DPP No: 09

Maximum Time TARGET

50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : MODERN PHYSICS & NUCLEAR PHYSICS

1. Photo electric effect is the phenomenon in which

(A) Photons come out of a metal when it is hit by a beam of electrons

(B) Photons come out of the nucleus of an atom under the action of an electric field

(C) Electrons come out of metal with a constant velocity depending on frequency and intensity of
incident light

(D) Electrons come out of a metal with different velocity not greater than a certain value which
depends only on the frequency of the incident light wave and not on its intensity.

2. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies of 1 eV and 2.5 eV are incident
one by one on a metal surface of work function 0.5 eV. The ratio of maximum energies of
emitted electrons will be

(A) 1 : 4 (B) 4 : 1 (C) 1 : 2 (D) 2 : 1

3. In a photoelectric experiment, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of intensity
I and frequency f. The potential difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for
various frequencies. If Y has a greater work function than X; which one of the following graphs
best illustrates the expected results?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

4. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric experiment is doubled then maximum kinetic energy
of photoelectron

(A) be doubled (B) be halved

(C) become more than double (D) become less than double

5. The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted from a surface when photons of energy
6 eV fall on it is 4 eV. The stopping potential is :

(A) 2V (B) 4V (C) 6V (D) 10V

PAGE # 1
6. The number of photons ( = 6630Å) that strike per second on a totally reflecting screen (as
shown in figure), so that a force of 1N is exerted on the screen, is approximately.

(A) 1023 (B) 1027 (C) 1025 (D) 1026

7. A photon of light enters a block of glass after travelling through vacuum. The energy of the
photon on entering the glass block

(A) increases because its associated wavelength decreases

(B) Decreases because the speed of the radiation decreases

(C) Stays the same because the speed of the radiation and the associated wavelength do not
change

(D) Stays the same because the frequency of the radiation does not change

8. The de Broglie waves are associated with moving particles. These particle may be–

(A) electrons (B) He+, Li2+ ions (C) Cricket ball (D) All of the above

9. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(A) De–Broglie waves are probability waves and there is no physical existence of these.

(B) De–Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to its momentum.

(C) Wave nature is associated with atomic particles only.

(D) In general wave nature of matter is not observed.

10. The wavelength of de–Broglie waves associated with neutrons at room temperature T K is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove
an electron from n = 2 is–

(A) 10.2 eV (B) 0 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) 6.8 eV

12. In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The
ratio of the time taken by them to complete one revolution is (neglect electric interaction) :–

(A) 1:4 (B) 4:1 (C) 1:8 (D) 8:1

PAGE # 2
13. If a0 is the Bohr radius, the radius of the n = 2 electronic orbit in triply ionized beryllium is -

(A) 4a0 (B) a0 (C) a0/4 (D) a0/16

14. Which energy state of doubly ionized lithium (Li++) has the same energy as that of the ground
state of hydrogen ? Given Z for lithium = 3 :

(A) n = 1 (B) n = 2 (C) n = 3 (D) n = 4

15. The wave number of the series limit of Lyman series is–

(A) 1.097 × 107 m–1 (B) 2.74 × 106 m–1 (C) 1.22 × 106 m–1 (D) 6.86 × 105 m–1

16. The electron in a hydrogen atom makes transition from M shell to L. The ratio of magnitudes
of initial to final centripetal acceleration of the electron is :–

(A) 9:4 (B) 81:16 (C) 4:9 (D) 16:81

17. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are
excited by electromagnetic radiation of energy 12.1 eV. How many spectral lines will be emitted
by the hydrogen atoms?

(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) four

18. A neutron collides head–on with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state. Which of the
following statements are correct (Assume that the hydrogen atom and neutron has same
mass)

(A) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision must be elastic

(B) If kinetic energy of the neutron is less than 20.4 eV collision may be inelastic

(C) Inelastic collision may be take place only when initial kinetic energy of neutron is greater than
20.4 eV

(D) Perfectly inelastic collision can not take place

19. An electron with kinetic energy 10 eV is incident on a hydrogen atom in its ground state. The
collision

(A) must be elastic (B) may be partially elastic

(C) must be completely inelastic (D) may be completely inelastic

20. The production of characteristic X–rays is due to–

(A) transfer of momentum in collision of electrons with the target atom

(B) transfer of energy in collision of electrons with the target atom

(C) the transition of electrons in heavy target atoms from high to low energy level

(D) none of these

PAGE # 3
21. According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation, the plot of the kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons from a metal Vs then frequency, of the incident radiation gives a straight line
whose slope :

(A) depends on the nature of the metal used

(B) depends on the intensity of the radiation

(C) depends both on the intensity of the radiation and the metal used

(D) is the same for all metals and independent of the intensity of the radiation

22. The diagram shows the energy levels for an electron in a certain atom. Which transition shown
represents the emission of a photon with the most energy?
n=4
n=3

n=2

n=1
   V
(A)  (B) V (C)  (D) 

23. If the kinetic energy of a free electron doubles, its de-Broglie wavelength changes by the factor :

1 1
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2 2

24. When ultraviolet light is incident on a photocell, its stopping potential is V0 and the maximum
kinetic energy of the photoelectrons is Kmax. When X-rays are incident on the same cell,
then :

(A) V0 and Kmax both increase (B) V0 and Kmax both decrease

(C) V0 increases but Kmax remains the same (D) Kmax increases but V0 remains the same

25. If radiations of allowed wavelengths from ultraviolet to infrared are passed through hydrogen
gas at room temperature, absorption lines will be observed in the

(A) Lyman series (B) Balmer series

(C) Both (A) and (B) (D) Neither (A) nor (B)

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (B)

6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (A)

16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (AC) 19. (A) 20. (C)

21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (A)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 10
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : MODERN PHYSICS & NUCLEAR PHYSICS

1. The mass number of a nucleus is

(A) always less than its atomic number

(B) always more than its atomic number

(C) equal to its atomic number

(D) sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number

2. The stable nucleus that has a radius 1/3 that of Os189 is -

(A) 3Li7 (B) 2He4 (C) 5B10 (D) 6C12

3. The mass of proton is 1.0073 u and that of neutron is 1.0087 u (u = atomic mass unit).

The binding energy of 24He is :– [Given helium nucleus mass  4.0015u]

(A) 0.0305 J (B) 0.0305 erg (C) 28.4 MeV (D) 0.061 u

4. The binding energy of deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 2

4
He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are
fused to form one then the energy released is :–

(A) 23.6 MeV (B) 19.2 MeV (C) 30.2 MeV (D) 25.8 MeV

5. As the mass number A increases, the binding energy per nucleon in a nucleus

(A) increases

(B) decreases

(C) remains the same

(D) varies in a way that depends on the actual value of A.

6. Which of the following is a wrong description of binding energy of a nucleus ?

(A) It is the energy required to break a nucleus into its constituent nucleons.

(B) It is the energy released when free nucleons combine to from a nucleus

(C) It is the sum of the rest mass energies of its nucleons minus the rest mass energy of the
nucleus

(D) It is the sum of the kinetic energy of all the nucleons in the nucleus

PAGE # 1
7. The energy of the reaction Li7 + p  2 He4 is (the binding energy per nucleon in Li7 and He4

nuclei are 5.60 and 7.06 MeV respectively.)

(A) 17.3 MeV (B) 1.73 MeV

(C) 1.46 MeV (D) depends on binding energy of proton

10 11
8. The atomic weight of boron is 10.81 g/mole and it has two isotopes 5
B and 5
B. The ratio
10 11
(by number) of 5
B: 5
B in nature would be :

(A) 19 : 81 (B) 10 : 11 (C) 15 : 16 (D) 81 : 19

9. An -particle is bombarded on 14N. As a result, a 17O nucleus is formed and a particle is emitted.
This particle is a

(A) neutron (B) proton (C) electron (D) positron

10. Which of the following radiations has the least wavelength?

(A) -rays (B) -rays (C) -rays (D) X-rays

11. The binding energy per nucleon of deuteron  H  and helium nucleus 
2
1
4
2He  is 1.1 MeV and
7 MeV respectively. If two deuteron nuclei react to form a single helium nucleus, then the energy
released is :

(A) 13.9 MeV (B) 26.9 MeV (C) 23.6 MeV (D) 19.2 MeV

27 125
12. If radius of the 13 Al nucleus is estimated to be 3.6 Fermi, then the radius of 52 Te nucleus be
nearly:

(A) 6 Fermi (B) 8 Fermi (C) 4 Fermi (D) 5 Fermi

13. If the binding energy per nucleon in 73 Li and 24 He nuclei are 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV respectively,,
then in the reaction

p  73 Li  224 He

energy of proton must be :

(A) 39.2 MeV (B) 28.24 MeV (C) 17.28 MeV (D) 1.46 MeV

14. If Mo is the mass of an oxygen isotope 8O17, Mp and MN are the masses of a proton and a neutron
respectively, the nuclear binding energy of the isotope is :

(A) (Mo – 8MP)C2 (B) (Mo – 8MP – 9MN)C2

(C) MoC2 (D) (Mo – 17MN)C2

15. This binding energy per nucleon for the parent nucleus is E1 and that for the daughter nuclei
is E2. Then:

(A) E1 = 2E2 (B) E1 > E2 (C) E2 > E1 (D) E2 = 2E1

PAGE # 2
16. Consider the nuclear fission

Ne20  2He4 + C12

Given that the binding energy/nucleon of Ne20, He4 and C12 are, respectively, 8.03 MeV, 7.07 MeV
and 7.86 MeV, identify the correct statement.

(A) Energy of 9.72 MeV of energy will be supplied. (B) 8.3 MeV energy will be released

(C) Energy of 3.6 MeV will be released (D) Energy of 11.9 MeV has to be supplied

17. Given the masses of various atomic particles mp = 1.0072 u, mn = 1.0087 u, me = 0.000548 u,
m  0, md = 2.0141 u, where p  proton, n  neutron, e  electron,   antineutrino and
d  deuteron. Which of the following process is allowed by momentum and energy conservation?

(A) n + n  deuterium atom (electron bound to the nucleus)

(B) n + p  d +  (C) p  n  e    (D) e   e –  

18. Nucleus A is having mass number 220 and its binding energy per nucleon is 5.6 MeV. It splits in
two fragments ‘B’ and ‘C’ of mass numbers 105 and 115. The binding energy of nucleons in ‘B’
and ‘C’ is 6.4 MeV per nucleon. The energy Q released per fission will be :

(A) 0.8 MeV (B) 275 MeV (C) 220 MeV (D) 176 MeV

R
19. Which of the following figure represents the variation of In R0 with ln A(If R = radius of a

nucleus and

A = its mass number)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

20. Read the following statements :

(a) Volume of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.

(b) volume o the nucleus is independent of mass number.

(c) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the mass number.

(d) Density of the nucleus is directly proportional to the cube root of the mass number.

(e) Density of the nucleus is independent of the mass number.

Choose the correct option from the following options.

(A) (a) and (d) only (B) (a) and (e) only (C) (b) and (e) only (D) (a) and (c) only

PAGE # 3
21. Per nucleon energy of 3Li7 and 2He4 nucleus is 5.60 MeV and 7.06 MeV, then in 3Li7 + 1P1
22He4 energy released is :–

(A) 29.6 MeV (B) 2.4 MeV (C) 8.4 MeV (D) 17.3 MeV

22. From the given data, the amount of energy required break the nucleus of aluminium 27
13 Al is
_____ x × 10–3 J.

Mass of neutron = 1.00566 u

Mass of proton = 1.00726 u

Mass of Aluminium nucleus = 27.18846 u

(Assume 1 u corresponds to x J of energy)

(Round off to the nearest integer)

(A) 21 (B) 25 (C) 27 (D) 30

23. 235 nucleus absorbs a slow neutron and undergoes fission into 54X139 and 38Sr94 nuclei. The
92U
other particles produced in this fission process are

(A) 1  and 1  (B) 2  and 1 neutron (C) 2 neturons (D) 3 neutrons

24. In a fission reaction

236 117
92
U  X + 117Y + n + n

the average binding energy per nucleon of X and Y is 8.5 MeV whereas that of 236U is 7.6 MeV.
The total energy liberated will be about :

(A) 200 keV (B) 2 MeV (C) 200 MeV (D) 2000 MeV

25. A heavy nucleus having mass number 200 gets disintegrated into two small fragments of
mass number 80 and 120. If binding energy per nucleon for parent atom is 6.5 M eV and for
daughter nuclei is 7 M eV and 8 M eV respectively, then the energy released in each decay will
be :

(A) 200 M eV (B)  220 M eV (C) 220 M eV (D) 180 M eV

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D)

6. (D) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)

16. (A) 17. (B) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (C)

PAGE # 4
 DPP No. 11 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : SEMICONDUCTOR

1. The forbidden energy band gap in conductors, semiconductors and insulators are EG1, EG2
and EG3 respectively, The relation among them is
(A) EG1 = EG2 = EG3 (B) EG1 < EG2 < EG3 (C) EG1 > EG2 > EG3 (D) EG1 < EG2 > EG3
2. Fermi energy is the-
(A) Minimum energy of electrons in metal at 0 K
(B) Minimum energy of electrons in metal at 0°C
(C) Maximum energy of electrons in metal at 0 K
(D) Maximum energy of electrons in metal at 0°C
3. The valence band at (0 K) is-
(A) completely filled (B) completely empty (C) partially filled (D) nothing can be said
4. The free electron concentration (n) in the conduction band of a semiconductor at a
temperature T Kelvin is described in terms of Eg and T as-
–Eg/kT 2 –Eg/kT 2 –Eg/2kT 3/2 –Eg/2Kt
(A) n = ATe (B) n = AT e (C) n = AT e (D) n = AT e
5. Electric conduction in a semiconductor takes place due to
(A) electrons only (B) holes only
(C) both electrons and holes (D) neither electron nor holes
6. The mobility of free electron is greater than that of free holes because
(A) They carry negative charge
(B) They are light
(C) They mutually collide less
(D) They require low energy to continue their motion
7. Let np and ne be the numbers of holes and conduction electrons in an intrinsic semiconductor
(A) np > ne (B) np = ne (C) np < ne (D) np  ne
8. A N-type semiconductor is
(A) Negatively charged (B) Positively charged(C) Neutral (D) None of these
9. Let np and ne be the numbers of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsic semiconductor
(A) np > ne (B) np = ne (C) np < ne (D) np  ne
10. In a P-type semiconductor, the acceptor level is 57 meV, above the valence band. The
maximum wave length of light required to produce a hole will be-
o –3 o o o
(A) 57 A (B) 57 × 10 A (C) 217100 A (D) 11.61 × 10 A

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11. Which of the following energy band diagram shows the N-type semiconductor-
Conduction
Band Conduction Valence Valence
Band Band Band

1 ev Impurity Impurity 1 ev Impurity

1 ev 1 ev
(A) (B) level (C) level (D) level

Valence Valence Conduction Conduction

Band Band Band Band

7
12. A P-type silicon semiconductor is made by adding one atom of indium per 5 × 10 atoms of
28 3
silicon is 25 × 10 atom/m. . Point the number of acceptor atoms in per cubic cm. of silicon
30 3 15 3
(A) 2 × 10 atom/cm (B) 5 × 10 atom/cm
15 3 36 3
(C) 1 × 10 atom/cm (D) 2.5 × 10 atom/cm
13. If N-type semiconductor is heated then-
(A) The number of electrons increases and the number of holes decreases
(B) The number of holes increases and the number of electrons decreases
(C) The number of electrons and holes both remain equal
(D) The number of both electrons and holes increases equally
14. GaAs is-
(A) an elemental semiconductor (B) a compound semiconductor
(C) an insulator (D) a metallic semiconductor
15. Forbidden energy gap of Ge is 0.75 eV, maximum wave length of incident radiation for
producing electron-hole pair in germanium semiconductor is-
o o o o
(A) 4200 A (B) 16500 A (C) 4700 A (D) 4000 A
2
16. Mobility of electrron in N-type Ge is 5000 cm / volt sec and conductivity 5 mho/cm. If effect of
holes is negligible then impurity concentration will be-
15 3 14 3 13 3 13 3
(A) 6.25 × 10 /cm (B) 9.25 × 10 /cm (C) 6 × 10 /cm (D) 9 × 10 / cm
13 3
17. The intrinsic carrier density in germanium crystal at 300 K is 2.5 × 10 per cm . If the electron
17 3
density in an N-type germanium crystal at 300 K be 0.5 × 10 per cm , the hole density
3
(per cm ) in this N-type crystal at 300 K would be expected around-
13 6 10 4
(A) 2.5 × 10 (B) 5 × 10 (C) 1.25 × 10 (D) 0.2 × 10
16 –3
18. Pure Si at 300 K has equal electron (ne) and hole (nh) concentrations of 1.5 × 10 m . Doping
22 –3
by indium increases nh to 4.5 × 10 m . Calculate ne in the doped Si-
9 –3 6 –3 3 –3 9 –3
(A) 5.0 × 10 m (B) 6.0 × 10 m (C) 7.0 × 10 m (D) 4.0 × 10 m
2
19. The length of a germanium rod is 0.58 cm and its area of cross-section is 1mm . If for
19 –3 2 2
germanium ni = 2.5 × 10 m , µh = 0.19 m / V-s, µe = 0.39 m / V-s, then the resistance of the
rod will be -
(A) 2.5 K (B) 5.0 K (C) 7.5 K (D) 10.0 K

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20. The contributions in the total current flowing through a semiconductor due to electrons and
3 1 5
holes are and respectively. If the drift velocity of electrons is times that of holes at this
4 4 2
temperature, then the ratio of the concentrations of electrons and holes is-
(A) 6 : 5 (B) 5 : 6 (C) 3 : 2 (D) 2 : 3
21. The P-N junction is-
(A) an ohmic resistance (B) an non ohmic resistance
(C) a positive resistance (D) a negative resistance
22. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
(A) if the junction is forward-biased (B) if the junction is reverse-biased
(C) if the junction is unbiased (D) in no case
23. A hole diffuses from the p-side to the n-side in a p-n junction. This means that
(A) a bond is broken on the n-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to the
conduction band
(B) a conduction electron on the p-side jumps to a broken bond to complete it
(C) a bond is broken on the n-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to a broken
bond on the p-side to complete it
(D) a bond is broken on the p-side and the electron freed from the bond jumps to a broken
bond on the n-side to complete it.
24. The depletion region of a P-N diode, under open circuit condition contains-
(A) Electrons (B) Holes
(C) Unmasked immobile impurity ions (D) Impurity atoms
25. Which is the wrong statement in following sentence? A device in which P and N type
semiconductors
are used is more useful then a vacuum tube because-
(A) power is not necesary to heat the filament
(B) it is more stable
(C) very less heat is producted in it
(D) its efficiency is high due to a high voltage drop across the junction

