SEROMA CHRISTIAN HIGH SCHOOL

S.3 MATHEMATICS
E.O.T 2020

2 HOURS 30 MINUTES

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Answer all the questions in Section A and any Five from Section B.
All necessary working must be shown clearly.

SECTION A:(40 MARKS)

Attempt all questions in this section

1. Find the LCM and HCF of 42, 48 and 54.

2. Solve the equation: 9 a 1  33  243
(2a  b) 2
3. Given that a  b 
ba
Evaluate (3  6)  4
4. The Venn diagram below shows two sets A and B

Given that ( ) , find the value of x and a.

5. Given that 113k = 231four find the value of K.
6. Solve the simultaneous equations
2x  3y  7  0
x  4y  2  0

st
7. Make s a subject of the formula w  3
s

8. The table below shows the age of pupils in a certain class.

 Age (years) 11 12 8
No. of pupils A 10 a
If the mean age of the pupils is 10, find the value of a.
9. A stretch of land on a map of scale 1:15,000 has an area of
300cm2. Determine the actual area of the land in km 2.

10. The diagram below shows a right angled triangle with an

acute angle Ө.
24cm

x 7cm
Ө
Find the value of

i.
ii.
SECTION B (60 MARKS)
Answer any five questions in this section.
5x  7
f ( x) 
11. Given that 3x  2
a) Find the value of:
i. f (0)
5
ii. k if f (k ) 
2
b) Determine:
i. f 1 ( x)
ii. The value of x for which f 1 ( x) is meaningless.

12. a)Evaluate without using tables or calculator

2log6 + 2log5 – 2log3
b) Given that log2 = 0.3010 and log3 = 0.4771, evaluate without using
tables or calculators log0.6
c) Use logarithm tables to evaluate
3
18.95  4.2
13. The table shows the heights of seedlings in centimeters in a
nursery bed.
Height(cm) 10-19 20-29 30-39 40-49 50-59 60-69
Cumulative 5 12 27 39 47 50
Frequency

a) Draw an ogive and use it to estimate the median height of

the seedlings (10 marks)
b) Calculate the Mean height (2 marks)

14. In a certain school there are 50 students who play three

games, namely Chess, Tennis and Volleyball, 24 play Chess, 26
play Tennis and 29 play Volleyball, 9 play both chess and
volleyball, while 13 play both tennis and volleyball, 11 play both
Chess and Tennis. Each of these students play at least one of the
three games.
(a) Represent the above information on a Venn diagram.

(b) Find;

(i) How many students play all three games?

(ii) The number of students who play only one game.

(iii) The probability that a student selected at random plays only

tennis.

(iv) The probability that a student selected at random plays only

two of the games.

15. Using a ruler, pencil and a pair of compass only construct a

quadrilateral PQRS such that PQ = 5cm, QR = 7cm, angle SPQ =
angle PQR = 900and angle QRS = 600.
b) Construct a circle circumscribing triangle SQR. Hence measure
i. length RS and PS
ii. the angle PSR
iii. the distance from the center D of the circle to R.
c) Calculate the area of the circle. (12 marks)
  12
(a) Given that tan  
0 0
16. lies between 0 and 180 . Find
5
without using tables or calculators the values of sin  and cos .
(04 marks)
(b) Find the length marked b in the figure below. (04 marks)
B

690
5cm 6 cm

A C
b

(C) A woman 1.8m tall standing 4.5cm from a building, observes

0
that the angle of elevation of the top of the building is 75 . find the
height of the building from the ground. (04 marks)

17. Find the inequalities represented by the unshaded region

below.
y

-1 0 3 x

-4

END
Name……………………………………………………………………Stream………

Signature…………………………………………………

553/1
S3 BIOLOGY
(Theory)
Paper 1
December, 2020
2 ½ Hours
SEROMA CHRISTIAN HIGH SCHOOL EXAMINATIONS
Uganda certificate of education
S3 BIOLOGY
(THEORY)
Paper 1
2 hours 30 minutes

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
This paper consists of sections A, B and C.
Answer all questions in sections A and B, plus two questions in section C.
Write the answers to section A in the answer grid provided, answers to section B in
the spaces provided, and answers to section C on the answer sheets provided.

ANSWER GRID FOR SECTION A For examiner’s use only

Section Marks
1 7 13 19 25
A
2 8 14 20 26 B: No.31
3 9 15 21 27 No.32

4 10 16 22 28 No.33
C
5 11 17 23 29

6 12 18 24 30 Total
1. What mode of nutrition is used by Rhizopus?
A. Heterotrophic

B. Autotrophic

C. Parasitism.

D. Saprophytism

2. The saprophytic and holozoic modes of feeding are similar because both
A. do not feed on cellulose.
B. do not require chloroplasts.
C. utilize enzymes to break down complex food substances.
D. feed only on dead organic matter.

3. The mode of feeding displayed by a mucor is described as

A. holozoic.

B. filter feeding.

C. parasitic.

D. saprophytic.

4. The similarity in feeding between an amoeba and the fungus mucor is that both
A. feed on dead organic matter only.

B. ingest undigested food materials.

C. digest their food within vacuoles.

D. secrete enzymes onto food materials from their cytoplasm.

5. Which one of the following organisms is not a heterotroph?

A. Mushroom
B. Alga
C. Tick
D. Grass hopper
6. Enzymes differ from catalysts because enzymes
A. are required in small amounts.
B. respond to temperature changes.
C. are protein in nature.
D. speed up reasons.
7. What would happen to an enzyme if the temperature of its medium was increased
to above 50°C? The enzyme would be
A. killed
B. activated
C. denatured
D. inactivated.
8. Which one of die following pairs of organs is important in the digestion of fats?
A. Stomach and liver.
B. Pancreas and stomach.
C. Liver and pancreas.
D. Stomach and mouth.

