike, which lurks in the shadows until its quarry
is within striking distance and then lunges with great rapidity, achieves a remarkable
70-80 percent success rate. The third specialization is maneuverability, best
demonstrated by the butterfly fishes. These have disk-shaped bodies that permit abrupt
changes of track. Many fishes are generalists, being at least partly proficient in all three
modes of movement.

G Almost all fishes swim by undulation. Strong W-shaped muscles along the side of the
body progressively contract and relax in sequence, from head to tail and from side to
side, creating a traveling horizontal wave. The body is thrown into a series of curves
that press sideways and back against the water, producing a forward thrust. The narrow,
elongated forms of eels and sea snakes allow easy undulation along their full length. In
contrast, the more stubby and inflexible bodies of armor-plated trunkfish use only the
swish of their short tail fins to move themselves through the water. Most other fishes
combine elements of both methods, coordinating powerful strokes of the tail fins with
subtle body undulations.

H A fish's fins also play a vital and versatile role. The vertically oriented dorsal and
ventral fins on the back and belly control sideways motion, while up-and-down motion
is controlled by the pectoral and pelvic fins on the fish's sides. Whereas the shape of the
tail fin relates directly to speed-crescent-moon shaped for fast cruising, broad and flat
for acceleration-the style and arrangement of the other fins are crucial for
maneuverability. Puffer fishes scull with tiny, oscillating pectoral fins, while butterfly
fishes undulate their broad dorsal and ventral fins, twisting and turning with great
precision through intricate coral reefs.

15
Questions 27-31

Reading Passage 3 has eight paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

20 A strategy to avoid being attacked

21 How fish are able to keep afloat naturally

22 The physical process by which fish propel themselves ahead

23 A list of reasons why different creatures move from one place to another

24 How the medium of water both restricts and aids movement

Questions 32-35

Complete the flow chart below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

Specialisation

Specialised ability Example fish species

Ability to maintain the same Swordfish

32....................... over long distances

Rapid 33 ..................... Barracuda

Sudden attack on prey following period 34 .....................

of lying in wait

Rapid changes of direction 35 .....................

16
Questions 36-40

Complete the diagram below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Mobility, stability and combating different

Types of drag resistance

s1reamlined shape narrowing towards rear: to

reduce 36 ...............drag

fins which are important for

39 ................. of fish

. ,.
. .
\-·,1
'-y!\
Minimal cross-sectional body area: to
decrease 40 .............. drag

17
 TEST 2

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

History of the Globe Theatre

The original Globe Theatre opened in autumn 1599 on the south bank of the River Thames,
in London. It was one of several major theatres in the area, the others being the Swan, the
Rose and the Hope. The Globe was the main playhouse of the Lord Chamberlain's Men, later
called the King's Men, a theatrical company to which the playwright William Shakespeare
belonged. Most of Shakespeare's post-1599 plays were staged at the Globe, including Julius
Caesar, Macbeth, Othello, King Lear and Hamlet.

The Globe was built in 1576, using timber from an earlier theatre in Shoreditch, east London,
by James Burbage, the father of one of the actors. Called simply The Theatre, this structure
was taken down after a 20-year lease on its land expired, and the timber from it was then
transported over the Thames to construct the Globe.
The Globe Theatre was highly successful. Since there was little artificial light, performances
were held in the afternoon, usually beginning in May. Flags waving in the wind advertised
plays by the King's Men, and all about the grounds of the theatre, playgoers would be buying
merchandise and refreshments from stalls. People from all walks of life could enjoy the
tragedies and comedies of Shakespeare. Both men and women would attend the plays, but
the well-off would frequently wear masks to conceal their identity.
After years of success, the Globe was destroyed by fire on 29 June 1613, during a
performance of Henry VIII. A theatrical cannon, set off during the performance, misfired,
igniting the building's roof and wooden beams. According to one of the few surviving
contemporary accounts of the event, no one was hurt except a man who put out his burning
trousers with a bottle of ale. A new Globe was created by the theatre company on the
foundations of its predecessor before Shakespeare's death in 1616.

However, after the Puritans gained control of Parliament, their campaign to enforce a higher
standard of morality meant the end of the Globe. Their strict views gave rise to restrictions
on many social activities, and like all the other theatres in London, the Globe was closed
down in 1642. In 1644, the Puritans destroyed the Globe altogether to make room for
housing. Its exact location was forgotten and remained unknown until remnants of its
foundations were discovered in 1989 near a row of eighteenth-century buildings. There may

18
be further remains under these buildings but they are themselves listed as historical
buildings, and currently may not be disturbed by archaeologists.
The Globe's shape and size have been the subject of scholarly inquiry over the last two
centuries. The evidence suggests that it was a three-storey, 100-foot-wide, open-air
amphitheatre. It was probably a polygon in shape, with twenty sides. At the base of the stage
there was an area called the 'pit', where spectators (called 'groundlings') would either stand
or sit on the ground to watch the performance. They paid one penny to see the play, and the
box into which they put their entrance fee gave rise to the term 'box office'.
A rectangular platform, also known as an 'apron stage', thrust out into the middle of the
open-air yard. On this, there was a trap door for use by performers to enter from the
'cellarage' area beneath the stage. Large columns on either side of the stage supported a roof
over the rear portion of the stage. This would have been constructed using thatch. The inner
ceiling was called the 'heavens', and was possibly painted with images of the sky. An
opening in the heavens enabled performers to descend, using some form of rope and harness.
The back wall of the stage had three doors on the first floor and a balcony on the second. The
doors led into the 'tiring house' where the actors dressed and awaited their cue. The balcony
was where the musicians performed and could also be used for scenes requiring an upper
space, such as the balcony scene in Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet. In addition, it could be
used as the 'Lord's Room', where higher-paying audience members could be seated.

When the foundations of Shakespeare's Globe were discovered in London's Bankside district,
public interest in building a modem version was reignited. Workers began construction in
1993, close to the site of the original. Completed in 1996, the current Globe Theatre was
officially opened on 12 June 1997 with a production of Henry V. The reconstruction was
carefully researched, so that the new building would be as faithful a replica as possible. It
had the first thatched roof permitted in the city since the Great Fire of London in 1666.
Modernisations include the addition of sprinklers on the roof to protect against fire. Due to
modem health and safety regulations, only 1,300 people can attend a show, under half the
estimated 3,000 of Shakespeare's time.
Tickets to stand in the open - no sitting allowed in this section - are available for every
performance at £5 each. The only covered parts of the amphitheatre are the stage and the
more expensive seated areas. Plays are normally performed between May and October, and
in winter the theatre is used for educational purposes.

19
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 The Lord Chamberlain's Men performed plays only in the Globe Theatre.

2 Recycled wood was used in the construction of the original Globe.

3 Performances at the Globe were so popular that advance booking was necessary.

4 Some people who watched the plays tried to avoid recognition.

5 When the original Globe burned down, it was rebuilt on the same site.

6 The Globe was the first theatre to be closed down by the Puritans.

20
Questions 7-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage
for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

The Globe

Parts of the original Globe

• The 7 ..................... - for members of the audience (one penny per person)

• The apron stage- a protruding platform

• The trap door- giving access to the stage from below

• Roof made of 8 .....................

• The 9 ..................... - for performers to change into costumes

• Balcony for the use of the 10 ..................... actors or wealthy spectators

The modern Globe

• 1993-1996 - the modern Globe was built

The building

• It was designed to be a mainly accurate replica

• 11 ..................... were a new safety feature

• Audience capacity was reduced by more than 12 .....................

The performances

• The price of outdoor tickets is fixed

• Tickets for seats in the 13 ....................... spaces cost more

• There are no performances during winter

21
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

How the Petri Dish Supports Scientific Advances

A simple piece of scientific equipment is

helping research in three institutions in
Cambridge, UK ..

A Petri dishes, invented by German microbiologist Julius Richard Petri in 1887, rarely
receive the appreciation or attention that their more complex lab companions like the
microscope enjoy. They are simple, utilitarian little things, and it's understandable that
some people see them as just shallow dishes with lids. But Petri dishes deserve
celebrating: they are still at the forefront of scientific discovery.

B The invention of the Petri dish, and the advances it has helped to create, are part of a
bigger whole, of course-the development of glass scientific instruments, from
microscope lenses to laboratory beakers. In The Glass Bathyscaphe: How Glass
Changed the World, Alan Macfarlane argues that without glass, the Renaissance and the
scientific revolution would never have happened.

Around 70 percent of what we know about the world comes in through our eyes,
Macfarlane points out, and glass instruments enabled us to see better. Until about 1400,
knowledge was based on what people had been told in the past. "Glass allowed the
growth of the experimental method. Don't trust what you are being told: see it for
yourself. It was transformational," he says.

C At the Wellcome-MRC Cambridge Stem Cell Institute, Professor Ludovic Vallier says
that his first encounter with a Petri dish was a classic example of understanding the
world in this way: students used the dishes to see which bacteria could grow in the
presence of antibiotics. "It's good to see things grow," he says. "It was a fascinating
experience. Now, we grow cells in the Petri dish, and we don't use glass any more, but
plastic."

Today, his team focuses on stem cells, which have the capacity to become any cell type
in the human body: neurons, skin cells, liver cells, and so on. Vallier and his colleagues
study them in order to understand how they do this, and how they can produce more
cells. And to study them, they need to grow them. "We put the stem cells on the dish
22
 and then we feed them and they grow," he says. "And then ... we divide them and
distribute them in new Petri dishes, and we grow them again. We feed them on a liquid
medium that is basically food for cells; it tells them to grow and also what to do, as we
want to produce new cells. So by feeding them this medium we can allow the cells to
become neurons, cardiac cells, liver cells, and so on. We can then model disease in a
lab."

D 'Disease in a dish' is also the focus of Dr. Meritxell Huch's team at the Gurdon
Institute. They use between 50 and 150 Petri dishes every day to grow mouse liver and
human liver cells in order to study how the liver can regenerate itself.
Huch's team is examining the molecular mechanisms by which these cells decide to
multiply. She says: "You can divide regeneration into different phases. The cells first
have to realize that there is damage and activate the response. Once they activate the
response, the cells will proliferate to compensate for the loss of cells owing to the
damage. And once they have proliferated, they then have to become functional cells."

E In the MRC Laboratory of Molecular Biology, Dr. Madeline Lancaster and her team
grow 'mini-brains' in hundreds of Petri dishes. Here, the dish has been specially treated
to stop cells from sticking to it and to encourage them to float freely.

Dr. Lancaster explains that they want the cells to develop in three, rather than two,
dimensions as that's the way our brains are. "If you can grow neurons on a dish in two
dimensions, you can see individual neurons and see what they do, but you won't be able
to understand the architecture of those cells-their positioning relative to one another."
She says that this new method gives you a structure that looks a lot more like that of an
actual developing brain.

F The aim of this research is to look at exactly how neurons are made and how that differs
in humans compared with other species. One day, says Lancaster, this work could
translate into understanding far more about Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's, and
schizophrenia. So, in a world of cutting-edge and highly complex technology, Petri
dishes, in their relative simplicity, remain a vital weapon in the fight against the world's
most difficult diseases. And they also enable a hands-on approach that she finds
satisfying.

"It's a bit like gardening," she says. "You're taking care of this thing. You keep an eye
on it and you check it every day. You change the media this day or that day to help it
grow better. It's rewarding to see something grow before your eyes. There's something
about the interplay between new, next-generation, and classic technologies. They give
you capabilities that were just not possible before."

23
Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 A description of an experiment involving both human and non-human cells of a

specific type.

15 Possibilities for improved research into various serious medical conditions.

16 Contrasting views of the importance of the Petri dish.

17 A change remarked on by one scientist in the material used for the Petri dish.

18 A claim that the Petri dish enables a scientist to monitor the progress of an
experiment on a regular basis.

24
Questions 19-23

Look at the following statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C, or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C, or D., in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

19 To deal with injury, cells must go through a series of activities in a particular

order.

20 One technological development formed the basis of all modern scientific

research.

21 A modification to the Petri dish allows experiments to provide more accurate

information.

22 Petri dishes allow observation of medical conditions that are normally impossible
to observe.

23 Visual evidence is a very important requirement for the provision of reliable

information.

Professor Ludovic Vallier

25
Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Research in the MRC Lab of Molecular Biology

A team led by Dr. Madeline Lancaster is using special Petri dishes which prevent
brain cells from 24 ..................... to them. The aim is to allow the neurons to grow in
three 25 ...................... This results in a 26 ..................... that resembles a
developing brain. The technology could help scientists study how neuron production
varies in different species, leading to possibilities for increased medical knowledge.

26
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

The New Zealand writer Maurice Gee

Maurice Gee was born in Whakatane, a popular coastal town in New Zealand. However, he
spent his childhood in the country town of Henderson and it is only the latter that plays a
major role in his fiction. Of special significance is Henderson Creek - a small stream -
where, Gee said, "I seem to have spent half my boyhood." There, he says, he saw dead
animals for the first time, which made a deep impression on him. "I'd run home from the
creek to the safety and security of the kitchen," he once said. Gee claimed that the two places
were of equal significance: "one the place of safety and affection, the other the place of
adventure, danger, excitement."

Gee's father was a carpenter who happily allowed Maurice and his brothers free access to
tools and materials for making boats in which to explore the creek. His mother's tales of
family history were fundamental to Gee's emerging interest in narrative, providing a sense of
social history that he would later use in his writing. His memories of primary school in
Henderson are intense and detailed. Furthermore, he seems able to transfer their atmosphere
to other schools. There can be few factual accounts of a primary school as vivid as Gee's
Nelson Central School (1978), which was a major contribution to the history of schooling
and one based on extensive oral research.

For two years he was a schoolteacher in the town of Paeroa, but he moved on feeling
disillusioned with the profession. After three years' casual work in various parts ofNew
Zealand, he spent 1961 teaching and writing in England. Ever since university he had been
writing. The publication of two stories in the British collection New Authors - Short Story I
(1961) created a wider audience for this new voice.

A year later The Big Season, Gee's first published novel, was greeted enthusiastically. The
poet Louis Johnson wrote that it challenged the common idea that most New Zealand novels
showed the country's way of life as dull. The New Zealand Herald newspaper found it "not
always pleasant, but certainly forceful and sincere." The novel celebrates joy in the game of
rugby, New Zealand's national sport and passion. It was unusual in those days for writers to
express interest in this topic. The central character, Rob Andrews, tries hard on the rugby
field but is distracted by his personal romantic interests. He seems to have betrayed the rugby
world, but he has not betrayed himself: for all his confusion he is discovering his own
potential. It's possible to say that the author is doing the same thing, because patterns and
themes that will shape his subsequent books are seen here for the first time.

27
Gee's third novel was the mystery story In My Father's Den (1972). Despite a rather
exaggerated and emotional ending, Gee seems to be more self-assured as an author and in
more control of his writing than previously. It was followed by the collection of short stories
A Glorious Morning, Comrade (1975), though many of these stories had been written.

Before the novels and could be viewed as apprentice work. In Games of Choice (1976) it is
clear that Gee's writing skills are developing quickly. For example, he was able to create a
genuine sense of tension and fear. And he really built on this skill and took it to its highest
level in his masterpiece Plumb (1978), which provides an image of life in New Zealand over
three generations. Local critical response has been enthusiastic and ongoing.

Clearly at the height of his powers, Gee combined work on Plumb with his first work of
children's fiction. Under the Mountain (1979) is an Auckland tale stimulated by the
volcanoes that dot the cityscape. Strange creatures are planning to make the world their own
and only Rachel and Theo can save the local population. The battle between good and evil, a
beautiful natural world and a dreary one, is the common theme of the books he wrote at this
time.

Going West (1993), which was met with critical acclaim, is significant because it explores
how writers create their work. In the novel, the main character, Rex Petley, writes poetry
which has a creek as a repeating image. Gee has said that he will never write his own
autobiography, because he cannot betray the people who would appear in it, but he
frequently includes his personal experience in his work, such as his knowledge of Henderson
Creek. Grounded in reality, but adding images from his imagination, Gee thus shapes and
emiches his fictional world.

Each of Gee's novels tells us about New Zealand life, and human life in general. Each is full
of characters with a variety of intense and unique personalities together with rich images of
the natural world. Yet there is always an awareness of danger: one false move and we lose
everything. The reviewer, Trevor James, points out the frequency of such words as "abyss,"
"hole," and "missing," in Gee's writing, which he believes reflects the common desire in
New Zealand society not to stand out from the crowd. Rachel Barrowman's biography
Maurice Gee: Life and Work was released in 2015. She delves into subjects surrounding Gee
that were previously untouched by other biographers. Gee confesses that some of
Barrowman's conclusions astonished him and made him rethink what he thought he knew.

28
Questions 27-33

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 The town of Whakatane is frequently the setting for Gee's stories.

28 For Gee, the kitchen was as important as Henderson Creek.

29 Gee was correct to avoid basing any of his characters on his father.

30 Gee's mother had a major influence on his development as a storyteller.

31 Gee's Nelson Central School was less popular with readers than his imagined
stories.

32 Gee enjoyed the time he spent working in education in Paeroa.

33 Louis Johnson thought that Gee had written a different type of New Zealand
novel.

29
Questions 30-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 30-36 on your answer sheet.

34 The writer concludes that The Big Season

A enables Gee to experiment with ideas he uses again later.

B develops literary ideas that were popular at the time.
C describes events that Gee himself experienced.
D stresses the importance of team loyalty in sport.

35 The writer suggests that In My Father's Den

A finishes with an inconclusive climax.

B provided useful practice for A Glorious Morning, Comrade.
C demonstrates a new confidence in Gee's writing.
D took less time to write than A Glorious Morning, Comrade.

36 According to the writer, Games of Choice

A dealt with different issues to Plumb.

B was an important influence on the creation of Plumb.
C describes a family of grandparents, parents, and children.
D was shocking in its presentation of aggression.

30
Questions 37-40

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-H, below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

37 Gee's father encouraged him to take an interest in

38 The novel Plumb continues to be praised by

39 Gee once refused to write an autobiography to protect

40 Trevor James refers to certain words to illustrate

A the culture in which Gee set his work.

B those who shared his life.

C facts that are familiar to most readers.

D the development of practical skills.

E colorful vocabulary and complex language.

F topics other writers did not discuss.

G reviewers in his own country.

H characters with unusual problems.

31
 TEST 3

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Historical Impact of the California Gold Rush

The California Gold Rush of 1849-1855 radically transformed California and the USA. It
prompted one of the largest migrations in US history, with hundreds of thousands of
migrants across the USA and the globe traveling to California to find gold in the foothills of
the Sierra Nevada mountains. This led to the establishment of boomtowns, rapid economic
growth and prosperity, as well as the improvement of transport links. The significant increase
in population and infrastructure allowed California to qualify for statehood in 1850, only a
few years after the USA bought the territory from Mexico as part of the Treaty of Guadalupe
Hidalgo.

For all its significance, the onset of the Gold Rush originated from a seemingly insignificant
event. In January 1848, James Marshall, a carpenter, was building a sawmill for John Sutter
at Sutter's Fort, a trade and agricultural colony, when he spotted something shiny in the
American River. Not sure of what he had found, he collected the apparent gold flecks and ran
some rudimentary tests on them-including biting them and hitting them with a hammer.
When their appearance did not change, Marshall realized they were genuine gold and quickly
notified John Sutter. Sensing that the discovery would negatively impact his business and
bring a large number of people to his land, Sutter told his employees to keep the gold a
secret. However, news of the discovery quickly got out and spread across the region. Soon,
gold seekers arrived at Sutter's Fort, and just as Sutter had feared, his employees all left to
look for gold.