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (B)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D)

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 DPP No. 12 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : SEMICONDUCTOR

1. The barrier potential in a P-N junction is maximum in-

(A) the reverse bias condition
(B) the forward bias condition
(C) the condition when the junction diode is used as rectifier
(D) zero bias condition
2. The diffusion current in a P-N junction flows-
(A) from the N-side to the P-side
(B) from the P-side to the N-side
(C) from the N-side to the P-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction
if it is reverse baised
(D) from the P-side to the N-side if the junction is forward-biased and in the opposite direction
if it is reverse biased
3. The value of barrier potential of P-N junction in Ge is-
(A) 0.03 volt in the direction of forward current
(B) 0.3 volt in the direction opposite of the forward current
(C) 25 volt in the direction opposite to the forward current
(D) 25 volt in the direction of the forward current
4. Region which have no free electron and holes in a P-N juction is-
(A) P-region (B) N-region (C) junction (D) depletion region
5. The P-N junction diode works as insulator, if connected-
(A) To a.c. (B) In forward bias (C) In reverse bias (D) None of these
6. If the forward voltage in a diode is increased, the width of the depletion region-
(A) Decreases (B) Increases (C) Fluctuates (D) does not change
7. In which case is the juction diode is not reverse bias-

+5V +10V –10V –15V 0V 1V –2V 0V

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. If VA and VB denote the potentials of A and B, then the equivalent resistance between A and B
in the adjoint electric circuit is-

10

A B
10

(A) 10 ohm if VA > VB (B) 5 ohm if VA < VB (C) 5 ohm if VA > VB (D) 20 ohm if VA > VB

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9. If the two ends of a P-N junction are joined by a wire-
(A) There will not be a steady current in the circuit
(B) There will be a steady current from the N-side to the P-side
(C) There will a steady current from the P-side to the N-side
(D) There may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire.
10. Symbolic representation of photodiode is-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Consider the following statements 1 and 2 and identify the correct answer-
[1] A zener diode is always connected in reverse bias.
[2] The potential barrier of a P-N junction lies between 0.1 to 0.3 V approximately.
(A) [1] and [2] are correct (B) [1] and [2] are wrong
(C) [1] is correct, but [2] is wrong (D) [1] is wrong, but [2] is correct
12. Two junction diodes one of germanium (Ge) and other of silicon (Si) are connected as shown
in figure to a battery of emf 12 V and a load resistance 10 k. The germanium diode conducts
at 0.3 V and silicon diode at 0.7 V. When a current flows in the circuit, the potential of terminal
Y will be-
Ge

Si
12V 10k

(A) 12 V (B) 11 V (C) 11.3 V (D) 11.7 V

13. When the reverse potential in a semiconductor diode are 10V and 20V, then the
corresponding reverse currents are 25µA and 50µA respectively. The reverse resistance of
junction diode will be-
–5
(B) 4 × 10  (D) 4 × 10 
5
(A) 40 (C) 40K
14. If the frequency of input alternating potential is n, then the ripple frequency of output potential
of full wave rectifier will be-
n n
(A) 2n (B) n (C) (D)
2 4
15. Function of rectifier is
(A) To convert ac into dc (B) To convert dc into ac
(C) Both (1) and (2) (D) None of these

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16. The logic circuit shown below has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the
correct out put waveform.

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

17. A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source (V)
is connected in the circuit.

The current () in the resistor (R) can be shown by:

(A) (B)

(C) (D)
18. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is :

A B Y A B Y
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 1 0
(A) (B)
1 0 1 1 0 1
1 1 0 1 1 1

A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 1
0 1 1 0 1 0
(C) (D)
1 0 0 1 0 0
1 1 0 1 1 1

19. The forward biased diode connection is

+2V –2V –3V –3V
(A) (B)
2V 4V –2V +2V
(C) (D)

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20. For the circuit shown below, the current through the Zener diode is:

(A) Zero (B) 9 mA (C) 14 mA (D) 5 mA

21. The truth table given below is for :–

(A) OR gate (B) AND gate (C) XNOR gate (D) XOR gate
22. Given below are four logic gates symbols. NAND, NOR and OR are respectively-

A y y A y A y
A
B B B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

(A) (iv), (i), (iii) (B) (i), (iii), (iv) (C) (i), (ii), (iii) (D) (i), (iv), (ii)
23. NAND gate is-
(A) a basic gate (B) not a universal gate (C) a universal gate (D) none of these.
24. The given truth table is for which logic gate-
A B Y
1 1 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
0 0 1

(A) NAND (B) XOR (C) NOR (D) OR

25. The Boolean expression for the output Y of the logic operation shown, is-
A
B
Y
C

(A) ( A  B)  C (B) ( A  B)  C (C) ( A  B)  C (D) ( A  B  C)

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (C) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (C)

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 DPP No. 14 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : UNIT & DIMENSIONS & MEASUREMENT ERROR AND EXPERIMENTS

1. Which of the following sets can’t enter into the list of fundamental quantities in any system of
units?
(A) length, mass and velocity (B) length, time and velocity
(C) mass, time and velocity (D) length, time and mass
2. A dimensionless quantity
(A) never has a unit (B) always has a unit (C) may have a unit (D) does not exist
3. Which pair of following quantities has dimensions different from each other.
(A) Impulse and linear momentum (B) Plank’s constant and angular momentum
(C) Moment of inertia and moment of force (D) Young’s modulus and pressure
4. The velocity of water waves may depend on their wavelength , the density of water  and the
acceleration due to gravity g. The method of dimensions gives the relation between these
quantities as
(A) v2 = k–1 g –1 –1 (B) v2 = k g  (C) v2 = k g  (D) v2 = k 3 g–1 –1
where k is a dimensionless constant
5. The value of G = 6.67 × 10–11 N m2 (kg)–2 . Its numerical value in CGS system will be :
(A) 6.67 × 10–8 (B) 6.67 × 10–6 (C) 6.67 (D) 6.67 × 10–5
6. Force applied by water stream depends on density of water (), velocity of the stream (v) and
cross–sectional area of the stream (A). The expression of the force can be
(A) Av (B) Av2 (C) 2Av (D) A2v
7. If unit of length and time is doubled, the numerical value of 'g' (acceleration due to gravity) will
be :
(A) doubled (B) halved (C) four times (D) remain same
8. Force F is given in terms of time t and distance x by
F = A sin C t + B cos D x
A C
Then the dimensions of and are given by
B D
(A) MLT–2, M0L0T–1 (B) MLT–2, M0L–1T0 (C) M0L0T0, M0L1T–1 (D) M0L1T–1, M0L0T0
9. What are the dimensions of electrical resistance?
(A) ML2 T–2 A2 (B) ML2 T–3 A–2 (C) ML2 T–3 A2 (D) ML2 T–2A–2

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 x dx x 
10.  2ax  x
 an sin1   1 . The value of n is :
2 a 

(A) 0 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) none of these

You may use dimensional analysis to solve the problem.
2ma  2 
11. An unknown quantity "" is expressed as  = log  1 
  ma 

where m = mass, a = acceleration,  = length

The unit of  should be

(A) meter (B) m/s (C) m/s2 (D) s–1
12. Choose the correct statement(s):
(A) All quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the base quantities.
(B) A base quantity cannot be represented dimensionally in terms of the rest of the base
quantities.
(C) The dimension of a base quantity in other base quantities is always zero.
(D) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity.
13. Choose the correct statement(s) :
(A) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct.
(B) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect.
(C) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct.
(D) A dimensionally incorrect equation must be incorrect.
h
14. A parameter  is given by =
4

(here = Stefan’s constant, h = Planck's constant ,  = absolute temperature) then

(A) Dimension of ‘’ will be L2 T2
(B) Unit of ‘’ may be m2 s2

(Weber)()2 (Farad)2
(C) Unit of ‘’ may be
(Tesla)

 R i
(D) Dimension of ‘’ will be equal to dimension of   where R = gas constant, i = Electrical
 m 

current, m = magnetic flux

15. Which of the following units denotes the dimensions ML2/Q2, where Q denotes the electric charge?
(A) H/m2 (B) Weber (Wb) (C) Wb/m2 (D) Henry (H)
16. The dimension of magnetic field in M, L, T and C (Coulomb) is given as
(A) MT2C–2 (B) MT–1C–1 (C) MT–2C–1 (D) MLT–1C–1
17. Let [  0] denote the dimensional formula of the permittivity of vacuum. If M = mass, L = length, T = time
and A = electric current, then :
(A) [  0] = [M–1 L–3 T2 A] (B) [  0] = [M–1 L–3 T4 A2]
(C) [  0] = [M–1 L2 T–1 A–2] (D) [  0] = [M–1 L2 T–1 A]
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18. The density of a material in SI units is 128 kgm –3. In certain units in which the units of length is 25 cm
and the unit of mass is 50 g, the numerical value of density of the material is :
(A) 410 (B) 40 (C) 640 (D) 16
19. If speed (V), acceleration (A) and force (F) are considered as fundamental units, the dimension of
Young's modulus will be :
(A) V–4A2F (B) V–2A2F–2 (C) V–4A–2F (D) V–2A2F2

20. Let , r, c and v represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and voltage, respectively. The dimension


of in SI units will be :
rcv
(A) [LT2] (B) [LA–2] (C) [LTA] (D) [A–1]
21. Amount of solar energy received on the earth’s surface per unit area per unit time is defined a
solar constant. Dimension of solar constant is
(A) ML2T–2 (B) MLT–2 (C) M2L0T–1 (D) ML0T–3
x2

22. The workdone by a gas molecule in an isolated system is given by, W  2 e kT
, where x is
the displacement, k is the Boltzmann constant and T is the temperature,  and  are
constants. Then the dimension of  will be :
(A) [M L2 T–2] (B) [M L T–2] (C) [M2 L T2] (D) [M0 L T0]

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (B) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (ABC) 13. (ABD) 14. (ABC) 15. (D)
16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (D) 22. (B)

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 DPP No. 15 PHYSICS
Maximum Time
50 Min
C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
(COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : UNIT & DIMENSIONS & MEASUREMENT ERROR AND EXPERIMENTS

1. The length of a rectangular plate is measured by a meter scale and is found to be 10.0 cm. Its
width is measured by vernier callipers as 1.00 cm. The least count of the meter scale and
vernier callipers are 0.1 cm and 0.01 cm respectively (Obviously). Maximum permissible error
in area measurement is -
(A) + 0.2 cm2 (B) + 0.1 cm2 (C) + 0.3 cm2 (D) Zero
2. For a cubical block, error in measurement of sides is + 1% and error in measurement of mass
is + 2%, then maximum possible error in density is -
(A) 1% (B) 5% (C) 3% (D) 7%
L
3. To estimate ‘g’ (from g = 42 ), error in measurement of L is + 2% and error in
T2
measurement of T is + 3%. The error in estimated ‘g’ will be -
(A) + 8% (B) + 6% (C) + 3% (D) + 5%
4. The least count of a stop watch is 0.2 second. The time of 20 oscillations of a pendulum is
measured to be 25 seconds. The percentage error in the time period is
(A) 16% (B) 0.8 % (C) 1.8 % (D) 8 %
5. The dimensions of a rectangular block measured with a vernier callipers having least count of
0.1 mm is 5 mm × 10 mm × 5 mm. The maximum percentage error in measurement of volume
of the block is
(A) 5 % (B) 10 % (C) 15 % (D) 20 %
xy 2
6. An experiment measures quantities x, y, z and then t is calculated from the data as t = . If
z3
percentage errors in x, y and z are respectively 1%, 3%, 2%, then percentage error in t is :
(A) 10 % (B) 4 % (C) 7 % (D) 13 %
7. The external and internal diameters of a hollow cylinder are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm
and (3.89 ± 0.01) cm. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is
(A) (0.34 ± 0.02) cm (B) (0.17 ± 0.02) cm (C) (0.17 ± 0.01) cm (D) (0.34 ± 0.01) cm
8. The mass of a ball is 1.76 kg. The mass of 25 such balls is
(A) 0.44 × 103 kg (B) 44.0 kg (C) 44 kg (D) 44.00 kg
9. Two resistors R1 (24 ± 0.5)  and R2 (8 ± 0.3)  are joined in series. The equivalent
resistance is
(A)32 ± 0.33  (B) 32 ± 0.8  (C) 32 ± 0.2  (D) 32 ± 0.5 

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10. The pitch of a screw gauge is 0.5 mm and there are 100 divisions on it circular scale. The
instrument reads +2 circular scale divisions when nothing is put in-between its jaws. In
measuring the diameter of a wire, there are 8 divisions on the main scale and 83rd circular
scale division coincides with the reference line. Then the diameter of the wire is
(A) 4.05 mm (B) 4.405 mm (C) 3.05 mm (D) 1.25 mm
11. The pitch of a screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 50 divisions on its circular scale. When the
two jaws of the screw gauge are in contact with each other, the zero of the circular scale lies 6
division above the line of graduation. When a wire is placed between the jaws, 3 main scale
divisions are clearly visible while 31st division on the circular scale coincide with the reference
line. The diameter of the wire is :
(A) 3.62 mm (B) 3.50 mm (C) 3.5 mm (D) 3.74 mm
12. The smallest division on the main scale of a vernier callipers is 1 mm, and 10 vernier divisions
coincide with 9 main scale divisions. While measuring the diameter of a sphere, the zero
mark of the vernier scale lies between 20 and 21 mm and the fifth division of the vernier scale
coincide with a main scale division. Then diameter of the sphere is
(A) 20.5 mm (B) 21.5 mm (C) 21.50 mm (D) 20.50 mm
13. In a meter bridge circuit, the known resistance used in resistance box is 100  (without any
error, and the unknown resistor is put in right arm). The null point is found to be 40 cm from
left end. If mm scale is used in the meter bridge then resistance of the unknown resistor is :

3 3 5 7
(A) 150   (B) 150   (C) 150   (D) 150  
8 8 8 16

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14. In the post office box circuit, 10  plug is taken out in arm AB and 100  plug is taken out in
arm BC. If the unknown resistor is kept in melting ice chamber, 600  resistance is required in
arm AD for zero deflection in galvanometer. Now if the unknown resistor is kept at 100° C
(steam chamber), 630  resistance is required in arm AD for zero deflection. Temperature
coefficient of resistance of the unknown wire is :

(A) 2.5  10–4 / C° (B) 5  10–4/ C° (C) 7.5  10–4 / C° (D) 8  10–4 / C°
15. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and
2.1 × 10–3 are
(A) 5, 1, 2 (B) 5, 1, 5 (C) 5, 5, 2 (D) 4, 4, 2
16. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire .
Main scale reading : 0 mm
Circular scale reading : 52 division
Given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to 100 divisions of the circular scale.
The diameter of wire from the above data is :
(A) 0.52 cm (B) 0.052 cm (C) 0.026 cm (D) 0.005 cm
17. If 400  of resistance is made by adding four 100 resistances of tolerance 5%, then the
tolerance of the combination is :
(A) 5% (B) 10 % (C) 15 % (D) 20 %
18. The Current voltage relation of diode is given by I = (e 1000V/T
–1) mA, where the applied voltage
V is in volts and the temperature T is in degree Kelvin. If a student makes an error measuring
 0.01 V while measuring the current of 5 mA at 300K, what will be the error in the value of

current in mA ?
(A) 0.2 mA (B) 0.02 mA (C) 0.5 mA (D) 0.05 mA
19. A student measured the length of a rod and wrote it as 3.50 cm. Which instrument did he use
to measure it?
(A) A meter scale.
(B) A vernier calliper where the 10 divisions in vernier scale matches with 9 division in main
scale and main scale has 10 divisions in 1 cm.
(C) A screw gausge having 100 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.
(D) A screw gauge having 50 divisions in the circular scale and pitch as 1 mm.

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 L
20. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T = 2 . Measured value of L is 20.0 cm
g

known to 1 mm accuracy and time for 100 oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90s
using a wrist watch of 1s resolution. The accuracy in the determination of g is :
(A) 2% (B) 3% (C) 1% (D) 5%
21. A student measures the time period of 100 oscillations of a simple pendulum four times. That
data set is 90 s, 91 s, 95 s and 92 s. If the minimum division in the measuring clock is 1 s,
then the reported mean time should be :
(A) 92 ± 5.0 s (B) 92 ± 1.8 s (C) 92 ± 3 s (D) 92 ± 2 s
22. A screw gauge with a pitch of 0.5 mm and a circular scale with 50 divisions is used to
measure the thickness of a thin sheet of Aluminium. Before starting the measurement, it is
found that when the two jaws of the screw gauge are brought in contact, the 45th division
coincides with the main scale line and that the zero of the main scale is barely visible. What is
the thickness of the sheet if the main scale reading is 0.5mm and the 25th division coincides
with the main scale line?
(A) 0.80 mm (B) 0.70mm (C) 0.50mm (D) 0.75mm
23. The density of a material in the shape of a cube is determined by measuring three sides of the
cube and its mass. If the relative errors in measuring the mass and length are respectively
1.5% and 1%, the maximum error in determining the density is :
(A) 4.5% (B) 6% (C) 2.5% (D) 3.5 %
24. The pitch and the number of divisions, on the circular scale, for a given screw gauge are 0.5
mm and 100 respectively. When the screw gauge is fully tightened without any object, the
zero of its circular scale lies 3 divisions below the mean line. The readings of the main scale
and the circular scale, for a thin sheet are 5.5 mm and 48 respectively, the thickness of this
sheet is :
(A) 5.740 mm (B) 5.950 mm (C) 5.725 mm (D) 5.755 mm
25. The diameter and height of a cylinder are measured by a meter scale to be 12.6 ± 0.1 cm and
34.2 ± 0.1 cm, respectively. What will be the value of its volume in appropriate significant
figure.
(A) 4264 ± 81 cm3 (B) 4300 ± 80 cm3 (C) 4260 ± 80 cm3 (D) 4264.4 ± 81.0 cm3

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (B)
21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (C)

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 DPP No. 16 PHYSICS
Maximum Time
50 Min
C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
(COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : KTG & THERMODYNAMICS

1. When an ideal gas is compressed isothermally then its pressure increases because :
(A) its potential energy decreases
(B) its kinetic energy increases and molecules move apart
(C) its number of collisions per unit area with walls of container increases
(D) molecular energy increases
2. Which of the following is correct for the molecules of a gas in thermal equilibrium ?
(A) All have the same speed
(B) All have different speeds which remain constant
(C) They have a certain constant average speed
(D) They do not collide with one another.
3. The temperature at which the r.m.s velocity of oxygen molecules equal that of nitrogen
molecules at 100ºC is nearly:
(A) 426.3 K (B) 456.3 K (C) 436.3 K (D) 446.3 K
4. Figure shows graphs of pressure vs density for an ideal gas at two temperatures T1 and T2.