9. Which one of the following is the mode of feeding of a mould?

A. Holozoic
B. Saprophytic
C. Autotrophic
D. Parasitic
10. Which one of the following organisms carries out intracellular digestion?
A. Fungi
B. Algae
C. Amoeba
D. Hookworm

11. Which one of the following compounds is a constituent of enzymes?

A. Lipids
B. Polysaccharides.
C. Protein.
D. Vitamins.
12. Which one of the following is correct about nutrition in a Rhizopus?
A. Digestion of food occurs outside the organism.
B. It makes its own food.
C. Digestion of food is intracellular.
D. It does not produce enzymes.

13. The following are body secretions:

(i) Amylase,
 (ii) Trypsin,

(iii) Hydrochloric acid,

(iv) Pepsin,

(v) Rennin.

Which of them are contained in gastric juice?

A. (i) and (iii)

B. (ii) and (iv)

C. (iii) and (v)

D. (i) and (ii)

14. Which one of me following secretions does not play a digestive role in me
alimentary canal?
A. Pepsin
A. Rennin
B. Trypsin
C. Lipase

15. The role of rennin in children during digestion is

A. breaking down milk protein into peptides.
B. mixing the milk protein with digestive enzyme.
C. activating pepsin to digest the milk protein.
D. coagulating milk protein.

16. Which of the following reasons supports natural feeding of baby on mother's milk?
Mother's milk is

(i) easy to digest.

(ii) made up mainly of carbohydrates.

(iii) contains correct antibodies.

 (iv) fosters relationship between mother and baby.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (ii) and (iii)

C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)

D. (i), (iii) and (iv)

17. Enzymes are said to be specific in nature because they

A. are proteins.
B. act in a particular pH medium,
C. act on one kind of substrate.
D. remain unchanged at the end of the reaction.

18. Which one of the following diets would be recommended for an overweight
person?
A. Low carbohydrate, high protein, low fat.
B. High carbohydrate, low protein, low fat.
C. High carbohydrate, high protein, low fat.
D. Low carbohydrate, low protein high fat.

19. Which one of the following is a monosaccharide?

A. Maltose.
B. Sucrose.
C. Galactose.
D. Lactose.
20. Which one of the following enzymes acts in the duodenum and ileum?
A. Lipase
B. Maltase
C. Peptidase
D. Sucrase
21. Which one of the following monosaccharides is a common component of sucrose,
starch and glycogen?
A. Fructose
B. Galactose
C. Glucose
D. Mannose
22. Which of the following are end products from digestion of cane sugar?
A. Sucrose and maltose
B. Glucose and fructose
C. Maltose and galactose
D. Fructose and galactose
23. Which of the following are the end products of the digestion one cane sugar?
A. Glucose and fructose
B. Glycerol and fructose
C. Fructose and galactose
D. Galactose and glucose

24. What are the products of the hydrolysis of lactose?

A. Galactose and fructose.
B. Glucose and galactose.
C. Glucose only.
D. Glucose and fructose.

25. Which one of the following digestive processes is catalysed by salivary amylase?
A. Maltose to glucose.

B. Sucrose to glucose and fructose.

C. Starch to maltose.

D. Lactose to galactose and glucose.

26. Which of the following monosaccharides make up sucrose?

A. Galactose and fructose.

B. Galactose and glucose.

C. Fructose and glucose.

D. two glucose molecules.

27. Which one of the following pairs of nutrients consists of disaccharides only?
A. Glucose and galactose.
B. Maltose and lactose.
C. Fructose and sucrose.
D. Sucrose and glucose
 28. What are the products of digestion of lactose sugar?
A. Glucose only
B; Glucose and galactose
C. Fructose and galactose.
29. One of the major functions of vitamin C in the human body is
A. To provide body resistance against diseases.
B. To provide resistance against blood cells.
C. To add bulk to food eaten.
D. To increase the rate of heartbeat.

30. Which one of the following dental formulae is that of a sheep?

A. I 0/2 C0/0 Pm 3/3 M3/3
B. I 2/2 Pm 2/2 M 3/3
C. I 3/3 C 0/0 Pm 3/3 M 2/2
D. I 2/2 C 1/1 Pm2/2 M 3/3

SECTION B
Answer all questions
31. The table below shows the composition of blood of three adult individual one lives at
a high altitude, another is anaemic and the other has an infection. It also shows the
average number of each blood component in adult human. Study the information
in the table and answer the question that follow:
Components of blood Person A Person B Person C Average
number in
adult
human
Red blood cells per mm 3
7,500,000 5,000,000 2,000,000 5,000,000
White blood cells per mm 3
6,000 8,000 12,000 5,000-10,000
Blood platelets per mm 3
250,000 255,000 100,000 250,000

a) Giving a reason, suggest the person,

(i) who lives at high altitudes. (03mks)
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(ii) who is anaemic (02 marks)
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(iii) who has an infection (03 marks)
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................

32. To investigate the effect of carbon dioxide on photosynthesis, a green plant was de-
starched by leaving it in darkness for 24 hours. After de-starching leaf A was put in
a conical flask as shown in figure 2 while leaf B was immediately tested for starch.
The set up was then left in light for 12 hours after which leaves A and C were tested
for starch.

(a) Why was sodium hydroxide used in the experiment? (01mark)

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(b) State two reasons why when the plant was placed in darkness for 24 hours
it became destarched. (02marks)
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(c) State the purpose of including each of leaves B and C in the experiment.
(02marks)
(i) Leaf B
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(ii) Leaf C
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(d) What was observed when each of leaves A, B and C were tested for starch?
For starch? (03 marks )
(i) LeafA
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(ii) LeafB
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(iii) LeafC
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
 (c) Give reasons why each of the following is carried out while testing a leaf for
starch.
(i) Put a leaf in boiling water. (02 marks)

................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................
(ii) Put a leaf in hot ethanol. (02mks)
................................................................................................................................
................................................................................................................................

33. The diagram in figure 5 shows the structure of a villus.

(a) Label parts marked A, B, C and D.

A .............................................................................................................
B .........................................................................................................
C ........................................................................................................
D ..........................................................................................................