Within a few months, news of the gold discovery expanded beyond the region, with the
Baltimore Sun becoming the first US newspaper to report on it in late summer. In the
autumn, the New York Herald ran a subsequent story on the gold discovery and by
December, President Polk announced to Congress that significant amounts of gold were
being discovered in California. The year 1849 prompted a massive migration to California
from many parts of the USA as well as places as far away as China, Chile, and France. The
migrants, dubbed the "forty-niners" for the year of their trip, flocked to cities such as San
Francisco and present-day Sacramento, which were experiencing rapid development. The
population of San Francisco, for example, exploded from 500 in 1847 to more than 150,000
in 1852.

32
With the massive influx of migrants, California underwent a radical transformation in a very
short amount of time. It changed from a sparsely populated region to a territory with enough
people to constitute a state. At the time, the population of California was still predominantly
Mexican; however, the arrival of many US migrants quickly reshaped the local
demographics. The newcomers often wanted to keep in touch with family around the USA
and pushed for the development of new communication and transportation links. So the
famed Pony Express was created to send mail and parcels from California to the Midwest
within a two-week period using ponies, while a mail delivery service, the California Star
Express, connected California with Missouri.

Although the Gold Rush allowed some of the early miners to become rich, it was the ensuing
economic development that sprang up around gold mining that would result in the greatest
profits; the merchants who aimed to satisfy the needs of gold prospectors would ultimately
become very wealthy. Not only did the Gold Rush lead to an explosion in the manufacturing
of mining machinery and equipment for hydraulic operations, it also saw more of the leather
goods and clothes that miners required being produced.

The rapid development of agriculture-thanks to heightened demand and the availability of

more sophisticated tools-was another major outcome of the Gold Rush. In fact, many who
did not succeed in mining turned to California's II green gold,11 taking full advantage of the
territory's favorable climate to produce massive amounts of fruits, vegetables, and grains to
feed the expanding mining communities.

The fervor surrounding the Gold Rush led to a revolution in transportation. At the time,
California was relatively isolated, but improvements were made to the road network and the
number of steamships being constructed increased. San Francisco, which experienced the
largest economic boom at the time, saw its rapid modernization and economic development
rewarded when it was chosen as the site for the western terminus for the first transcontinental
railway, linking the east coast of the USA with California.

The Gold Rush was not beneficial to all, however. It led to increased violence against Native
Americans, while immigrants, who had come to California in the hope of making their
fortunes, often experienced intense discrimination. Some Americans were convinced that
immigrants were taking revenue and employment opportunities away from Americans and
argued for restrictions on immigration and a tax on all foreign miners working in California.
The Gold Rush also had a severe environmental impact. Rivers became clogged with
sediment; forests were cut down; biodiversity was compromised, and soil was polluted with
chemicals from the mining process. Despite these drawbacks, the Gold Rush had a lasting
positive impact. It propelled significant industrial and agricultural development and helped
shape California's future by turning it into an economic powerhouse.

33
Questions 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 Few other migrations in the USA have been equal in size to that of the California
Gold Rush.

2 The population growth caused by the Gold Rush was a key factor in California
becoming a state.

3 It took a long time for the USA and Mexico to agree on a figure for the purchase of
California.

4 When gold was discovered, John Sutter was confident his staff would continue
working for him.

5 The New York Herald article gave details about the areas of California where gold
had been found.

6 The Pony Express was in operation in California before the Gold Rush.

7 A large number of the people who failed to find gold became farmers.

34
Questions 8-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet.

The California Gold Rush

The first discovery of gold

• James Marshall was working on the construction of a 8 ........................ when

he found flecks of gold.

• Marshall bit on the gold flecks and used a 9 ..................... to check they
were real.

• John Sutter wanted the discovery to be a 10 .....................

• The news soon spread.

1849

• Many people went to California in search of gold.

• The population of California grew rapidly.

The Impact of the Gold Rush

• The largest 11 .....................were achieved by machine manufacturers and

businesses supplying miners with items of clothing and products made from
12 .....................

• The people supplying miners with food benefited from the area's
13 .....................

35
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Questions 14-19

Reading Passage 3 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

Comparing two planets

ii A surprisingly small moon

iii A longstanding puzzle

iv Saturn's fascinating moon

v The importance of Titan's gravity

vi Expectations of possible solutions

vii The problems for life on Titan

viii An advantage of the low temperatures

14 Paragraph A

15 Paragraph B

16 Paragraph C

17 Paragraph D

18 Paragraph E

19 Paragraph F

36
 Saturn Spectacular
Solving the puzzles of the ringed planet

A In 1610 the Italian astronomer Galileo pointed his crude telescope at the planet Saturn
and was dumbfounded by what he saw: "The planet Saturn is not alone, but is composed
of three, which almost touch each other, and never move or change with respect to one
another." Even more surprising, the two bulging planets on either side of the main
planet had disappeared when he looked again a few months later. Eventually, the
frustrated Galileo decided never to look at Saturn again. Now, of course, we have much
better telescopes, and we know that Galileo was looking at the planet's unique set of
wide, thin rings. Seen broadside, they resembled companion planets through Galileo's
weak lenses; later, seen edge-on, they shrank to nothingness. But nearly 500 years after
Galileo's observations, Saturn still teases astronomers. Saturn's magnificent rings, for
example, consist of trillions of pieces of ice, some no bigger than a speck of dust. The
ring particles are so small that they could be expected to scatter and fall into the planet,
yet they are still there. Scientists are unsure about the origin of the rings, their exact
chemical composition, and why they behave in the way that they do.

B However, as spectacular as Saturn's rings are, the fuzzy orange ball of Saturn's giant
moon Titan is even more interesting. Although it is larger than the planet Mercury,
Titan probably resembles other large moons in the Solar System. It is a rock covered
with ice and dirt. However, it has something no other moon has: a substantial
atmosphere whose pressure is 50% greater than Earth's. Even more intriguing, Titan's
atmosphere consists mainly of nitrogen (the primary component of our own air), mixed
with carbon-based compounds. Cloaked in this atmosphere, Titan's surface may
resemble the surface chemistry of the early Earth, but astronomers cannot see through
the moon's maddeningly opaque orange fog.

C All sorts of Earth-like chemical interactions could happen on Titan. Scientists hesitate to
speak of the possibility of life when they speak of Titan, but it is a distant possibility.
Living on Titan would be no walk in the park. From the vantage point of the Saturn
system, the sun is a rather dim bulb. Titan is therefore a very cold place. Surface
temperatures average about -300 degrees Fahrenheit. At those temperatures, water is a
rock and would flow only from volcanoes. Although Titan is half water, there is
nowhere to get a drink. In addition, there is no oxygen in Titan's atmosphere-it is all
locked up in water ice. The only hope for life as we know it, and it is an exceedingly
slim one, is that water mixed with ammonia may get warm enough deep below the
surface to liquefy. If so, life could possibly eke out an underground living much like the
hardy microbes that surround Earth's hydrothermal vents (deep cracks on the seabed
through which boiling water and hot gases escape).

37
D Titan could contain information on the prebiotic chemistry that led to life on Earth and
perhaps elsewhere in the Universe. The bitterly cold temperatures that make Titan so
forbidding for life in some ways make it more intriguing. Titan's chilly climate keeps
things in a state of preservation, so that it can hang on to most of the substances that it
has acquired during its 4.5 billion years in the Solar System. The organic reactions that
may have established the starting conditions for life on the early Earth are long gone,
erased by our planet's high-speed chemical and geologic evolution. On Titan, similar
reactions may still be sitting in deep storage.

E Measured against its showy rings and haze-obscured moon, Saturn itself seems
dowmight ordinary. Yet the 75,000-mile-wide planet-the second largest in the Solar
System-holds some serious interest of its own. Like the planet Jupiter, Saturn is a gas
giant: a relatively small ball of rock surrounded by a vast envelope of helium, hydrogen,
and various hydrogen compounds. Saturn is only half as dense as Jupiter, even less
dense than water. It releases less heat than Jupiter, but, given its smaller size, scientists
are not sure why it radiates any heat at all. Saturn's storms are, surprisingly, more
powerful than Jupiter's, and its jet streams are much faster. The planet looks blander,
however, because a thick haze of ammonia crystals obscures the colorful banding seen
so easily on Jupiter.

F Scientists hope that studying these differences will reveal how giant planets form, how
weather systems work under different conditions, and what planets around other stars
might be like. A recent spacecraft that investigated Saturn and Titan (the Cassini-
Huygens probe) has produced results that Galileo would have dearly appreciated back in
1610: photographs that finally show Saturn with crystalline clarity. After all the data
from Cassini-Huygens has been interpreted, even though that might take 40 years, all
questions on these topics may have been answered once and for all.

38
Questions 23-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

20 Galileo's observations of Saturn were influenced by

A the frequency of his attempts.

B the quality of his equipment.
C what he expected to see.
D observations made by others.

21 The writer suggests that scientists are interested in Titan because

A it is larger than Earth, although less dense.

B its atmosphere may contain oxygen.
C its surface is invisible because of a thick, colored fog.
D its atmosphere has similar elements to Earth's atmosphere.

22 The writer uses the phrase "no walk in the park" because life forms on Titan
would

A probably exist in water.

B be less developed than life forms on Earth.
C face considerable difficulties.
D be unable to move around.

23 How does the writer compare Saturn and Jupiter?

A Saturn gives off more heat than Jupiter.

B Jupiter is less dense than Saturn.
C Saturn is less colorful than Jupiter.
D Jupiter has more violent storms than Saturn.

39
Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 20-23 on your answer sheet.

The Cassini-Huygens Probe

The Cassini-Huygens probe has produced clearer 24 ....................... of Saturn.

However, it may take up to 25 ....................... before all the data from the probe has
been analysed. It is expected that this data will assist in the investigation of the way
26 ..................... function, and the nature of other planets and stars.

40
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Book Review:
False Prophets: The Gurus Who Created Modern Management and
Why Their Ideas Are Bad for Business Today
by James Hoopes
James Hoopes is a historian who has written numerous books on business management. One
of his best-known books is False Prophets, which covers the phenomenon of 'business
management gurus' in the USA that started towards the end of the 19th century and has
continued to the present. First and foremost, this book is a series of biographical sketches of
the key business management thinkers, from Frederick Taylor (the 19th-century industrialist
who created scientific management theory) to Peter Drucker (the academic accredited with
founding modern management in the 1950s). However, the book also reads as a series of
reviews or critiques of the various business management theories advanced by those gurus.
This is where Hoopes' credibility wanes; he's prone to unsupported generalizations and
seems to have his own agenda, ultimately promoting a theory of the proper role of
management that is both ill-defined and also outside the scope of his biographical treatments.

Hoopes traces the division of management theory into two broad schools: top-down, which
emphasizes the power of the manager and concentrates on convincing (or forcing) workers to
do what they don't want to do, and bottom-up, in which managers believe that the workers
are the ones with the control and the best a manager can do is persuade them. Frederick
Taylor, who pioneered a top-down style in the 1870s, is heavily criticized for embodying all
the worst qualities of the bullying boss in his quest to improve efficiency.

Many of the management thinkers in the early part of the 20th century were also looking at
how to improve efficiency. The husband and wife team Frank and Lillian Gilbreth and Henry
Gantt (who advocated bonus pay, rather than threats, as a motivational tool) either tried to
soften Taylor's tactics or disdained them altogether, while trying to combine efficient
processes with consideration for the workers. Then there's Mary Parker Follett, the
influential political theorist and philosopher. Along with Lillian Gilbreth, Follett represented
a pioneering female voice in American business. Maybe more than any other business
management guru, she added new, substantive theories, which are still reflected in
management practice today.

Looking across all the biographical sketches, we see that many of the gurus have a similar
background, which allowed them to promote their management theories. So Taylor and
Frank Gilbreth each had inventions that helped give them the success and notoriety that in
turn allowed them to advocate what were separate management theories (often, not
41
surprisingly, theories that they in tum used to promote adoption of their inventions, with all
the associated personal gain that entailed). Taylor and Follett undoubtedly leveraged their
upper-class upbringings to ingratiate themselves with business owners.

There is limited coverage of the more modem management theories. The history of W.
Edwards Deming's public service for the U.S. government in the 1940s before he became A
business guru is welcome, because many books about Deming omit or minimize that phase
of his life. Hoopes sometimes gushes over Peter Drucker, who, along with Follett, is clearly
one of his favorites of the gurus. What seems lacking in the biographical sketches, though,
are detailed treatments of the most recent theories put forward by significant gurus such as
Tom Peters and Jim Collins.

Hoopes, refreshingly, does not try to hide his opinions about these people and pretend to be
neutral: his biases are evident from the start. Hoopes labels Taylor "the demon," but he does
not automatically give support to more humane management thinkers, either. Thus Elton
Mayo, whose psychological approach to management inspired much of the bottom-up
theories in the mid-20th century, is even more heavily criticized than Taylor. The Mayo
chapter is one of the best, in part because Mayo's disciples gathered so much data that
Hoopes can pick it apart and demonstrate with specificity how Mayo proffered theories that
contradicted his own research findings.

Hoopes' biographical approach-each guru gets his or her own chapter-has its pros and
cons. On the one hand, the biographical details sometimes get in the way of the analysis: it
remains an open question whether Hoopes dislikes Taylor and favors Mary Parker Follett for
their different approaches to management theory, or because Taylor was a bully and Follett a
nice person. But Hoopes' prose is clear and remarkably free of academic pretensions; he
presents complicated ideas simply, but without condescension.

So, let us tum to the more problematic part of Hoopes' book: the critiques of the
management gurus' theories. It might help to break down the key theses that Hoopes
advances, to better pinpoint where he goes wrong. Bottom-up management, he argues, is
even worse than top-down; rather than limiting the potential abuses of managerial power, it
cloaks such abuses in a false morality. He also argues that Americans believe in socio-
political democracy but that most workplaces lack such democracy. He claims that top-down
workplace hierarchies produce better results than democratic organization structures and
concludes that people need to accept that top-down management power is necessary to some
degree, though its importance is overstated by the management gurus.

Basically, this book sets out these theories, but it never gets around to proving (or
disproving) most of them. It would be possible to make evidence-based analyses of each of
these points but Hoopes does not even attempt to do so. Instead, he merely draws his own
personal conclusions based on the anecdotes and observations contained in his biographical
sketches.

42
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 What is the reviewer doing in the first paragraph?

A defining terms used in the book

B outlining the approach taken by Hoopes
C comparing different management theories
D summarising Hoopes' key ideas

28 The reviewer uses the phrase 'credibility wanes' in the first paragraph to
suggest that Hoopes

A over-simplifies management theories.

B is relying on evidence which is out of date.
C is not qualified to discuss management theory.
D does not provide adequate evidence to validate his arguments.

29 How did the Gilbreths and Henry Gantt differ from Frederick Taylor?

A They placed less emphasis on motivation.

B They were less convinced by the need for worker productivity.
C They had a more sympathetic approach to the workers.
D They defined efficiency in a different way.

30 The reviewer claims that Mary Parker Follett

A was the best-known female management theorist of her generation.

B put forward a greater number of theories than her male counterparts.
C made a significant contribution to the development of management
theory.
D was responsible for promoting the rights of women in the workplace.

43
Questions 31-35

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 21-35 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

31 Hoopes should have made an effort to present less biased opinions of the gurus
described.

32 Hoopes devotes less attention to the gurus he dislikes, such as Taylor.

33 Hoopes exposes the limitations of Mayo's arguments.

34 Hoopes' view of Mayo is in line with that of other management commentators.

35 It's unclear why Hoopes prefers Follett to Taylor.

44
Questions 35-40

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-I, below.

Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

Top-down and bottom-up management theory

Hoopes is critical of both top-down and bottom-up management theories. He
believes that while the bottom-up approach claims to be more humane and
principled, it is actually just as 36 ..................... as top-down management. In his
view, very few working environments are genuinely 37 ....................... , and while top-
down systems are ultimately more 38 ..................... in terms of results, top-down
management power is not as 39 ..................... as the gurus maintain. Unfortunately,
the information which Hoopes presents to support these views is entirely
40 ....................... and he fails to offer any evidence-based analysis.

C significant

E democratic

subjective

45
 TEST 4

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Sleeping on the Job

Can curling up under your desk, or in a purpose-built sleep pod, for a

10-minute sleep improve your performance at work?
There are times, typically in the afternoon, when many office workers experience a feeling of
tiredness and may even drift off to sleep in front of their computers. Many workplaces
consider artificial stimulation, provided by coffee or a chocolate bar, more acceptable than a
short sleep when attempting to combat this daytime sleepiness. However, there is
considerable evidence that trying to work during a spell of daytime drowsiness can be costly.
"Workplace accidents and errors peak at the same time that our circadian rhythms (sleep-
wake cycle) cause a drop in alertness," says Dr. Gerard Kennedy, a sleep specialist based in
Melbourne, Australia. "That's between about two and five pm," he says. These biologically
based downturns in alertness are natural and occur even if you've had a good night's sleep.
Most workers simply continue during the after-lunch decline or reach for the nearest
energiser: a strong coffee, a can of high caffeine soft drink, a cigarette or some secretly
stored chocolate in the top drawer.

However, a growing number of workers are taking very short sleeps, or "power naps"
instead. "Research shows that a nap can improve your mood and productivity, alleviate
tiredness, increase alertness and reduce errors at work," says Kennedy. "A nap as brief as 10
minutes will produce these results." It seems that the length of the nap is significant.
Professor Leon Lack, from the School of Psychology at Adelaide's Flinders University, has
compared 5-, 10-, 20- and 30-minute naps; he measured sleepiness, reaction time and
cognitive performance before and immediately after a nap and again during the next three
hours. "The 5-minute nap delivered very few benefits," says Lack. "The 20- and 30-minute
naps produced improvements but the subjects took at least half an hour to wake up
completely." Lack explains that the longer the sleep, the deeper it is, which can lead to a
feeling called sleep inertia. "The 10-minute nap delivered immediate benefits that lasted for
two to three hours, including a small but significant increase in alertness."

But how can just 10 minutes of sleep be ensured, when not in lab conditions? Most people
take 5 to 10 minutes to fall asleep so they need to lie down for a total of 20 minutes to allow
for 10 to 15 minutes of sleep. First, we need to change our attitudes to rest.

46
Australians work an average of 1811 hours each year, according to 2005 figures from the
Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD). This is the fifth highest
figure from 20 nations surveyed. In addition, Dr. Kennedy stated that 9% of 20- to 30-year-
olds and 16% of 30- to 50-year-olds are reporting sleeping problems. But in Australia, a
culture where doing anything at all is considered better than doing nothing, lying down for a
while-in the face of deadlines and urgent requests-is regarded as unacceptable by most
companies. Some companies, however, are listening to experts who advise on ways to help
employees take quick naps.

Both low- and high-tech napping methods are available for those who want to try. Low-tech
napping can include the use of a basic relaxation room, or, in the case of the strategic public
relations firm Wordplay, a 'CushoBed'. This combination of a very large cushion and a
couch provides Wordplay's staff with a comfortable place to curl up for a short sleep. Then
there's the high-tech 'TechnoSnooze,' an up-market sleeping pod that arrived in Australia
from New York earlier this year, and which has been leased out to several companies on
trial, including advertising agencies State Right Australia and Instant Publicity. Looking like
a space-age reclining armchair, the TechnoSnooze has a rounded hood that lowers over the
head and headphones that play relaxation music. The pod inclines forward to allow for easy
entry, then reclines so that the user's feet are slightly elevated. This promotes blood
circulation and reduces pressure on the lower back. After 20 minutes, the pod vibrates gently
to wake you.

Harry Baker, the managing director of another large company, doesn't need such a high-tech
approach. He makes good use of his media company's meditation room, which includes
quiet music, candles, and incense. He encourages his staff to use it too. 'Napping is a good
idea,' says Baker. 'It's like a traffic signal that slows down your brain.'

However, employees need strong workplace support from their bosses and co-workers to feel
they have permission for a mini-sleep as a regular part of their working day. 'Workplace
napping made a huge amount of sense to me very quickly, and I assumed the idea would sell
itself, but that wasn't always the case,' says Kevin Hopkins from State Right Australia,
which trialled pod-style napping for a month. 'For napping to be beneficial, you need to
ensure good briefing of the managers so they are clear about the positive outcomes and are
equipped to endorse, role-model, and support staff, since staff will usually take their lead
from managers.' He says staff response was positive: 43% of those who booked themselves
in for a pod nap said they felt 'good' and 21% 'excellent' afterwards.