(A) T1 > T2 (B) T1 = T2

(C) T1 < T2 (D) any of the three is possible
5. Suppose a container is evacuated to leave just one molecule of a gas in it. Let mp and av
represent the most probable speed and the average speed of the gas, then
(A) mp > av (B) mp < av (C) mp = av (D) none of these
6. The average speed of nitrogen molecules in a gas is v. If the temperature is doubled and the
N2 molecule dissociate into nitrogen atoms, then the average speed will be
(A) v (B) v2 (C) 2 v (D) 4v

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7. Four containers are filled with monoatomic ideal gases. For each container, the number of
moles, the mass of an individual atom and the rms speed of the atoms are expressed in terms
of n, m and vrms respectively. If TA, TB, TC and TD are their temperatures respectively then
which one of the options correctly represents the order ?
A B C D
Number of moles n 3n 2n n
Mass 4m m 3m 2m
Rms speed Vrms 2Vrms Vrms 2Vrms
Temperature TA TB TC TD

(A) TB = TC > TA > TD (B) TD > TA > TC > TB (C) TD > TA = TB > TC (D) TB > TC > TA > TD
8. For a gas sample with N0 number of molecules, function N(V) is given by :
dN  3 N0  2
N(V) =   V for 0 < V < V0 and N(V) = 0 for V > V0. Where dN is number of
dV  V03 

molecules in speed range V to V+ dV. The rms speed of the molecules is :

2 3
(A) V0 (B) V0 (C) 2V0 (D) 3V0
5 5

9. A gas is filled in a rigid container at pressure P0. If the mass of each molecule is halved
keeping the total number of molecules same and their r.m.s. speed is doubled then find the
new pressure.
(A) 1P0 (B) 2P0 (C) 3P0 (D) 4P0
10. Three closed vessels A, B, and C are at the same temperature T and contain gases which
obey the Maxwell distribution of speed . Vessel A contains only O2, B only N2 and C a mixture
of equal quantities of O2 and N2. If the average speed of O2 molecules in vessel A is V1, that of
the N2 molecules in vessel B is V2 ,the average speed of the O2 molecules in vessel C will be :
V1
(A) (V1 + V2)/2 (B) V1 (C) (V1V2)1/2 (D)
2
11. A certain gas is taken to the five states represented by dots in the graph. The plotted lines are
isotherms. Order of the most probable speed vp of the molecules at these five states is :

(A) VP at 3 > VP at 1 = VP at 2 > VP at 4 = VP at 5

(B) VP at 1 > VP at 2 = VP at 3 > VP at 4 > VP at 5
(C) VP at 3 > VP at 2 = VP at 4 > VP at 1 > VP at 5
(D) Insufficient information to predict the result.

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12. Find the average of magnitude of linear momentum of helium molecules in a sample of helium
gas at temperature of 150  K. Mass of a helium molecules = (166/3) × 10–27 kg and
R = 25/3 J-mol–1 K–1
53 83
(A)  1023 kg-m/s (B)  1023 kg-m/s
3 10 3 5

83 83
(C)  1023 kg-m/s (D)  1023 kg-m/s
3 10 2 10

13. The following graph shows two isotherms for a fixed mass of an ideal gas. Find the ratio of
r.m.s. speed of the molecules at temperatures T1 amd T2 ?

(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) None of these

14. A gas has volume V and pressure P. The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules
of the gas is:–
3 3
(A) PV only if the gas is monoatomic. (B) PV only if the gas is diatomic.
2 2
3 3
(C) > PV if the gas is diatomic. (D) PV in all cases.
2 2
3PV
15. The pressure of an ideal gas is written as E = . Here E stands for
2
(A) average translational kinetic energy (B) rotational kinetic energy
(C) total kinetic energy. (D) None of these
16. The quantities which remain same for all ideal gases at the same temperature is/are ?
(A) the kinetic energy of equal moles of gas
(B) the kinetic energy of equal mass of gas
(C) the number of molecules of equal moles of gas
(D) the number of molecules of equal mass of gas
2U
17. The quantity represents (where U = internal energy of gas)
fkT
(A) mass of the gas (B) kinetic energy of the gas
(C) number of moles of the gas (D) number of molecules in the gas
18. 16 g of oxygen at 37ºC is mixed with 14 g of nitrogen at 27ºC. Find the temperature of the
mixture?
(A) 12ºC (B) 15ºC (C) 24ºC (D) 32ºC

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19. 0.040 g of He is kept in a closed container initially at 100.0ºC. The container is now heated.
Neglecting the expansion of the container, calculate the temperature at which the internal
 25 
energy is increased by 12 J. R  J – mol–1 – k –1 
 3 
(A) 150ºC (B) 176ºC (C) 196ºC (D) 296ºC
20. From the following V–T diagram we can conclude:–

(A) P1 = P2 (B) P1>P2 (C) P1 < P2 (D) Can't say anything

21. A gas is expanded from volume V0 to 2V0 under three different processes. Process 1 is
isobaric process, process 2 is isothermal and process 3 is adiabatic. Let U1,U2 and U3, be
the change in internal energy of the gas is these processes. Then :–

(A) U1 > U2 > U3 (B) U1 < U2 < U3 (C) U2 < U1 < U3 (D) U2 <U3 < U1
22. In the following figures (1) to (4), variation of volume by change of pressure is shown. A gas is
taken along the path ABCDA. The change in internal energy of the gas will be:

(1) (2) (3) (4)

(A) positive in all cases from (1) to (4)

(B) positive in cases (1), (2) and (3) but zero in case (4)
(C) negative in cases (1), (2) and (3) but zero in case (4)
(D) zero in all the four cases.

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23. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure.
P C

B
D

A
T

Corresponding density () versus volume (v) graph will be :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

24. In the following V-T diagram what is the relation between P1 and P2 :

(A) P2 = P1 (B) P2 > P1 (C) P2 < P1 (D) cannot be predicted

25. In a cyclic process shown on the P – V diagram the magnitude of the work done is :


2 2
 P2  P1   V2  V1 
(A)    (B)    (C) (P2 – P1) (V2 – V1) (D) (P2V2 – P1V1)
 2   2  4

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (C)

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 DPP No. 17 PHYSICS
Maximum Time
50 Min
C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
(COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)
SYLLABUS : KTG & THERMODYNAMICS

1. A fixed mass of an ideal gas undergoes changes of pressure and volume starting at L, as
shown in Figure.

Which of the following is correct :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. In figure, P-V curve of an ideal gas is given. During the process, the cumulative work done by
the gas

(A) continuously increases (B) continuously decreases

(C) first increases then decreases (D) first decreases then increases
3. In given figure, let W 1 and W 2 be the work done by the gas in process A and B respectively
then (given change in volume is same in both process)

(A) W 1 > W 2
(B) W 1 = W 2
(C) W 1 < W 2
(D) Nothing can be said about the relation between W 1 and W 2

www.competishun.com PAGE# 1
4. The internal energy of a gas is given by U = 5 + 2PV. It expands from V 0 to 2V0 against a
constant pressure P0. The heat absorbed by the gas in the process is :–
(A) –3P0V0 (B) 3P0V0 (C) 2P0V0 (D) P0V0
5. When a system is taken from state ‘a’ to state ‘b’ along the path ‘acb’, it is found that a
quantity of heat Q = 200 J is absorbed by the system and a work W = 80J is done by it. Along
the path ‘adb’, Q = 144J. The work done along the path ‘adb’ is

(A) 6J (B) 12 J (C) 18 J (D) 24 J

6. In the above question, if the work done on the system along the curved path ‘ba’ is 52J, heat
abosrbed is
(A) – 140 J (B) – 172 J (C) 140 J (D) 172 J
7. In above question, if Ua = 40J, value of Ubwill be
(A) – 50 J (B) 100 J (C) – 120 J (D) 160 J
8. In above question, if Ud = 88 J, heat absorbed for the path ‘db’ is
(A) – 72 J (B) 72 J (C) 144 J (D) – 144 J
9. Ideal gas is taken through process shown in figure:

(A) In process AB, work done by system is positive

(B) In process AB, heat is rejected out of the system.
(C) In process AB, internal energy increases
(D) In process AB internal energy decreases and in process BC internal energy increases.
10. The value of the ratio Cp/Cv for hydrogen is 1.67 at 30 K but decreases to 1.4 at 300 K as
more degrees of freedom become active. During this rise in temperature (assume H 2 as ideal
gas),
(A) Cp remains constant but Cv increases
(B) Cp decreases but Cv increases
(C) Both Cp and Cv decrease by the same amount
(D) Both Cp and Cv increase by the same amount

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11. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition, the specific heat of water is
(A) zero (B) one (C) Infinite (D) less than one
12. For an ideal gas, the heat capacity at constant pressure is larger than than that at constant
volume because
(A) positive work is done during expansion of the gas by the external pressure
(B) positive work is done during expasion by the gas against external pressure
(C) positive work is done during expansion by the gas against intermolecular forces of
attraction
(D) more collisions occur per unit time when volume is kept constant.
13. A gas has :
(A) one specific heat only (B) two specific heats only
(C) infinite number of specific heats (D) no specific heat
14. If molar heat capacity of the given process (as shown in figure) is C, then

(A) C < CV (B) C = 0 (C) C > Cv (D) C = Cv

15. For small positive coefficient of expansion in case of solid,
(A) Cp - Cv = R (B) Cp - Cv = 2R
(C) Cp is slightly greater than Cv (D) Cp is slightly less than Cv
16. The molar specific heat of the process V  T4 for CH4 gas at room temperature is:–
(A) 4R (B) 7R (C) 3R (D) 8R
17. A gas is contained in a metallic cylinder fitted with a piston. The gas is suddenly compressed
by pushing piston downward and is maintained at this position. After this process, as time
passes the pressure of the gas in the cylinder
(A) increases
(B) decreases
(C) remains constant
(D) increases or decreases depending on the nature of the gas.
18. Two samples 1 and 2 are initially kept in the same state. The sample 1 is expanded through
an isothermal process where as sample 2 through an adiabatic process upto the same final
volume. The final temperature in process 1 and 2 are T1 and T2 respectively, then
(A) T1 > T2
(B) T1 = T2
(C) T1 < T2
(D) The relation between T1 and T2 cannot be deduced.

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19. Let P1 and P2 be the final pressure of the samples 1 and 2 respectively in the previous
question then :
(A) P1 < P2 (B) P1 = P2 (C) P1 > P2
(D) The relation between P1 and P2 cannot be deduced.
20. Let W 1 and W 2 be the work done by the systems 1 and 2 respectively in the previous
question then:
(A) W 1 > W 2 (B) W 1 = W 2 (C) W 1 < W 2
(D) The relation between W 1 and W 2 cannot be deduced.
21. A given quantity of a gas is at pressure P and absolute temperature T. The isothermal bulk
modulus of the gas is:
2 3
(A) P (B) P (C) P (D) 2P
3 2
22. In figure, A and B are two adiabatic curves for two different gases. Then A and B corresponds
to :

(A) Ar and He respectively (B) He and H2 respectively

(C) O2 and H2 respectively (D) H2 and He respectively
23. The internal energy of a gas in an adiabatic process is given by U = a + bPV, find :–
a 1 b 1 b 1 a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a b a b 1
24. A gas undergoes a process in which its pressure P and volume V are related as
VPn = constant. The bulk modulus of the gas in the process is :
(A) nP (B) P1/n (C) P/n (D) Pn
25. The work of 146 kJ is performed in order to compress one kilo mole of a gas adiabatically and
in this process the temperature of the gas increases by 7 oC. The gas is (R = 8.3 J mol-1 K-1)
(A) diatomic (C) triatomic
(C) mixture of monoatomic and diatomic (D) monoatomic

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (C) 15. (C)
16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (A)

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DPP No: 18
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

1. The equation of motion of a particle of mass 1 g is + 2x = 0 where x is displacement(in m)

from mean position . The frequency of oscillation is (in Hz) :

(A) (B) 2 (C) 5 (D)

2. According to a scientists, he applied a force F= –cx1/3 on a particle and the particle is performing
SHM. No other force acted on the particle. He refuses to tell whether c is a constant or not.
Assume that he had worked only with positive x then :

(A) as x increases c also increases (B) as x increases c decreases

(C) as x increases c remains constant (D) the motion cannot be SHM

3. The displacement of a particle in simple harmonic motion in one time period is

(A) A (B) 2A (C) 4A (D) zero

4. A particle performing SHM takes time equal to T (time period of SHM) in consecutive
appearances at a perticular point. This point is :

(A) An extreme position

(B) The mean position

(C) Between positive extreme and mean position

(D) Between negative extreme and mean position

5. Two bodies performing S.H.M. have same amplitude and frequency. Their phases at a certain
instant are as shown in the figure. The phase difference between them is

0.5 A
(-x) + (+x)
0

A A

(-x) + (+x)
0.5 A 0

(A) (B)  (C) (D)

PAGE # 1
6. Which of the following quantities are always non-positive in a simple harmonic motion along a
straight line?
     
(A) F . a (B) v . r (C) a . r (D) F . r

7. The quantities which are always Zero for a particle performing linear SHM :
   
(A) a  F (B) r  v (C) r  a (D) r  F

8. The figure shows the displacement time graph of a particle executing S.H.M. If the time period
of oscillation is 2 s the equation of motion of its SHM is

x
(in mm)

10
5
O t(s)
1

(A) x = 10sin(t+ /3) (B) x = 10sin t

(C) x = 10sin(t+ /6) (D) x = 10 sin (2t+/6)

9. Two SHM’s are represented by y = a sin (t – kx) and y = b cos (t – kx). The phase difference
between the two is :

   3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4 6 4

10. A particle is made to under go simple harmonic motion. Find its average acceleration in one
time period.

2 A 2 A
(A)  A
2
(B) (C ) (D) zero
2 2

11. A small mass executes linear S.H.M. about O with amplitude 'a' and period 'T'. Its displacement
from O at time T/8 after passing through O is

(A) a/8 (B) (C) a/2 (D)

12. A particle performing SHM on the y axis according to equation y = A + B sint. Its amplitude is:

(A) A (B) B (C) A + B (D) A 2  B2

13. Two particles execute S.H.M. of same amplitude and frequency along the same straight line
from same mean position. They cross one another without collision, when going in opposite
directions, each time their displacement is half of their amplitude. The phase-difference between
them is

(A) 0° (B) 120° (C) 180° (D) 135°

PAGE # 2
14. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by x = 0.01 sin 100 (t + 0.05). The time
period is in seconds and amplitude of the particle is in meters

(A) Time period of the particle is 0.02 sec. (B) Amplitude of the particle is 0.01 m

(C) Time period of the particle is 0.01 sec. (D) Amplitude of the particle is 0.02 m

15. Displacement of a particle is x = 3 sin 2t + 4cos 2t, the amplitude and the maximum velocity
will be :–

(A) 5, 10 (B) 3, 2 (C) 4, 2 (D) 3, 8

16. A body executing SHM passes through its equilibrium. At this instant, it has

(A) maximum potential energy (B) maximum kinetic energy

(C) minimum kinetic energy (D) maximum acceleration

17. A point particle of mass 0.1 kg is executing S.H.M. of amplitude of 0.1 m. When the particle
passes through the mean position, its kinetic energy is 8 × 10–3 J. The equation of motion of
this particle when the initial phase of oscillation is 45° can be given by

       
(A) 0.1 cos  4t  4  (B) 0.1 sin  4t  4  (C) 0.4 sin  t  4  (D) 0.2 sin  2  2t 
       

18. Acceleration a versus time t graph of a body in SHM is given by a curve shown below. T is the
time period. Then corresponding graph between kinetic energy KE and time t is correctly
represented by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

19. In SHM particle oscillates with frequency  then find the frequency of oscillation of its kinetic
energy.

(A)  (B) /2 (C) 2 (D) zero

PAGE # 3
 3
20. A particle performs S.H.M. of amplitude A along a straight line. When it is at a distance A
2

1
from mean position, its kinetic energy gets increased by an amount m 2 A2 due to an impulsive
2
force. Then its new amplitude becomes:

5 3
(A) A (B) A (C) 2 A (D) 5 A
2 2

21. A particle performing SHM with amplitude 10cm. At What distance from mean position the
kinetic energy of the particle is thrice of its potential energy?