(b) What food substances enter

(i) A? ............................................................................................
(ii) B? ...........................................................................................
 (c) State two factors which make a villus an effective absorbing structure.
(i) ......................................................................................................
(ii) .......................................................................................................
(d) How does the absorbed food in B teach the general circulation?
................................................................................................................................
..............................................................................................................................
(e) State two nutrients which are absorbed in the gut before reaching the villus.
(i) ............................................................................................................
(ii) .................................................................................................................

SECTION C
Attempt any two questions.

34. (a) What is photosynthesis? (02 marks)

(b) List the conditions necessary for photosynthesis. (04 marks)
(c) Describe an experiment to show that any one of the named conditions is
necessary for photosynthesis. (09 marks)

35. (a) Describe the digestion of proteins in a mammal. (6 marks)

(b) Explain how the ileum is suited for its functions. (9 marks)

36. (a) List the substances transported by the blood circulatory system. (04 marks)

(b) Give the importance of transporting each one of the substances named in (a)
above. (11 marks)

37. (a) Give differences between;

(i) the lymphatic system and the circulatory system. (04 marks)
(ii) an artery and a vein. (05 marks)
(iii) the composition of blood carried by hepatic portal vein and hepatic vein?
(02 marks)
b) Give any four functions of the lymphatic system. (04 marks)
END
Candidate’s Name ……………………………………………………………………………………………..

Signature …………………………………………………

545/2
CHEMISTRY
Paper 2
Nov/Dec. 2020
2 hours
Uganda Certificate of Education
S.3 CHEMISTRY
Paper 2
2 hours
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES:
Section A consists of 10 structured questions. Answer all questions in this section.

Answers to these questions must be written in the spaces provided.

Section B consists of 4 semi – structured questions. Answer any two questions from this section.
Answers to these questions must be written in the answer booklet(s) provided.
In both sections all workings must be clearly shown.

For Examiner’s Use only

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 Total

SECTION A (50 MARKS).

Answer all questions in this section

1
1. The atomic numbers of the elements M, Q and R are 12, 7 and 18 respectively.
(a) Write the electronic configuration of;
i) Q (1 2 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

ii) M (1 2 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)

………………………………………………………………………………………………

iii) R (1 2 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Which of the elements is;
i) The least reactive. (1 mark)
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
ii) A conductor of electricity (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Give the reason for your answer in (b)(i) (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(d) State the group in the periodic table to which M belongs. (1 2 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
2. The table 1 below shows components of six mixtures,.
Table 1
MIXTURE ACTUAL METHOD OF
SEPARATION
Iodine crystals + sodium chloride

Palm oil + Water

Potassium Chloride + Potassium

Nitrate

Sodium chloride + Sand

2
 Water + Ethanol

Green chlorophyll + Yellow

chlorophyll

Complete the table by indicating the actual method of separating each of the six mixtures
in the space labeled. (1 Mark each)

3. Air is a mixture of gases.

(a) Name the two major components of Air and state the approximate percentage of each
of the named component by volume of Air. (2 marks)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) State any one reason why Air is considered a mixture and NOT a compound.(() mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Burning Magnesium ribbon was lowered in two gas jars each containing one of the
major components of Air named in (a) above. Write equation for the reaction that
took place in each gas jar. (2() 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

4. An oxide of Sodium J contains 59.0% Sodium by mass.

(a) Define the term “ an Oxide” (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Calculate the simplest formula of J. (2() 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)

(Na = 23, O = 16)

3
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
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………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) If the molecular mass of J is 78.

(i) Determine the molecular formula of J (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

+
(ii) Name J ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
5. Clean Zinc granules were added to a solution of Copper(II) sulphate.
(a) State what was observed (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Explain your observation in (a). (2 marks)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Write equation to support your answer in (b). (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....

6. (a) Name one Liquid that would form,

+
(i) A homogeneous mixture with water ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

4
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
+
(ii) A heterogeneous mixture with water ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

……………………………………………………………………………………………....
(b) State a method that can be used to separate a homogeneous mixture formed in (a)(i),
+
and give a reason for your answer. (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) In the space below, draw a setup of apparatus used to separate two immiscible liquids
X and Y. (X has a density of 2.3gcm-3 and Y has a density of 1.0gcm-3) (2() 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)

7. An iron panga was left in the garden for several weeks and later it was found coated with
deposits of Solid W.
(a) State the;
+
(i) Colour of the solid W ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
+
(ii) The common name of Solid W ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

……………………………………………………………………………………………....
+
(iii) The chemical name of Solid W ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) State;
(i) What is meant by the term “galvanized iron” (1 mark)

5
 ………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....

(ii) Why is it important to galvanize Iron? (1 mark)

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(c) Iron can react with oxygen in the absence of water.

+
Write equation for the reaction of Oxygen and Iron. (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
8. (a) Define the term “alloy”. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) Give one reason why alloys are more often useful than the pure substances. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………....
(c) State the composition of the following alloys;
(i) Bronze (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Solder (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) State one use of;
+
(i) Solder ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………
+
(ii) Bronze ( 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘)
,

………………………………………………………………………………………………......
9. When heated very strongly, Calcium Nitrate decomposes according to the following
equation,
2Pb (NO3)2(s) 2PbO(s) + 4NO2(g) + O2(g)
6
 (a) State what would be observed when lead(11) nitrate was heated strongly in a test
tube until there was further change. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………

(b) 3.31g of lead(11) nitrate was heated until there was no further change. Calculate the
total volume of gases that were evolved, measured at S.T.P. (21/2 marks)
(N = 14, O = 16, Ca = 40, 1 mole of gas occupies 22.4dm3 at S.T.P)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………………………………
(c) Calculate the mass of the residue formed. (11/2 marks)
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………………
….
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
10. Table 2 shows the mass numbers and atomic numbers of elements W, X and Y. Study the
table and answer the questions that follow.
Table 2
Element Mass number Atomic number

W 24 12

X 14 7

Y 39 19

(a) State the number of;

7
 (i) Electrons in the atom of element Y. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(ii) Neutrons in the atom of element Y. (1 mark)
………………………………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………………………………
(b) Write the electronic configuration of the ion that can be formed by the atom of element
Y. (1 Mark)
......................................................................................................................................................
(c) Identify the group in the periodic table to which element X belongs. (1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
(d) Element W reacted with element X to form compound Z. State the type of bond in Z.
(1 mark)
…………………………………………………………………………………………………

SECTION B (30 MARKS)

Answer any two questions from this section.
Any additional question(s) answered will not be marked.

