True/False
1. Cloud bursting allows a private cloud to handle workloads by spilling over into a
public cloud. (True)
2. Latency in cloud computing is always lower than in traditional on-premises
computing. (False)
3. Data replication in cloud storage eliminates all risks of data loss. (False)
4. SLA violations in cloud computing often result in automatic penalties for providers.
(True)
5. Immutable infrastructure ensures cloud resources remain unchanged once deployed.
(True)
6. The shared responsibility model means cloud providers handle all security concerns.
(False)
7. Kubernetes is primarily used to manage traditional virtual machines. (False, it
manages containers)
8. A zero-trust security model assumes that all network traffic is safe. (False)
9. Hybrid cloud solutions can combine multiple public cloud providers. (True)
10. Microservices architecture is incompatible with cloud computing. (False)
11. Stateful applications are easier to scale than stateless applications in the cloud. (False)
12. Multi-tenancy in cloud computing allows resource sharing among different users.
(True)
13. SDN (Software-Defined Networking) enhances network flexibility in cloud
environments. (True)
14. Nested virtualization allows running a hypervisor inside another virtual machine.
(True)
15. A paravirtualized OS needs modifications to run on a hypervisor. (True)
16. A Type 1 hypervisor provides better security than a Type 2 hypervisor. (True)
17. Kernel-based Virtual Machine (KVM) is a Type 1 hypervisor. (True)
18. Virtualization cannot be used to enhance network security. (False)
Multiple-Choice
1. What is the primary challenge of multi-cloud deployments?
A) Increased vendor lock-in
B) Complexity in managing multiple providers
C) Higher latency compared to single cloud deployments
D) None of the above
(Correct Answer: B)
2. Which of the following best describes a Cloud-Native application?
A) A traditional monolithic application moved to the cloud
B) An application designed to leverage cloud elasticity, scalability, and automation
C) An application that can only run in a public cloud
D) A cloud-based version of desktop software
(Correct Answer: B)
3. Which technology is essential for autoscaling in cloud computing?
A) Kubernetes
B) RAID storage
C) VPNs
D) Static IP addressing
(Correct Answer: A)
4. Which storage type is best suited for high-performance applications in the cloud?
A) Object storage
B) Block storage
C) Tape storage
D) Cold storage
(Correct Answer: B)
5. What is the key benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC)?
A) Eliminates the need for DevOps
B) Enables automated and repeatable infrastructure provisioning
C) Requires manual configuration of cloud resources
D) Increases hardware dependency
(Correct Answer: B)
6. Which networking mode allows a virtual machine to access the internet but prevents it
from being directly accessed by other devices on the local network?
A) Bridge Mode
B) NAT Mode
C) Host-Only Mode
D) None of the above
(Correct Answer: B)
7. In Bridge Mode, how does a VM get an IP address?
A) It shares the host's IP address
B) It gets a private IP from the host
C) It gets an IP directly from the same network as the host
D) It cannot get an IP address
(Correct Answer: C)
8. Which of the following is true about Host-Only networking?
A) It allows the VM to access the internet
B) The VM can only communicate with the host and other VMs on the same network
C) The VM gets an IP from an external DHCP server
D) It allows the VM to communicate with all devices on the local network
(Correct Answer: B)
9. What is the primary advantage of using NAT for VM networking?
A) Direct access to other machines on the network
B) Increased security by hiding the VM from the network
C) Faster data transmission
D) None of the above
(Correct Answer: B)
10. In a virtualized environment, what is the role of a virtual switch?
A) It connects virtual machines to each other and optionally to physical networks
B) It provides internet access only
C) It assigns IP addresses to VMs
D) It replaces the physical switch
(Correct Answer: A)
11. What is a key difference between a Type 1 and Type 2 hypervisor?
A) Type 1 runs on bare metal, while Type 2 runs on an existing OS
B) Type 2 is faster than Type 1
C) Type 1 requires an additional OS layer
D) There is no real difference
(Correct Answer: A)
12. Which networking mode would you use if you want your VM to behave as a separate
device on the local network?
A) NAT Mode
B) Bridge Mode
C) Host-Only Mode
D) None of the above
(Correct Answer: B)
13. In virtualization, what is a vNIC?
A) A virtual network interface card assigned to a VM
B) A physical network card used by all VMs
C) A protocol for network communication
D) A special type of firewall
(Correct Answer: A)
14. How does memory virtualization work in hypervisors?
A) The VM is allocated a fixed amount of physical memory that cannot change
B) The hypervisor dynamically allocates memory to VMs as needed
C) The guest OS directly manages physical memory
D) Virtual machines do not require memory allocation
(Correct Answer: B)
15. If a VM needs to access a remote server outside the local network, which networking
mode should be used?
A) Host-Only Mode
B) NAT Mode
C) Bridge Mode
D) Both b and c
(Correct Answer: D)