(A) ± 2 cm (B) ± 3 cm (C) ± 5 cm (D) None of these

22. Two spring mass systems having equal mass and spring constant k 1 and k2.If the maximum
velocities in two systems are equal then ratio of amplitude of 1st to that of 2nd is :

(A) k 1 / k 2 (B) k1/k2 (C) k2/k1 (D) k 2 / k1

23. A mass of 1 kg attached to the bottom of a spring has a certain frequency of vibration. The
following mass has to be added to it in order to reduce the frequency by half :

(A) 1 kg (B) 2 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg

24. Frequency of a block in spring mass system is . If it is taken in a lift moving with constant
acceleration upward, then frequency will :

(A) decrease (B) increase (C) remain constant (D) none

25. The length of a spring is  when a force of 4 N is applied on it and the length is  when
5 N force is applied. Then the length of spring when 9 N force is applied is-

(A) 5 – 4 (B)  –  (C) 5 – 4 (D) 9 ( – )

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (C)

6. (CD) 7. (ABCD) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (D)

11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (AB) 15. (A)

16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)

21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 19
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : SIMPLE HARMONIC MOTION

1. A smooth inclined plane having angle of inclination 30° with horizontal has a mass 2.5 kg held
by a spring which is fixed at the upper end as shown in figure. If the mass is taken 2.5 cm up
along the surface of the inclined plane, the tension in the spring reduces to zero. If the mass is
then released, the angular frequency of oscillation in radian per second is

(A) 0.707 (B) 7.07 (C) 1.414 (D) 14.14

2. Four massless springs whose force constants are 2k, 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to
a mass M kept on a frictionless plane (as shown in figure). If the mass M is displaced in the
horizontal direction, then the frequency of the system.

1 k 1 4k 1 k 1 7k
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 4M 2 M 2 7M 2 M

3. A heavy brass-sphere is hung from a spiral spring and it executes vertical vibrations with period
T. The ball is now immersed in nonviscous liquid with a density one-tenth that of brass. When
set into vertical vibrations with the sphere remaining inside the liquid all the time, the period
will be-

(A) T (B) (C) Unchanged (D)

4. The total mechanical energy of a particle of mass m executing SHM with the help of a spring is
E = (1/2)m2A2. If the particle is replaced by another particle of mass m/2 while the amplitude
A remains same. New mechanical energy will be :

(A) 2E (B) 2E (D) E/2 (D) E

PAGE # 1
5. Some springs are combined in series and parallel arrangement as shown in the figure and
a mass m is suspended from them. The ratio of their frequencies will be :–

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 2 : 1 (C) : 2 (D) 4 : 1

6. A spring-mass system oscillates in a car. If the car accelerates with a constant acceleration on
a horizontal road, the frequency of oscillation will

(A) increase (B) decrease (C) remain same (D) become zero.

7. A horizontal spring is connected to a mass M. It executes simple harmonic motion. When the
mass M passes through its mean position, an object of mass m is put on it and the two move
together. The ratio of frequencies before and after will be-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. A spring mass a system has a time period of 2 second. What should be the spring constant of
spring if the mass of the block is 10 grams ?

(A) 0.1 N/m (B) 0.2 N/m (C) 1 N/m (D) 2.1 N/m

9. A pendulum is suspended in a lift and its period of oscillation when the lift is stationary is
T0. What must be the acceleration of the lift for the period of oscillation of the pendulum to
be T0/2 ?

(A) 2g downward (B) 2g upward (C) 3g downward (D) 3g upward

10. A pendulum clock that keeps correct time on the earth is taken to the moon. It will run

(A) at correct rate (B) 6 times faster (C) 6 times faster (D) 6 times slower

11. Two pendulums at rest start swinging together. Their lengths are respectively 1.44 m and 1 m.
They will again start swinging in same phase together after (of longer pendulum) :

(A) 1 vibration (B) 3 vibrations (C) 4 vibrations (D) 5 vibrations

PAGE # 2
12. Time period of small oscillation (in a vertical plane normal to the plane of strings) of the bob in
the arrangement shown will be

 

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)

13. A simple pendulum has some time period T. What will be the percentage change in its time
period if its amplitude is decreased by 5%?

(A) 6 % (B) 3 % (C) 1.5 % (D) 0 %

14. A wall clock uses simple pendulum. It is accurate at earth surface .If it is taken to high altitude:

(A) it will run fast

(B) its length should be increased to keep it accurate.

(C) its length should be decreased to keep it accurate.

(D) Even if length is changed it cannot be accurate.

15. Find the length of seconds pendulum at a place where g = 2 m/s2.

(A) 1 m (B) 2 m (C) 3 m (D) 5 m

16. A system of two identical rods (L-shaped) of mass m and length  are resting on a peg P as
shown in the figure. If the system is displaced in its plane by a small angle , find the period of

oscillations

 

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)

PAGE # 3
17. A 25 kg uniform solid sphere with a 20 cm radius is suspended by a vertical wire such that the
point of suspension is vertically above the centre of the sphere. A torque of 0.10 N-m is required
to rotate the sphere through an angle of 1.0 rad and then the orientation is maintained. If the
sphere is then released, its time period of the oscillation will be :

(A)  second (B) 2  second (C) 2 second (D) 4 second

18. The distance between the point of suspension and the centre of gravity of a compound pendulum
is  and the radius of gyration about the horizontal axis through the centre of gravity is k, then
its time period will be

   
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D) 2
 

19. An oscillation is described by the equation x=A sin 21t where A changes with time according
to the law A= A0 (1+cos 22t) where A0 is constant. Find the ratio of frequencies of harmonic
oscillations forming oscillation

(A) 1 : 2 (1 – 2) (B) 1 : (1 – 2):(1 + 2)

(C) 1 : 2 : (2 – 1) (D) 1 : 2 (1 + 2)

20. When two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions of same frequency, amplitude and
phase are superimposed

(A) the resulting motion is uniform circular motion.

(B) the resulting motion is a linear simple harmonic motion along a straight line inclined equally
to the straight lines of motion of component ones.

(C) the resulting motion is an elliptical motion, symmetrical about the lines of motion of the
components.

(D) the two S.H.M. will cancel each other.

21. A simple harmonic motion is given by y = 5 (sin 3t + 3 cos 3t). What is the amplitude of
motion if y is in m ?

(A) 100 cm (B) 5 m (C) 200 cm (D) 1000 cm

22. The position vector of a particle moving in x-y plane is given by


r = (A sint) î + (A cost) ĵ then motion of the particle is :

(A) SHM (B) on a circle

(C) on a straight line (D) with constant acceleration

PAGE # 4
23. In a simple harmonic oscillator, at the mean position:

(A) kinetic energy is minimum, potential energy is maximum

(B) both kinetic and potential energies are maximum

(C) kinetic energy is maximum, potential energy is minimum

(D) both kinetic and potential energies are minimum

24. The length of a simple pendulum executing simple harmonic motion is increased by 21%. The
percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of increased length is :

(A) 11% (B) 21% (C) 42% (D) 10.5%

25. A body executes simple harmonic motion. The potential energy (P.E.), the kinetic energy (K.E.)
and total energy (T.E.) are measured as function of displacement x. Which of the following
statements is true?

(A) K.E. is maximum when x = 0 (B) T.E. is zero when x = 0

(C) K.E. is maximum when x is maximum (D) P.E. is maximum when x = 0

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (C)

6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (D) 10. (D)

11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A)

16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 20
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY


1. In the presence of an applied electric field ( E ) in a metallic conductor..

(A) The electrons move in the direction of E

(B) The electrons move in a direction opposite to E

(C) The electrons may move in any direction randomly, but slowly drift in the direction of E .

(D) The electrons move randomly but slowly drift in a direction opposite to E .

2. A current passes through a wire of non-uniform cross-section. Which of the following quantities
are independent of the cross-section?

(A) the charge crossing in a given time interval

(B) drift speed

(C) current density

(D) None of these

π
3. The current through a wire depends on time as i = i0 +  sin t, where i0 = 10 A and  = A.
2
Find the charge crossed through a section of the wire in 3 seconds, and average current for
that interval.

31 31 17
(A) 25 C , A (B) 31 C , A (C) 31 C , A (D) None of these
3 3 3

4. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
resistance of :

(A) each of the them increases

(B) each of them decreases

(C) copper increases and germanium decreases

(D) copper decreases and germanium increases

5. A battery sets up an electric field of 25 N/C inside a uniform wire of length 2 m and a resistance
of 5 . Find current through the wire.

(A) 5 A (B) 7 A (C) 10 A (D) 12 A

PAGE # 1
6. The current-voltage graphs for a given metallic wire at two different temperature T 1 and T2 are
shown in the figure. Which one is higher, T1 or T2


T1

T2

(A) T2 < T1 (B) T2 = T1 (C) T2 > T1 (D) None of these

7. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in the 5 resistor due to the current flowing
through it is 10 cal/s. The heat generated in the 4 resistor is :

(A) 1 cal/s (B) 2 cal/s (C) 3 cal/s (D) 4 cal/s

8. If internal resistance of a cell is proportional to current drawn from the cell. Then the best
representation of terminal potential difference of a cell with current drawn from cell will be:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

9. A resistor of resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance 5 . The value of R is

varied from 1  to 5 . The power consumed by R:

(A) increases continuously (B) decreases continuously

(C) first decreases then increases (D) first increases then decreases.

10. Find the current through the 10  resistor shown in figure

(A) zero (B) 1 A (C) 2A (D) 5 A

PAGE # 2
11. A resistor with a current of 3 A through it converts 500 J of electrical energy to heat energy in
12 s. What is the voltage across the resistor?

120 115 135 125

(A) V (B) V (C) V (D) 9 V
9 9 9

12. Two electric bulbs, each designed to operate with a power of 500 watts in 220 volt line, are
connected in series. Now they are connected with a 110 volt line. What will be the power
generated by each bulb?

125 125
(A) = 25 watt (B) = 31.25 watt
4 4

115 125
(C) = 31.25 watt (D) = 35.15 watt
4 4

13. For the circuit shown in figure, determine the unknown voltage drop V1 .

(A) 9 V (B) 12 V (C) 15 V (D) 19 V

14. The current i in the circuit (see figure) is :

(A) A (B) A (C) A (D) A

15. In the ladder network shown, current through the resistor 3  is 0.25 A. The input
voltage ‘V’ is equal to

15
(A) 10 V (B) 20 V (C) 5 V (D) V
2

PAGE # 3
16. In the figure shown each resistor is of 20  and the cell has emf 10 volt with negligible
internal resistance. Then rate of joule heating in the circuit is (in watts)

(A) 100/11 (B) 10000/11 (C) 11 (D) None of these

17. Four identical bulbs each rated 100 watt, 220 volts are connected across a battery as
shown. The total electric power consumed by the bulbs is:

220V

(A) 75 watt (B) 400 watt (C) 300 watt (D) 400/3 watt

18. Three equal resistors connected in series across a source of emf together dissipate 10
watts of power. What would be the power dissipated if the same resistors are connected in
parallel across the same source of emf ?

(A) 60 watt (B) 90 watt (C) 100 watt (D) 30 watt

19. Three equal resistance each of R ohm are connected as shown in figure. A battery of
2 volts of internal resistance 0.1 ohm is connected across the circuit. Calculate the value of
R for which the heat generated in the exeternal circuit is maximum.
R R R

2V

(A) 0.1  (B) 0.2  (C) 0.3  (D) 0.4 

20. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in the 5 resistor due to the current flowing
through it is 10 calories per second.

4 6

5

The heat generated in the 4 resistor is :

(A) 1 cal/s (B) 2 cal/s (C) 3 cal/s (D) 4 cal/s

PAGE # 4
21. The equivalent resistance between the points A and B is :

36
(A)  (B) 10 
7

85
(C)  (D) none of these
7

22. The net emf and internal resistance of three batteries

as shown in figure is :

(A) 2V, 1 (B) 2V, 2

(C) 2V, 1.5 (D) 4V, 2

23. 12 cells each having the same emf are connected in series and are kept in a closed box. Some
of the cells are wrongly connected. This battery is connected in series with an ammeter and two
cells identical with each other and also identical with the previous cells. The current is 3 A when
the external cells support this battery and is 2 A when the cells oppose the battery. How many
cells in the battery are wrongly connected?

(A) one (B) two (C) three (D) none

24. N sources of current with different emf’s are connected as

shown in figure. The emf’s of the ources are proportional to
their internal resistances, i.e. E = R, where  is an assigned
constant. The connecting wire resistance is negligible. The
potential difference between points A and B dividing the circuit

in n and N – n links

(A) 0 (B) nE/2 (C) NE (D) (N – n)E

25. The length of a given cylindrical wire is increased by 100%. Due to the consequent decrease in
diameter the change in the resistance of the wire will be

(A) 300 % (B) 200 % (C) 100 % (D) 50 %

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (A) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (B)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 21
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : CURRENT ELECTRICITY

1. The current through the ammeter shown in figure is 1 A. If each of the 4  resistor is replaced
by 2 resistor, the current in circuit will become nearly :

10 5 9 5
(A) A (B) (C) A (D) A
9 4 8 8

2. A galvanometer together with an unknown resistance in series is connected to two identical

batteries each of 1.5 V. When the batteries are connected in series, the galvanometer
records a current of 1A, and when the batteries are in parallel the current is 0.6 A. What is
the internal resistance of the battery?

2 2 1 3
(A) r =  (B) r =  (C) r =  (D) r = 
3 5 3 2

3. The meter-bridge wire AB shown in figure is 50 cm long. When AD = 30 cm, no deflection

occurs in the galvanometer. Find R.

(A) 1  (B) 2  (C) 3  (D) 4 

4. An electrical circuit is shown in the figure. Calculate the potential difference across the
resistance of 400 ohm, as will be measured by the voltmeter V of resistance 400 ohm,
either by applying Kirchhoff's rules or otherwise.

10 15 20 30
(A) V (B) V (C) V (D) V
3 3 3 3

PAGE # 1
5. A 3 volt battery with negligible internal resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure.
Current i will be :

3V 3 3

3

(A) 1/3 A (B) 1 A (C) 1.5 A (D) 2 A

6. In the diagram shown, all the wires have resistance R. The equivalent resistance between the
upper and lower dots shown in the diagram is

(A) R/8 (B) R (C) 2R/5 (D) 3R/8

7. The total current supplied to the circuit by the battery is :

2
6
6V 3
1.5

(A) 1 A (B) 2 A (C) 4 A (D) 6 A

8. The resistance of the series combination of two resistances is S. When they are joined in
parallel, the total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum possible value of n is :

(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

9. In the circuit, the galvanometer G shows zero deflection. If the batteries A and B have negligible
internal resistance, the value of the resistor R will be :

(A) 200  (B) 100  (C) 500  (D) 1000 

PAGE # 2
10. In a Wheat stone’s bridge, three resistances P, Q and R are connected in the three arms and the
fourth arm is formed by two resistances S1 and S2 connected in parallel. The condition for the
bridge to be balanced will be

P R S1  S 2  P R P 2R P R S1  S 2 
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 
Q 2S1S 2 Q S1  S 2 Q S1  S 2 Q S1S 2

11. A cell of emf E having an internal resistance r is connected to an external resistance R. The
potential difference V across the resistance R varies with R as shown in figure by the curve:

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

12. In the figure a part of circuit is shown :

(A) current will flow from A to B (B) current may flow from A to B

(C) current will flow from B to A (D) the direction of current will depend on r.

13. In a circuit shown in figure resistances R1 and R2 are known, as well as emf’s E1 and E2. The
internal resistances of the sources are negligible. At what value of the resistance R will the
thermal power generated in it be the highest ?

R1R 2
(A) R1 + R2 (B) R1 – R2 (C) (D)
R1R 2 R1  R 2

14. Read the following statements carefully :

Y : The resistivity of semiconductor decreases with increase of temperature.

Z : In a conducting solid, the rate of collisions between free electrons and ions increases with
increase of temperature.

Select the correct statement (s) from the following :

(A) Y is true but Z is false (B) Y is false but Z is true

(C) Both Y and Z are true (D) Y is true and Z is the correct reason for Y

PAGE # 3
15. The resistance of the rheostat shown in figure is 30 . Neglecting the ammeter resistance, the
ratio of minimum and maximum currents through the ammeter, as the rheostat is varied, will be

2 83 9 19
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 15 43 43

16. A hemispherical network of radius a is made by using a conducting wire of resistance per unit
length 'r'. The equivalent resistance across OP is.

8ar 8ar ( 2  )ar (2 – )ar

(A) (B) (C) (D)
( 2  ) ( 2 – ) 8 8

17. In a large building, there are 15 bulbs of 40W, 5 bulbs of 100 W, 5 fans of 80 W and 1 heater
of 1 kW. The voltage of the electric mains is 220 V. The minimum capacity of the main fuse of
the building will be :

(A) 8 A (B) 10 A (C) 12 A (D) 14 A

18. In the circuit shown, the current in the 1 resistor is :

(A) 1.3 A, from P to Q

(B) 0 A

(C) 0.13 A, from Q to P

(D) 0.13 A, from P to Q

19. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 100  gives a full scale deflection, when a current
of 1 mA is passed through it. The value of the resistance, which can convert this galvanometer
into ammeter giving a full scale deflection for a current of 10 A, is :

(A) 2  (B) 0.1  (C) 3  (D) 0.01 

20. In the above circuit the current in each resistance is :

2V 2V 2V

1  1  1 

2V 2V 2V

(A) 0 A (B) 1 A (C) 0.25 A (D) 0.5 A

PAGE # 4
21. Two batteries with e.m.f 12V and 13V are connected in parallel across a load resistor of 10.
The internal resistance of the two batteries are 1 and 2 respectively. The voltage across the
load lies between :

(A) 11.4V and 11.5 V (B) 11.7V and 11.8V (C) 11.6V and 11.7V (D) 11.5V and 11.6V

22. A copper wire is stretched to make it 0.5% longer. The percentage change in its electrical
resistance if its volume remains unchanged is :

(A) 2.5% (B) 0.5% (C) 2.0% (D) 1.0%

23. When the switch S, in the circuit shown, is closed, then the value of current i will be :

i1 C i2
10V
20V 2 4
i

2

V=0

(A) 3A (B) 5A (C) 4A (D) 2A

24. Two resistors 400 and 800 are connected in series across a 6 V battery. The potential
difference measured by a voltmeter of 10k across 400 resistor is close to

(A) 2.05 V (B) 1.8 V (C) 2 V (D) 1.95 V

25. A current through a wire depends on time as i = 0t + t2 where 0 = 20 A/s and  = 8 As–2. Find the
charge crossed through a section of the wire in 15s.