11. (a) When Hydrogen peroxide solution was added to a black solid Z in a flask, Oxygen gas
was evolved which was then collected in a gas jar over water.

(i) Identify the black solid Z (01 mark)

+
(ii) Write equation of the reaction that took place (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,

(iii) State the role of the black solid Z in the preparation of Oxygen gas from
Hydrogen peroxide. (01 mark)
(b) (i) Draw a well labeled diagram of the set up of apparatus that was used to prepare
and collect the Oxygen gas as described in (b) (03 marks)
+
(ii) Describe briefly how Oxygen gas can be confirmed in the laboratory. (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,

(c) Oxygen gas can react with Copper metal to form the oxide of the metal.
(i) State the conditions for the reaction. (01 mark)
8
 (ii) State what is observed when oxygen reacts with Copper under the conditions you
have stated in (c) (i). (01 mark)
+
(iii) Write equation for the reaction that takes place. (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,

(d) The product of the reaction in (c) (iii) was collected and added to warm dilute
sulphuric acid in a beaker little at a time until the product was in excess.
(i) State what was observed. (01 mark)
+
(ii) Write equation for the reaction that took place. (1 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑠)
,
(e) Aqueous ammonia was added to the product of the reaction in (d) above drop wise
until in excess. State what was observed. (02 marks)

12. A hydrocarbon ,R, contains 80% carbon by mass.

a) i) Calculate the empirical formula of R.
ii)If the molecular mass of R is 30, determine its molecular formula.
b) i) Name two raw materials used in the manufacture of soap.
iii) Describe how soap is obtained from the materials you named in b i).
c) Detergents are commonly used in laundry instead of soap. State two advantages of
detergents over soap.

9
 SEROMA CHS MUKONO
S.3 CRE ONLINE ASSESSMENT

TIME: 1 ½ HRS

INSTRUCTIONS
• Attempt any three questions taking one from each of the three sections
• Illegible handwritings will be penalized.
• Use of good English and relevant examples will be an added advantage.

SECTION A

MAN IN A CHANGING SOCIETY.

1. a) What changes have been brought about by the covid 19 pandemic

to Uganda today?

b) As a Christian ,what advise can you give Ugandans to successful

go through the covid 19 pandemic.

2. Show how the following personalities worked in the history of the

church.
i) Marks and Nuns
ii) Craft Guilds
3. a) Explain the problems associated with leisure in the Apostolic age.

SECTION B

ORDER AND FREEDOM

4. a) What forms of injustices do women face in Uganda today?
b) Using examples show the major injustices that existed in the old
testament.
5. a) As a Christian what qualities of a good leader would you consider
when electing a head prefect in your school.
b) In what ways have leaders misused their authority in Uganda
today?
6. a) Who was considered as a loyal person in African traditional society?
b) Show how the Israelites expressed their disloyalty to God in the
Old testament.

SECTION C

LIFE
7. a) What is the bible teaching about Happiness as expressed by Jesus
in the beatitudes.(Mat 5:1-13)
b) Who is a happy person in today’s society.

8. a) Show the successes that the church has achieved in the last
millennium.

b) Give the differences between the Christian understanding of

success and that of today.

9. a) How has HIV/AIDS influences our families in Uganda today.

b) Show how the church has helped the families that are affected by
HIV/AIDS to cope with this situation.

BLESSED FESTIVE SEASON

 SEROMA CHRISTIAN HIGH SCHOOL

ONLINE EXAMINATIONS DECEMBER - 2020

SENIOR THREE

ENGLISH LANGUAGE EXAM

Time: 2hrs

INSTRUCTIONS

• Answer all questions

• Ensure neatness

Read the passage and answer the questions after it

There is the danger of excess. It is quite true that the danger of excess
arises with-any pleasure, and that scripture warns against gluttony just as
strongly as it warns against drunkenness. But drunkenness is an especially
ugly thing in a drunken person, and especially unhappy thing for those with
whom he lives and who share his life and home.

With alcohol there arises the question of addiction. One of the

characteristics of alcohol is that, consumed over a period of time, it requires
an ever- increasing amount of it to produce the same effect. What in the
beginning was a pleasure becomes in the end an overmastering desire. The
habit is formed, and it is desperately hard to break. Any man will do well to
think whether it is wise to begin something to which he may well end by
becoming a slave.

There is the matter of expense. Drinking is nowadays one of the most

expensive pleasures and a man may well find himself spending money on this
luxury, which money should have been kept for the necessities.

There are the other general effects of alcohol. It can impair a man's
efficiency and dull his brain. It can slow his reflexes and his reactions, which
is why the law is so stern on those who drive vehicles under its influence. It
can slur a man's speech. But it has one effect, which is more serious in its own
 way than any of the others. Alcohol does not only relax tension: It also relaxes
a man's self- control and renders him liable to do and say that which in his
sober senses he would not do or say. In particular, it loosens a person's moral
control; sexual immorality and alcohol very often have a very
close connection. Alcohol, especially if it is used in excess, can make a man
behave in ways in which he would not ordinarily behave. There is, therefore,
in alcohol an inbuilt danger.

QUESTION:

In about 80 words summarise the effects of alcohol on man

ROUGH COPY

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 FAIRCOPY

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2A. Read the passage below carefully and answer the questions that follow:

The compound was crowded with people and I slipped unnoticed amongst
them. Neighbours always gather to show their sympathy with the family of one who
dies, but it seemed to me that this gathering was larger than usual and more tense.
There were grave discussions among the old as well as customary exchange of
greetings. There were women talking in angry tones as well as those who were
weeping. Tona lay on her mat. They had dressed her in a more beautiful cloth than
she had ever worn when she was still alive. She did not look like Tona. She had
already gone. I stood looking at her and did not know what to do. My mother saw
me and led me to greet the head of the family, Tona’s grandfather.