47
Questions 1-4

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 The majority of mistakes in the workplace happen in the afternoon.

2 A short nap of five minutes is enough to reduce errors at work.

3 People who work long hours are more likely to have sleeping problems.

4 Doing nothing is acceptable in Australian culture.

48
Questions 5-1 O
Complete the table below.
Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage
for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet.

Where nap takes place Used by Description

CushoBed Wordplay Blends features of a giant

5........................and a sofa.

TechnoSnooze State Right Australia An ultra-modern lounger with

a 6........................at the top.
Instant Publicity
Lessens stress on the
7 .....................

Allows you to sleep for a

maximum of 8 .....................
9 ..................... Harry Baker A sweet-smelling room with
subtle lighting and
background 10 .....................

Questions 11-13

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

11 To what does Harry Baker compare napping?

12 Apart from their superiors, who do workers need consent from if they are to
feel comfortable taking a nap at work?

13 What do managers need to understand before they can support their staff in
'sleeping on the job'?

49
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Reducing the effects of jet lag

A We like to think we have control over our bodies, but the opposite is often true. Such is
the case with 'circadian desynchrony', a condition more commonly known as jet lag.
Exhaustion, headaches, difficulty concentrating, light-headedness, trouble falling asleep
or staying asleep; these are common effects of jet lag. They have the power to ruin a
vacation or business trip unless you learn how to trick your own body.

B Experimental psychologist John Caldwell has spent most of his career researching the
effects of sleep deprivation and sleep restriction, while also studying countermeasures
that sleep-deprived people can use to function better. Much of his research was
conducted within the military community. Caldwell explains that while our bodies are
able to adjust to about one time zone change per day, jet lag sets in when we cross three
or more of them because it creates chaos in circadian rhythms (otherwise known as our
body clock). That's a fairly new phenomenon, historically speaking. 'People now can
fly from New York to Paris in nine, ten hours, whereas in 1923 you did it on a ship and
it took you six days to get over to Europe,' Caldwell says. 'We just haven't evolved to
the point where we can rapidly change those rhythms, because it's a relatively recent
thing.'

C Because of the problems your body has naturally adapting to time-zone changes, you
need to manually adjust your body clock, and that means changing your bedtime to be
better matched with the destination to which you're traveling. Ranit Mishori, a professor
of family medicine at Georgetown University School of Medicine, travels frequently to
Europe, Africa, and the Middle East. To be ready to work when she arrives, she starts
adjusting her bedtime two to five days in advance to match the local time at her
destination. 'That means going to bed earlier when going east and waking up much
earlier,' she says. When she returns to the US, she does the same but in reverse.

John Caldwell creates a timetable that includes meetings, bedtimes, and social activities
so that he can easily see what time it is at home and at his destination and plan
accordingly. 'A lot of times, when you look at that table, right away you're going to see
where you're going to have your biggest problems,' he says. If he's just traveling for a
quick business trip and will only be gone a couple of days, he avoids gradual
adjustment. Instead, he tries to schedule any meetings at a time when he would be
awake and focused back home.

D Circadian rhythms are influenced by natural light. While travel may disrupt those
rhythms, you can help get them on track by regulating the amount of light that your

50
 body encounters, says Pradeep Bollu, associate director of the University of Missouri
Health Care Sleep Disorders Center. When traveling east, your biological clock will be
behind: ' ... avoiding bright light in the evening can help with advancing our biological
clock,' he says. 'Similarly, bright light ... after waking up also will help advance our
biological clock to suit the new time zone.' When traveling westward, he adds, the
biological clock is ahead of the latest time zone. He suggests gravitating toward bright
light in the evening, if possible, and exercising to stay awake later and sleep longer.

E One suggestion that is sometimes made is taking the hormone melatonin, which is a
substance that is produced every night by the human body and helps you sleep. 'Taking
a very small dose helps to recalibrate its release so that it is in sync with the time zone
of your destination,' says Kem Singh, a spine surgeon in Chicago with Midwest
Orthopaedics at Rush. Singh says he takes five milligrams of melatonin - which you
can buy in pill form in supermarkets and many mainstreet stores in the US - on the
plane and then again when he lands.

F Having a glass of wine on the plane may sound tempting, but it could negatively impact
your sleep, which could worsen jet lag, says Quay Snyder, president and CEO of
Aviation Medicine Advisory Service of Centennial, who advises pilots on staying in top
condition while in the air. 'It definitely has a sedating effect as far as getting someone to
sleep, but it destroys their rapid eye movement (REM) sleep so their actual mental
recovery is reduced,' he says. Instead, he says, be sure and have plenty of water so that
you stay hydrated while traveling.

G Bruce Stephen Rashbaum, owner and medical director of Capital Center for Travel and
Tropical Medicine in the District of Columbia, regularly advises patients on jet lag. He
considers prednisone, which is a powerful prescription medication, to be the most
effective tool for jet lag recovery. He instructs patients to take the medication when they
land, which is typically early in the morning, and again in the late afternoon and the
next day. 'It is this simple ritual that works nearly every time,' he says. So if in doubt,
you can always ask your doctor for some assistance.

Everyone responds to jet lag differently. For those who suffer, the first week will be the
most challenging, but after that, your body should start to recover.

51
Questions 14-20

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-ix, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

Requesting help from professionals

ii Types of meals and beverages that help

iii What not to do on a flight

iv Symptoms of jet lag

v Altering your sleep schedules

vi Types of exercise to do

vii A problem of the modern age

viii A remedy available from ordinary shops

ix Timing exposure to sunshine

14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
17 Paragraph D
18 Paragraph E
19 Paragraph F
20 Paragraph G

52
Questions 21-23

Look at the following statements (Questions 21-25) and the list of experts below.

Match each statement with the correct expert, A-F.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 21-23 on your answer sheet.

21 Using strong medicine is the most efficient way to get over jet lag.

22 Using natural supplements to reset biological processes can help travelers.

23 Having certain types of drinks lessens the quality of sleep.

List of Experts

A John Caldwell
B Ranit Mishori
C Pradeep Bollu
D Kern Singh
E Quay Snyder
F Bruce Stephen Rashbaum

53
Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

Why we experience jet lag

John Caldwell has studied sleep issues among 24 ..................... personnel. He

explains that jet lag is an issue because the human body can only naturally adapt to
one change in time zones per day; traveling over more than that causes
25 ..................... for our bodies. Unlike when traveling by 26 ...................... , flying has
resulted in us being able to change many time zones quickly. As this is a fairly new
form of travel, the human body hasn't yet evolved to be able to cope with this.

54
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Research into taming a fox

How to Tame a Fox (and Build a Dog) is written by Lee Alan Dugatkin, an American
evolutionary biologist, and Lyudmila Trut, a Russian professor of evolutionary genetics. The
book describes the scientific effort to domesticate Siberian silver foxes - a project that Trut
has been involved in as lead researcher for more than 50 years. When the project began, its
purpose was to shed light on how dogs had gradually evolved from wolves, and silver foxes
were chosen because they are the wolf's close genetic cousins.

There is much material to cover in the book, but the authors condense this without sacrificing
any significant details of the project. The introduction reveals the end product of the
experiment by describing the behavior of some very tame foxes that willingly interact with
humans. This revelation, however, does nothing to lessen the reader's fascination. Indeed,
the authors do an excellent job of expressing the joy of discovery of those early years of
genetic research.

Interwoven with descriptions of the project and the astonishing changes in the foxes are the
personal stories of the people involved, an approach rarely taken in scientific books, but one
which works extremely well here. A major figure to appear in the book is geneticist Dmitri
Belyaev, who first set up the domestication experiment in 1952, and who invited Trut to join
the project in 1959. Trut continues his work today at their research facility in Siberia, where
winter temperatures reach -40°C. Her team endures the harsh conditions because they
obviously care deeply for the science and the animals they are in charge of.

The evolution of the wolf into a dog has long puzzled scientists. How did wolves first come
in contact with humans? Why were some wolves less averse to humans than others? To
answer these questions, Belyaev devised an experiment to 'breed the wild out of the animal'
on an accelerated timeline.

As lead scientist at the Central Research Laboratory on Fur Breeding Animals in Moscow,
Belyaev was less interested in the official line of research and more interested in the impact
of domestication on animal genomes. After moving to Siberia, he obtained some foxes from
a fox farm for a breeding experiment. He chose less aggressive foxes that did not
immediately try to bite their caretakers. At the earliest stage of the experiment, he felt it was
necessary to hide his activities from his superiors at the Central Research Laboratory.

Initially, 12 foxes were chosen, and within three breeding seasons the pilot study produced
preliminary results. Some pups were not consistently aggressive; sometimes they even
appeared indifferent toward people. These results were enough for Belyaev to hire Trut, then
55
studying animal behavior at Moscow State University. Her job was to select the foxes for
breeding and record details of changes. Among the eighth-generation foxes, a couple were
calm enough for Trut to pick up. These, along with others that were slightly calmer than the
rest, were selected for breeding as part of a larger project.

Repeating the selection for the tamest foxes in each succeeding generation, Trut and Belyaev
noticed new behaviors. The first milestone occurred with a fox named Ember. Tail Wagging
had never been recorded in foxes in the wild or captivity; it is the behaviour of dogs
signalling happiness. One day Ember wagged his tail when Trut approached. He was the only
pup of his generation to do so, but this generation was also markedly calmer than any
previous one.

By the sixth generation of the larger project, pups displayed new behaviours. They pressed
against the front of their crates seeking human contact, licked hands, and whined when
people left. Fox pups whine for food from their mothers but had never done so for humans.
Nor had they been documented licking hands. The pups exhibiting these behaviours were put
in an elite group for breeding. Pups that did not exhibit these behaviours, or only
occasionally exhibited a few, were maintained as a control group.

Belyaev and Trut made further observations. Instead of standing straight up, the elite pups'
ears flopped over. Their snouts shortened, and some developed curly tails. These traits made
them more visually appealing to humans. In short, over the generations, the foxes began to
resemble dogs. It was then discovered that domestication creates complex interactions
between genes that influence physical traits and genes that influence behaviour. But how did
this domestication happen with ancient wolves? Belyaev theorised that naturally calmer
wolves approached people in search of pieces of animal meat and bone they had discarded.
As these calmer wolves interbred, the animals were no longer aggressive towards humans.
This theory makes more sense than older ideas, which proposed that neolithic people stole
wolf cubs so they could be trained to assist with practical tasks such as shepherding,
guarding and hunting. For Belyaev and Trut, their new theory answered the question of how
we got from wolf to dog, but not how we then got to a faithful four-legged family member.

Trut proposed to further chart the domestication of foxes by raising a fox called Pushinka at
home. In time, Pushinka began differentiating between Trut and her colleagues, and other
people who only seldom called at the house. Pushinka and her pups announced strangers'
arrival with a bark no other fox had exhibited. So far 57 generations of foxes have been bred,
and researchers have begun recording and decoding the vocalisations they have developed.

56
Questions 27-31

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 Trut could never have imagined that the project would continue for over 50 years.

28 The authors have successfully conveyed all the key facts and important data
associated with the research.

29 It is a shame that the outcome of the experiment is revealed in the book's

introduction.

30 The authors made a mistake by including personal stories in the book.

31 It is clear that the staff in the Siberian research facility have genuine concern for
their foxes.

57
Questions 32-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 32-34 on your answer sheet.

32 What is the writer doing in the fourth paragraph?

A examining Belyaev's approach to proving a theory

B comparing the behavioural traits of wolves to foxes
C giving the background to Belyaev's research project
D challenging traditional views on how species evolved

33 After being assigned a project by the Central Research Laboratory, Belyaev

responded by

A resigning and applying for work in another institution.

B keeping secret the work he was actually carrying out.
C choosing subjects that were hostile to people.
D seeking alternative means of funding for his scheme.

34 What are we told about Lyudmila Trut in the sixth paragraph?

A Two of Belyaev's foxes seemed willing to let her handle them.

B She disagreed with Belyaev about the future direction of the project.
C She had worked with foxes before being employed by Belyaev.
D Belyaev had been an influence on her during her degree course.

58
Questions 35-40

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-I, below.

Write the correct letter, A-I, in boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet.

Belyaev and Trut's observations and theories

Belyaev and Trut observed that the elite group of foxes started to have a range of
35 ..................... in common with dogs. Believing that domestication was responsible
for this, Belyaev then proposed a theory about domestication in ancient wolves.
Whereas other researchers had suggested early man had taken wolf cubs to turn
them into 36 ....................., Belyaev thought the wolves had associated human
groups with 37 ...................... This would explain the initial contact that wolves had
with humans, but not how dogs eventually developed as 38 ......................

To see how this might have occurred, Trut raised a fox called Pushinka and her
pups in her own home. In time, when 39 ....................... came to Trut's house,
Pushinka and the pups could tell the difference between them and those they were
more familiar with. Currently, Trut and her team are analysing the 40 .....................
produced by the latest generation of foxes.

59
 TEST 5

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Native species that become pests

The disastrous consequences of foxes, cane toads and other introduced

animals coming to Australia are well known. But problems also occur
when Australia's own native species spread from one region to another,
moving beyond the areas where they have always lived.
Mud snails were first detected in the Swan River in Perth, Western Australia in 1954, and
this was only in the river's lower areas. Since then their numbers have exploded and they
now crowd the river bed in densities of up to 400 per square metre. This species is native to
Australia but its natural range is more than 3000km away in eastern Australia. Due to the
snail's success, the river beds in the Swan River, which were once covered in natural
vegetation, are now under threat by increased levels of seaweed. Before the snail arrived, the
river had few hard surfaces on which small seaweeds could grow. Now, healthy vegetation is
being pulled up by snails and the riverbed is covered by seaweed that is carried in snail shells
and is released at the rate of 433 million fragments a day. Furthermore, snail waste is thought
to be aggravating the situation by having the effect of a fertiliser on the seaweed.

Species are often moved unintentionally. Mud snails are thought to have travelled on live
oysters taken from eastern Australia to the west of the country and stored in the Swan River
before use. Northern Queensland frogs regularly travel south inside bunches of bananas.
Researchers estimate that more than 6000 of these reach the state of Victoria each year,
although the only lasting impact observed so far is a colony of dwarf tree frogs that live in a
flooded quarry near Melbourne, Victoria. Similarly, spiders relocate in construction supplies,
while lizards move with firewood. It is not just animals that are relocated inadvertently;
seeds from the centre of the country often reach the coast aboard cattle trains.

Other animals have extended their ranges by themselves because changes to landscapes have
suited them. Waterbirds arrive wherever dams are put in, bats find abandoned mines, and
orchard swallowtail butterflies locate citrus trees that are planted near farm homes. Many of
the birds now found in Australia's capital cities did not live in large cities in the past. Writing
of the crested pigeon in 1865, naturalist John Gould regretted that 'being exclusively an
inhabitant of the plains of the interior, it can never become an object of general observation'.

60
Today, crested pigeons can be found in abundance in the middle of the coastal city of
Sydney.

Some species have been moved deliberately. The kookaburra is a famous Australian bird,
which is found in many parts of the continent. Long ago these birds were taken well beyond
the areas where they had always lived, for the purpose of exterminating snakes. Following
concern that the platypus, an unusual Australian water mammal, was declining in number on
the mainland, this species was introduced to a national park on an island off the south coast
in the 1920s. Vast numbers of plants have also been cultivated in areas where they did not
originally grow.

There is no database of this movement and tracing species' existence and migration patterns
can be difficult. For example, it is widely known that the venomous redback spider, common
throughout Australia, lives close to humans in sheds and under outdoor furniture but is
seldom seen in forests. Spider authority, Robert Raven, has wondered why this species went
undiscovered until 1870, by which time 200 other Australian spiders had been named.
Redbacks were hardly mentioned by early travellers and naturalists, and rarely feature in
Aboriginal legends and languages. This led Raven to suspect that redbacks had been
introduced to Australia from abroad. However, a mention of black-and-red spiders in South
Australia was recently found in an 1850 book, and the thinking today is that redbacks are
actually native to Australia's south-west, and were later introduced eastwards.

Species on the move within Australia present an environmental challenge. Although many
animals and plants are thought of as native to Australia, Australia is a continent and one of
the world's largest countries. If it were divided, like Europe, into smaller countries, those
snails and kookaburras in Perth would count as foreign. 'Foreign' may not be the correct
word, but the mud snails in Perth qualify as an introduced species and feral pest. The
colourful rainbow lorikeets around Perth, descended from cage birds that managed to win
their freedom, have been declared a state pest for the damage they do to stone fruits and other
crops.

Birds and bats that travel under their own wings are not usually thought of as introduced,
although those that cross the sea are sometimes called 'self-introduced'. Some of these
movements take place without any cause for concern. No-one speaks badly about crested
pigeons and butterflies thriving in new locations. Everyone likes the white terns, birds which
colonised Lord Howe Island after finding that its pine trees offer good nesting sites for their
chicks. But many arrivals do acquire a bad name. Eradication campaigns are organised in
Western Australia whenever Queensland fruit flies turn up, as they did in 1989 and 2016,
probably via smuggled fruit; they are also a problem in other states. Redbacks in eastern
Australia aren't welcome, nor are the mud snails in the Swan River.

61
Questions 1-7

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

Native species on the move

Mud snails in Western Australia

• Mud snails: an Australian native species originally from the 1 ......................

part of the country

• Snails contribute to the problem of seaweed replacing healthy vegetation

• Seaweed comes out of the 2......................... of snails

• Snail waste acts as a 3 .........................and this makes the seaweed problem

worse

Examples of unintentional movement of species

• Queensland frogs are transported south along with bananas

• Spiders are often carried in materials for 4 ......................

• Construction are carried when transporting livestock to the coast

Examples of species moving when the landscape changes

• When 5 ........................ are built, waterbirds move to the area

• Planting citrus trees attracted 6......................... to country areas

Examples of deliberate movement of species

• In order to kill snakes, kookaburras were moved to different areas

• Platypuses were taken from the 7 ...................... when their numbers

dropped there

62
Questions 8-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 8-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

8 Redback spiders avoid places where there are people.

9 According to current theories, redback spiders originally came to Australia from

another country.

10 In Perth, the ancestors of the rainbow lorikeets were originally domesticated

animals.

11 Bats are a threat to some native Australian bird species.

12 White terns moved to Lord Howe Island to raise their young.

13 There were more fruit flies in Western Australia than in Queensland in 1989.

63
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

The growing industry of background music

The background music industry has become more sophisticated and

more influential than many people realise

A Music can be surprisingly powerful, even when it is played in the background

and is barely noticeable. Over recent decades, creating background music has
become a booming industry. Researchers have found that music played in
commercial settings can have an impact on how much time we think has
passed while waiting in a queue, how engaged customers are with sales staff,
and even how sweet or bitter food tastes.

B Rob Wood is the founder of Music Concierge in the UK, a company that
chooses background music for businesses. Some clients hire Wood because
they want to influence behaviour, others seek to create a certain atmosphere,
culture or ambience. The core of a music consultant's work is creating distinct,
cohesive musical identities for brands. In 2018, Wood worked on music for a
new hotel. His brief was to produce distinct playlists for separate areas: the
lobby, the restaurant and the gym. The hotel manager explained every detail:
the build materials, the history, and a prediction of the average restaurant bill.
Much of Wood's job involves taking abstract suggestions and turning them into
music. A large amount of intuition is also required. It is a complex process and
part of his job is comprehending what businesses really want, which can be very
demanding. It is sometimes hard to know whether he should deliver something
that will precisely match expectations or pleasantly surprise them.