(A) 2250 C (B) 11250 C (C) 2100 C (D) 260 C

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C)

6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (D)

11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A)

16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (A)

21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (D) 25. (B)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 22
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : HEAT TRANSFER + ALTERNATING CURRENT

1. Three rods of the same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3k, 2k and k. They are arranged
as shown, with their ends at 100°C, 50°C and 0°C. The temperature of their junction is:–

(A) 75°C (B) (C) 40°C (D)

2. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in the figure. They have thermal
conductivities k1, k2 & k3. The points A and B are maintained at different temperatures. For the
heat to flow at the same rate along ACB and AB :–

(A) k3 = 2(k1 + k2) (B) k3 =  (C) k3 = k1 + k2 (D) k3 = (k1 + k2)

3. A wall has two layers A and B, each made of different material. Both the layers have the same
thickness. The thermal conductivity for A is twice that of B. Under steady state, the temperature
difference across the whole wall is 36°C. Then the temperature difference across the layer A is

(A) 6°C (B) 12°C (C) 18°C (D) 24°C

PAGE # 1
4. A wall consists of alternating blocks with length ‘d’ and coefficient of
thermal conductivity k1 and k2. The cross sectional area of the blocks are
the same. The equivalent coefficient of thermal conductivity of the wall

between left and right is :-

(K 1  K 2 ) K1 K 2 2 K1 K 2
(A) K1 + K2 (B) (C) K  K (D) K  K
2 1 2 1 2

5. A lake surface is exposed to an atmosphere where the temperature is < 0°C. If the thickness of
the ice layer formed on the surface grows from 2 cm to 4 cm in 1 hour, The atmospheric
temperature, Ta will be-

(Thermal conductivity of ice K = 4 x 10-3 cal/cm/s/°C; density of ice = 0.9 gm/cc. Latent heat of
fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm. Neglect the change of density during the state change. Assume that
the water below the ice has 0º temperature every where)

(A) – 20 °C (B) 0 °C (C) – 30 °C (D) – 15 °C

6. A uniform slab of dimension 10cm × 10cm × 1cm is kept between two heat reservoirs at
temperatures 10ºC and 90ºC. The larger surface areas touch the reservoirs. The thermal
conductivity of the material is 0.80 W/m–ºC. Find the amount of heat flowing through the slab
per second.

(A) 15 J (B) 32 J (C) 48 J (D) 64 J

7. A rod CD of thermal resistance 5.0 K/W is joined at the middle of an identical rod AB as shown
in figure. The ends A, B and D are maintained at 100ºC, 0ºC and 25ºC respectively. Find the
heat current in CD.

(A) 2.0 W (B) 4.0 W (C) 6.0 W (D) 8.0 W

8. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials
having coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively
are T 2 and T1(T 2 > T 1). The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is
  
  f, with f equals to:–
 

(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 1/3

PAGE # 2
9. Heat flows radially outward through a spherical shell of outside radius R2 and inner radius R1.
The temperature of inner surface of shell is 1 and that of outer is . The radial distance from
centre of shell where the temperature is just half way between 1 and 2 is :

R1  R 2 R1 R 2 2 R1 R 2 R2
(A) (B) R  R (C) R  R (D) R1 +
2 1 2 1 2 2

10. A hollow metallic sphere of radius 20 cm surrounds a concentric metallic sphere of radius 5 cm.
The space between the two spheres is filled with a nonmetallic material. The inner and outer
spheres are maintained at 50°C and 10°C respectively and it is found that 160 Joule of heat
passes radially from the inner sphere to the outer sphere per second. Find the thermal
conductivity of the material between the spheres.

(A) 5 W/m–°C (B) 10 W/m–°C (C) 15 W/m–°C (D) 20 W/m–°C

11. A conducting cylindrical rod of uniform cross-sectional area is kept between two large chambers
which are at temperatures 100°C and 0°C respectively. The conductivity of the rod increases
with x, where x is distance from 100°C end. The temperature profile of the rod in steady-state
will be as :

100°C 0°C

(A) (B)
100°C 0°C 100°C 0°C

(C) (D)
100°C 0°C 100°C 0°C

12. A metal rod of cross-sectional area 1.0 cm2 is being heated at one end. At one time, the
temperature gradient is 5.0°C/cm at cross-section A and is 2.6 °C/cm at cross-section B. Calculate
the rate at which the temperature is increasing in the part AB of the rod. The heat capacity of
the part AB = 0.40 J/°C, thermal conductivity of the material of the rod = 200 W/m–°C. Neglect
any loss of heat to the atmosphere.

(A) 10 °C/s (B) 12 °C/s (C) 5 °C/s (D) 25 °C/s

13. Assume transmitivity t  0 for all the cases :

(A) bad absorber is bad emitter (B) bad absorber is good reflector

(C) bad reflector is good emitter (D) bad emitter is good absorber

14. A metallic sphere having radius 0.08 m and mass m = 10kg is heated to a temperature of
227°C and suspended inside a box whose walls are at a temperature of 27°C. The maximum
rate at which its temperature will fall is :-

(Take e = 1, Stefan’s constant  = 5.8 x 10-8 Wm-2 K-4 and specific heat of the metal s = 90 cal/
kg/deg J = 4.2 Joules/Calorie)

(A) .055 °C/sec (B) .066 °C/sec (C) .044 °C/sec (D) 0.03 °C/sec

PAGE # 3
15. When q1 joules of radiation is incident on a body it reflects and transmits total of q 2 joules. Find
the emissivity of the body.
q1 q2 q1 q2 q1  q 2
(A) q1 (B) 2q1 (C) q1 (D) None of these

16. Estimate the temperature at which a body may appear blue or red. The values of mean for these
are 5000 and 7500 Å respectively. [ Given Wein’s constant b = 0.3 cm K ]

(A) 6 x 103 K; 4 x 103K (B) 4 x 103 K; 5 x 103K (C) 3 x 103 K; 4 x 103K (D) None of these

17. The earth receives at its surface radiation from the sun at the rate of 1400 Wm-2. The distance
of the centre of the sun from the surface of the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m and the radius of the sun
is 7 × 108 m. Treating the sun as a black body calculate temperature of sun.

(A) 3803 (B) 4813 (C) 5815 (D) 5803

18. The temperature of the two outer surfaces of a composite slab, consisting of two materials K and
2K and thickness x and 4x, respectively, and T 2 and T1(T2 > T1). The rate of heat transfer through
 A(T2  T1 )K 
the slab, in a steady state is   f with f equal to–
 x 
x 4x

T2 T1
K 2K

(A) 1 (B) 1/2 (C) 2/3 (D) 1/3

19. If a piece of metal is heated to temperature  and then allowed to cool ina room which is at
temperature 0, the graph between the temperature T of the metal and time t will be closest to :

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

PAGE # 4
20. Twelve conducting rods form the sides of a uniform cube of side .
If in steady state, B and H ends of the cube are at 1000C and 00C

respectively. Find the temperature of the junction 'A' :–

(A) 800C (B) 600C

(C) 400C (D) 700C

21. If the termpreature of the sun were to increase from T to 2T and its radius from R to 2R, then the
ratio of the radiant energy received on earth to what it was previously will be-
(A) 4 (B) 16 (C) 32 (D) 64
22. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1
and r2 and kept at temperature T1 and T2, respectively. The radial
rate of flow of heat in a substance between the two concentric r1 T1
spheres is proportional to : T2
r2
(r2  r1 ) (r )
2 r1r2
(A) (r r ) (B) ln (r ) (C) (r  r ) (D) (r2 – r1)
12 1 2 1

23. Assuming the sun to be a spherical body of radius R at a temperature of T K, evaluate the total
radiant power, incident on Earth, at a distance r from the Sun. (earth radius = r 0)

R 2 T 4 4r02 R 2 T 4 r02 R 2 T 4 r02 R 2 T 4

(A) (B) (C) (D)
r2 r2 r2 4r 2

24. One end of a thermally insulated rod is kept at a temperature T1 and the other at T2. The rod is
composed of two sections of lengths L1 and L2 and thermal conductivities k1 and k2 respectively.
The temperature at the interface of the sections is

(K 2 L 2 T1  K 1 L1T2 ) (K 2 L1 T1  K 1 L 2 T2 ) (K 1 L 2 T1  K 2 L1T2 ) (K 1 L1 T1  K 2 L 2 T2 )
(A) (K 1L1  K 2L 2 ) (B) (K 2L1  K 1L 2 ) (C) (K 1L 2  K 2L1 ) (D) (K 1L1  K 2L 2 )

25. A spherical solid black body of radius ‘r’ radiates power ‘H’ and its rate of cooling is ‘C’. If density
is constant then which of the following is/are true.

1 1
(A) H  r and c  r2 (B) H  r2 and c  (C) H  r and c  (D) H  r2 and c  r2
r r2

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (C)

6. (D) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (ABC) 14. (B) 15. (C)

16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (B)

21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (B)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 23
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : HEAT TRANSFER & ALTERNATING CURRENT

1. The current in a circuit varies with time as I = 2 t . Then the rms value of the current for the
interval t = 2 to t = 4 sec is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. In ac circuit when ac ammeter is connected it reads i current if a student uses dc ammeter in

plane of ac ammeter the reading in the dc ammeter will be

(A) (B) (C) 0.637 i (D) zero

3. An AC current is given by I = I0 + I1 sin t then its rms value will be

(A) (B) (C) 0 (D)

4. The effective value of current i = 2 sin 100 t + 2 sin (100t + 30°) is

(A) (B) (C) 4 (D) None

5. r.m.s. value of current i = 3 + 4 sin ( t + /3) is:

5 7
(A) 5 A (B) 17 A (C) A (D) A
2 2

6. The peak value of an alternating e.m.f given by E = E0 cos  t, is 10 volt and frequency is
50 Hz. At time t = (1/600) sec, the instantaneous value of e.m.f is :

(A) 10 volt (B) 5 3 volt (C) 5 volt (D) 1 volt

7. The voltage of an AC source varies with time according to the equation, V = 100 sin 100  t cos
100 t. Where t is in second and V is in volt. Then :

(A) the peak voltage of the source is 100 volt

(B) the peak voltage of the source is (100/ 2 ) volt

(C) the peak voltage of the source is 50 volt

(D) the frequency of the source is 50 Hz

PAGE # 1
8. An alternating voltage is given by : e = e1 sint + e2 cost. Then the root mean square value
of voltage is given by :

e1 e 2 e12  e 22
(A) e12  e 22 (B) e1 e 2 (C) (D)
2 2

9. In an AC circuit the voltage applied is E = E0sint. The resulting current in the circuit is

 
I = I0sin     . The power consumption in the circuit is given by :–
 

(A) P = (B) P = zero (C) P = (D) P = E0I0

10. The potential difference V across and the current  flowing through an instrument in an AC
circuit are given by :

V = 5 cos t volt

 = 2 sin t Amp.

The power dissipated in the instrument is :

(A) zero (B) 5 watt (C) 10 watt (D) 2.5 watt

11. A direct current of 2 A and an alternating current having a maximum value of 2 A flow through
two identical resistances. The ratio of heat produced in the two resistances in the same time
interval will be:

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 2 : 1 (D) 4 : 1

12. A sinusoidal AC current flows through a resistor of resistance R. If the peak current is p, then
average power dissipated is :

1 2 4 2 1
(A) I p2 R cos  (B) Ip R (C) Ip R (D) 2
I p2 R
2  

13. What is the rms value of an alternating current which when passed through a resistor produces
heat, which is thrice that produced by a D.C. current of 2 ampere in the same resistor in the
same time interval?

(A) 6 ampere (B) 2 ampere (C) 2 3 ampere (D) 0.65 ampere

14. A resistor and a capacitor are connected to an AC supply of 200 volt, 50 Hz in series. The
current in the circuit is 2 ampere. If the power consumed in the circuit is 100 watt, then the
resistance in the circuit is:

(A) 100  (B) 25  (C) 125  75  (D) 400 

15. The impedance of a series circuit consists of 3 ohm resistance and 4 ohm reactance. The
power factor of the circuit is :

(A) 0.4 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.8 (D) 1.0

PAGE # 2
16. If value of R is changed, then :–

10V 10V R

supply

(A) voltage across L remains same

(B) voltage across C remains same

(C) voltage across LC combination remains same

(D) voltage across LC combination changes

17. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance and current will be :–

R=50 400V 400V

A

100V,50Hz

(A) 400V, 2A (B) 800V, 2A (C) 100V, 2A (D) 100V, 4A

18. A 0.21-H inductor and a 88- resistor are connected in series to a 220-V, 50-Hz AC source.
The current in the circuit and the phase angle between the current and the source voltage are
respectively. (Use  = 22/7)

(A) 2 A, tan–1 3/4 (B) 14.4 A, tan–1 7/8 (C) 14.4 A, tan–1 8/7 (D) 3.28 A, tan–1 2/11

19. A 100 volt AC source of angular frequency 500 rad/s is connected to a LCR circuit with L = 0.8
H, C = 5 F and R = 10 , all connected in series. The potential difference across the resistance
is

100
(A) volt (B) 100 volt (C) 50 volt (D) 50 3
2

20. In an AC circuit, a resistance of R ohm is connected in series with an inductance L. If phase

angle between voltage and current be 45°, the value of inductive reactance will be.

(A) R/4 (B) R/2

(C) R (D) cannot be found with the given data

21. In an AC circuit the potential differences across an inductor and resistor joined in series are
respectively 16 V and 20 V. The total potential difference across the circuit is

(A) 20 V (B) 25.6 V (C) 31.9 V (D) 53.5 V

PAGE # 3
22. An AC voltage source V = 200 2 sin 100 t is connected across a circuit containing an AC
ammeter(it reads rms value) and capacitor of capacity 1 F. The reading of ammeter is :

(A) 10 mA (B) 20 mA (C) 40 mA (D) 80 mA

23. In an LCR circuit, capacitance is changed from C to 2C. For the resonant frequency to remain
unchanged, the inductance should be changed from L to–

(A) 4 L (B) 2L (C) L/2 (D) L/4

24. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage across R is 100 volts and R = 1 k  with
C = 2µF. The resonant frequency  is 200 rad/s. At resonance the voltage across L is–

(A) 2.5 × 10–2 V (B) 40 V (C) 250 V (D) 4 × 10–3 V

25. A power transformer (step up) with an 1 : 8 turn ratio has 60 Hz, 120 V across the primary; the
load in the secondary is 104 . The current in the secondary is

(A) 96 A (B) 0.96 A (C) 9.6 A (D) 96 mA

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)

6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (B)

16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (C)

21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (D)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 24
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROSTATICS

1. A charged particle q 1 is at position (2, - 1, 3). The electrostatic force on another charged
particle q 2 at (0, 0, 0) is :

q1 q2 q1 q 2
(A) 56   (2 î  ĵ  3 k̂ ) (B)
0 56 14  0 (2 î  ĵ  3 k̂ )

q1 q2 q1 q 2
(C) 56   ( ĵ  2 î  3 k̂ ) (D)
0 56 14  0 ( ĵ  2 î  3 k̂ )

2. Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length  at points at distance
0, /2 and  respectively from one end of line. What should be the value of Q in order to
make the net force on q to be zero?

(A) –q (B) –2q (C) –q/2 (D) 4q

3. Two point charges placed at a distance r in air exert a force F on each other. The value of
distance R at which they experience force 4F when placed in a medium of dielectric
constant K = 16 is :

(A) r (B) r/4 (C) r/8 (D) 2r

4. Two point charges q 1 = 2 × 10–3 C and q 2 = –3 × 10 –6C are separated by a distance

x = 10cm. Find the magnitude and nature of the force between the two charges.

(A) 2500 N, attractive. (B) 3500 N, attractive.

(C) 4500 N, attractive. (D) 5400 N, attractive.

5. Four charges are arranged at the corners of a square ABCD as shown in the figure. The force
on the charge kept at the centre O will be :

(A) perpendicular to side AB (B) along the diagonal BD

(C) along the diagonal AC (D) zero

PAGE # 1
6. The charge per unit length of the four quadrant of the ring is 2
– ,  and– respectively. The electric field at the centre is :

(A) (B)

(C) (D) None

7. A simple pendulum has a length  & mass of bob m. The bob is given a charge q coulomb.
The pendulum is suspended in a uniform horizontal electric field of strength E as shown in
figure, then calculate the time period of oscillation when the bob is slightly displaced from
its mean position.

   
       
(A) 2 (B) 2   (C) 2   (D) 2
g  g  qE   g  qE   qE 
2
 m   m  g2   
m
8. The maximum electric field intensity on the axis of a uniformly charged ring of charge q and
radius R will be :

1 q 1 2q 1 2q 1 3q
(A) 4 2 (B) 4 2 (C) 4 2 (D) 4 2
0 3 3R 0 3R 0 3 3R 0 2 3R

9. A non-conducting solid sphere of radius R is uniformly charged. The magnitude of the

electric field due to the sphere at a distance r from its centre.

(A) increases as r increases, for r  R (B) decreases as r increases, for 0 < r <  .
(C) is discontinuous at r = R (D) None of these
10. A positively charged pendulum is oscillating in a uniform electric
field as shown in Figure. Its time period of SHM as compared
to that when it was uncharged. (mg > qE)
(A) Will increase
(B) Will decrease
(C) Will not change
(D) Will first increase then decrease

PAGE # 2
11. A uniform electric field E = 91 × 10–6 V/m is created between two parallel, charged plates as
shown in figure. An electron enters the field symmetrically between the plates with a speed
v0 = 4 × 103 m/s. The length of each plate is  = 1m. Find the angle of deviation of the path
of the electron as it comes out of the field. (Mass of the electron is m = 9.1 × 10–31 kg and
its charge is e = –1.6 × 10–19 C).

(A) 25º (B) 35º (C) 45º (D) 55º

12. The figure shows a nonconducting ring which has positive and negative charge non uniformly
distributed on it such that the total charge is zero. Which of the following statements is true?

(A) The potential at all the points on the axis will be zero.

(B) The electric field at all the points on the axis will be zero.

(C) The direction of electric field at all points on the axis will be along the axis.

(D) If the ring is placed inside a uniform external electric field then net torque and force acting
on the ring would be zero.