The old man looked at me thoughtfully. “Kofi” he said. “He also shines at
school.” He turned his gaze to my mother. “Be careful,” he warned her. “Do not
arouse the enmity of those who are jealous.” my mother nodded her head and we left
the compound.

“What did he mean?” I asked her but she shook her head and asked me instead
why I was not at school. I told her I had a headache. Her eyes filled with fear, she
felt my skin and hurried me home.

“What made Tona die?” I asked her but she would not answer me. “Do not
speak of it,” she said.

Tona was buried that afternoon and almost the whole town was there. I stood outside
our house knowing that the coffin must pass me on its way to the cemetery. I heard
the procession approaching but the sounds that accompanied it frightened me.
Instead of the usual singing there was an angry roar. People shouting and wailing.
Four men carried the coffin but they were behaving in an alarming manner. They
crossed and re-crossed the road, sometimes running forward sometimes backwards
sometimes standing quite still for a minute or two so that the procession mad very
little progress. People danced and shouted around it. In the midst of them was a
young priest, obviously afraid. When he saw my father, he left the crowd and joined
us outside our house.

“Headmaster,” he said, “What is it? Are these men drunk?

 “No,” my father answered. They are bewitched.”

The coffin reached us. The four men appeared to be in a trance. Although the
movements of the coffin were so irregular, the men acted in a perfect accord with it.

“What does it mean?” the priest asked.

The child will not go to the cemetery,” my father told him. “She did not die a
natural death. She wishes to be avenged.”

“They will bring her back to the cemetery in the end,” my father told him. “But
now she goes to show them the witch.”

I began to understand. Tona had died but her body refused to rest until she had
shown us her murderer. A great horror came over me. Someone lived who hated
Tona enough to kill her. But who would hate Tona? Who would kill Tona? My fear
turned to furry. The witch who killed Tona should herself be killed. I knew now why
the women talked in angry voices, why the men danced and shouted. I was with
them. My heart was filled with vengeance.

(From: The Witch by Francis Sclormey)

Questions

1. Why was the compound crowded with people?

…………………………………………………………………………...............

……………………………………………………………………………………

2. Why were the women crying with angry voices?

……………………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………………

3. a) Why did Kofi and his mother live the compound after talking
to Tona’s grandfather?

……………………………………………………………………………………
 b) Why did Kofi’s mother get scared when he told her that he was not at school
because he had a headache?

……………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………….

4. What are your feelings towards Tona’s death?

…………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………

5. Briefly explain the meaning of the following words or phrases as used

in the passage

a. …grave discussions…

…………………………………………………………………………..

…………………………………………………………………………..

b. …cemetery….

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c. …trance…

……………………………………………………………………………………

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d. …Vengeance…

………………………………………………………………………………….
Study the passage and circle the correct answer from those given.

A DIARY

Do you keep a diary? Juma does. Almost every evening, he writes a paragraph or
two describing what happened during the day.

On special occasions, he writes much more.

Juma also plays for his school’s Junior Football Eleven.

Today has been the most exciting day I have had so far in this school: today we
played Seronara, and for the first time I had a place in the team. Our coach, Mr.
Mohammed, told us that Seronara was the favourite to win the Junior Provincial
Football League Cup, so we knew that this was the most important match of the
season so far. We also knew that we didn’t stand much chance!

At least the match was at home, so we count on lots of supporters. I left quite
nervous when the Seronara players arrived in their brand new bus. They looked
very tough, and very confident in their smart school uniforms.

They looked even tougher and more confident after they changed into their
football clothes.

I wish our team had uniforms as smart as theirs! But we can hardly afford football
boots, let alone smart shirts. From the way they looked at us, and laughed at our
rather shabby outfits, you could see they were looking down their noses at us.

“Take no notice of their payukering,” said Mr. Mohammed. “You can’t judge a
footballer by his clothes. Don’t forget, you stand a reasonable chance of beating
them, provided you don’t lose your heads!

Seronara won the toss, and immediately started a dangerous attacking movement.
The ball went out to their left wing, where they had a very fast winger called
Kimeu. Kimeu was much faster than any of our players, and he hit the ball easily
past two of our defenders. Then he centred the ball to their top-scoring centre-
forward, Otwomra within seconds he was right in front of our goalmouth, and our
hearts sank. But then a miracle happened! Our goalie, Ogutu, made a brilliant save,
and somehow managed to gather the ball safely to his chest.

Nobody was prepared for what happened next –no one that is except ‘Twiga’
Mutua, our centre-half. As his name suggests, Mutua was taller than any other
player in our team- in fact he was the tallest player on the field. When Ogutu
cleared the ball, Mutua headed it high over the heads of two of Seronara’s biggest
players, straight to our centre-forward, Makanga. He easily dodged past another
Seronara player, and only their goalie stood between him and a goal. We could
hardly believe our eyes- Makanga sent the cannoning past the goalie’s finger-tips
into the top right hand corner of their goal. It was the most splendid goal that I had
ever seen!

Seronara were furious at this, and we had a hard time keeping our lead; but
somehow we managed to hold out till half time. As we sucked our oranges, we
could hardly believe that we were still in the lead, one-nil.

“Well done everyone,” said Mr. Mohammed, very pleased, “You’ve played a good
game so far. But you are concentrating too much on defence-you need to attack
more, practically all their players are in our half! Attack again, and there will be
nobody to stop you getting another goal.”

So that’s just want we did. The second half began with some toing and froing in
the centre of the pitch-and, as Mr. Mohammed said, most of their players moved
right up. And then Mutua did it again: a fast pass into open space-and there was
Njobu, one of our forwards, right on to it. Down the pitch he shot with the ball,
with me trying to keep up with him. Then one of their backs tackled him-and
instead of wasting time trying to beat him, Njobu heeled the ball back to me.