C In the 1920s, George Owen Squier, a former US army officer, developed a new
way to transmit audio through wires. His idea led to the creation of Wired Music
(renamed Muzak), which enabled businesses to play music throughout offices
and commercial premises. In its early days, Muzak sold itself on the basis that
its music would enhance job performance. Its programme for offices and
factories played classical recordings in 15-minute sequences, alternated with
silence. Each time the music sequence resumed, it rose in intensity. Muzak set
the template for background music that would persist for decades. In terms of
distribution, Muzak used wires to convey its music; the company sent a bulky
cartridge to its customers through the post and it was then played through a
specially designed device. In the 1970s, the introduction of affordable multi-
deck tape players suddenly made it easy for businesses to choose and play
64
 music continuously. The CD was the first digital format for music and, by the
late 1990s, it had enabled background music companies to develop digital
libraries where tracks could be organised according to preference. But that was
just a taste of the new world of infinite choice that was to come.

D Despite technological advances, it's the influence that background music has on
customer behaviour which is driving its growth. Psychologists believe that music
influences consumers in two main ways. The first is physical; numerous studies
have confirmed that we often subconsciously match what we are doing to what
we hear. For instance, one study found that diners chewed faster when higher-
tempo music was played. The second approach focuses on the associations
that music can trigger. Another study revealed that diners in a cafeteria were
willing to part with more money when classical music was played. Played in the
background than when there was none at all. One explanation, researchers
suggested, was that diners associated classical music with quality.

E However, it is the inoffensive nature of this kind of background music that creates some
of the industry's fiercest critics. A UK group, Pipedown, founded by Nigel Rodgers,
campaigns 'for freedom from unwanted music in public places'. The group claims that
such music is impossible to escape and adds to the overall levels of noise pollution in
public. 'You're not going for a special sort of atmosphere, you're just going to do your
shopping,' Rodgers said. One of Pipedown's boldest claims is that there is 'no genuine
evidence' that background music increases sales. Opinions vary on this question,
although most professionals do not share Pipedown's position. Adrian North, a
psychology professor at Curtin University in Perth, Australia, argues that small
purchases are where it is most possible to influence consumers. He conducted a study
that found that customers were more likely to choose either French or German wine,
depending on which of the respective countries' music they heard, something he
contrasted with a decision like buying a car where music would not have such an
impact. Others argue that it makes more sense to think about the influence of
background music in terms of subtle, long-term benefits, rather than immediate impact
on sales. Rhonda Hadi, marketing professor at Oxford University, UK, believes
companies that provide an experience, such as flights or accommodation, can reap the
greatest rewards. She believes that people 'rely on any cues they can to gauge the
quality of the service that they've received'.

F Companies have capitalised on the sweeping changes to the world of retail in recent
years. Many businesses are no longer just functional places to buy things, they are
presented as an experience. Since 2008, streaming music via the internet has become the
way most people listen to music. For background music companies, streaming is both a
threat and an opportunity. On the one hand, companies can select and tailor the music
they deliver to businesses with greater speed, flexibility and precision than ever before.
On the other hand, access to vast music libraries has made everyone a music specialist.
However, Richard Hampson at Imagesound believes a real-life curator is indispensable.

65
He emphasises the intuitive side to his job. 'It's always been about feel and human
touch,' he argues. 'Human taste is really important.'

66
Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

14 details of how modern developments have created positive and negative

consequences for the industry

15 an account of opposition to the use of background music

16 a comparison of customer spending patterns with and without background

music

17 a mention of how background music can make shoppers more responsive to

shop assistants

18 details of a project which required different music in various parts of a building

67
Questions 19-23

Look at the following statements (Questions 19-23) and the list of experls below.

Match each statement with the correct experl, A-E.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

19 It is difficult to understand a client's specific wish.

20 Background music is especially beneficial to the tourism industry.

21 Background music has more effect on people who are spending less.

22 A creative music expert is crucial for businesses choosing background music.

23 Buying goods does not require a particular environment.

68
Questions 24-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

The history of background music

In 1920, George Squier developed a way of transmitting music using a system of

wires. His company claimed that 24 ....................., at work could be improved with
the use of its audio programmes. However, in this audio format there was silence
between each short musical section. Gradually, the 25 ........................ , of the music
increased. Muzak became the template for music in businesses for years to come.
Different ways existed however; some companies delivered pre-recorded music in
the form of a cartridge. Later, in the 1970s, tapes were used, but the real change
came with the move to CDs. With these, background music specialists were able to
arrange music selections into 26 ........................ , on a computer.

69
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Conscious and Unconscious Thought

Great scientists and artists have long known about the unconscious mind. The founder of
psychoanalysis, Sigmund Freud, argued that most of our real motivation lies below conscious
awareness and that we require the services of a psychoanalyst to explain ourselves to
ourselves. Even those celebrated scientists who believe that Freud exaggerated the
importance of the unconscious argue that it is a part of our minds which we should learn to
control and take advantage of.

The great mathematician Alfred North Whitehead seemed to be a supporter of unconscious

mental processing when he said: 'It is a profoundly erroneous truism, repeated by all
copybooks and by eminent people making speeches, that we should cultivate the habit of
thinking about what we are doing. The precise opposite is the case.' What Whitehead meant
by this is that some of the greatest breakthroughs in creativity occur when a problem is
consciously shelved for a while - 'don't think about it, just sleep on it' - after which the
unconscious mind offers a solution. This is a process which psychoanalysts call incubation.

Now the latest psychological research confirms that we can all incubate a problem to our
own advantage. Ap Dijksterhuis, a psychologist at the University of Amsterdam, has recently
published a series of experiments in which students were presented with complex everyday
problems to solve. In one experiment they were given the opportunity to think carefully
about a decision; in another experiment they were distracted by an irrelevant task whilst
making a decision. The surprising result, published in the Journal of Personality and Social
Psychology, was that 'unconscious' thinkers made the better decisions.

Timothy Wilson and colleagues from the University of Virginia's psychology department
conducted another experiment. Participants were presented with five posters and asked to
choose one to take home. A little later, they were telephoned and asked how satisfied they
were with their choice - a measure of whether they had made the right decision from a
subjective point of view. Some participants had picked their poster straight away, whereas
others were asked to analyse carefully the pros and cons of each poster. It turned out that
people who had analysed were less satisfied with their choice than people who had not
applied logic. Paradoxically, it seems that those who had consciously weighed up the various
attributes had made relatively poor decisions.

The conclusion that has to be drawn from current research suggests the somewhat counter-
intuitive idea that the more complex a problem is, the less likely it becomes that conscious
thought can contribute much. If a dilemma is particularly difficult, a lot of information has to
be taken into account and it appears that conscious thought is not good at this. The message
70
is that when it comes to intricate problems with many variables, you should let the
unconscious deal with it.

Using dreaming is one way of doing this. Dreams are the part of sleep most strongly
correlated with rapid eye movement (REM) and have been associated with enhanced
creativity and novel solutions. The latest research suggests that, if you want to enhance
unconscious problem-solving, you should try to think about your problems immediately after
dreaming. In a recent experiment, psychiatrist Matthew Walker and colleagues from the
Laboratory of Neurophysiology at Harvard Medical School woke up half of their
experimental subjects immediately after REM sleep, and the other half just after sleep with
no dreams, and then asked them to solve crossword puzzles. REM awakenings provided a 32
per cent advantage in the number of puzzles solved, compared with non-REM awakenings.

But you don't have to be asleep to use the unconscious mind when you are not thinking of
anything in particular, which is why daydreams are so useful in the quest for creativity.
Daniel Goleman, the famous psychologist who proposed the theory of 'emotional
intelligence', urges us to be more aware of, and discount, a key obstacle that the conscious
mind imposes on the unconscious: that of self-censorship. This is the voice that whispers to
you, 'they'll think I'm foolish' or 'that will never work', keeping you imprisoned within the
boundaries of what is deemed acceptable. Howard Gardner, a professor of cognition and
education at Harvard University, suggests that we free ourselves from the straitjacket of
always doing things the same way. In seeking to go beyond the routine and conventional,
you will gain confidence in trusting your unconscious, he says.

71
Questions 27-31

Look at the following statements (Questions 27-31) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct people, A-F.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

27 People find it easier to solve problems at a particular point in the sleep cycle.

28 People should change their general behaviour patterns in order to benefit more
from the unconscious.

29 When solving problems, people should try to ignore negative thoughts.

30 People can come up with ideas which are more innovative if they temporarily put
a problem aside.

31 People who make quick decisions are less likely to regret them.

Timothy Wilson

72
Questions 32-34

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-34 on your answer sheet.

The history of background music

Many scientists argue that people should make better use of their unconscious
mind. Alfred North Whitehead, for example, gave support for the idea of
32 .....................: a term for people deliberately ignoring a problem over a period of
time.

Experiments in Amsterdam that required students to consider a tricky situation found

them making good decisions while carrying out an unconnected 33 .....................
Similarly, an experiment in Virginia which required subjects to make a selection from
a number of different 34 ........................ , found people feeling happier with their
decisions if they had made them quickly.

73
Questions 35-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 3?

In boxes 35-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

35 Our unconscious mind helps us more than our conscious mind with complex
problems.

36 Resting before going to sleep can result in improved solutions to problems.

37 Problems are more likely to be solved after dreamless sleep.

38 Matthew Walker's team assessed their subjects using a memory test.

39 Daydreams are more helpful to the unconscious than dreams which occur during
sleep.

40 People often create their own barriers to problem-solving.

74
 TEST 6

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Herding
Many animals naturally live and travel together in groups called herds as a form of protection
against predators. They move from one fertile grassland to another without an organized
direction. Herding is the practice of caring for these roaming groups of livestock over a large
area. Herding developed about 10,000 years ago, as prehistoric hunters domesticated wild
animals such as cows and goats. Hunters learned that by controlling animals they once
pursued, they could have reliable sources not only of meat, but also of milk and milk
products, as well as animal hides for tents and clothing.

There are several different types of herding. One of the most ancient forms is nomadic
herding, which involves tribal or extended-family groups moving with their animals from
one grazing area to another. Nomads live in arid and semi-arid parts of Africa, Asia and
Europe, and in the tundra regions of Asia and Europe, where land is not fertile enough for
intensive agricultural farming. In Africa, nomadic tribes herd various animals such as cattle,
goats, sheep and camels. The Fulani people of Nigeria are a typical example: their animals
are used for producing milk and are rarely slaughtered for meat. In the polar tundra, in the
northernmost part of Europe, nomads usually herd domesticated reindeer, horses, musk-oxen
and yaks.

Nomadic herding is sometimes considered a form of subsistence agriculture. However,

unlike subsistence farmers, herders are traditionally wage-earners: they sell their herds'
materials for goods and services, or herd other people's animals for a fee. Often, this trade is
part of the informal economy, not accounted for by the government of a region. In Africa, the
United Nations estimates that herders are responsible for more than $100 million in
economic activity every year.

Nomadic herding as a way of life is declining because of natural disasters, loss ofland area
due to development, and climate change, as well as pressure from governments to lead a
settled existence. Permanent residence allows members of a nomadic community to have
access to education and healthcare facilities. However, the complex social structure of
herding communities is lost as they are absorbed into mainstream culture. The unique
language and customs of nomads become redundant in settled urban or suburban life.

75
Another form of herding is semi-nomadic herding. These herders live a more settled life than
nomads, but many still follow their herds for long periods of time. Prior to the 20th century,
the Bedouin people of the Arabian Peninsula and the Middle East were mostly nomads,
herding sheep and goats. However, recurring drought throughout Western Asia in the 1960s
limited fertile areas; plus oil production in Egypt and Saudi Arabia further limited land
available for grazing. Bedouins are now almost entirely semi-nomadic or settled.

Today, about a quarter of Mongolia's population continues to live a semi-nomadic herding

lifestyle, herding sheep, goats, horses and camels. However, young people have recently
been rejecting this way of life and are instead moving to the city in search of an easier life.

The Sarni are semi-nomadic herders indigenous to the Arctic. They live throughout northern
Norway, Sweden, Finland and on the Kola Peninsula of Russia. For centuries, the Sarni have
herded reindeer as a principal means of livelihood, supplemented by fishing and trapping.
Land development has made it difficult for these semi-nomadic herders to sustain their
traditional way of life. State and national borders, for example, have divided traditional Sarni
land. Trees are also being cut down for the timber industry, and mines dug to extract
minerals, which is all having a serious impact on grazing land. There are laws to protect the
Sarni and their grazing rights, but conflicts still exist.

Another type of herding in mountainous regions is called transhumance. Transhumance

herders follow a seasonal migration pattern, usually to highlands in the summer and lowlands
in the winter. Unlike nomads, these herders move their animals between the same areas, and
live in fixed settlements.

Transhumance has had an enormous impact on the landscape. In the European Alps, for
instance, thousands of years of transhumance have transformed forests into grassland. Swiss
and German herders traditionally led sheep, cattle and pigs to pastures at elevations above
2,000 meters.

Transhumance in the Alps has traditionally involved three herding grounds. The lowest
elevation is where livestock are kept sheltered during the cold and snowy winter months.
Shepherds lead herds to the middle pastures during the spring. During the summer and fall,
shepherds lead sheep and cattle to the highest pastures, while pigs are kept in the middle
area. Transhumance is still widely practiced throughout agricultural areas in Switzerland,
Germany, Austria, Italy and Slovenia.

76
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 Animals form herds as a way of defending themselves from being attacked.

2 Land used by nomadic herders is also suitable for producing a large amount of
crops.

3 Sheep are the most common animals herded by nomadic herders.

4 The Fulani people frequently eat the animals which they herd.

5 In the tundra, reindeer are generally more valuable than other animals.

6 Animals provide a source of income for nomadic herders.

77
Questions 7-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Semi-nomadic and transhumance herding

Semi-nomadic herders

• almost all Bedouin are now semi-nomadic because of 7 ........................ and oil
production

• many young members of Mongolian semi-nomadic tribes now prefer to live

in the 8 .....................

• Sarni have survived by herding, 9 ........................and catching wild animals

• traditional Sarni land is being exploited for its wood and 10 .....................

Transhumance herders

• takes place in areas which are 11 .....................

• herders stay in permanent 12 .....................

• cattle and sheep spend the 13 ....................... in the middle pastures

78
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Questions 14-19

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-viii, in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

The role of students and the instructor in generating discussion at

an appropriate level

ii Conflicting evidence about the benefits of discussion

iii The time-consuming nature of class discussion

iv How an instructor's personality and actions influence discussion

v The importance of rewarding students who participate in

discussion

vi Evaluation practices that support and promote discussion

vii Reasons for a lack of student involvement in discussions

viii The influence of the physical environment on quality of discussion

14 Paragraph A

15 Paragraph B

16 Paragraph C

17 Paragraph D

18 Paragraph E

19 Paragraph F

79
 Creating meaningful discussions in the classroom

A Research on teaching emphasizes the value of class discussion as a means of actively

engaging students in the process of learning. The discussion method has been found to
be an effective tool for increasing students' mastery of subject matter, problem-solving
skills, and communication skills (Nilson, 1998). However, although discussion-based
classes at university level can be a catalyst for developing students' thinking skills, they
are often a source of frustration for staff and students. A common complaint from
professors in universities is that class discussions simply don't work, because students
are unable to participate in them effectively (McKeachie, 1999).

B Many students have an educational history of 'received knowledge' (Belenky et al.,

1986), passively absorbing information from the professor but being unable or unwilling
to contribute. This is a learned behavior for which students are often rewarded; many
students report earning outstanding grades in classes that offer no opportunity or
incentive for speaking (Belenky et al., 1986). From a student's perspective, active
learning is risky. Fear of embarrassment is a compelling force behind this passivity
(McKeachie, 1999). Inadequate preparation is another common reason for lack of
student participation. Students have not read the material, or have not processed it
sufficiently to make meaningful comments (Commor-Green, 2000). Such students lack
the vocabulary and grasp of concepts needed to contribute to class discussion in a
substantive way; any comments they make are likely to remain superficial.

C The attitude of the instructor has been described in instrumental in shaping a successful
discussion (VanDeWeghe, 2003). In a lecture course, the instructor controls the topic
and scope of ideas and is likely to receive few questions or challenges. On the other
hand, in a discussion class, the unpredictability and energy can enliven both teaching
and learning, building a richer understanding of the topic. Instructors who display open-
mindedness, enthusiasm, passion, humor, and hold high expectations while allowing
students the opportunity to make and learn from mistakes, appear to foster high-quality
discussion. In contrast, sarcasm and negative reactions inhibit discussion. Instructors
can reinforce and support student participation by writing comments up on the board,
correcting misinformation or incomplete ideas with dignity, and being able to refer to
students by their names. Effective use of discussion requires the instructor to leave
sufficient waiting time after asking a question before soliciting a response. If a question
is challenging, it will take students time to formulate meaningful responses; a pause of
as long as 30 seconds can stimulate thoughtful discussion (McKeachie, 1999).

D One of the main challenges of a discussion class is ensuring a common base of

knowledge. If students read and prepare prior to class, they will have mastered factual
knowledge, allowing class time to be used for higher-order cognitive skills, with
students actively engaging with the material. An effective discussion-based class is
neither instructor-centered nor student-centered; it is subject-centered. In a subject-

80
 centered classroom, serious intellectual discussion of the subject matter is the key to
meaningful learning (Levy, 2001). The instructor should have strong knowledge of the
subject matter, as well as confidence in students' ability to engage with the material.
One of the essential components of a discussion class is thought-provoking, challenging
questions. If a question is too easy, students may feel awkward. Furthermore, people are
most likely to become deeply engaged in an activity when it is sufficiently challenging
to fully engage their skills. Questions most likely to foster discussion are those that
stimulate higher-order thinking. An information-seeking (factual) question may reveal a
student's knowledge of the material, but is unlikely to serve as a catalyst for further
discussion.

E If an instructor encourages discussion, but subsequent tests only include material from
lectures or readings, students learn to ignore discussion as a waste of time and wait for
what they regard as the 'real' content of the class: the material on which they will be
tested (Gottfried and Kyle, 1992). Course assignments foster discussion by increasing
the likelihood that students have the foundation to make meaningful contributions.
Students tend to delay their reading until just before their test (Commor-Green, 2000).
Daily quizzes and journals provide more immediate incentives than having several tests
over the course of the semester. Daily quizzes provide an incentive to prepare for class,
focus students' thinking, serve as stimuli for discussion, and foster increased analytical
skills (Commor-Green, 2000). Response papers provide an opportunity for a written
conversation with the instructor and a structured way for student interaction with the
material in an integrative fashion.

F The classroom setting and atmosphere can either inhibit or enhance the sense of a
learning community. The instructor may have little control over the design of the
classroom, but small changes in layout such as arranging chairs in a circle can enhance
the learning community and facilitate interaction (Leonard, 1991). It is difficult to make
a transition from silence in the classroom to engagement in animated discussion.
Methods that help students get to know one another, such as using name cards, may
help the class feel connected and comfortable conversing. Discussion classes are most
successful when they involve students interacting with one another as well as with the
professor, rather than being a collection of student-professor exchanges. By examining
components critical to effective discussions, instructors may be better equipped to
establish the conditions for discussion.

81
Questions 20-22

Look at the following statements (Questions 20-22) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A-G.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 20-22 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

20 Students' learning improves when they are tested frequently.

21 Even when they don't participate in class discussions, students often receive high
marks.

22 Instructors frequently report that discussions in their classes are unsuccessful.

List of

A McKeachie
B Belenky et al
C Commor-Green
D VanDeWeghe
E Levy
F Gottfried and Kyle
G Leonard

82
Questions 23-26

Complete the summary below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

The importance of an instructor's attitude

Discussion classes, unlike lectures, can be unpredictable and lively, and instructors
can take advantage of those features.

For example, treating any 23 ..................... as learning opportunities, and reacting

positively to them, can actually improve the level of discussion. Recording students'
24 ..................... for all to see encourages them to share their ideas, and
demonstrating familiarity with their 25 ..................... is also motivating. Finally,
permitting a lengthy 26 ..................... after asking a question is a useful strategy.