13. Figure represents a square carrying charges +q, +q, –q, –q at its four corners as shown.
Then the potential will be zero at points : (A, C, P and Q are mid points of sides)

P +q
+q

A C
B

–q –q
Q

(A) A, B, C, P and Q (B) A, B and C (C) A, P, C and Q (D) P, B and Q

14. Two equal positive charges are kept at points A and B. The electric potential, while moving
from A to B along straight line :

(A) continuously increases (B) remains constant

(C) decreases then increases (D) increases then decreases

PAGE # 3
15. The potential difference between points A and B in the given uniform electric field is :

a
C B

E
b

A
E

(A) Ea (B) E (a 2  b 2 ) (C) Eb (D) (Eb / 2 )

16. If a uniformly charged spherical shell of radius 10 cm has a potential V at a point distant
5 cm from its centre, then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be :

V 2V 3
(A) (B) (C) V (D) 3V
3 3 2

17. A hollow uniformly charged sphere has radius r. If the potential difference between its
surface and a point at distance 3r from the centre is V, then the electric field intensity at a
distance 3r from the centre is:

(A) V/6r (B) V/4r (C) V/3r (D) V/2r

18. The particle of mass m and charge q will touch the infinitely large plate of uniform charge
density  if its velocity v is more than: {Given that  q > 0}
........


v
q,m
d
........

2qd qd
(A) 0 (B) m0 (C) m0 (D) none of these

19. A charge +q is fixed at each of the points x = x0, x = 3x0, x = 5x0, ...... upto infinity on the x-
axis and a charge -q is fixed at each of the points x = 2x0, x = 4x0, x = 6x0, ..... upto infinity.
Here x0 is a positive constant. Take the electric potential at a point due to a charge Q at a
Q
distance r from it to be 4 r . Then the potential at the origin due to the above system of
0

charges is:

q q n 2
(A) 0 (B) (C)  (D)
8  0 x 0 n 2 4  0 x 0

PAGE # 4
20. If a charge is shifted from a high potential region to low potential region, the electrical
potential energy:

(A) Increases (B) Decreases

(C) May increase or decrease. (D) Remains constant

21. A particle of mass 2 g and charge 1C is held at rest on a frictionless horizontal surface at
a distance of 1 m from a fixed charge of 1 mC. If the particle is released it will be repelled.
The speed of the particle when it is at distance of 10 m from the fixed charge is:

(A) 100 m/s (B) 90 m/s (C) 60 m/s (D) 45 m/s

22. An  particle is placed in an electric field at a point having electric potential 5V. Find its
potential energy ?

(A) 2 eV (B) 5 eV (C) 10 eV (D) 12 eV

23. When the separation between two charges is decreased, the electric potential energy of
the charges

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) may increase or decrease (D) remains the same

24. Six charges of magnitude + q and –q are fixed at the corners of a regular hexagon of edge
length a as shown in the figure. The electro static potential energy of the system of charged
particles is :

q2  3 15  q2  3 9  q2  3 15  q2  3 15 
(A)    (B)    (C)    (D)   
 0 a  8 4   0 a  2 4   0 a  4 2   0 a  2 8 

25. Two positive point charges 15 C and 10 C are 30 cm apart. Calculate the work done in
bringing them closer to each other by 15 cm.

(A) 1.5 J (B) 2.5 J (C) 3.5 J (D) 4.5 J

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B)

6. (A) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (A) 10. (A)

11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C)

16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (C)

21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (D)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 25
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROSTATICS

1. A uniformly charged sphere of radius 1 cm has potential of 8000 V at surface. The energy
density near the surface of sphere will be:

(A) 64 × 105 J/m 3 (B) 8 × 103 J/m 3 (C) 32 J/m3 (D) 2.83 J/m3

2. If ' n ' identical water drops (assumed spherical each) each charged to a potential energy U
coalesce to form a single drop, the potential energy of the single drop is(Assume that
drops are uniformly charged):

(A) n1/3 U (B) n2/3 U (C) n4/3 U (D) n5/3 U

3. In a solid uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, if energy stored out
side the sphere is U0 joules then find out self energy of sphere in term of U0?

6U0 7U0 6U0 5U0

(A) Joules (B) Joules (C) Joules (D) Joules
3 5 5 6

4. The variation of potential with distance r from a fixed point is shown in Figure. The electric
field at r = 5 cm, is :

(A) (2.5) V/cm (B) (–2.5) V/cm (C) (–2/5) cm (D) (2/5) V/cm

5. The electric potential V as a function of distance x (in metre) is given by

V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt.

The value of electric field at x = 1 m would be :

(A) – 20 volt/m (B) 6 volt/m (C) 11 volt/m (D) –23 volt/m

6. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E0 and direction along positive X-axis exists. If
the electric potential V is zero at x = 0, then its value at x = +x will be :

(A) Vx = xE0 (B) Vx = –xE0 (C) Vx = x2E0 (D) Vx = –x2 E0

PAGE # 1
7. A non-conducting ring of radius 0.5 m carries a total charge of 1.11x 1010 C distributed

non-uniformly on its circumference producing an electric field E every where in space. The
 0
 
value of the line integral


 E . d  (  = 0 being centre of the ring) in volts is :

(Approximately)
(A) + 2 (B)  1 (C)  2 (D) zero

8. If E = 2y î + 2x ĵ , then find V (x, y, z)

(A) – 2xy + C (B) – 3xy + C (C) – 5xy + C (D) None of these

9. The dipole moment of a system of charge +q distributed uniformly on an arc of radius R
subtending an angle /2 at its centre where another charge –q is placed is

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. Point P lies on the axis of a dipole. If the dipole is rotated by 90° anticlock wise, the electric field

vector at P will rotate by :

(A) 90° clockwise (B) 180° clockwise (C) 90° anticlock wise (D) 180° anticlockwise

11. Due to an electric dipole shown in fig.,

the electric field intensity is parallel to dipole axis :

(A) at P only
(B) at Q only

(C) both at P and at Q (D) neither at P nor at Q

12. An electric dipole of dipole moment  p is placed at the origin along the x-axis. The angle
made by electric field with x-axis at a point P, whose position vector makes an angle  with
1
x-axis, is :(where, tan = tan  )
2

(A)  (B)  (C)  +  (D)  + 2

13. A dipole of electric dipole moment P is placed in a uniform electric field of strength E. If 
is the angle between positive directions of P and E, then the potential energy of the electric
dipole is largest when  is :

(A) zero (B)  /2 (C)  (D)  /4

14. Two opposite and equal charges of magnitude 4 × 10 –8 coulomb each when placed
2 × 10–2 cm apart form a dipole. If this dipole is placed in an external electric field of
4 × 108 N/C, the value of maximum torque and the work required in rotating it through 180º
from its initial orientation which is along electric field will be : (Assume rotation of dipole
about an axis passing through centre of the dipole):

(A) 64 × 10–4 N-m and 44 × 10–4 J (B) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 32 × 10–4 J
(C) 64 × 10–4 N-m and 32 × 10–4 J (D) 32 × 10–4 N-m and 64 × 10–4 J

PAGE # 2
15. At a point on the axis (but not inside the dipole and not at infinity) of an electric dipole

(A) The electric field is zero

(B) The electric potential is zero

(C) Neither the electric field nor the electric potential is zero

(D) The electric field is directed perpendicular to the axis of the dipole

16. The force between two short electric dipoles separated by a distance r is directly propor-
tional to :

(A) r2 (B) r4 (C) r –2 (D) r –4

17. A charge ' q ' is carried slowly from a point A (r, 135º) to a point B (r, 45º) following a path

which is a quadrant of circle of radius ' r '. If the dipole moment is P , then find out the work
done by external agent.

2 qP 2 qP 5 qP 2 qP
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D)
2 0 r2 4  0 r 4 0 r2 0 r
2

18. A square of side 'a' is lying in xy plane such that two of its sides are lying on the axis. If an

electric field E  E0 xk̂ is applied on the square. The flux passing through the square is :–

E 0a3 E 0a3 E0a 2

(A) E0a3 (B) (C) (D)
2 3 2

19. The figure shows the electric lines of force emerging from a
charged body. If the electric fields at A and B are EA and EB
A
respectively and if the distance between A and B is r, then

(A) EA < EB (B) EA > EB B

EB EB
(C) E A  (D) E A 
r r2

20. An electric dipole is placed at the centre of a sphere. Mark the correct options.

(A) The electric field is zero at every point of the sphere.

(B) The flux of the electric field through the sphere is non-zero.

(C) The electric field is zero on a circle on the sphere.

(D) The electic field is not zero anywhere on the sphere.

PAGE # 3
21. Figure (a) shows an imaginary cube of edge length L. A uniformly charged rod of length 2L
moves towards left at a small but constant speed v. At t = 0, the left end of the rod just
touches the centre of the face of the cube opposite to it. Which of the graphs shown in
fig.(b) represents the flux of the electric field through the cube as the rod goes through it ?

Flux d
b a

c
(a) (b)
time

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

22. Figure shows two large cylindrical shells having uniform lin-
ear charge densities +  and –  . Radius of inner cylinder is
‘a’ and that of outer cylinder is ‘b’. A charged particle of
mass m, charge q revolves in a circle of radius r. Then, its
speed ‘v’ is : (Neglect gravity and assume the radii of both

the cylinders to be very small in comparison to their length.)

q 2 q q q
(A) 2 0 m (B)  0 m (C)  0 m (D) 4 0m

23. Find out the electric flux through an area 10 m 2 lying in XY plane due to an electric field

E  2 î  10 ĵ  5k̂ .

(A) 15 Nm2/C (B) 25 Nm 2/C (C) 35 Nm2/C (D) 50 Nm 2/C

24. A neutral spherical metallic object A is placed near a finite metal plate B carrying a positive
charge. The electric force on the object will be :

(A) away from the plate B (B) towards the plate B

(C) parallel to the plate B (D) zero

25. Three concentric conducting spherical shells carry charges as follows : + 4Q on the inner
shell, - 2 Q on the middle shell and – 5 Q on the outer shell. The charge on the inner
surface of the outer shell is:

(A) 0 (B) 4 Q (C) - Q (D) - 2 Q

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (A)

6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A)

11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (D)

16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (D)

21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (D)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 26
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROSTATICS

1. An uncharged sphere of metal is placed in a uniform electric field produced by two large
conducting parallel plates having equal and opposite charges, then lines of force look like:

+ + + + +

(A) (B) (C) (D)

– – – – –

2. A positively charged body 'A' has been brought near a neutral brass sphere B mounted on
a glass stand as shown in the figure. The potential of B will be:

(A) Zero (B) Negative (C) Positive (D) Infinite

3. Figure shows a closed surface which intersects a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is
placed at the point P, the flux of the electric field through the closed surface:

(A) will become positive (B) will remain zero

(C) will become undefined (D) will become negative

4. An ellipsoidal cavity is carved within a perfect conductor. A

positive charge q is placed at the center of the cavity. The
points A and B are on the cavity surface as shown in the figure

. Then :

(A) Electric field near A in the cavity = electric field near B in the cavity

(B) Charge density at A = Charge density at B

(C) Potential at A = Potential at B

(D) Total electric field flux through the surface of the cavity is q/0 .

PAGE # 1
5. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and 2, the electric
charge inside the surface will be :

(A) (2 – 1)0 (B) (1 + 2)/0 (C) (2 – 1)/0 (D) (1 + 2) 0

6. Two points P and Q are maintained at the potentials of 10 V and –4 V respectively. The work
done in moving 100 electrons from P to Q is :

(A) 9.60 × 10–17 J (B) –2.24 × 10–16 J (C) 2.24 × 10–16 J (D) –9.60 × 10–17 J

7. Five balls, numbered 1 to 5, are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4),
(4, 1) show electrostatic attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore
ball 1 :

(A) Must be positively charged (B) Must be negatively charged

(C) May be neutral (D) Must be made of metal

8. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge + 4q with each of them having the
same mass m. When allowed to fall from rest through same electrical potential difference,
the ratio of their speed vA : vB will be :

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

9. A charge ' q ' is placed at the centre of a conducting spherical shell of radius R, which is
given a charge Q. An external charge Q  is also present at distance R (R > R) from ' q '.
Then the resultant field will be best represented for region r < R by: [where r is the distance
of the point from q ]

(A) (B) (C) (D)

10. The net charge given to a solid insulating sphere:

(A) must be distributed uniformly in its volume

(B) may be distributed uniformly in its volume

(C) must be distributed uniformly on its surface

(D) the distribution will depend upon whether other charges are present or not.

PAGE # 2
11. Two short electric dipoles are placed as shown (r is the distance between their centres).
The energy of electric interaction between these dipoles will be: (C is centre of dipole of
moment P2)

2k P1P2 cos 2k P1P2 cos  2kP1P2 sin  4kP1P2 cos

(A) 3 (B) 3 (C) 3 (D)
r r r r3

12. A solid conductor sphere having a charge Q is surrounded by an uncharged concentric

conducting hollow spherical shell. Let the potential difference between the surface of the
solid sphere and that of the outer surface of the hollow shell be V. If the shell is now given
a charge –3Q, the new potential difference between the same two surfaces is :

(A) V (B) 2V (C) 4V (D) –2V

13. In an electron gun, electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. Taking
electronic charge and mass to be respectively e and m, the maximum velocity attained by
them is :

2eV 2eV
(A) (B) (C) 2 m/eV (D) (V2 /2em)
m m

14. Two positive charges of magnitude ‘q’ are placed at the ends of a side (side 1) of a square of
side ‘2a’. Two negative charges of the same magnitude are kept at the other corners. Starting
from rest, if a charge Q moves from the middle of side 1 to the centre of square, its kinetic
energy at the centre of square is :

1 2qQ  1  1 2qQ  2  1 2qQ  1 

(A) zero (B) 4 a 1   (C)

1 –
4 0 a 
 (D)

1 –
4 0 a 


0  5 5 5

15. In a uniformly charged sphere of total charge Q and radius R, the electric field E is plotted as
function of distance from the centre. The graph which would correspond to the above will be :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PAGE # 3
16. This question has statement-1 and statement-2. Of the four choices given after the statements,
choose the one that best describes the two statements.

An insulating solid sphere of radius R has a unioformly positive charge density . As a result of
this uniform charge distribution there is a finite value of electric potential at the centre of the
sphere, at the surface of the sphere and also at a point out side the sphere. The electric
potential at infinite is zero.

Statement-1 : When a charge ‘q’ is taken from the centre to the surface of the sphere its
q
potential energy changes by 3 .
0

r
Statement-2 : The electric field at a distance r (r < R) from the centre of the sphere is 3
0

(A) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not the correct explanation of
statement-1.

(B) Statement 1 is true Statement 2 is false.

(C) Statement 1 is false Statement 2 is true.

(D) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of

Statement 1.

17. Two charges, each equal to q, are kept at x = – a and x = a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m
q
and charge q0  is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y <<a)
2
along the y-axis, the net force acting on the particle is proportional to :

1 1
(A) y (B) –y (C) (D) 
y y

18. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a long rod AB of length L as shown in the figure. The
electric potential at the point O lying at distance L from the end A is :

O A B
L L

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4


19. Assume that an electric field E  30 x 2 î exists in space. Then the potential difference VA – VO,
where V0 is the potential at the origin and VA the potential at x = 2 m is :

(A) –120 J (B) –80 J (C) 80 J (D) 120 J

20. A uniformly charged solid sphere of radius R has potential V 0 (measured with respect to ) on
3V0 5V0 3V0 V0
its surface. For this sphere the equipotential surfaces with potentials , , and
2 4 4 4
have radius R1, R2, R3 and R4 respectively. Then

(A) R1 = 0 and R2 < (R4 – R3) (B) 2R < R4

(C) R1 = 0 and R2 > (R4 – R3) (D) R1  0 and (R2 – R1) > (R4 – R3)

PAGE # 4
21. Three concentric metal shells A, B and C of respective radii a,b and c (a < b < c) have surface
charge densities +, – and + respectively. The potential of shell B is :

  b2  c 2    b2  c 2    a2  b2    a2  b2 
(A)   b  a (B)   c  a (C)   a  c (D)   b  c
0   0   0   0  

A
22. Charge is distributed within a sphere of radius R with a volume charge density (r )  2
e  2r / a ,
r
where A and a are constant. If Q is the total charge of this charge distribution, the radius R is :

   
 1  a  1 
a log  log  a  Q   Q 
(A)  1 Q  (B) 2  1 Q  (C) 2 log1  2aA  (D) a log1  2aA 
       
 2aA   2aA 

 
23. Two electric dipoles, A, B with respective dipole moments dA  4qa ˆi and dB  2qa ˆi are placed
on the x–axis with a separation R, as shown in the figure.