I don’t know how I did it-but somehow the ball and I managed to keep up with
each other as we shot towards their goal. Seronara’s goalie had come out too far-
he was right on the edge of the penalty area. Too late, he realised what I was going
to do, and turned, trying to race back, but it was a race he could not win. I sent the
ball in a high curve towards the goal, and it dropped neatly under the cross-bar, just
in front of the goal-keeper.
Now answer the following questions by putting a ring around the letter of the
best alternative given.

Questions;

1. At the beginning, Juma’s team

A. thought they would lose

B. thought they would win

C. knew they stood a good chance of winning

D. thought they would probably win

2. When the Seronara players arrived, Mr. Mohammed

A. was impressed by their smart appearance

B. was not impressed by their smart appearance

C. wished that his team could afford smart uniforms

D. wished that his team could afford proper football boots

3. According to Mr. Mohammed, Seronara’s main mistake was

A. not bringing any supporters

B. laughing at Juma’s team

C. sending too many of their players forward

D. keeping most of their players back.

4. From the last paragraph we

A. can tell that Juma scored a goal

B. can tell that Juma did not score a goal

C. cannot tell whether Juma scored a goal

D. can infer that the goal-keeper knocked the ball into his own goal.

5. Who won the match?

A. Juma’s team

B. Seronara

C. it was a draw

D. no one

3A. Re-write items 3.1 to 3.10 according to the instructions. Do not change
the meaning of the sentence.

1. Jeremiah loves Prisca. Prisca also loves Jeremiah. (Join into one
sentence using …as much as…)

……………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………..

2. “What! Are you going to leave alone?” She said.( Rewrite in indirect
speech)
 ……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………

3. When Buyi entered the mosque, the lights went off.

(Begin: Scarcely…)

……………………………………………………………………………

…………………………………………………………………………..

4. Although the master on duty tried to stop them. The students refused to
obey. (Rewrite beginning: No matter….)

……………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………….

5. The school master was leaving the village and everybody seemed sorry.
(Rewrite using….when….)

……………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………

6. Come early or you will not be able to get a ticket. (Rewrite

using: Unless…)

……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………

7. The song may sound funny to the people who understand the language
but not to local gathering. (Rewrite using:…bound…)

……………………………………………………………………………
……………………………………………………………………………
 8. The crowded ferry sank too quickly for anybody who could not swim
to be rescued. (Rewrite using: “so…that..” instead of“too”)

……………………………………………………………………………
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9. He grew angrier. His friends laughed even more loudly.

(Begin: The ……)

……………………………………………………………………………
…………………………………………………………………………….

10. “Why did you go there?” (Rewrite ending: ……….for.)

……………………………………………………………………………
………………………………………………………………………….

Complete the following sentences by putting a ring O around the correct

alternative.

1. When Jane’s young sister fell in the hot porridge, she could not help………….

A. to cry B. crying C. to cried D. cried

2. Help me with the correct …………. of the word ‘radiator’.

A. pronounciation B. pronunciation C. pronouncietion D. pronou

ncement

3. The ………… from Nairobi to Entebbe takes only forty minutes.

A. plight B. fly C. flight D. flown

4. Remember to write your work ………….

A. . neat B. net C. nice D. neatly

5. Because of too much heat, the ball …………….

A. bursted B. burst C. bursting D. burstied

6. The ………… attending prayers at All Saints Church sung joyfully.

A. spectators B. choir C. crowd D. congregation

7. All Christians have a common and strongest ……….that Jesus will come back
soon.

A. believe B. belief C. believing D. to believe

8. Yesterday, at the main hall, we watched a very ………. movie.

A. horror B. Bad C. Worse D. horrific

9. All the senior one students are interested ………. listening to cool music.

A. for B. to C. In D. At

10. My ………. has flown to America for her holiday with the husband.

A. niece B. nice C. nick D. pen friend

END
 S.3 GEOGRAPHY TEST

TIME : 1 1/3 HOURS

INSTRUCTIONS: ATTEMPT ANY TWO QUESTIONS

1. (a) Draw a sketch map of East Africa and on it mark and name;
(i) Lakes: Victoria, Turkana and Eyasi
(ii) Rivers: Rufigi and Tana
(iii) The East African Rift Valley (7 marks)

(b) Describe the mode of formation of Lake Turkana (05 marks)

(c) Explain the value of lakes to man (05 marks)

(d) Outline the problems limiting effective use of lakes in East Africa (03 marks)

2. (a) Name any three types of rocks in East Africa (03 marks)

(b) Outline the characteristics of any two types of rocks in East Africa (08 marks)

(c) Describe the mode of formation of any one rock type (04 marks)

(d) Explain the value of rocks to the people of East Africa (05 marks)

3. (a) Draw a sketch map of Uganda and on it mark and name;

(i) Mountains: Elgon and Muhavura

(ii) Lakes: Kyoga and George
(iii) Forests: Echuya, Kalinzu and Mabira (08 marks)

(b) Describe the physical factors which have led to the growth of natural forests in Uganda

(05 marks)

(c) Explain the problems faced by the forestry industry in Uganda (04 marks)

(d) Outline the measures being taken to solve the problems in (c) above (03 marks)

END
SEROMA CHS
S.3 HISTORY PAPER 1

Attempt THREE questions only

1a) Why did the Bantu migrate from their original homeland?
b) What were the effects of their migration?
2a) Why were the foreigners interested at the coast of East Africa
between AD 1000 and 1500?
b) How did their settlement affect the people of East Africa coast by AD
1500?
3a) Describe the course of the Portuguese conquest of the East Africa
coast between 1498 and 1510

b) Why did the African resistance against the Portuguese fail?

4a) What was the contribution of the Bachwezi to the history of East Africa?

b) What led to the collapse of the chwezi Empire?