83
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

An Architectural Revolution

An expert on architectural history expresses his views on trends in urban

planning
In the medieval period (5th-15th centuries), the towns and cities of Europe spread in a
natural, organic and sometimes haphazard way, according to the social, economic and
political needs of the people who lived there. Fortifying towns with high city walls for
protection was essential, as was situating them on high ground, giving the residents advance
knowledge of any attack. Houses were built from local materials with decorated doorways
and windows, usually in a style that reflected a long-standing consensus about architecture.
Shops, workshops, schools and communal buildings were inserted between the houses, and
streets would converge on a square in the middle of the town where a church and
marketplace together symbolised the forces that held the community together.

This traditional urban design continued for many centuries, but was disrupted in the early
twentieth century in the United States, where the new 'zoning concept' was introduced. This
involved the introduction of the 'downtown plus suburbs' template, in which the downtown
area was a place dedicated entirely to commerce, and the residential suburbs were where
people escaped to after work. Soon afterwards, when cars arrived on the scene, they smashed
their way through the narrow streets of the towns and laid for themselves a carpet of tarmac
into the surrounding countryside. The result has been an environmental, aesthetic and social
disaster, which can continue unchecked in the US only because of the abundance of land
there. Europeans, on the other hand, when faced with the suburbanisation of their ancient
towns, tend to dedicate themselves to preventing it.

But the fight to retain the original character of European towns was complicated by two
major events: the First World War of 1914-18 and the rise of the International Style in
architecture in the 1920s. The two events were connected. Following the war, Europe
experienced the first of many housing crises, as displaced populations and returning soldiers
wanted to settle in cities that were already crowded. Meanwhile, the rural population took
advantage of improved transport links and greater social mobility and began to migrate to the
towns. It was also at this time that the architects of the innovative International Style, such as
le Corbusier, celebrated clean, simple lines created out of concrete, steel and glass. The
supporters of this new architectural style rapidly took over the architecture schools and the
professional journals, and presented themselves as the only ones who could deal with a
housing challenge on a scale that politicians had not encountered before.

84
The International Style started out as revolutionary, with its emphasis on simplicity and
industrialised mass-production techniques. It arose from an admirable if rather idealistic
desire to soften and blur the barriers between different countries after years of conflict. The
style was considered universal because it had no association with any particular culture or
nation, and by the 1950s it had become accepted as the only viable one for modem cities.
However, by this time it had become less imaginative and varied. Endless demands for new
buildings in Europe in the 1960s and 1970s meant that there was increasing reliance on a few
standard templates, none of them particularly popular with local residents, and many
requiring the demolition of much-loved neighbourhoods with a long history.

The reconstruction and redevelopment of many British towns in the decades after the Second
World War (1939-1945) involved not only the necessary widening of roads but also the
destruction of the old fabric of rows of small houses and local shops, sloping roofs,
alleyways and interesting little corners and quiet spots. All the colourful, distinctive features
of individual urban areas were swept away and replaced with identical high-rise blocks and
anonymous shopping malls, glass boxes and concrete squares, none of which had any
cultural association with the places where they were built.

There is overwhelming evidence that bleak impersonal environments such as these can lead
to depression, anxiety and feelings of isolation. The ideal is to have an environment that
actively encourages people to come across one another in their local area. This means
creating and sustaining a neighbourhood in which it is possible for residents to pass in the
street, greet one another, and feel secure because they share a pleasant environment which is
cared for reasonably well. Our sense of beauty is rooted in these feelings, and it is the
principal reason why people fight to preserve the character of their local area.

So what new approach do urban planners need to take? Firstly, new architecture must be of a
style which suits the aesthetics of the location and fits in well with the appearance of existing
buildings, taking account of the ways in which buildings in that area have been constructed
for hundreds of years. What matters as much as an aesthetically pleasing home is having
neighbouring houses that conform to similar ideas about what is beautiful; ideally the design
of all the buildings in an area should be based on similar architectural values. Fortunately, in
many parts of the world there is now increasing pressure being exerted on urban planners and
architects to shift their approach towards this ideal. Nowadays, coordinated campaigns
against standard ways of building are so common that it has become difficult in some places
to build anything new at all, let alone to build in the quantities required. But at least the
appearance of a building, rather than just its function, has moved to the top of the agenda.

85
Questions 27-31

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 The growth of European towns in the medieval era had to follow strictly organised
plans.

28 Ensuring the safety of inhabitants was a vital consideration in the design and
location of medieval towns.

29 In medieval times, the challenges of transporting heavy goods over long distances
made it necessary to build houses out of local materials.

30 The function of the central square of medieval towns represented two key aspects
of urban society.

86
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

31 In the third paragraph, what do we learn about the International Style?

A It relied on building materials that were regarded as unattractive.

B It became very fashionable only after an initially sceptical reaction.
C It proposed a solution to the post-war shortage of accommodation.
D It incorporated a few of the best features of traditional urban design.

32 In the fourth paragraph, the writer praises International Style architects for

A attempting to minimise cultural differences.

B avoiding designs that were over-complicated.
C challenging conservative attitudes to architecture.
D making full use of modern technological advances.

33 The writer is critical of architects in the 1960s and 1970s because they

A consistently ignored the objections of local people.

B based their designs on ideas that were impractical.
C used only a limited number of very predictable forms.
D wasted money by removing long-established districts.

34 What impact of trends in building style in post-war Britain does the writer
mention?

A an increase in the range of construction techniques used

B a significant expansion in the number of residential streets
C the creation of areas where people could escape the traffic
D the loss of architectural details that had made towns unique

87
Questions 36-40

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-H, below.

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

Taking a new approach to urban planning

New buildings should be in 35 ..................... with their location and they should be
constructed using 36 ..................... As well as being attractive, homes should have a
similar 37 ..................... to that of the surrounding properties. In addition, there
should be certain 38 ..................... that a new building shares with older buildings in
the area.

Fortunately, there is now often a considerable amount of 39 ........................ to the

proposals of urban planners. Increasingly, people are realising that focusing purely
on a building's 40 ..................... is undesirable, and that more importance should be
attached to its appearance and cultural value.

A visual appeal B basic function

C organised opposition D essential meaning

E sharp contrast F relative harmony

G traditional methods H underlying principles

88
 TEST 7

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Amber
Amber is a yellowish semi-precious substance, formed in prehistoric times from the
hardened and fossilised resin of coniferous pine trees. It has been used for thousands of years
to make jewellery and other decorative objects, being relatively soft and easy to work.
Amber can also be polished to produce an attractive gleam. One disadvantage is that it is
susceptible to degradation, becoming cloudy as the colours gradually fade following
exposure to air. For this reason, many amber artefacts do not look as impressive as they did
when they were first made.
For the ancient world, the main source of amber was the Baltic region in northern Europe, on
the eastern coast of the Baltic Sea, where pieces washed onto beaches and could be easily
collected. Amber was sought after not only for its decorative appeal, but also because many
thought that it gave protection against evil. For this reason, people in ancient Egypt and
Greece wore or carried small ornaments known as 'amulets', and those made with amber
were said to be among the most powerful. There was a belief it could cure mouth and throat
complaints, and it was also ground and mixed with rose oil and honey to treat eye and ear
infections. As amber naturally contains succinic acid, which was used in treatments prior to
the use of antibiotics, this belief in its medicinal qualities was quite reasonable. The ancients
also noticed that when rubbed, amber produced an electrical charge that drew other objects
towards it. This ability to attract objects such as dried grasses led to the Persians calling
amber kahruba or 'straw-robber'.
The ancient world also had popular myths about amber's origins, such as the story that it was
the crystallised tears of a Greek goddess whose son was killed by a bolt of lightning.
Colourful though such stories were, even people of the time may not have taken them too
seriously, as writers such as the Greek philosopher Aristotle (384-322 BCE) had already
correctly identified amber as a hardened resin. In addition, a number of myths about amber
involved trees, indicating an awareness of its true origins.
In the 1st century CE, the Roman writer and philosopher Pliny the Elder classified precious
stones and materials, including amber. He was dismissive of many earlier myths about it and
acknowledged the fact that amber was collected from Baltic shores. He also agreed with
assertions that amber originated from pine trees, writing that if amber was burnt, it smelled
of pine. He also knew it originally existed in a liquid state because of the trapped insects
89
sometimes seen inside larger pieces. He did not, however, grasp the concept of fossilisation,
instead explaining the hardening of resin as a process performed by the sea.
The earliest evidence of people working with amber in the Baltic dates to the Neolithic
period (approx. 6000-2200 BCE). But it was contact between the peoples of the Bronze Age
(approx. 2200-800 BCE) that ensured amber spread across Europe, with various tribes
trading pieces of amber and receiving metals in return. Amber was taken south from the
Baltic via rivers to the Adriatic Sea, from where it was shipped to western Asia. Perhaps
because of its rarity so far from its source, amber was particularly prized in this region,
where it signified power and social standing for kings and queens. Priests were another group
that wore amber as a mark of distinction. Some amber beaded jewellery has been discovered
in tombs in ancient Egypt, although finds here are uncommon.
During the Iron Age, the east coast of modem-day Italy became something of a specialist in
amber. By the 9th century BCE, the coastal region of Verucchio had become an important
manufacturing centre. Here, significant quantities of artefacts have been found, including
amber discs for earrings and necklaces, and amber that would have been an embellishment
for clothes that have disintegrated over time. The Etruscans, who flourished in central Italy
between the 8th and 3rd centuries BCE, continued working with amber, creating fine
jewellery and small figurines of animals and humans.
Although amber seems to have gone out of fashion during the Greek Classical period (500-
300 BCE), it saw a resurgence in popularity during the Roman Empire (31 BCE - 476 CE).
Aquileia, in central Italy, became a noted centre of production between the 1st and 3rd
centuries CE. Amber workshops in this region produced many objects such as drinking
goblets, which were sold for high prices to rich Romans for use in their homes. Its reputation
as a protective talisman continued, and it was widely used by Romans, in particular
gladiators (men trained to fight in arenas for sport), who attached pieces of amber to their
fighting equipment to ward off danger. The Romans' use of amber declined from the 3rd
century CE, but it remained popular in the Baltic regions. In the medieval period, the
Armenians became the new champions of amber, and ensured its trade and manufacture into
fine decorative pieces continued into modem times.

90
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 The appearance of amber changes over time.

2 In ancient times, the amber found on Baltic beaches came from trees growing
nearby.

3 All protective amulets in ancient Egypt and Greece contained amber.

4 It is clear why people assumed that amber had healing properties.

5 One name for amber comes from its effect on other objects.

6 Aristotle's definition of amber supported its link to a goddess.

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Questions 7-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Amber in the Ancient World

Bronze Age
Amber was

• traded in exchange for various 7 ......................

• transported through Europe along 8 ......................

• used as a symbol of status by royalty and 9 ...................... in western Asia

Iron Age
9th century BCE discoveries include

• 10 ........................made of amber used in jewellery

• decorative pieces of amber, used on 11 .........................which have not

survived

• amber ornaments made by the Etruscans in the shape of people and

12 ......................

Roman Empire

• amber goods, e.g., 13 ...................... were made for wealthy households

92
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

The women scientists of Bologna

A The 18th century was a time of logic and experimentation, and many of the sciences had
their beginnings at that time. But throughout most of Europe, these studies were
reserved exclusively for men. Few options were available to European women with an
inclination to study. A university education was off-limits to women almost everywhere
in Europe, with one notable exception: Italy. In Italian universities, women competed
equally with men, and among those liberal Italian universities, one in particular stands
apart.

B The University of Bologna was founded in I 088 as a law school and is the oldest
university in Europe. During the 18th century, intellectually gifted women from the
upper classes, and sometimes even from the less economically advantaged classes, had
access to a level of education not available in most Western nations until the 20th
century. Most of these women, as the following short biographies demonstrate,
flourished in various areas of science.

C Among the women professors of the University of Bologna, Laura Bassi (1711 - 1778)
was the pioneer. She was the first woman to earn a PhD, and the university's first
female professor. At the age of 21, Bassi became Professor of Physics. However, the
university was not so liberal as to allow her to give lectures there; this remained a right
reserved solely for men. Bassi was therefore obliged to conduct her lectures and her
experiments in her home. She conducted physics tutorials and experiments for her
students throughout her academic career, and for over thirty years offered an annual
public lecture on experimental physics.

She also continued her own studies in literature as well as science, but considered only
science as truly valuable, focusing on mechanics, hydraulics, and anatomy. But perhaps
her most enduring achievement is the legacy she left to the women who followed her.
Bassi's scholarship and life-long achievement in both research and teaching made it
easier for other women to obtain university appointments. Most importantly, her
successors were accorded full professorial privileges without restrictions based on
gender.

D In the 18th century, anatomy stood at the vanguard of medical research, and in 1742
Ercole Lelli, a painter and sculptor, became the first person to make a detailed
reconstruction of the human skeleton and muscles in wax. These models were used to
familiarize students with the human body. Lelli was assisted in his work by Giovanni
Manzolini, who later became a professor at the University of Bologna. In tum,

93
 Manzolini was assisted by his wife, Anna Morandi (1716 - 1774), who came to be
considered the finest practitioner of artistic anatomy.

E Morandi did not set out to become an anatomist. Her early education focused on
drawing and sculpting, but she later combined her keen observations and her artistic
talent to produce very faithful reproductions of anatomical systems. When her husband
fell ill and could no longer teach, Morandi was officially charged with delivering his
lectures. After he died in 1760, Morandi was elected to a professorship at the university
and, nine years later, was also named the anatomy department's chief model maker.

F Maria Gaetana Agnesi (1718 - 1799) The daughter of Pietro Agnesi, a professor of
mathematics at the University of Bologna, was both a brilliant linguist and a talented
mathematician. She mastered French by the time she was five years old, and a number
of ancient languages by the age of nine. Later, Agnesi focused her attention on
mathematics. She devoted herself to algebra and geometry in her studies, and compiled
the book that made her famous - Instituzioni Analitiche (Analytical Institutions), which
for the first time provided a synthesis of many different branches of mathematics. The
work became well known because its terminology constituted a basis for subsequent
scientific works, dictionaries, and encyclopedias. The French Academy of Sciences
offered the highest praise it could, noting in a letter that 'if the regulations permitted it,
Mademoiselle Agnesi would be admitted to the Academy'. Agnesi may have been denied
admission to the French Academy, but she was admitted into the Academy of Sciences
in Bologna. Upon her father's death in 1752, Agnesi abandoned mathematics and the
academy to care for the elderly, the poor, and the sick until her death in 1799.

G Maria Dalle Donne (1778 - 1842) Was born into an average family in the small village
of Roncastaldo on the outskirts of Bologna. A peasant girl from such a modest
background would not normally have been encouraged to study, but Dalle Donne was
born with a physical deformity; this may have led her family to think she would never
marry. Under these circumstances, the family might have felt more inclined to educate
the girl. In any event, Dalle Donne's cousin recognized her talents and took charge of
her education. He enlisted the help of Luigi Rodati, a physician, who taught her himself
and later recruited other professors of physics, surgery, and pathology to instruct her. In
1799, Dalle Donne passed her examinations with the highest honors, and became the
first female doctor of medicine.

H Several years later, Dalle Donne became the Director of one of the Departments of
Medicine at the University of Bologna, where she gained a reputation as a stimulating
lecturer. She was emphatic about the need to educate young women in areas of
medicine, and accepted girls into her program without regard for their ability to pay.
Perhaps because of her own modest origins, she assisted talented but financially
deprived girls, bringing some measure of democracy to the education of women.

94
Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 a description of a teaching aid used in the 18th century

15 reference to a promotion arising from the misfortune of a close family member

16 how a handicap may have resulted in a girl being given the opportunity to
study

17 mention of a restriction placed on where a woman could teach

18 reference to an important academic text

Questions 19-22

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

Women's education in 18th-century Europe

During the 18th century, Italy was the only country in Europe to give women the
chance to study at university. The most notable of the institutions which opened their
doors to women was the University of Bologna. Although it was originally intended to
teach the subject of 19 ......................, many of its most famous women students
worked in the field of 20 .......................

Laura Bassi was the first woman teacher at the University of Bologna, and as well as
teaching her students she also at times addressed people outside the university on
the subject of 21 .....................Of all her studies, Bassi gave least importance to the
subject of 22 ......................
95
Questions 23 - 26

Look at the following statements (Questions 23-26) and the list of women scholars
below.

Match each statement with the correct woman scholar, A, B, C, or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C, or D, in boxes 26-29 on your answer sheet.

23 She offered tuition to those who could not afford the normal fee.

24 Her example helped others to obtain a right she did not have herself.

25 She devoted a long period of her life to charitable work.

26 She was put in charge of creating teaching materials.

List of Women Scholars

A A Laura Bassi
B Anna Morandi
C Maria Gaetana Agnesi
D Maria Dalle Donne

96
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

The nature deficit - how children are losing touch with nature
Children's unfamiliarity with the natural world was first highlighted in 2002 by researchers
from Cambridge University who surveyed a cohort of four- to eleven-year-old children in
Britain. They showed the children pictures of common species of British wildlife and also
fantasy creatures from the very popular Pokemon game. Pokemon was originally invented by
Satoshi Tajiri in Japan as a way of giving urban children the opportunity to collect pictures of
insect-like animals. Participants in the study were shown a sample of pictures and asked to
identify the names of the Pokemon creatures and natural species. The results were striking.
Children aged eight and over were substantially better at identifying Pokemon creatures than
natural species.
The researchers published their paper in the journal Science. Their conclusions were
unusually direct and forthright - reflecting the depth of their concern. 'Young children
clearly have tremendous capacity for learning about creatures (whether natural or man-
made), ' they wrote, but they are presently 'more inspired by synthetic subjects than by living
creatures'. They pointed to solid evidence linking loss of knowledge about the natural world
to growing isolation from it. We need, the paper concluded, 'to re-establish children 's links
with nature ifwe are to win over the hearts and minds of the next generation', for 'we love
what we know ... What is the extinction of a magnificent bird of prey such as the condor to a
child who has never seen a tiny wren in their back garden or local park?'

Subsequent research has confirmed the Pokemon paper's broad findings. In their recent Bird
Knowledge study, the Royal Society for the Protection of Birds (RSPB) smartly shifted the
focus, assessing basic knowledge of nature in parents rather than children. Of 2,000
participants, half couldn't identify a house sparrow, a quarter didn't know a blue tit or a
starling, and a fifth thought a red kite wasn't a bird - but nine out of ten said they wanted
children to learn about common British wildlife. Similarly, a survey by The Wildlife Trust
found a third of adults unable to identify a barn owl, three-quarters unable to identify an ash
tree - and two-thirds feeling that they had 'lost touch with nature'.