The distance from A at which both of them produce the same potential is :

R 2R 2R R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 1 2 1 2 1 2 1

24. The given graph shown variation

(with distance r from centre) of : r0

(A) Electric field of a uniformly charged sphere

r0 r
(B) Potential of a uniformly charged spherical shell
(C) Potential of a uniformly charged sphere
(D) Electric field of a uniformly charged spherical shell
25. Concentric metallic hollow spheres of radii R and 4R hold charges Q 1 and Q2 respectively.
Given that surface charge densities of the concentric spheres are equal, the potential difference
V(R) – V(4R) is

3Q2 3Q1 Q2 3Q1

(A) 4 R (B) 16 R (C) 4 R (D) 4 R
0 0 0 0

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (C)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (D) 19. (B) 20. (A B)
21. (D) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (B)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 27
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : GRAVITATION

1. Four similar particles of mass m are orbiting in a circle of radius r in the same direction and
same speed because of their mutual gravitational attractive force as shown in the figure.
Speed of a particle is given by

1
 Gm  1  2 2  2
(A)  
 r 

4 
(B) 3
Gm
r
(C)
Gm
r

1 2 2  (D) zero


2. Three particles P, Q and R are placed as per given figure. Masses of P, Q and R are 3 m,

3 m and m respectively. The gravitational force on a fourth particle ‘S’ of mass m is equal to

3 GM2
(A) in ST direction only
2d2

3 Gm 2 3 Gm 2
(B) in SQ direction and in SU direction
2d2 2d2

3 Gm 2
(C) in SQ direction only
2d2

3 Gm 2 3 Gm 2
(D) in SQ direction and in ST direction
2d2 2d2

PAGE # 1
3. A stone drop from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in1 sec. If the same stone taken to Moon
and drop freely then it will reaches from the surface of the Moon in the time (The 'g' of Moon is
1/6 times of Earth):–

(A) second (B) 9 second (C) second (D) 6 second

4. Two bodies of masses m and M are placed at distance d apart. The gravitational potential (V) at
the position where the gravitational field due to them is zero V is :–

(A) (B) (C) (D)

5. Let gravitation field in a space be given as E = – (k/r). If the reference point is at distance
di where potential is Vi then relation for potential is :

1 r
(A) V = k n V + 0 (B) V = k n d + Vi
i i

r r V
(C) V = n d + kVi (D) V = n d + i
i i k

6. A very large number of particles of same mass m are kept at horizontal distances of 1m,
2m, 4m, 8m and so on from (0,0) point. The total gravitational potential at this point (0, 0)
is:

(A) – 8G m (B) – 3G m (C) – 4G m (D) – 2G m

7. Figure show a hemispherical shell having uniform mass density. The direction of gravita-
tional field intensity at point P will be along:

(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

8. A body starts from rest at a point, distance R0 from the centre of the earth of mass M,
radius R. The velocity acquired by the body when it reaches the surface of the earth will be

1 1  1 1  1 1  1 1 
(A) GM  R  R  (B) 2 GM  R  R  (C) 2 GM   
 (D) 2GM  R  R 
 0   0   R R0   0 

9. Escape velocity of a body from the surface of Earth is 11.2 km/sec. from the Earth surface. If
the mass of Earth becomes double of its present mass and radius becomes half of its present
radius, then escape velocity will become

(A) 5.6 km/sec (B) 11.2 km/sec (C) 22.4 km/sec (D) 44.8km/sec

10. A body of mass m is situated at distance 4Re above the Earth's surface, where Re is the radius
of Earth how much minimum energy be given to the body so that it may escape :–

(A) mgRe (B) 2mgRe (C) (D)

PAGE # 2
11. Periodic-time of satellite revolving around the earth is - ( is density of earth)

1 1
(A) Proportional to (B) Proportional to  (C) Proportional  (D) does not depend on .


12. An orbiting satellite will escape if :

(A) its speed is increased by ( 2  1)100 %

(B) its speed in the orbit is made 1.5 times of its initial value

(C) it stops moving in the orbit

(D) None of these

13. In case of an orbiting satellite if the radius of orbit is decreased :

(A) its Kinetic Energy decreases (B) its Potential Energy decreases

(C) its speed decreases (D) None of these

14. If acceleration due to gravity on the surface of earth is 10 ms–2 and let acceleration due to
gravitational acceleration at surface of another planet of our solar system be 5 ms–2. An
astronaut weighing 50 kg on earth goes to this planet in a spaceship with a constant velocity.
The weight of the astronaut with time of flight is roughly given by

(A) (B) (C) (D)

15. The acceleration due to gravity at a height (1/20)th the radius of the earth above earth’s
surface is 9 m/s2. Find out its approximate value at a point at an equal distance below the
surface of the earth.

12 15
(A) m/s2 = 9.5 m/s2 (B) m/s2 = 5.5 m/s2
2 2

19 17
(C) m/s2 = 9.5 m/s2 (D) m/s2 = 7.5 m/s2
2 2

PAGE # 3
16. A small ball of mass 'm' is released at a height 'R' above the Earth surface, as shown in the
figure. If the maximum depth of the ball to which it goes is R/2 inside the Earth through a
narrow grove before coming to rest momentarily. The grove, contain an ideal spring of spring
constant K and natural length R, the value of K is (R is radius of Earth and M mass of Earth)

(A) (B) (C) (D)

17. A uniform ring of mass M is lying at a distance 3 R from the

centre of a uniform sphere of mass m just below the sphere as
shown in the figure where R is the radius of the ring as well as
that of the sphere. Then gravitational force exerted by the ring

on the sphere is :

GMm GMm
(A) 2 (B)
8R 3R 2

GMm GMm
(C) 3 (D) 3
R 2
8R 2

18. A projectile is fired from the surface of earth of radius R with a speed k  e in radially outward
direction (where  e is the escape velocity and k < 1). Neglecting air resistance, the maximum
height from centre of earth is

R R
(A) 2 (B) k 2 R (C) (D) kR
k 1 1 k2

19. Four particles, each of mass M and equidistant from each other, move along a circle of radius
R under the action of their mutual gravitational attration. the speed of each particle is :

(A)
GM
R
(B) 2 2
GM
R
(C)
GM
R

1 2 2  (D)
1 GM
2 R

1 2 2 
20. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R, a spherical portion
of radius R/2 is removed , as shown in the figure. Taking
gravitational potential V = 0 at r = , the potential at the centre of

the cavity thus formed is :(G = gravitational constant)

GM GM 2GM 2GM

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2R R 3R R

PAGE # 4
21. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in circular orbit around the earth. An object of
mass ‘m’ is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the
earth. At the time of ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is :

3 1
(A) mv 2 (B) mv 2 (C) 2mv2 (D) mv2
2 2

22. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 2m respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R,
TA
and B is in a circular orbit of radius 2R around the earth. The ratio of their kinetic energies, T ,
B

is :

1 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) 2 (D)
2 2

23. Planet A has mass M and radius R. Planet B has half the mass and half the radius of Planet A.
v n
If the escape velocities from the Planets A and B are vA and vB, respectively, then v  4 . The
A

value of n is

(A) 1 (B) 4 (C) 3 (D) 2

24. On the x-axis and at a distance x from the origin, the gravitational field due to a mass distribution
Ax
is given by 3 in the x-direction. The magnitude of gravitational potential on the x-axis at
(x  a2 )
2 2

a distance x, taking its value to be zero at infinity, is

A A
3 1
(A) A(x 2  a2 ) 2 (B) 3 (C) 1 (D) A(x 2  a2 ) 2
(x 2  a2 ) 2
(x 2  a2 ) 2

25. Two stars of masses m and 2m at a distance d rotate about their common centre of mass in
free space. The period of revolution is :

1 d3 d3 1 3Gm 3Gm
(A) (B) 2 (C) (D) 2
2 3Gm 3Gm 2 d3 d3

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (D) 5. (B)

6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (B) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (C)

16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (D) 20. (B)

21. (D) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 28
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC FORCE

1. Two identical short magnetic dipoles of magnetic moments 1.0 A-m 2 each, placed at a separation
of 2 m with their axes perpendicular to each other. The resultant magnetic field at a point
midway between the dipole is:

2m

(A) 5 × 10–7 T (B) 5 × 10 T

–7
(C) 10–7 T (D) 2 × 10–7 T

2. A point charge is moving in a circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic field produced
by the charge at a fixed point P (not centre of the circle) on the axis of the circle.

(A) it is constant in magnitude only

(B) it is constant in direction only

(C) it is constant in direction and magnitude both

(D) it is not constant in magnitude and direction both.

3. The magnetic moment of a short dipole is, 1 A m2. What is the magnitude of the magnetic
induction in air at 10 cm from centre of the dipole on a line making an angle of 30º from the axis
of the dipole?

7 13 13 15
(A) 10–4 wb/m2 (B)  10–4 wb/m2 (C)  10 -4 wb/m2 (D)  10–4 wb/m2
2 3 2 2

4. Infinite number of straight wires each carrying current I are equally placed as shown in the
figure. Adjacent wires have current in opposite direction. Net magnetic field at point P is

infinity

  
(A) (B) (C) (D) zero

PAGE # 1
5. Two infinitely long, thin, insulated, straight wires lie in the x-y plane along the x and y-axis
respectively. Each wire carries a current i, respectively in the positive x-direction and positive y-
direction. The magnetic field will be zero at all points on the straight line:

(A) y = x (B) y = – x (C) y = x – 1 (D) y = – x + 1

6. Determine the magnitude of magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying wire arrangement
shown in the figure. The arrangement extends to infinity. (The wires joining the successive
squares are along the line passing through the centre)

0 i 2 2 0 i
(A) (B) 0 (C) ln2 (D) none of these
2 a a

7. A current of 1 amp is flowing in the sides of an equilateral triangle of side 4.5 x 10 -2 m. Find the
magnetic field at the centroid of triangle.

(A) 2 × 10–5 wb/m2 (B) 3 × 10–5 wb/m2 (C) 8 × 10–5 wb/m2 (D) 4 × 10–5 wb/m2

8. Each of the batteries shown in figure has an emf equal to 10 V. Find the magnetic field B at the
point p.

(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 5

9. A current carrying wire AB of the length 2R is turned along a circle, i

as shown in figure. The magnetic field at the centre O.

2 O
 0 i  2     0i  2   
(A)   (B) 2R  2 
2R  2    

 0i  0i A B
(C) (2 – ) (D) (2 + )2
2R 2R

PAGE # 2
10. A wire is wound on a long rod of material of relative permeability r = 4000 to make a solenoid.
If the current through the wire is 5 A and number of turns per unit length is 1000 per metre, then
the magnetic field inside the solenoid is :

(A) 25.12 mT (B) 12.56 m T (C) 12.56 T (D) 25.12 T

11. Axis of a solid cylinder of infinite length and radius R lies along y-axis it carries a uniformly
R R
distributed current ‘ i ’ along +y direction. Magnetic field at a point  , y,  is :-
2 2

 0i  0i  0i  0i
(A) ( î  k̂ ) (B) ( ĵ  k̂ ) (C) ĵ (D) ( î  k̂ )
4R 2R 4R 4R

12. A cylindrical wire of radius R is carrying current i uniformly distributed over its cross-section. If
a circular loop of radius ' r ' is taken as amperian loop, then the variation value of
 B d over
this loop with radius ' r ' of loop will be best represented by:

(A)  B  d  (B)  B d
R r R r

(C)  B d (D)  B d

R r R r


13. A constant direct current of uniform density j is flowing in an infinitely long cylindrical conductor..
The conductor contains an infinitely long cylindrical cavity whose axis is parallel to that of the
 
conductor and is at a distance  from it. What will be the magnetic induction B at a point
inside the cavity at a distance r from the centre of cavity?

   
(A)
(
0 j  r ) (B)
(
0 j   )
2 2

     
(C)
(
0 j   )   ( j  r )
0
(D)
(
0 j   ) –  ( j  r )
0
2 2

PAGE # 3
14. A uniform current  flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then

(A) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero

(B) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero

(C) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe

(D) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe.

15. An infinitely long straight conductor is bent into the shape as shown in figure. It carries a
current I ampere and the radius of the circular loop is r meter. Then the magnetic induction at
the centre of the circular part is :–

O
r

(A) Zero (B)  (C) (D)

16. Electric current i enters and leaves a square loop made of homogeneous wire of uniform
cross-section through diagonally opposite corners. A charge particle q moving along the axis
of the square loop. Passes through centre at speed . The magnetic force acting on the par-
ticle when it passes through the centre has a magnitude

i 0 i 0 0 i
(A) q (B) q (C) q (D) zero
2a 2 a a

17. A negative charged particle falling freely under gravity enters a region having uniform horizon-
tal magnetic field pointing towards north. The particle will be deflected towards

(A) East (B) West (C) North (D) South

18. A positively charged particle is moving along the positive X-axis. You want to apply a magnetic
field for a short time so that the particle may reverse its direction and move parallel to the
negative X-axis. This can be done by applying the magnetic field along.

(A) Y-axis (B) Z-axis (C) Y-axis only (D) Z-axis only.

19. Figure shows a cylindrical conductor of inner radius a & outer radius b which carries a current
i uniformly spread over its cross section. Show that the magnetic field B for points inside the
 0ir 2  a2
body of the conductor (i.e. a < r < b) is given by, B = . Check this formula
2 (b 2  a 2 ) r
for the limiting case of a = 0.

 0i i i i
(A) 2
r (B) 0
r (C) 0
r (D) 0
r
2b 3 b2 5 b2 8 b2

PAGE # 4
20. The magnetic field B inside a long solenoid, carrying a current of 10 A, is 3.14 × 10–2 T. Find the
number of turns per unit length of the solenoid.

(A) 1200 turns/m (B) 1500 turns/m (C) 2300 turns/m (D) 2500 turns/m

21. If a charged particle projected in a gravity-free room it does not deflect,

(A) electric field and magnetic field must be zero

(B) both electric field and magnetic field may be present

(C) electric field will be zero and magnetic field may be zero

(D) electric field may be zero and magnetic field must be zero

22. A particle having a charge of 2.0 × 10–8 C and a mass of 2.0 × 10–10 g is projected with a speed
of 2.0 × 103 m/s in a region having a uniform magnetic field (B = 0.1 T) perpendicular to it. Find
the radius of the circle formed by the particle and also the frequency.

5 5 5 3
(A) 5 cm,  10 3 s 1 (B) 10 cm,  10 3 s 1 (C) 20 cm,  10 3 s 1 (D) 20 cm, 103 s 1
  

23. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is situated near a long straight wire such that the wire is
parallel to one of the sides of the loop and the plane of the loop is same of the left wire. If a
steady current is established in the wire as shown in the (fig) the loop will -

(A) Rotate about an axis parallel to the wire (B) Move away from the wire

(C) Move towards the wire (D) Remain stationary.

24. Select the correct alternative(s):

Two thin long parallel wires separated by a distance 'b' are carrying a current 'i' ampere each.
The magnitude of the force per unit length exerted by one wire on the other is

2 2
0i 0i 0i 0i
(A) 2 (B) (C) (D) 2
b 2 b 2 b 2 b

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (A)
6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (D)
16. (D) 17. (B) 18. (AB) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (BD) 22. (C) 23. (C) 24. (B)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 29
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC FORCE

1. A circular loop of area 1 cm2, carrying a current of 10 A, is placed in a magnetic field of 0.1 T
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is

(A) zero (B) 10-4 N-m (C) 10–2 N-m (D) 1 N-m

2. A particle moves in a circle of radius 1.0 cm under the action of a magnetic field of 0.40 T. An
electric field of 200 V/m makes the path straight. Find the charge/mass ratio of the particle.

3 5 5 5
(A) × 105 C/kg (B) × 105 C/kg (C) × 105 C/kg (D) × 105 C/kg
4 4 8 3

3. A particle having mass m and charge q is released from the origin in a region in which electric
 
field and magnetic field are given by B  B 0 ĵ and E  E 0 î .

Find the speed of the particle as a function of its X-coordinate.

3qE0 x 4qE0 x qE 0 x 2qE 0 x

(A) (B) (C) (D)
m m m m

4. A conductor PQ carries a current 'i' is placed perpendicular to a long conductor XY carrying

a current I. The direction of force on PQ will be :–

(A) towards right (B) towards left (C) upwards (D) downwards

5. A wire PQRST carrying current I = 5A is placed in uniform magnetic field B = 2T as shown in fig.
If the length of part QR = 4 cm and SR = 6 cm then the magnetic force on SR edge of the wire
is :–

(A) 0.4 N (B) 0.6 N (C) zero (D) 6 N

PAGE # 1
6. A ring of radius 5 m is lying in the x-y plane and is carrying current of 1 A in anti-clockwise sense.

If a uniform magnetic field B = 3 î  4 ˆj is switched on, then the co-ordinates of point about which
the loop will lift up is:

(A) (3, 4) (B) (4, 3) (C) (3, 0) (D) (0, 3)

7. A conducting ring of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is placed on a smooth horizontal plane. The
ring carries a current i = 4A. A horizontal magnetic field B = 10 T is switched on at time
t = 0 as shown in figure. The initial angular acceleration of the ring will be

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 60º.
The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be :

(A) 3 W (B) W (C) ( 3 / 2) W (D) 2 W

9. There are four light–weight–rod samples A,B,C,D separately suspended by threads. A bar magnet
is slowly brought near each sample and the following observations are noted :

(i) A is feebly repelled (ii) B is feebly attracted

(iii) C is strongly attracted (iv) D remains unaffected

Which one of the following is true ?

(A) B is of a paramagnetic material (B) C is of a diamagnetic material

(C) D is of a ferromagnetic material (D) A is of a non–magnetic material

PAGE # 2
10. A and B are two concentric circular conductors of centre O and carrying current i1 and i2 as
shown in the diagram. If ratio of their radii is 1:2 and ratio of the flux densities at O due to A and

B is 1 : 3 then the value of will be :–

r1 I2
I1

r2

(A) (B) (C) (D)

11. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same materials and same length form a square in
the three different ways P, Q and R as shown in fig with current direction shown, the magnetic
field at the centre of the square is zero in cases

(A) in P only (B) in P and Q only (C) in Q and R only (D) P and R only

12. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through
60º. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be :

(A) 3W (B) W (C) ( 3 / 2) W (D) 2 W

13. A magnetic lines of force inside a bar magnet :

(A) are from north-pole to south-pole of the magnet

(B) do not exist

(C) depend upon the area of cross-section of the bar magnet

(D) are from south-pole to north-pole of the magnet

14. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic
induction at any point inside the tube is :

 0 2i 2i
(A) infinite (B) zero (C) , tesla (D) tesla
4 r r

15. Two long conductors, separated by a distance d carry currents I 1 and I2 in the same direction.
They exert a force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is increased to two times
and its direction is reversed. The distance is also increased to 3d. The new value of the force
between them is :

(A) –2 F (B) F/3 (C) –2F/3 (D) – F/3

PAGE # 3
16. A current i ampere flows along an infinitely long straight thin walled tube, then the magnetic induction at any
point inside the tube is :

 0 2i 2i
(A) infinite (B) zero (C) , tesla (D) tesla
4 r r

17. Two thin, long, parallel wires, separated by a distance ‘d’ carry a current of ‘i’ A in the same
direction. They will :

 0 i2  0 i2
(A) attract each other with a force of (B) repel, each other with a force of
( 2d) ( 2d)

 0i 2  0i 2
(C) attract each other with a force of 2 (D) repel each other with a force of
(2d ) (2d2 )

18. A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are acting along the same direction in a
certain region. If an electron is projected along the direction of the fields with a certain velocity,
then

(A) its velocity will decrease

(B) its velocity will increase

(C) it will turn towards right of direction of motion

(D) it will turn towards left of direction of motion.