END
 SEROMA CHRISTIAN HIGH SCHOOL
S.3 HISTORY OF SOUTH AFRICA TEST
TIME : 2HRS
INSTRUCTION: attempt any FOUR questions
1. a) Why did the bantu leave their cradle land ? (12mks)
b) Describe the migration and settlement of the a Bantu in South Africa.
(13mks)
2. a) Why did the Dutch settle at the cape in 1652? (13mks)
b) How did the Dutch settlement affect the Khoisan? (12mks)
3 a) Describe the causes of the Kaffi wars of 1770-1880 at the Eastern
frontier.(13mks)
b) Explain the effects of the war on the people of south Africa? (12mks)
4 a) Why did the British annex Natal in 1843? (13mks)
b) Describe the effects of the British annexation of Natal. (12mks)
5 a) Why did the Eastern Bantu tribes conflict among themselves between
1800-1830? (13mks)
b) Explain the effect of the conflicts on the Bantu Eastern Bantu. (12mks)
6 a) How did Dingiswayo build and expand Mthetwa state by 1817? (12mks)
b) What problems did Dingiswayo face during his rule? (13mks)
7 a) Describe the activities of Christian missionaries in South Africa. (13mks)
b) What problems did Christian missionaries face in South Africa. (12mks)
8 a) Describe the roles played by African independent churches in South
Africa. (13mks)
b) Explain the effects of the African independent churches. (12mks)
END
 SEROMA CHRISTIAN HIGH SCHOOL
END OF YEAR ASSESSMENT 2020
S.3 PHYSICS
𝟏
Attempt all Questions Time: 2 hours
𝟒

Where necessary use

Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms-2
Speed of light in vacuum(air) = 3.0 x 108 ms-1
ANSWER GRID FOR SECTION A
1 6 11 16 21 26 31 36
2 7 12 17 22 27 32 37
3 8 13 18 23 28 33 38
4 9 14 19 24 29 34 39
5 10 15 20 25 30 35 40

SECTION A
1. Which one of the following changes when force is applied on a body?
(i) Mass
(ii) Velocity
(iii) Displacement
A. (i) and (ii) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

2. When an object is placed 12 cm from a concave mirror, an image of height 4cm is

formed at 24cm from the mirror. Find the height of the object.
A. 2cm B. 3cm C. 6cm D. 8cm

3. Which of the following explains why keepers are used in the storage of magnets?
(i) To prevent mutual repulsion and attraction
(ii) To forma continuous magnetic loop
(iii) They are hard magnetic materials and retain magnetism for a long time
A. (ii) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (iii) only D. (i) and (ii) only

1
4. A person with a deep voice produces a note of frequency 200Hz. The wavelength
of the sound waves produced is (velocity of sound = 340ms-1)
A. 0.58m B. 0.85m C. 1.70m D. 3.40m

5. In a domestic hot water supply system, the boiler is always placed at the bottom
because;
A. When water is heated, it becomes less dense and rises
B. The hot water in the cylinder is always above the boiler
C. Heating is faster when the boiler is at the bottom
D. When water is heated at the boiler at the bottom, it moves up by conduction.

6. A spring has a length of 0.02m when unloaded. If the length of the spring is 0.06m
when a load of 2N hangs freely, find the spring constant.
A. 100Nm-1 B. 50Nm-1 C. 33Nm-1 D. 25Nm-1

7. A force of 2.0N causes a trolley to accelerate at a rate of 0.5ms-1. Find the

acceleration of the trolley when a force of 8.0N acts on it.
A. 0.125 ms-2 B. 0.500ms-2 C. 2.000ms-2 D. 32.000ms-2

8. A body released from the top of a wall hits the ground with a velocity of 2 ms-1.
Find the height of the wall in metres
# $×# #×&' $×&'
A. B. C. D.
$×&' &' $ #

9. The energy stored in a moving body depends on its

(i) Mass
(ii) Volume
(iii) Velocity
A. (i) only C. (i) and (ii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

10. Which of the following is a set of characteristics of an image formed by a plane

mirror?
A. Real and laterally inverted
B. Virtual and same size as the object
C. Virtual and diminished
D. Real and same size as the object

11. The force which keeps a body in circular motion is called

A. Centripetal force C. tension force
B. Centrifugal force D. gravitational force

2
12. Which of the following factors affect pressure in a liquid?
A. Density of the liquid container
B. Acceleration due to gravity
C. Cross sectional area of the container
D. Shape of liquid container

13. Which of the following is a set of good conductors of heat?

A. Silver, water and rubber
B. Copper, alcohol and silver
C. Rubber, wood and aluminium
D. Aluminium, copper and silver

14. The following devices convert electric energy to heat energy

(i) Cooker
(ii) Electric iron
(iii) Electric fan
(iv) Refrigerator
A. (i), (ii) and (iii) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (iii) and (iv) only

15. When an object is placed in front of a concave mirror at a distance less than the
focal length of the mirror, the image formed is
A. Virtual, upright and magnified
B. Virtual, upright and diminished
C. Real, upright and magnified
D. Virtual, inverted and magnified

16. A stone is projected vertically from the ground with a velocity of 25 ms-1. Find
the maximum height the stone attains
A. 31.25 m B. 150.00 m C. 62.50 m D. 625.00 m

17. Materials which stay permanently deformed even when the force is removed are
said tobe
A. Elastic B. ductile C. brittle D. plastic

18. The temperature of steam above water boiling at normal atmospheric pressure is
the
A. Upper fixed point C. Fundamental interval
B. Lower fixed point D. Absolute temperature

3
19. Roof structures and many bridges are designed with triangular sections to
(i) Minimize the material used
(ii) Withstand compression forces
(iii) Minimize tensile force under compression
A. (ii) only C. (ii) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

20. The reluctance of a body to change its state of motion depends on its
A. Acceleration C. velocity
B. Momentum D. mass

21. Images formed by diverging mirrors are

A. Laterally inverted C. Virtual
B. Magnified D. Real

22. A body accelerates uniformly from rest and acquires a velocity of 60ms-1 after half
a minute. Find the distance covered by the body.
A. 15 m B. 30 m C. 900 m D. 1800 m