Most of us are likely to react to the results of these surveys with a mixture of consternation
and insecurity. But it should hardly come as a surprise that awareness of the natural world is
vanishing from children's consciousness, for nature itself is vanishing. The RSPB's most
recent State of Nature report found Britain to be 'among the most nature-depleted countries
in the world', with a 53% drop in numbers of what were once common British species -
among them barn owls, newts, sparrows, and starlings. Despite the growing interest in this
problem, even the names of some of the most common bird and plant species are quickly

97
being forgotten. Where have these lost names gone and does their vanishing matter? If so,
how might we invigorate what anthropologist Beth Povinelli calls 'a literacy of nature ' in
ourselves and our children?
Improving people's literacy of nature will undoubtedly help in the struggle to protect our
vanishing species. As the environmentalist George Monbiot wrote recently, 'words possess a
remarkable power to shape our perceptions.' Without names to give it detail, the natural
world can quickly blur into a generalised wash of green - a disposable backdrop like
wallpaper. But the right names, well used, can act as a key into the world of birds, animals,
trees and insects. Leaming their names can trigger a thirst for further knowledge, greater
respect and a sense of wonder.
Clearly the lack of nature literacy - especially of local nature - is associated with the major
developments that have occurred in countries such as Britain, where children are now more
likely to live in urban environments. Online culture has boomed and screen time has soared.
In Britain, the roaming range (the area within which children are permitted to play
unsupervised) has shrunk by more than 90% in 40 years. Parental anxieties about traffic
growth and the decrease of available green space are among the factors that have limited
wild play and the knowledge it brings. 'The children out in the woods, out in the fields,
enjoying nature on their own - they're extinct, ' says Chris Packham, the presenter of the TV
programme Nature Watch. The attention-grabbing headline of a recent report was that British
children spend less time outdoors than prisoners.
Such headlines disguise a complex picture, though. Access to nature is hugely uneven across
the population, with class, income and ethnicity playing strong determining roles. It's too
easy to blame 'nature deficit', the gap in children's knowledge of the natural world, on the
rise of technology, although that has certainly played its part. Technology is not an inherently
bad thing, as it can provide a wealth of information for urban children who are disconnected
from nature and help to generate further interest.
The RSPB's Connecting with Nature report, based on a three-year research project, sensibly
recognised 'nature deficit' as a complex problem. Dismayingly, it found only one in five
British children to be positively connected to nature. It emphasised 'nature connection ' as
not only a 'conservation ' issue, but also one closely involved with education, physical health,
emotional well-being and future attainment: what's good for nature is also good for the
child.

Nature deficit needs structural and political fixes. Hearteningly, hundreds of organisations
are striving to close the gap between childhood and nature, including working with schools
to get more children regularly learning outdoors. Most of these organisations specifically aim
to help children at risk of social exclusion, or who are otherwise unlikely to reach green
places. There are promising signs presently visible in Britain and beyond.

98
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 The researchers involved in the Pokemon experiment

A were encouraged by how quickly children were able to learn creatures'

names.
B had anticipated that children would be able to identify many of the fantasy
animals.
C felt there was a clear reason why the children recognised so few natural
species.
D were pessimistic about trying to reconnect children with nature.

28 Why does the writer quote the example of a condor and a wren in the second
paragraph?

A to illustrate children's lack of interest in birds

B to give examples of species that are in decline
C to suggest birds that might stimulate an enthusiasm for nature
D to highlight the importance of knowing about local species

29 The writer refers to George Monbiot in order to

A highlight the difficulty of remembering plant and animal names.

B provide support for the idea that names are important.
C explain why some names have disappeared forever.
D argue that people have a genuine desire to name things.

30 What is the writer's attitude to technology and the nature deficit?

A There is no clear connection between technology and a lack of nature

knowledge.
B Technology can have a positive impact on children's relationship with
nature.
C Technology is more important to children in cities than in the countryside.
D There is no point in trying to keep children away from technology.

99
Questions 31-35

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-G, below.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

31 The Pokemon study concluded that

32 The Bird Knowledge study aimed to discover whether

33 The Wildlife Trust's report highlighted the fact that

34 The State of Nature report revealed that

35 The Connecting with Nature report pointed out that

100
Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36 Most people are unconcerned about research findings that show our lack of
contact with nature.

37 The deterioration in children's knowledge of nature is only to be expected.

38 Developing a 'literacy of nature' will make very little difference to people's attitude
to species loss.

39 There is a strong relationship between the decline in people's 'literacy of nature'

and recent social changes in Britain.

40 It is understandable that parents are unwilling to allow their children to spend time
outdoors alone.

101
 TEST 8

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Archaeologists discover evidence of prehistoric island settlers

In early April 2019, Dr Ceri Shipton and his colleagues from Australian National University
became the first archaeologists to explore Obi, one of many tropical islands in Indonesia's
Maluku Utara province. The research team's discoveries suggest that the prehistoric people
who lived on Obi were adept on both land and sea, hunting in the dense rainforest, foraging
on the seashore, and possibly even voyaging between islands.
The excavations were part of a project to learn more about how people first dispersed from
mainland Asia, through the Indonesian archipelago and into the prehistoric continent that
once connected Australia and New Guinea. The team's earlier research suggested that the
northernmost islands in the group, known as the Wallacean islands, including Obi, would
have offered the easiest migration route. It also seemed likely that these islands were crucial
'stepping stones' on humans' island-hopping voyages through this region millennia ago. But
to support this idea, they needed archaeological evidence for humans living in this remote
area in the ancient past. So, they travelled to Obi to look for sites that might reveal evidence
of early occupation.
Just inland from the village of Kelo on Obi's northern coast, Shipton and his colleagues
found two caves containing prehistoric rock shelters that were suitable for excavation. With
the permission and help of the local people of Kelo, they dug a small test excavation in each
shelter. There they found numerous artefacts, including fragments of axes, some dating to
about 14,000 years ago. The earliest axes at Kelo were made using clam shells. Axes made
from clam shells from roughly the same time had also previously been found elsewhere in
this region, including on the nearby island of Gebe to the northeast. As on Gebe, it is highly
likely that Obi's axes were used in the construction of canoes, thus allowing these early
peoples to maintain connections between communities on neighbouring islands.
The oldest cultural layers from the Kelo site provided the team with the earliest record for
human occupation on Obi, dating back around 18,000 years. At this time the climate was
drier and colder than today, and the island's dense rainforests would likely have been much
less impenetrable than they are now. Sea levels were about 120 metres lower, meaning Obi
was a much larger island, encompassing what is today the separate island ofBisa, as well as
several other small islands nearby.

102
Roughly 11,700 years ago, as the most recent ice age ended, the climate became significantly
warmer and wetter, no doubt making Obi's jungle much thicker. According to the
researchers, it is no coincidence that around this time the first axes crafted from stone rather
than sea shells appear, likely in response to their increased, heavy-duty use for clearing and
modification of the increasingly dense rainforest. While stone takes about twice as long to
grind into an axe compared to shell, the harder material keeps its sharp edge for longer.

Judging by the bones which the researchers unearthed in the Kelo caves, people living there
mainly hunted the Rothschild's cuscus, a possum-like creature that still lives on Obi today.
As the forest grew more dense, people probably used axes to clear patches of forest and
make hunting easier.
Shipton's team's excavation of the shelters at the Kelo site unearthed a volcanic glass
substance called obsidian, which must have been brought over from another island, as there
is no known source on Obi. It also revealed particular types of beads, similar to those
previously found on islands in southern Wallacea. These finds again support the idea that
Obi islanders routinely travelled to other islands.
The excavations suggest people successfully lived in the two Kelo shelters for about 10,000
years. But then, about 8,000 years ago, both were abandoned. Did the residents leave Obi
completely, or move elsewhere on the island? Perhaps the jungle had grown so thick that
axes were no longer a match for the dense undergrowth. Perhaps people simply moved to the
coast and turned to fishing rather than hunting as a means of survival.

Whatever the reason for the departure, there is no evidence for use of the Kelo shelters after
this time, until about 1,000 years ago, when they were re-occupied by people who owned
items made out of gold, silver and pottery. It seems likely, in view of Obi's location, that this
final phase of occupation also saw the Kelo shelters used by people involved in the historic
trade in spices between the Maluku islands and the rest of the world.

103
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1 Archaeological research had taken place on the island of Obi before the arrival of
Ceri Shipton and his colleagues.

2 The research team went to the Wallacean islands to try to prove a theory about the
migration of prehistoric people.

3 At the Keio sites, the researchers found the first clam shell axes ever to be
discovered in the region.

4 The size of Obi today is less than it was 18,000 years ago.

5 A change in the climate around 11,700 years ago had a greater impact on Obi
than on the surrounding islands.

6 The researchers believe there is a connection between warmer, wetter weather

and a change in the material used to make axes.

104
Questions 7-13

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Archaeological findings on Obi

Excavations of rock shelters inside 7 ...................... near the village of Keio

revealed:

• Axes from around 14,000 years ago, probably used to make 8 ......................

• Axes made out of 9 ...................... dating from around 11,700 years ago

• 10 ...................... of an animal: evidence of what ancient islanders ate

• Evidence of travel between islands:

• 11 ......................: a material that is not found naturally on Obi

• 12 ...................... which resembled ones found on other islands

Evidence from around 8,000 to 1,000 years ago suggests that Obi
islanders

• May have switched from hunting to fishing

• Used objects made of various materials, including metal and pottery

• Probably took part in the production and sale of 13 ......................

105
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

The global importance of wetlands

A Wetlands are areas where water covers the soil, or is present either at or near the surface
of the soil, for all or part of the year. These are complex ecosystems, rich in unique
plant and animal life. But according to the World Wide Fund for Nature (WWFN), half
of the world's wetlands have disappeared since 1990 - converted or destroyed for
commercial development, drainage schemes, and the extraction of minerals and peat.
Many of those that remain have been damaged by agricultural pesticides and fertilisers,
industrial pollutants, and construction works.

B Throughout history, humans have gathered around wetlands, and their fertile
ecosystems have played an important part in human development. Consequently, they
are of considerable religious, historical, and archaeological value to many communities
around the world. 'Wetlands directly support the livelihoods and well-being of millions
of people, ' says Dr Matthew McCartney, principal researcher and hydrologist at the
International Water Management Institute (IWMI). 'In many developing countries,
large numbers of people are dependent on wetland agriculture for their livelihoods. '

C They also serve a crucial environmental purpose. 'Wetlands are one of the key tools in
mitigating climate change across the planet, ' says Pieter van Eijk, head of Climate
Adaptation at Wetlands International (WI), pointing to their use as buffers that protect
coastal areas from sea-level rise and extreme weather events such as hurricanes and
flooding. Wetland coastal forests provide food and water, as well as shelter from storms,
and WI and other agencies are working to restore those forests which have been lost. 'It
can be as simple as planting a few trees per hectare to create shade and substantially
change a microclimate, 'he says. 'Implementing climate change projects isn't so much
about money. '

D The world's wetlands are, unfortunately, rich sources for in-demand commodities, such
as palm oil and pulpwood. Peatlands - wetlands with a waterlogged organic soil layer -
are particularly targeted. When peatlands are drained for cultivation, they become net
carbon emitters instead of active carbon stores, and, according to Marcel Silvius, head
of Climate-smart Land-use at WI, this practice causes six percent of all global carbon
emissions. The clearance of peatlands for planting also increases the risk of forest fires,
which release huge amounts of CO2. 'We're seeing huge peatland forests with
extremely high biodiversity value being lost for a few decades of oil palm revenues, '
says Silvius.

106
E The damage starts when logging companies arrive to clear the trees. They dig ditches to
enter the peat swamps by boat and then float the logs out the same way. These are then
used to drain water out of the peatlands to allow for the planting of corn, oil palms, or
pulpwood trees. Once the water has drained away, bacteria and fungi break down the
carbon in the peat and tum it into CO2 and methane.

Meanwhile, the remainder of the solid matter in the peat starts to move downwards, in a
process known as subsidence**. Peat comprises 90 per cent water, so this is one of the
most alarming consequences of peatland clearances. 'In the tropics, peat subsides at
about four centimetres a year, so within half a century, very large landscapes on
Sumatra and Borneo will become flooded as the peat drops below water level,' says
Silvius. 'It's a huge catastrophe that's in preparation. Some provinces will lose 40 per
cent of their landmass.'

F And while these industries affect wetlands in ways that can easily be documented, Dr
Dave Tickner of the WWFN believes that more subtle impacts can be even more
devastating. 'Sediment run-off and fertilisers can be pretty invisible,' says Tickner.
'Over-extraction of water is equally invisible. You do get shock stories about rivers
running red, or even catching fire, but there's seldom one big impact that really hurts a
wetland.' Tickner does not blame anyone for deliberate damage, however. 'I've worked
on wetland issues for 20 years and have never met anybody who wanted to damage a
wetland,' he says. 'It isn't something that people generally set out to do. Quite often, the
effects simply come from people trying to make a living.'

G Silvius also acknowledges the importance of income generation. 'It's not that we just
want to restore the biodiversity of wetlands - which we do - but we recognise there's a
need to provide an income for local people.' This approach is supported by IWMI. 'The
idea is that people in a developing country will only protect wetlands if they value and
profit from them,' says McCartney. 'For sustainability, it's essential that local people
are involved in wetland planning and decision making and have clear rights to use
wetlands.'

H The fortunes of wetlands would be improved, Silvius suggests, if more governments

recognised their long-term value. 'Different governments have different attitudes,' he
says, and goes on to explain that some countries place a high priority on restoring
wetlands, while others still deny the issue. McCartney is cautiously optimistic, however.
'Awareness of the importance of wetlands is growing,' he says. 'It's true that wetland
degradation still continues at a rapid pace, but my impression is that things are slowly
changing.'

107
Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 the role of wetlands in preventing natural disasters

15 reference to the need to ensure that inhabitants of wetland regions continue to

benefit from them

16 the proportion of wetlands which have already been lost

17 reference to the idea that people are beginning to appreciate the value of
wetlands

18 mention of the cultural significance of wetlands

Questions 19-22

Complete the sentences below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

19 Peatlands which have been drained begin to release ...................... instead of

storing it.

20 Once peatland areas have been cleared, ...................... are more likely to
occur.

21 Clearing peatland forests to make way for oil palm plantations destroys the
. ...................... of the local environment.

22 Water is drained out of peatlands through the ......................... which are created
by logging companies.

108
Questions 23-26

Look at the following statements (Questions 23-26) and the list of experts below.

Match each statement with the correct experts, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

23 Communities living in wetland regions must be included in discussions about the

future of these areas.

24 Official policies towards wetlands vary from one nation to the next.

25 In a few decades' time, substantial areas of land will have disappeared into the
sea.

26 Many of the practices which damage wetlands are almost impossible to see.

List of People

109
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

The ingenuity gap

In this book introduction, the author explains what he means by
'ingenuity' and discusses the factors that influence the requirement for
and provision of new ideas in today's society.
Ingenuity, as I define it here, consists not only of ideas for new technologies like computers
or drought-resistant crops but, more fundamentally, of ideas for better institutions and social
arrangements, like efficient markets and competent governments.
How much and what kinds of ingenuity a society requires depends on a range of factors,
including the society's goals and the circumstances within which it must achieve those goals
- whether it has a young population or an aging one, an abundance of natural resources or a
scarcity of them, an easy climate or a punishing one, whatever the case may be.
How much and what kinds of ingenuity a society supplies also depend on many factors, such
as the nature of human inventiveness and understanding, the rewards an economy gives to
the producers of useful knowledge, and the strength of political opposition to social and
institutional reforms.
A good supply of the right kinds of ingenuity is essential, but it isn't, of course, enough by
itself. We know that the creation of wealth, for example, depends not only on an adequate
supply of useful ideas but also on the availability of other, more conventional factors of
production, like capital and labor. Similarly, stability and justice usually depend on the
resolution, or at least the containment, of major political struggles over wealth and power.
The past century's countless incremental changes in our societies around the planet, in our
technologies and our interactions with our natural environment, have created a qualitatively
new world.
Because these changes have accumulated slowly, it's often hard for us to recognize how
profound and sweeping they have been. They include far larger and denser human
populations; much higher per capita consumption of natural resources; and far better and
more widely available technologies for the movement of people, materials, and especially
information.

In combination, these changes have sharply increased the density, intensity, and pace of our
interactions with each other; they have greatly increased the burden we place on our natural
environment; and they have helped shift power from national and international institutions to

110
individuals and subgroups, such as political special interests and ethnic factions. The
management of our relationship with the new world requires immense and ever-increasing
amounts of social and technical ingenuity.
When we enhance the performance of any system, from our cars to the planet's network of
financial institutions, we tend to make it more complex. Many of the natural systems critical
to our well-being, like the global climate and the oceans, are extraordinarily complex to
begin with. We often can't predict or manage the behavior of complex systems with much
precision because they are often very sensitive to the smallest of changes and perturbations,
and their behavior can flip from one mode to another suddenly and dramatically. Over the
last 100 years as the human-made and natural systems we depend upon have become more
complex, and as our demands on them have increased, the institutions and technologies we
use to manage them must become more complex too, which further boosts our requirement
for ingenuity.
However, we should not jump to the conclusion that the supply of ingenuity always increases
in lockstep with our ingenuity requirement: while it's true that necessity is often the mother
of invention, we can't always rely on the right kind of ingenuity appearing when and where
we need it. In many cases, the complexity and speed of operation of today's vital economic,
social, and ecological systems exceed the human brain's grasp. Not many of us have more
than a rudimentary grasp of how these systems work. They remain fraught with countless
'unknowns,' which makes it hard to supply the ingenuity we need to solve problems
associated with these systems.
In this book, I explore a wide range of other factors that will limit our ability to supply the
ingenuity required in the coming century. For example, the crush of information in our
everyday lives is shortening our attention span, limiting the time we have to reflect on critical
matters of public policy, and making policy arguments more superficial.
Modem markets and science are an important part of the story of how we supply ingenuity.
Markets are critically important, because they give entrepreneurs an incentive to produce
knowledge. As for science, although it seems to face no theoretical limits, at least in the
foreseeable future, practical constraints often slow its progress. The cost of scientific
research tends to increase as it delves deeper into nature. And science's rate of advance
depends on the characteristics of the natural phenomena it investigates, simply because some
phenomena are intrinsically harder to understand than others, so the production of useful new
knowledge in these areas can be very slow.
Consequently, there is often a critical time lag between the recognition of a problem and the
delivery of sufficient ingenuity, in the form of technologies, to solve that problem. Progress
in the social sciences is especially slow, for reasons we don't yet fully understand; but we
desperately need better social scientific knowledge to build the sophisticated institutions
today's world demands.

111
Questions 27-30

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 The author's definition of ingenuity

28 The type of ingenuity required by a society

29 The creation of wealth

30 The stability of a society

A does not depend on ingenuity alone.

B depends in part on the successful management of certain disputes.

C has often been misunderstood.

D is not limited to the creation of new inventions.

E frequently increases in accordance with the material successes achieved.

F is linked to factors such as the weather.

112
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 21-33 on your answer sheet.

31 What point does the author make about the incremental changes of the last
century?

A Their effect on the environment has been positive.

B They have not affected all parts of the world.
C Their significance may not be noticed.
D They have had less impact than those of previous centuries.

32 According to the author, one effect of the combined changes is that life has
become

A easier.
B faster.
C more interesting.
D more enjoyable.

33 What observation does the author make about complex natural systems?

A They can be greatly affected by minor alterations.

B They cannot be compared to human-made systems.
C Their performance cannot be improved by human intervention.
D Their behaviour is better understood than ever before.

113
Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 34-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

34 Changes in the last 100 years have increased the need for human ingenuity.

35 The amount of ingenuity available is strictly related to the demand which exists for
it.

36 Although ingenuity may be available, it may be inappropriate for the tasks that
need solutions at the time.

37 Few people today truly understand the way the modern world works.

38 Access to more and more information is improving our grasp of current affairs.

39 Future generations will be critical of the way today's governments have conducted
themselves.

40 It is inevitable that some areas of scientific study advance more quickly than
others.

114
 TEST 9

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The introduction of gas and electricity to the US

Until the late 1700s, illumination in US households was limited to candles and whale oil
lamps, but both were inefficient - it would take a hundred candles to create as much light as
a single modem lightbulb - and so expensive as to be beyond the means of most households.
For the middle classes, illumination improved dramatically with the invention, in 1783, of
the Argand lamp (named after its Swiss creator), which had greater intensity and less flicker.
The next step forward was the invention of the oil-based fuel kerosene in 1858, and of
petroleum a year later.

But the big transformation came with gas. Initially, gas was used to light streets - Baltimore
had gas lamps as early as 1816, before Paris or Berlin - but the dirt, odours and volatility of
gas meant it could not be relied on for domestic purposes until the late 1860s. Once some
attempt to deal with these problems had been made, gas swept the nation. Each gas outlet
provided as much light as a dozen candles. By 1895, the average middle-class home was
twenty times better lit than it had been at mid-century. But, even cleaned up and made more
stable, gas remained dirty and dangerous. It emitted unpleasant, potentially lethal fumes that
required special vents to clear the air. Even then, the carbonic acid and smoke that the lamps
produced were harmful to books, curtains, wallpaper and soft furniture, as well as the eyes,
lungs and clothes of the inhabitants.
In 1882, domestic electricity at last became a possibility when Thomas Edison's company
started providing electricity on a commercial basis. By mid-decade, 200 ofNew York City's
grandest households were enjoying the illumination from lightbulbs manufactured by the
company. Only the very wealthiest could afford such an indulgence. It was unsurprising,
therefore, that household electricity was not an immediate hit with everyone.
Outdoors, however, it was another matter. Almost overnight, the US became the most
illuminated country in the world. By the 1890s, Broadway in New York was already being
described as 'the Great White Way' because of its dazzling theatre lights and advertising
signs. People came from all over just to see the lights, which included the world's first
flashing sign, for Manhattan Beach and its hotels. In 1910, Broadway got a sign that was a
wonder of electrical engineering. Rising the equivalent of seven storeys above the rooftop of
the Hotel Normandie and incorporating 20,000 coloured lightbulbs, it offered in intricate
detail the illusion of a 30-second chariot race, complete with cracking whips and flying dust.
115
People were so amazed by it that police had to be assigned to the area to keep pedestrians
and traffic moving.
By 1896, electricity had become such an accepted part of life that people began referring to it
as 'juice'. By 1930, 70 per cent of US households, some 20 million homes, were electrified-
up from ten per cent in 1910, and more than the rest of the world combined at that point in
time. The proportion would have been higher still except that rural electrification took so
long to complete; even by 1946, as little as half of US farms had electricity.
As electricity became more widely available, electrical products began to come onto the
market, starting with the electric sewing machine in 1889. The electric iron appeared in
1893, the electric vacuum cleaner in 1901, the electric washing machine in 1909, and the
electric dishwasher in 1918. By 1917, the US householder could choose between 50 types of
electrical appliances - and eagerly did so. In that year, people spent $175 million on them.
Within a little over a decade, that figure would rise to no less than $2.4 billion a year.
The new and fast-changing market for electrical appliances often gave small companies a
chance to thrive. After a major manufacturing rival turned down the idea of a washing
machine which ran automatically, a small outfit named Bendix, which had no experience of
manufacturing household appliances, took up the idea in 1937 and within a decade had
become one of the US' s biggest manufacturers of appliances. Much the same happened with
a small company called Frigidaire, founded in 1918, which saw an opening for a refrigerator
designed for the home and so successfully seized the opportunity that the name almost
became generic, although it took until 1927 for General Electric to produce the first million-
selling model. However, no product was more successful in this period than the radio. In just
three years, beginning in 1922, over four million were sold, at a typical cost of $55. By 1926,
there was a radio in five per cent of homes, and by the end of that decade, with almost every
household owning at least one, market saturation was practically complete.

116
Questions 1-6

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
1?

In boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

1 In the late 1700s, the majority of families used candles and whale oil lamps
regularly.

2 The light created by the Argand lamp was superior to that of a candle.

3 Gas was unsuitable for use in homes when it was first developed as a source of
light.

4 By 1895, a number of different companies competed to provide domestic gas.

5 Gas lighting was found to damage the contents of the home.

6 The electric lightbulbs manufactured by Edison's company in the 1880s broke

very easily.

117
Questions 7-13
Complete the table below.
Choose ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet.

Year Some key events in US electrification

7 ..................... electricity was supplied to homeowners for the first time.

The sewing machine was the first electrical appliance to

1889-1918
appear in this period, while the 8 .......................was the last.

9 ..................... 10% of US households had an electricity supply.

10 ..................... Consumer spending on electrical appliances totalled $175m.

General Electric produced a million-selling model of a

1927
domestic 11 .....................

Although 70% of all households had electricity by 1930, only

1930-1946 50% of 12 ..................... were electrified by the end of this
period.

1930 There was a 13 ..................... in nearly every home.

118
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Farmers Centenary Celebration

A History of Farmers trading company: In 1909 Robert Laidlaw establishes mail-order

company Laidlaw Leeds in Fort Street, Auckland. Then, Branch expansion: purchase of
Green and Colebrook chain store; further provincial stores in Auckland and Waikato to
follow. Opening of first furniture and boot factory. In 1920, Company now has 29
branches; Whangarei store purchased. Doors open at Hobson Street for direct selling to
the public. The firm establishes London and New York buying offices. With permission
from the Harbour Board, the large FARMERS electric sign on the Wyndham Street
frontage is erected.

B In 1935, if the merchandise has changed, the language of the catalogues hasn't. Robert
Laidlaw, the Scottish immigrant who established the century-old business, might have
been scripting a modem-day television commercial when he told his earliest customers:
Satisfaction, or your money back. "It was the first money back guarantee ever offered in
New Zealand by any firm," says Ian Hunter, business historian. "And his mission
statement was, potentially, only the second one ever found in the world." Laidlaw's
stated aims were simple: to build the greatest business in New Zealand, to simplify
every transaction, to eliminate all delays, to only sell goods it would pay the customer to
buy.

C This year, the company that began as a mail-order business and now employs 3500 staff
across 58 stores turns 100. Its centenary will be celebrated with the release of a book
and major community fundraising projects, to be announced next week. Hunter, who is
writing the centenary history, says, "Coming to a Farmers store once a week was a part
of the New Zealand way of life." By 1960, one in every 10 people had an account with
the company. It was the place where teenage girls shopped for their first bra, where
newlyweds purchased their first dinner sets, where first paycheques were used to pay off
hire purchase furniture, where Santa paraded every Christmas.

D Gary Blumenthal's mother shopped there, and so does he. The fondest memory for the
Rotorua resident? "We were on holiday in Auckland... I decided that up on the lookout
tower on top of the Farmers building would be a unique place to fit the ring on my new
fiancee's finger." The lovebirds, who had to wait for "an annoying youth" to leave the
tower before they could enjoy their engagement kiss, celebrate their 50th wedding
anniversary in June.

119
E Farmers, says Hunter, has always had a heart. This, from a 1953 North & South
interview with a former board chairman, Rawdon Busfield: "One day I was in the
Hobson Street shop and I saw a woman with two small children. They were clean and
tidily dressed, but poor, you could tell. That week we had a special on a big bar of
chocolate for one shilling. I heard the woman say to her boy, 'No, your penny won't buy
that.' He wasn't wearing shoes. So I went up to the boy and said, 'Son, have you got
your penny?' He handed it to me. It was hot; he'd had it in his hand for hours. I took the
penny and gave him the chocolate."

F Farmers was once the home of genteel tearooms, children's playgrounds, and an annual
sale to celebrate the birthday of Hector the Parrot (the store mascot died, aged 131, in
the 1970s; his stuffed remains still occupy pride of place at the company's head office).
You could buy houses from Farmers. Its saddle factory supplied the armed forces, and
its upright grand overstrung Pianos offered "the acme of value" according to those early
catalogues hand-drawn by Robert Laidlaw himself. Walk through a Farmers store today
and get hit by bright lights and big brands. Its Albany branch houses 16 international
cosmetics companies. It buys from approximately 500 suppliers, and about 30% of these
are locally owned.

G "Eight, 10 years ago," says current chief executive Rod McDermott, "lots of brands
wouldn't partner with us. The stores were quite distressed. We were first price point
focused, we weren't fashion focused." Remove the rose-tinted nostalgia, and Farmers is,
quite simply, a business doing business in hard times. Dancing with the Stars presenter
Candy Lane launches a clothing line? "We put a trial on, and we thought it was really
lovely, but the uptake wasn't what we thought it would be. It's got to be what the
customer wants," says McDermott.

H He acknowledges retailers suffer in a recession: "We're celebrating 100 years because

we can and because we should." Farmers almost didn't pull through one economic
crisis. By the mid-1980s, it had stores across the country: It had acquired the South
Island's Calder Mackay chain of stores and bought out Haywrights. Then, with sales
topping $375 million, it was taken over by Chase Corporation. Lincoln Laidlaw, now
aged 88, and the son of the company's founder, remembers the dark days following the
stock market crash and the collapse of Chase. "I think, once, Farmers was like a big
family and all of the people who worked for it felt they were building something which
would ultimately be to their benefit and to the benefit of New Zealand... then the
business was being divided up and so that kind of family situation was dispelled and it
hasn't been recovered." For a turbulent few years, the stores were controlled, first by a
consortium of Australian banks and later Deka, the Maori Development Corporation
and Foodland Associated Ltd. In 2003, it went back to "family" ownership, with the
purchase by the James Pascoe Group, owned by David and Annie Norman, the latter
being the great-granddaughter of James Pascoe, whose first business interest was
jewellery.

120
"Sheer power of the brand," says McDermott, "pulled Farmers through and now we're
becoming the brand it used to be again." Farmers was the company that, during World
War II, topped up the wages of any staff member disadvantaged by overseas service.
Robert Laidlaw, a committed Christian who came to his faith at a 1902 evangelistic
service in Dunedin, concluded his original mission statement with the words, "All at it,
always at it, wins success." Next week, 58 Farmers stores across the country will
announce the local charities they will raise funds for in their centenary celebration.
Everything from guide dog services to hospices to volunteer fire brigades will benefit.
Every dollar raised by the community will be matched by the company. "It's like the
rebirth of an icon," says McDermott.

121
Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-H, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 Generosity offered on an occasion

15 Innovative offer made by the head of the company

16 Fashion was not its strong point

17 A romantic event on the roof of Farmers.

18 Farmers were sold to a privately owned company.

Questions 19-23

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

19 Farmers was first founded as a ..................... in Auckland by Mr. Laidlaw.

20 Farmers developed fast and bought one ....................... then another.

21 During overseas expansion, Farmers set up ..................... in cities such as

London.

22 Farmers held a ..................... once a year for the well-known parrot.

23 In the opinion of Lincoln Laidlaw, Farmers was like a ....................... for

employees, and beneficial not just for the employees themselves but for the
whole country.

122
Questions 24-26

Look at the following statements (Questions 24-26) and the list of experts below.

Match each statement with the correct experts, A-C.

Write the correct letter, A-C, in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

24 Product became worse as the wrong aspect was focused.

25 An unprecedented statement made by Farmers in New Zealand.

26 Character of the company was changed.

List of People

123
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

New Zealand Short Stories

Paula Morris, the editor of a new book of short stories, introduces

her collection
When I was appointed editor of this new collection, my instructions were to choose stories
written by New Zealanders in the last decade. In order to make that selection, I wanted to
read as widely as possible. I would not select authors simply because they were important
names in New Zealand literature. Novelists who occasionally write short stories were not
excluded; however, those who write full-length novels may not always possess the specific
abilities necessary to write short stories, and vice versa. A variety of people - publishers,
editors, academics - alerted me to new names, or reminded me about familiar names that I
associated with other forms of writing. The author may be living overseas, or publishing
elsewhere, or setting his or her work in another country, but none of these were issues I
considered relevant. Neither did it matter whether they were famous or obscure. The only
active New Zealand short-story writer I ruled out of my considerations was myself, as it
would have been incompatible with my role as editor.

I certainly had no wish to separate contemporary stories into those most influenced by iconic
writers of the past, such as Katherine Mansfield, and those following more recent traditions;
such categorizations are simplistic. There was no particular version of New Zealand I wanted
to construct or dismantle. For although we may get glimpses of a society through its short
stories, these cannot set out to give us a panoramic social summary, because such a goal is
beyond their scope.

The stories chosen would reflect the diversity of contemporary New Zealand, I hoped.
However, it quickly became apparent that the quality of the story - that small matter of the
fluency of the writing - was more important to me than the ethnicity, gender, social
background, or regional affiliation of its author. My purpose was not to ensure every group
in this diverse nation was represented in some fair and proportional way, and there are some
absences. Of writers from the Pacific Islands, Samoa is the dominant presence among the
stories selected. This is perhaps unsurprising given the number of Samoans who have settled
in New Zealand over recent decades. However, Samoa's dominance may not endure. The
number of stories I read by authors from all the many different Pacific Islands, both
published and unpublished, indicates that a new wave of talent is about to become prominent
in our national literature.

124
All the writers here speak of New Zealand, I think, in direct and indirect ways, even the ones
who set their work elsewhere. When writing fiction, says the master short-story writer
William Trevor, 'you cannot escape the person you are ... All fiction has its autobiographical
roots.' Trevor was born in Ireland and, therefore, he says: 'I observe the world through Irish
sensibilities, take for granted an Irish way of doing things ... and am reminded of
familiarities of early environment when I'm separated from them.' The stories featured in
this collection are evidence of this truth.

An outsider, after reading these stories, would draw certain conclusions about New Zealand.
They might conclude that Maori, the country's original inhabitants, may live in simple
conditions or in one of the most expensive suburbs; that rather than the clean, green paradise
sometimes presented to tourists from overseas, New Zealand has its fair share of social
issues; that our businesses happily employ arrogant managers and rude consultants; that
dwelling among us are the happily married and the smugly suburban; and that we like sport.
Each of these narratives and many others are presented here.

Of course, a collection like this is partly a product of the taste and enthusiasms of its editor.
At some point, early in my reading, I became conscious of this. A story had to grab me -
move, provoke, excite, entertain or challenge me, stay with me in some way - if it was to be
included. The stories I kept returning to were those that would not go away, would not be
forgotten by me, and in this sense it is a subjective selection.

So, was the past decade a golden age for short fiction in New Zealand? Certainly, it could be
seen as a period of investment and opportunity. For nine years the Prime Minister herself
took on the arts, culture and heritage ministerial portfolio, quickly implementing a cultural
recovery package of tens of millions of dollars. Furthermore, valuable prizes for writers were
created. These included a residency in Berlin, Germany, and also residencies in locations
around New Zealand, such as Randall Cottage in Wellington, allowing writers to leave home
and work in fresh environments. The decade also saw the establishment of various
postgraduate degree courses in creative writing. Victoria University led the way when Bill
Manhire added an MA course to his already popular undergraduate course in creative writing
and this was followed by other institutions.

A number of journals promoting new writing survived, including Landfall, established at the
University ofOtago in 1947. These titles were joined in this period by ventures likeJAAM
and the e-zine Turbine, where many emerging writers get their start. And Radio New
Zealand National, our single largest purchaser of short fiction, continued to buy around
eighty stories a year because they remained very popular with the listening audience. Two of
the writers included in this collection got their start writing for radio. All in all then, there
were many positive developments for writers over the decade.

125
Questions 27-32

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 Writing novels and short stories requires the same range of skills.

28 Publishers, editors and academics provided valuable help in identifying sources of

material.

29 Authors living overseas tend to lose interest in writing about New Zealand.

30 It was important that one particular author's work was excluded from the
collection.

31 Katherine Mansfield's influence on today's authors has been overstated.

32 It is possible to give an overview of an entire society in a short story.

126
Questions 33-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.

33 Paula Morris refers to 'that small matter of the fluency of the writing' to

A demonstrate how language changes over time.

B emphasise her priorities when selecting stories.
C suggest that story-writing is losing popularity.
D illustrate the variety of cultures in New Zealand.

34 What are we told about writers from the Pacific Islands?

A They will be increasingly important in the future.

B Few of their stories were included in this collection.
C Their stories are distinct from those of other writers.
D They have been overlooked too often in the past.

35 Paula Morris refers to William Trevor to illustrate

A why some authors prefer to write in second languages.

B who has had most influence on her own writing style.
C how an author's life experiences affect their writing.
D what is problematic about certain written stories.

36 What is Paula Morris doing in the fifth paragraph?

A explaining which were her favourite stories.

B rejecting a common criticism of modern stories.
C contrasting the content of various different stories.
D comparing her collection with other books of stories.

127
Questions 37 - 40

Complete the summary using the list of phrases, A-G, below.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

Was this a golden decade for writers?

The arts in general benefited from 37 ..................... that resulted in millions of dollars
worth of investment. Another innovation was new 38 ..................... such as the
Randall Cottage initiative. What's more, there was a development in 39
..................... available for writers, with Bill Manhire playing an important role.

Writers were also served by 40 ..................... dating variously from 1947 to more
recent times.

128
 TEST 10

READING PASSAGE 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

The link between low light and mood

As far back as the 6th century, historians were describing seasonal peaks of joy and sorrow
among the Scandinavian countries of Sweden, Norway and Finland. Because these countries
are so far north, there is continuous daylight in summer, and an almost complete absence of it
in winter. Today researchers recognise that a lack of light can cause some people to
experience a range of negative consequences, from low energy to more serious depression.

At Lindeberg School, in southern Sweden, teacher Anna Odder Milstam arrives at work
before dawn for several months of the year. 'During the winter, we just feel so tired,' she
says. Anna teaches a class of 14-year-olds, who are now part of an experiment investigating
whether artificial lighting might possibly aid their concentration. A few years ago, Anna's
classroom was fitted with ceiling lights that change in colour and intensity. The lights were
developed by researchers at a company called BrainLit. The ultimate goal of the experiment
is to create a system designed to suit individual workers by adjusting the lighting already
installed within their offices to optimise physical wellbeing.

BrainLit's artificial lighting system simulates the experience of being outside on a typical
day during spring, rather than any other season so, when Anna's pupils arrive at 8.10am, the
lights are a bluish-white to wake them up. The lights grow gradually more intense through to
lunch time. But then the lights gradually dim and become more yellow as the afternoon
progresses. Bright light in the morning quickly stops further production of melatonin. This is
the hormone naturally released by the human body that plays a vital role in the sleep-wake
cycle. Shutting this off early in the day helps people to feel sleepy at the correct time when
night comes around again.

Already, there's some evidence that the artificial lighting system is affecting the pupils'
sleep. In a study, in order to monitor sleep cycles, 14 pupils from Anna's class and 14 from a
neighbouring class without sleep lighting system were each given a sleep tracking app and
their own diary for making notes. During the second week of the study, significant
differences started to emerge between the two groups; in terms of quality, Anna's pupils
woke up fewer times during the night and slept for longer. As yet, no one has identified
whether the lighting system is affecting the students' scores for exams, but Anna reports that
her students are certainly more focused.

129
While some people report only feelings of tiredness during winter months, other people
experience a more serious condition known as seasonal affective disorder (SAD). This kind
of depression has been treated with the use of bright lamps in Scandinavian countries since
the 1980s. But in Sweden, support for this type of light therapy often went one step further:
dressing patients in all-white clothes and sending them into brightly lit rooms. In recent
years, however, light therapy has experienced something of a backlash in Sweden, and so
now only a handful of clinics remain. In part, this was a response to a study by the Swedish
Council on Technology Assessment in Health Care, which reviewed the evidence and
concluded that 'although controlled studies in light therapy rooms is well established in
Sweden, no satisfactory, controlled studies for SAD have been published on the subject,
meaning that the value of light therapy for SAD 'can be neither confirmed nor dismissed'.

A town called RJukan in Norway has taken a different approach to dealing with winter
darkness. In the 1913, the concept of erecting large rotatable mirrors on the northern side of
the valley overlooking RJukan was proposed to collect sunlight and reflect it down over the
town below. However, it wasn't until 2002 that resident Martin Andersen started to develop
some concrete plans. These involved a mirror mounted in such a way that it would tum to
keep track of the sun while continually reflecting its light down towards the town square.
Now three enormous mirrors stand on the mountainside above RJukan. In January, the sun is
only high enough for the mirrors to bring light to the square for a couple of hours per day,
from midday until 2pm, but the beam produced by the mirrors is strong. Interestingly, Martin
Andersen admits that he was used to the lack of sunlight even before this innovation, and he
believes that other residents were too.