23. The strength of a bridge can be improved by

(i) Reinforcing the concrete to be used
(ii) Designing a structure that is stronger in compression than tension
(iii) Designing a structure that is stronger in tension than compression
A. (i) only C. (ii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (i) and (iii) only

24. The mechanical advantage of a simple machine may be increased by

(i) Increasing the load
(ii) Increasing weight of movable parts of the machine
(iii) Reducing friction between moving parts
A. (i) and (ii) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) and (iii) only D. (i) only

25. Which one of the following explains the motion of smoke particles in an air cell?
They
A. Vibrate because they are being knocked by air molecules
B. Vibrate because they are continuously colliding with each other
C. Move about randomly because they are being knocked by air molecules
D. Move about randomly because they are continuously colliding with each other

4
26. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is used to detect forged bank
notes?
A. Visible light C. infrared
B. Ultra violet D. X – rays
27. Which of the following quantities increases when the mass of a body is increased?
A. Velocity C. acceleration
B. Displacement D. momentum

28. A bulb dropped vertically downwards hits the ground with a speed of 40ms-1. Find
the height through which the bulb falls
A. 2.0 m B. 80.0 m C. 4.0 m D. 400.0 m

29. Which of the following factors enable(s) a small effort to lift a large load in a
hydraulic press
(i) Pressure is transmitted equally in all directions
(ii) Small piston produces high pressure
(iii) The load experiences a large force
A. (i) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (i) and (ii) only D. (i), (ii) and (iii)

30. The lower part of the second floor of a storeyed building is made of reinforced
concrete while the upper part is not because
(i) The lower part is subjected to tensional forces while the upper part is
subjected to compressional forces
(ii) Non reinforced concrete can withstand large tensional forces
(iii) Reinforced concrete can withstand large tensional forces
A. (i) only C. (i) and (iii) only
B. (ii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only

31. Which of the following is/are true about surface tension of a liquid
(i) It is constant at a given temperature
(ii) It changes with the pressure above the liquid
(iii) It is not affected by the amount of dissolved substances in the liquid
A. (i) only C. (i) and (ii) only
B. (i) and (iii) only D. (ii) and (iii) only

32. A mass of 600g produces an extension of 15 cm in a spring. Find the extension

produced in the spring by a force of 12.0 N
A. 4.8 cm B. 7.5 cm C. 10.8 cm D. 30.0 cm

5
33. A ticker tape has nine (9) equally spaced dots made by a ticker timer vibrating at
a frequency of 40Hz. Find the time taken to make the dots
A. 5.00 s B. 4.44 s C. 0.23 s D. 0.20 s

34. Which of the following optical devices can be used as a solar concentrator?
A. Concave mirror C. concave lens
B. Convex mirror D. glass prism

35. The force which holds the molecules of water together is called?
A. Gravity C. cohesion
B. Adhesion D. electrostatics

36. When no external forces act on two bodies in a collision, the total momentum of
the bodies
A. Increases C. remains constant
B. is proportional to the product of their masses D. decreases

37. which of the following statements is correct about a wire stretched to yield point
A. Its extension is proportional to the applied force
B. It will have undergone both elastic and plastic deformation
C. A large force produces a small extension
D. It breaks at the yield point

38. Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion?

A. It takes place at the same rate in all states of matter
B. It is faster in gases than in liquids
C. It is faster in liquids than in gases
D. It does not depend on temperature

39. A body starts from rest and accelerated uniformly at a rate of 8 ms-2. Find the time
it takes to cover a distance of 100 m.
A. 25.0 s B. 5.0 s C. 12.5 s D. 3.5 s

40. The density of a substance is the

A. Quantity of matter in a unit volume
B. Volume of a given unit quantity of matter
C. Pull of gravity on a substance
D. Space occupied by the substance

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SECTION B
41. (a) Distinguish between longitudinal waves and transverse waves
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(b) A radio station produces waves which travel with a frequency of 100 MHz.
Calculate the wavelength of the radio waves.
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42. (a) Define the centre of curvature of a concave mirror
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(b) An object 5 cm tall is placed 15 cmfrom a concave mirror of focal length
10cm. Using a scale drawing, determine the position and size of the image formed.

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43. (a) State the principle of moments
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(b) A uniform metre rule is loaded by suspending 1N weight at 10cm from the
0.0cm mark. If the system balances when the pivot is at the 18cm mark. Calculate
the weight of the metre rule.
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44. (a) Define the term Efficiency as applied to machines
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(b) A mass of 150kg is pulled along a ramp of length 20m to a platform. If the
vertical height to the platform is 4m and an effort of 500N is used. Determine
(i) velocity ratio of the machine
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(ii) Efficiency of the machine
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45. (a) Didatinguish between speed and velocity
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(b) A body starts from rest and moves with a uniform acceleration of 3 ms-2 in a
straight line. What is its velocity after 5 seconds
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 ………………………………………………………………………………………
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46. (a) State the principle of conservation of energy
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(b) A block of mass 2 kg falls freely from rest through a height of 20m above the
ground. Find the
(i) potential energy of the block above the ground
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(ii) Kinetic energy of the block just before it hits the ground
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47. (a) What is meant by the term diffusion?
………………………………………………………………………………………
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(b) (i) State two factors that affect diffusion

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(ii) Distinguish between cohesion and adhesion
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48. (a) State Newton’s first law of motion
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(b) (i) Define inertia
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(ii) Explain why drivers and passengers are advised to wear belts in their seats
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9
 ………………………………………………………………………………………
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49. (a) What are ferromagnetic materials
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(b) (i) What is a magnetic domain?
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(ii) Draw a diagram to show the arrangement of dipoles in a demagnetized
material

50. (a) State the principle of conservation of linear momentum

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(b) A lorry of mass 4000kg travelling at 20 ms-1 collides with another car of mass
1000kg moving in the same direction at 10 ms-1. After collision the two vehicles
stick together. Find their common velocity
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END

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