This is certainly the case in another Norwegian settlement: Troms0. It is 400 km north of the
Arctic Circle and the sun doesn't rise above the horizon between 21 November and 21
January. Yet strangely studies have found no difference between rates of anxiety and
depression in the population in winter and summer months. One suggestion is that the
apparent resistance to winter depression is genetic. However, an alternative explanation is
culture, meaning some people are just more willing to adapt. Recently, a psychologist called
Kari Leibowitz spent ten months in Troms0 trying to discover how people cope during
winter. She devised a 'winter mindset questionnaire' to assess people's attitudes towards
winter, focusing on life satisfaction and a sense of personal growth.

130
Questions 1-6

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

Experiment with artificial light at Lindeborg school

Aims of the experiment

• to find out if students' 1........................ can be improved

• in the long term, to adapt lighting in 2 ..................... so that employees feel

better

Details about the artificial lighting system

• the artificial lights are designed to reproduce the natural daytime light of
3.........................in Sweden

• the lights turn a shade of 4 ..................... towards the end of a school day

• the brightness of the lights in the morning helps regulate the amount of
5 .......................the body makes

Students who are involved in the experiment

• students in two different classes used technology as well as a diary to record

the amount of sleep they got

• the quality of sleep amongst students in Anna's class improved and they
woke up later

• the influence of the lighting system on performance during 6........................ is

unknown

131
Questions 7-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1?

In boxes 7-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

7 Sweden was the first Scandinavian country to use light therapy.

8 Light therapy continues to enjoy great popularity in Sweden.

9 The Swedish Council on Technology Assessment in Health Care has found proof
that light therapy is effective.

1O Martin Andersen based his mirror design on an earlier idea.

11 Martin Andersen's mirrors can provide a full day of light during January.

12 In Troms0, people experience some similar moods during both summer and
winter.

13 Culture is more likely than genetics to help people cope with winter in Troms0.

132
READING PASSAGE 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based on
Reading Passage 2 below.

Bird Migration

A Birds have many unique design features that enable them to perform such amazing feats
of endurance. They are equipped with lightweight, hollow bones, intricately designed
feathers providing both lift and thrust for rapid flight, navigation systems superior to
any that man has developed, and an ingenious heat conserving design that, among other
things, concentrates all blood circulation beneath layers of warm, waterproof plumage,
leaving them fit to face life in the harshest of climates. Their respiratory systems have to
perform efficiently during sustained flights at altitude, so they have a system of
extracting oxygen from their lungs that far exceeds that of any other animal. During the
later stages of the summer breeding season, when food is plentiful, their bodies can
accumulate considerable layers of fat, to provide sufficient energy for their long
migratory flights.

B The fundamental reason that birds migrate is to find adequate food during the winter
months when it is in short supply. This particularly applies to birds that breed in the
temperate and Arctic regions of the Northern Hemisphere, where food is abundant
during the short growing season. Many species can tolerate cold temperatures if food is
plentiful, but when food is not available, they must migrate. However, intriguing
questions remain.

C One puzzling fact is that many birds journey much further than would be necessary just
to find food and good weather. Nobody knows, for instance, why British swallows,
which could presumably survive equally well if they spent the winter in equatorial
Africa, instead of flying several thousands of miles further to their preferred winter
home in South Africa's Cape Province. Another mystery involves the huge migrations
performed by arctic terns and mudflat-feeding shorebirds that breed close to the Polar
Regions. In general, the further north a migrant species breeds, the further south it
spends the winter. For arctic terns, this necessitates an annual round trip of 25,000
miles. Yet, en route to their final destination in far-flung southern latitudes, all these
individuals overfly other areas of seemingly suitable habitat spanning two hemispheres.
While we may not fully understand birds' reasons for going to particular places, we can
marvel at their feats.

D One of the greatest mysteries is how young birds know how to find the traditional
wintering areas without parental guidance. Very few adults migrate with juveniles in
tow, and youngsters may even have little or no inkling of their parents' appearance. A
familiar example is that of the cuckoo, which lays its eggs in another species' nest and
never reencounters its young. It is mind-boggling to consider that, once raised by its
133
 host species, the young cuckoo makes its way to ancestral wintering grounds in the
tropics before returning single-handedly to northern Europe the next season to seek out
a mate among its kind. The obvious implication is that it inherits from its parents an
inbuilt route map and direction-finding capability, as well as a mental image of what
another cuckoo looks like. Yet nobody has the slightest idea as to how this is possible.

E Mounting evidence has confirmed that birds use the positions of the sun and stars to
obtain compass directions. They also seem to be able to detect the earth's magnetic field,
probably due to having minute crystals of magnetite in the region of their brains.
However, accurate navigation also requires an awareness of position and time,
especially when lost. Experiments have shown that after being taken thousands of miles
over an unfamiliar land mass, birds are still capable of returning rapidly to nest sites.
Such phenomenal powers are the product of computing several sophisticated cues,
including an inborn map of the night sky and the pull of the earth's magnetic field. How
the birds use their 'instruments' remains unknown, but one thing is clear: they see the
world with a superior sensory perception to ours. Most small birds migrate at night and
take their direction from the position of the setting sun. However, as well as seeing the
sun go down, they also seem to see the plane of polarized light caused by it, which
calibrates their compass. Traveling at night provides other benefits. Daytime predators
are avoided and the danger of dehydration due to flying for long periods in warm, sunlit
skies is reduced. Furthermore, at night the air is generally cool and less turbulent and so
conducive to sustained, stable flight.

F Nevertheless, all journeys involve considerable risk, and part of the skill in arriving
safely is setting off at the right time. This means accurate weather forecasting and
utilizing favorable winds. Birds are adept at both, and, in laboratory tests, some have
been shown to detect the minute difference in barometric pressure between the floor and
ceiling of a room. Often birds react to weather changes before there is any visible sign
of them. Lapwings, which feed on grassland, flee west from the Netherlands to the
British Isles, France, and Spain at the onset of a cold snap. When the ground surface
freezes, the birds could starve. Yet they return to Holland ahead of a thaw, their arrival
linked to a pressure change presaging an improvement in the weather.

G In one instance a Welsh Manx shearwater carried to America and released was back in
its burrow on Skokholm Island, off the Pembrokeshire coast, one day before a letter
announcing its release! Conversely, each autumn a small number of North American
birds are blown across the Atlantic by fast-moving westerly tailwinds. Not only do they
arrive safely in Europe, but, based on ringing evidence, some make it back to North
America the following spring, after probably spending the winter with European
migrants in sunny African climes.

134
Questions 14-20

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-30 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

The best moment to migrate

ii The unexplained rejection of closer feeding ground

iii The influence of weather on the migration route

iv Physical characteristics that allow birds to migrate

v The main reason why birds migrate

vi The best wintering grounds for birds

vii Research findings on how birds migrate

viii Successful migration despite the problem of wind

ix The contrast between long-distance migration and short-distance

migration

x Mysterious migration despite lack of teaching

14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
17 Paragraph D
18 Paragraph E
19 Paragraph F
20 Paragraph G

135
Questions 21 and 22

Choose TWO letters, A-E.

Write the correct letter in boxes 21 and 22 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO of the following statements are true about bird migration?

A Birds often fly further than they need to

B Birds traveling in family groups are safe.
C Birds flying at night need less water.
D Birds have much sharper eyesight than humans.
E Only shorebirds are resistant to strong winds.

Questions 23-26

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

23 It is a great mystery that young birds like cuckoos can find their wintering
grounds without ...................... assistance.

24 Evidence shows birds can tell ..................... like a compass by observing the
sun and the stars.

25 One advantage for birds flying at night is that they can avoid contact with

26 Laboratory tests show that birds can detect weather without .....................
signs.

136
READING PASSAGE 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

Vitamins
If there's one thing about nutrition we think we know for sure, it's that vitamins are good for
us. In reality, however, most of us know nearly nothing about vitamins. And our faith in
vitamin supplements or pills, combined with our current beliefs about nutrition and health, is
doing us harm.

Discovered barely a century ago, vitamins were a revolutionary breakthrough in nutritional

science, providing cures and ways of preventing some of the world's most terrifying
diseases. But it wasn't long before vitamins moved from the labs of scientists to become
supplements that could be added to food or taken independently. By the end of World War
Two, vitamins were available in forms not found in nature - vitamin-fortified peanut butter,
vitamin gum, even vitamin doughnuts. Vitamins had entered the scientific mainstream, yet
far from expressing perfectly reasonable scepticism over these products, the public asked for
more. This is a process that has continued ever since.

In the 21st century, we're such believers in vitamins' inherent goodness that we don't really
realise to which scientists still don't truly comprehend how vitamins work in our bodies, or
how much of each vitamin we require. We're not aware that vitamins (and our enthusiasm
for them) are what opened the door for the array of supposed wonder nutrients that intrigue
and confuse us today, whether they be probiotics or antioxidants or omega-3s.

We don't notice the ways the food marketers and dietary supplement makers use synthetic
vitamins to add an appearance of health to otherwise unhealthy products; nor do we
acknowledge the extent to which we use vitamins and these other vitamin-inspired nutrients
to give ourselves permission to overeat foods of all kinds. And we certainly don't recognise
that by believing in the idea that isolated dietary chemicals hold the keys to good health, our
obsession with vitamins is making us less healthy.

One assumption about vitamins is definitely true: we do indeed need them. The 13 dietary
chemicals that we call vitamins affect each one of us every minute of every day, helping us
to think and speak and move our muscles, extract calories from what we eat, even see the
words on this page. Deficiencies in these vitamins cause serious illnesses and even death -
something that still occurs around the world today - and when administered soon enough,
vitamins can be astoundingly powerful; give vitamin A to a girl suffering from the vitamin A
deficiency condition of night blindness, and she can recover full vision within days. Our need
for them is no more avoidable than our need for air.

137
But the very power of vitamins makes them a double-edged sword. Their ability to save lives
has promoted the idea that they can do the impossible in all of us, regardless of whether
we're actually deficient in them. This has led to beliefs in vitamins that are based more on
faith than fact. When we seek out vitamins today, it's not because we're worried about night
blindness, or pellagra (a disease caused by a lack of vitamin B3), or beriberi (a disease
caused by a vitamin B1 deficiency), or any of the other conditions that vitamins can actually
prevent and cure. Instead, we use vitamins as insurance policies against whatever else we
might (or might not) be eating, as if by making up for our bad eating habits, vitamins can
save us from ourselves. We think that vitamins will help us live longer and stay healthier,
even prevent or reverse disease. It is now generally accepted that vitamins will help give us
an advantage over other competitors at sporting events. Many people choose to take more
vitamins as they don't want to rely on conventional treatment by doctors. Perhaps that's why
when we hear the word 'vitamin', we immediately think of pills, turning substances found
naturally in foods into something we just eat, but take. Yet, while we all have access to
information and research about the side effects of pills, and it seems unlikely that any one
drug could possibly fix all our issues, we assume that vitamins are both cures and entirely
risk-free.

In a way, our attraction to vitamins, like our general obsession with nutrition, is perfectly
logical: our well-being is affected by what we eat, and no one wants to be sick. But that
doesn't explain how the term 'vitamin', a word coined by Polish biochemist Casimir Funk
before any vitamin had even been chemically identified, has come to be synonymous with
health. Isn't it odd, for example, that cyanocobalamin and alpha-tocopherol sound
intimidating, while vitamins B12 and E - which are names for the same substances - seem
good? Isn't it strange that we worry about hydrogenated oils, high fructose com syrup,
artificial sweeteners, and genetically-modified food, but allow synthetic vitamins to be added
to nearly anything without question - and then use the presence of those vitamins to define
the food as healthy?

138
Questions 27-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.
Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 The author mentions that vitamins were discovered 'barely a century ago' in
order to

A show how important timing is in scientific discoveries.

B suggest that scientists started researching them then.
C illustrate how quickly awareness of them has become widespread.
D suggest that we are healthier now than in the past.

28 What does the writer imply about the food marketing and dietary supplement
industries in the fourth paragraph?

A They mislead the public into buying unhealthy food.

B They were the driving forces behind scientific progress.
C They believe that vitamins improve food quality.
D They are currently working to discover new vitamins.

29 Why does the writer refer to vitamin A in the fifth paragraph?

A to correct a common misunderstanding about vitamins

B to question why some people are reluctant to take vitamins
C to exemplify that vitamins are a necessity for human health
D to illustrate that some vitamins are less important than others

30 What is the writer doing in the last paragraph?

A questioning the history of vitamin development

B outlining the chemical make-up of some vitamin supplements
C explaining why vitamin supplements can be difficult to manufacture
D illustrating how we view vitamins differently to other substances

139
Questions 31-35

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

31 At the end of World War Two, the public should have questioned the practices of
food manufacturers.

32 Scientists in the 21st century have a thorough understanding of the function of

vitamins.

33 Omega-3s are more important to a healthy diet than some vitamins.

34 The presence of vitamins in food encourages people to consume too much of it.

35 Vitamins are more effective at treating pellagra than beriberi.

140
Questions 37-40

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-G, below.

Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet.

Vitamins: Why they are necessary and some common beliefs

about them

People need vitamins because they are essential for a range of 36 ......................
Not having enough vitamins can cause suffering and disease.

However, people overestimate the power of vitamins. They believe these

substances can result in 37 ......................... for everyone - even people who are not
lacking in vitamins. Many people believe that vitamins can stop them from getting
sick or even prolong their lives. Many people also believe that vitamins can lead to
38 ..................... in physical activities. It is now common for people to think of
vitamins as 39 ...................... People often fail to take into account 40 .....................
surrounding health and nutrition, and put all their trust in the power of vitamins to
solve their problems.

141
 TEST 1

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 governess 21 C
2 diary 22 D
3 artists 23 G
4 museums 24 electronic
5 ambition 25 business
6 mycology 26 government
7 FALSE
Reading Passage 3,
8 NOT GIVEN
Questions 27-40
9 TRUE
10 FALSE 27 D
11 TRUE 28 C
12 FALSE 29 G
13 NOT GIVEN 30 A
31 B
Reading Passage 2,
32 speed
Questions 14-26
33 acceleration
14 IV 34 freshwater pike
15 VII 35 butterfly fishes
16 VI 36 turbulent
17 I 37 up-and-down
18 V 38 sideways
19 II 39 manoeuvrability
20 F 40 form

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

1
 TEST 2

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 F 21 D
2 T 22 D
3 NG 23 A
4T 24 sticking
ST 25 dimensions
6 NG 26 structure
7 pit
Reading Passage 3,
8 thatch
Questions 27-40
9 tiring house
10 musicians 27 NO
11 sprinklers 28 YES
12 half 29 NG
13 covered 30 YES
31 NG
Reading Passage 2,
32 NO
Questions 14-26
33 YES
14 D 34 A
15 F 35 C
16 A 36 B
17 C 37 D
18 F 38 G
19 C 39 B
20 A 40 A

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

2
 TEST 3

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 TRUE 21 D
2 TRUE 22 C
3 NG 23 C
4 FALSE 24 photographs
5 NG 25 40 years
6 FALSE 26 weather systems/ giant planets
7 TRUE
Reading Passage 3,
8 sawmill
Questions 27-40
9 hammer
10 secret 27 B
11 profits 28 D
12 leather 29 C
13 climate 30 C
31 NG
Reading Passage 2,
32 NO
Questions 14-26
33 YES
14 Ill 34 NG
15 IV 35 YES
16 VII 36 B
17 VIII 37 E
18 I 38 D
19 VI 39 C
20 C 40 I

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

3
 TEST 4

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 TRUE 21 F
2 FALSE 22 D
3 NOT GIVEN 23 E
4 FALSE 24 military
5 cushion 25 chaos
6 rounded hood 26 ship
7 lower back
Reading Passage 3,
8 20 minutes
Questions 27-40
9 meditation room
10 music 27 NG
11 traffic signal 28 YES
12 co-workers 29 NNO
13 positive outcomes 30 NO
31 YES
Reading Passage 2,
32 C
Questions 14-26
33 B
14 IV 34 A
15 VII 35 E
16 V 36 A
17 IX 37 I
18 VIII 38 B
19 Ill 39 G
20 I 40 F

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

4
 TEST 5

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 eastern 21 C
2 shells 22 E
3 fertilizer/ fertiliser 23 B
4 construction 24 performance
5 dams 25 intensity
6 butterflies 26 libraries
7 mainland
Reading Passage 3,
8 F
Questions 27-40
9 F
10 T 27 D
11 NG 28 F
12 T 29 E
13 NG 30 A
31 C
Reading Passage 2,
32 incubation
Questions 14-26
33 task
14 F 34 posters
15 E 35 TRUE
16 D 36 NG
17 A 37 FALSE
18 B 38 NG
19 A 39 NG
20 D 40 TRUE

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

5
 TEST 6

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 TRUE 21 B
2 FALSE 22 A
3 NOT GIVEN 23 mistakes
4 FALSE 24 comments
5 NOT GIVEN 25 names
6 TRUE 26 pause
7 drought
Reading Passage 3,
8 city
Questions 27-40
9 fishing
10 minerals 27 NO
11 mountainous 28 YES
12 settlements 29 NG
13 spring 30 YES
31 C
Reading Passage 2,
32 A
Questions 14-26
33 C
14 II 34 D
15 VII 35 F
16 IV 36 G
17 I 37 A
18 VI 38 H
19 VIII 39 C
20 C 40 B

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

6
 TEST 7

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 TRUE 21 experimental physics
2 FALSE 22 literature
3 FALSE 23 D
4 TRUE 24 A
5 TRUE 25 C
6 FALSE 26 B
7 metals
Reading Passage 3,
8 rivers
Questions 27-40
9 priests
10 discs 27 C
11 clothes 28 D
12 animals 29 B
13 goblets 30 B
31 G
Reading Passage 2,
32 D
Questions 14-26
33 F
14 D 34 B
15 E 35 C
16 G 36 NO
17 C 37 YES
18 F 38 NO
19 law 39 YES
20 science 40 YES

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

7
 TEST 8

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 FALSE 21 biodiversity
2 TRUE 22 ditches
3 FALSE 23 A
4 TRUE 24 C
5 NG 25 C
6 TRUE 26 D
7 caves
Reading Passage 3,
8 canoes
Questions 27-40
9 stone
10 bones 27 D
11 obsidian 28 F
12 beads 29 A
13 spices 30 B
31 C
Reading Passage 2,
32 B
Questions 14-26
33 A
14 C 34 YES
15 G 35 NO
16 A 36 YES
17 H 37 YES
18 B 38 NO
19 carbon 39 NG
20 fires 40 YES

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

8
 TEST 9

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 YES 21 buying offices
2 YES 22 sale
3 YES 23 big family
4 NOT GIVEN 24 B
5 YES 25 C
6 NOT GIVEN 26 A
7 1882
Reading Passage 3,
8 dishwasher
Questions 27-40
9 1910
10 1917 27 NO
11 refrigerator 28 YES
12 farms 29 NOT GIVEN
13 radio 30 YES
31 YES
Reading Passage 2,
32 NO
Questions 14-26
33 B
14 E 34 A
15 B 35 C
16 G 36 C
17 D 37 D
18 H 38 A
19 mail-order company 39 F
20 chain store 40 G

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

9
 TEST 10

READING

Reading Passage 1,
Questions 1-13
1 concentration 21 A
2 offices 22 C
3 spring 23 parental
4 yellow 24 direction
5 melatonin 25 predators
6 exams 26 visible
7 NOT GIVEN
Reading Passage 3,
8 FALSE
Questions 27-40
9 FALSE
10 TRUE 27 C
11 FALSE 28 A
12 TRUE 29 C
13 NOT GIVEN 30 D
31 YES
Reading Passage 2,
32 NO
Questions 14-26
33 NG
14 IV 34 YES
15 V 35 NG
16 II 36 G
17 X 37 E
18 VII 38 C
19 I 39 A
20 VIII 40 D

If you score ...

1-17 18-26 27-40

you are highly unlikely to get you may get an acceptable you are likely to get an
an acceptable score under score under examination acceptable score under
examination conditions and we conditions but we recommend examination conditions but
recommend that you spend a that you think about having remember that different
lot of time improving your more practice or lessons institutions will find different
English before you take IELTS before you take IELTS scores acceptable

10