19. A magnetic needle is kept in a non-uniform magnetic field. It experiences :

(A) a torque but not a force (B) neither a force nor a torque

(C) a force and a torque (D) a force but not a torque

20. In a region, steady and uniform electric and magnetic fields are present. These two fields are
parallel to each other. A charged particle is released from rest in this region. The path of the
particle will be a :

(A) circle (B) helix (C) straight line (D) ellipse

21. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic sub-
stance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will :

(A) attract all three of them

(B) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3

(C) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly

(D) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly

22. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre is
6.28×10–2 Weber/m2. Another long solenoid has 100 turns per cm and it carries a current i/3.
The value of the magnetic field at its centre is :

(A) 1.05 × 10–4 Weber/m2 (B) 1.05 × 10–2 Weber/m2

(C) 1.05 × 10–5 Weber/m2 (D) 1.05 × 1010–3 Weber/m2

PAGE # 4
23. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current i. The current is uniformly distributed
a
across its crosssection. The ratio of the magnetic field at and 2a from axis is :
2

(A) 1/4 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 1/2

24. A current I flows along the length of an infinitely long, straight, thin walled pipe. Then :

(A) the magnetic field is zero only on the axis of the pipe

(B) the magnetic field is different at different points inside the pipe

(C) the magnetic field at any point inside the pipe is zero

(D) the magnetic field at all points inside the pipe is the same, but not zero

25. A charged particle with charge q enters a region of constant, uniform and mutually orthogo
   
nal fields E and B with a velocity v perpendicular to both E and B , and comes out without

any change in magnitude or direction of v . Then :
       
(A) v  E  B / B 2 (B) v  E  E / B 2 (C) v  E  E / E 2 (D) v  B  E / E 2

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (A)

6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)

11. (D) 12. (A) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (C)

16. (B) 17. (A) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)

21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (C) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 30
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC FORCE

1. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction. Then :

(A) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant

(B) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant

(C) both, momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant

(D) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant

2. Two identical conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angles to each other. The
wire AOB carries an electric current  and COD carries a current . The magnetic field on a
point lying at a distance d from O, in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the wires AOB
and COD, will be given by :

1/ 2

(A)
 0  1   2 

2  d 
 (B)
0 2
2d

1   22 
1/ 2
(C)
0
( + 2)
2d 1
(D)
0 2
2d

1   22 
3. Relative permittivity and permeability of a material are r and r, respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material ?

(A) r = 1.5, r = 0.5 (B) r = 0.5, r = 0.5 (C) r = 1.5, r = 1.5 (D) r = 0.5, r = 1.5

4. A current-carrying, straight wire is kept along the axis of a square loop carrying a current. The
straight wire

(A) will exert an inward force on the square loop

(B) will exert an outward force on the square loop

(C) will not exert any force on the square loop

(D) will exert a force on the square loop parallel to itself.

PAGE # 1
5. A circular loop is kept in that vertical plane which contains the north-south direction. It carries a
current that is towards south at the topmost point. Let A be a point on axis of the circle to the
east of it and B a point on this axis to the west of it. The magnetic field due to the loop

(A) is towards east at A and towards west at B

(B) is towards west at A and towards east at B

(C) is towards east at both A and B

(D) is towards west at both A and B

6. A toroid of mean radius ' a ' , cross section radius ' r ' and total number of turns N. It carries a
current ' i '. The torque experienced by the toroid if a uniform magnetic field of strength B is
applied :

(A) is zero (B) is B i N  r2

(C) is B i N  a2 (D) depends on the direction of magnetic field.

7. Two long parallel wires are at a distance 2d apart. They carry steady equal currents flowing out
of the plane of the paper as shown. The variation of magnetic field B along the line XX´ is given
by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

8. A current  flows in an infinitely long wire with cross–section in the form of a semicircular ring of
radius R. The magnitude of the magnetic induction along its axis is :

0 0 0 0

(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D)
 R 2 R 2R 4R


9. An electric charge +q moves with velocity v  3 î  4 ĵ  k̂ , in an electromagnetic field given by :

 
E  3 î  ĵ  2k̂ and B  î  ĵ  3k̂ . The y - component of the force experienced by + q is :

(A) 7 q (B) 5 q (C) 3 q (D) 2 q

10. A thin circular disk of radius R is uniformly charged with density  > 0 per unit area. The disk
rotates about its axis with a uniform angular speed . The magnetic moment of the disk is :

R 4 R 4
(A) R4  (B)  (C)  (D) 2R4 
2 4

PAGE # 2
11. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over the surface of non-condcting disc of radius R. The disc
rotates about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through its centre with an angular
velocity . As a result of this rotation a magnetic field of induction B is obtained at the centre of
the disc. if we keep both the amount of charge placed on the disc and its angular velocity to be
constant and vary the radius of the disc then the variation of the magnetic induction at the
centre of the disc will be represented by the figure :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

12. The length of a magnet is large compared to its width and breadth. The time period of its oscilla-
tion in a vibration magnetometer is 2s. The magnet is cut perpendicular to its length into three
equal parts and three parts are then placed on each other with their like poles together. The time
period of this combination will be
(A) 2s (B) 2/3 s (C) 2 3 s (D) 2 / 3 s

13. The coercivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 × 103 Am–1. The
current required to be passed in a solenoid of length 20 cm and number of turns 100, so that the
magnet gets demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is :

(A) 30 mA (B) 60 mA (C) 3 A (D) 6 A


14. Two coaxial ideal and long solenoids of different radii carry current I in the same direction. Let F1

be the magnetic force on the inner solenoid due to the outer one and F2 be the magnetic force on
the outer solenoid due to the inner one. Then :
   
(A) F1 = F2 = 0 (B) F1 is radially inwards and F2 is radially outwards
   
(C) F1 is radially inwards and F2 = 0 (D) F1 is radially outwards and F2 = 0

15. Two long current carrying thin wires, both with current , are held by insulating threads of length
L and are in equilibrium as shown in the figure, with threads making an angle ‘’ with the
vertical. If wires have mass  per unit length then the value of  is : (g = gravitational acceleration)

gL gL gL gL

(A) sin   cosθ (B) 2 sin   cosθ (C) 2  tan  (D) 0
tan 
0 0 0

PAGE # 3
16. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm carrying a current I of 12 A is placed in different
orientations as shown in the figures below :

(a) (b) (c) (d)

If there is a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T in the positive z direction, in which orientations the
loop would be in (i) stable equilibrium and (ii) unstable equilibrium ?

(A) (a) and (b), respectively (B) (a) and (c), respectively

(C) (b) and (d), respectively (D) (b) and (c), respectively

17. Two identical wires A and B, each of length l, carry the same current l. Wire A is bent into a
circle of radius R and wire B is bent to form a square of side ‘a’. If BA and BB are the values of
BA
magnetic field at the centres of the circle and square respectively, then the ratio B is :
B

2 2 2 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 2 16 8 2 8

18. A magnetic needle of magnetic moment 6.7 × 10–2 Am2 and moment of inertia 7.5 × 10–6 kg m2
is performing simple harmonic oscillations in a magnetic field of 0.01 T. Time taken for
10 complete oscillations is :

(A) 8.76 s (B) 6.65 s (C) 8.89 s (D) 6.98 s

19. The dipole moment of a circular loop carrying a current , is m and the magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is B1. When the dipole moment is doubled by keeping the current constant,
B1
the magnetic field at the centre of loop is B2. The ratio B is :
2

1
(A) 2 (B) (C) 2 (D) 3
2

20. An electron, a proton and an alpha particle having the same kinetic energy are moving in
circular orbits of radii re, rp, r respectively in uniform magnetic field B. The relation between re,
rp, r is :

(A) re < rp< r (B) re < r< rp (C) re > rp = r (D) re < rp = r

PAGE # 4
21. A current loop, having two circular arcs joined by two radial lines is shown in the figure. It carries
a current of 10 A. The magnetic field at point O will be close to :

(A) 1.5 × 10–5 T (B) 1.0 × 10–7 T (C) 1.0 × 10–5 T (D) 1.5 × 10–7 T
22. A bar magnet is demagnetized by inserting it inside a solenoid of length 0.2 m, 100 turns, and
carrying a current of 5.2 A. The coercivity of the bar magnet is :
(A) 285 A/m (B) 520 A/m (C) 1200 A/m (D) 2600 A/m
23. A particle having the same charge as of electron moves in a circular path of radius 0.5 cm
under the influence of magnetic filed of 0.5 T. If an electric field of 100 V/m makes it to move in
a straight path, then the mass of the particle is (Given charge of electron = 1.6 × 10 –19 C)
(A) 2.0 × 10–24 kg (B) 1.6 × 10–27 kg (C) 9.1 × 10–31 kg (D) 1.6 × 10–19 kg

x
24. An insulating thin rod of length  has a linear charge density ( x )  0 on it. The rod is rotated

about an axis passing through the origin (x = 0) and perpendicular to the rod. If the rod makes
n rotations per second, then the time averaged magnetic moment of the rod is :

 
(A) n 3 (B) n 3 (C) n 3 (D) n 3
4 3

25. Magnitude of magnetic field (in SI units) at the centre of a hexagonal shape coil of side 10 cm,
0l
50 turns and carrying current I (Ampere) in units of is


(A) 500 3 (B) 250 3 (C) 50 3 (D) 5 3

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (D) 14. (AD) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (C) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (A) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 31
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION

1. When magnetic flux through a coil is changed, the variation of induced current in the coil
with time is as shown in graph. If resistance of coil is 10 , then the total change in flux
of coil will be–

(A) 4 (B) 8 (C) 2 (D) 6

2. A coil having 500 square loops each of side 10 cm is placed normal to a magnetic field which
increased at a rate of 1.0 T/sec. The induced e.m.f. (in volt) is :–

(A) 0.1 (B) 0.5 (C) 1.0 (D) 5.0

3. A square frame of wire of side l and resistance R moves in its plane with a uniform velocity v
perpendicular to one of its sides. A uniform and constant magnetic field B exists along the
perpendicular to the plane of the loop in fig. The current induced in the 3loop is -

(A) 2Bl/R anticlockwise (B) Bl/R anticlockwise

(C) Bl/R clockwise (D) zero

4. A small, circular loop of wire is placed inside a long solenoid carrying a current. The plane of the
loop contains the axis of the solenoid. If the current in the solenoid is varied, the current induced
in the loop is

(A) anticlockwise

(B) clockwise

(C) zero

(D) clockwise or anticlockwise depending on whether the resistance in increased or decreased.

PAGE # 1
5. Two co–axial solenoids shown in figure. If key of primary suddenly opened then direction of
instantaneous induced current in resistance ‘R’ which connected in secondary :–

(A) L to N (B) N to L (C) alternating (D) zero

6. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular
to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil changes with time as shown figure. The induced
emf in the coil is :

(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. A horizontal solenoid is connected to a battery and a switch (figure). A conducting ring is placed
on a frictionless surface, the axis of the ring being along the axis of the solenoid. As the switch
is closed, the ring will

(A) move towards the solenoid

(B) remain stationary

(C) move away from the solenoid

(D) move towards the solenoid or away from it depending on which terminal (positive or negative)
of the battery is connected to the left end of the solenoid.

8. Two identical coaxial circular loops carry a current i each circulating in the same direction. If the
loops approach each other

(A) the current in each loop will decrease

(B) the current in each loop will increase

(C) the current in each loop will remain the same

(D) the current in one loop will increase and in the other loop will decrease

PAGE # 2
9. In the figure shown, the magnet is pushed towards the fixed ring along the axis of the ring and
it passes through the ring.

A B N S

B & A are right & left

faces respectively

(A) when magnet goes towards the ring the face B becomes south pole and the face A
becomes north pole

(B) when magnet goes away from the ring the face B becomes north pole and the face A
becomes south pole

(C) when magnet goes away from the ring the face A becomes north pole and the face B
becomes south pole

(D) the face A will always be a north pole.


10. A wire of length  is moved with a constant velocity υ in a magnetic field. A potential difference
appears across the two ends
     
(A) if υ   (B) if υ  B (C) if   B (D) none of these

11. A uniform magnetic field exists in region given by B  3 î  4 ĵ  5 k̂ . A rod of length 5 m is placed
along y  axis is moved along x  axis with constant speed 1 m/sec. Then induced e.m.f. in the
rod will be:

(A) zero (B) 25 v (C) 20 v (D) 15 v

12. An equilateral triangular loop ADC having some resistance is pulled with a constant velocity v
out of a uniform magnetic field directed into the paper. At time t = 0, side DC of the loop is at
edge of the magnetic field. The induced current (i) versus time (t) graph will be as

i i i i

(A) (B) (C) (D)

t t t t

PAGE # 3
13. A rectangular loop with a sliding connector of length 10 cm is situated in uniform magnetic field
perpendicular to plane of loop. The magnetic induction is 0.1 tesla and resistance of connector
(R) is 1 ohm. The sides AB and CD have resistances 2 ohm and 3 ohm respectively. Find the
current in the connector during its motion with constant velocity one metre / sec.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

14. A constant force F is being applied on a rod of length '  ' kept at rest on two parallel conducting
rails connected at ends by resistance R in uniform magnetic field B as shown.

(A) the power delivered by force will be constant with time

(B) the power delivered by force will be increasing first and then it will decrease
(C) the rate of power delivered by the external force will be increasing continuously
(D) the rate of power delivered by external force will be decreasing continuously before becoming
zero.

15. AB and CD are fixed conducting smooth rails placed in a vertical plane and joined by a constant
current source at its upper end. PQ is a conducting rod which is free to slide on the rails. A
horizontal uniform magnetic field exists in space as shown. If the rod PQ is released from rest
then,

(A) The rod PQ may move downward with constant acceleration

(B) The rod PQ may move upward with constant acceleration

(C) The rod will move downward with decreasing acceleration and finally acquire a constant
velocity

(D) either A or B.

PAGE # 4
16. For the situation shown in the figure, flux through the square loop is :

Infinitely long wire

i
b
a

  ia   a    ib   a    0 ib   a    ia   2a 
(A)  2 n  2a  b  (B)  2 n  2b  a 
0 0
(C)   n   (D)  0 n  
         2   b  a   2   b  a 

17. AB is resistanceless conducting rod which forms a diameter of a conducting ring of radius
r rotating in a uniform magnetic field B as shown. The resistors R1 and R2 do not rotate.
Then current through the resistor R1 is–

× × × × ×
× × × ×
× × R1 × ×
A B
× × × ×
× × R2 × ×
× × × ×
× × × × ×

   
(A) (B) (C)  (D)


18. A semicircular wire of radius R is rotated with constant angular velocity  about an axis passing
through one end and perpendicular to the plane of the wire. There is a uniform magnetic
field of strength B. The induced e.m.f. between the ends is–

(A) B R2/2 (B) 2B R2 (C) is variable (D) none of these

19. A conducting rod of length  rotates with a uniform angular velocity  about its perpendicular
bisector. A uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to the axis of rotation. The potential difference
between the two ends of the rod is

1
(A) B  2 (B) B  2 (C) B  2 (D) zero
2

PAGE # 5
20. A conducting ring of radius r with a conducting spoke is in pure rolling on a horizontal
surface in a region having a uniform magnetic field B as shown, v being the velocity of the
centre of the ring. Then the potential difference V0 – VA is

Bvr 3Bvr Bvr 3Bvr

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2 2

21. Figure shows a conducting disc rotating about its axis in a perpendicular uniform and constnat
magnetic field B. A resistor of resistance R is connected between the centre and the rim. The
radius of the disc is 5.0 cm, angular speed  = 40 rad/s, B = 0.10 T and R = 1 . The current
through the resistor is

× R × ×

× ×

× ×

× × × × ×

(A) 5 mA (B) 50 A (C) 5 A (D) 10 mA

22. A cylindrical space of radius R is filled with a uniform magnetic induction B parallel to the axis of
the cylinder. If B changes at a constant rate, the graph showing the variation of induced electric
field with distance r from the axis of cylinder is

× × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
R
× × ×

E E E E

(A) (B) (C) (D)

r r r r

PAGE # 6
23. A uniform magnetic field of induction B is confined to a cylindrical region of radius R. The
dB
magnetic field is increasing at a constant rate of (Tesla/second). An electron of charge
dt
q, placed at the point P on the periphery of the field experiences an acceleration :

1 eR dB 1 eR dB
(A) toward leftt (B) toward right
2 m dt 2 m dt

eR dB
(C) toward leftt (D) zero
m dt

24. Two inductors L1 and L2 are connected in parallel and a time varying current i flows as shown.
The ratio of currents i1/i2 at any time t is

L1

i1

i i

i2
L2

L21 L22
(A) L1/L2 (B) L2/L1 (C) 2 (D)
(L1  L 2 ) (L1  L 2 )2

25. In the given circuit find the ratio of i1 to i2. Where i1 is the initial (at t = 0) current, and i2 is steady
state (at t = ) current through the battery :

6 2mH

4 4

10 V

(A) 1.0 (B) 0.8 (C) 1.2 (D) 1.5

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D)
16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (C)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (B) 25. (B)

PAGE # 7
DPP No: 32
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : GEOMETRICAL OPTICS
1. A mirror is inclined at an angle of  with the horizontal. If a ray of light is incident at an angle  as
shown, then the angle made by reflected ray with the horizontal is


(A)  (B) 2 (C) (D) zero
2

2. Two plane mirrors are parallel to each other and spaced 20 cm apart. An object is kept in
between them at 15 cm from A. Out of the following at which point(s) image(s) is/are not
formed in mirror A (distance measured from mirror A):

(A) 15 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 45 cm (D) 55 cm

3. An unnumbered wall clock shows time 04: 25: 37, where 1st term represents hours, 2nd
represents minutes and the last term represents seconds. What time will its image in a
plane mirror show.

(A) 08: 35: 23 (B) 07: 35: 23 (C) 07: 34: 23 (D) none of these

4. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other at an angle 600. If a ray of light incident on the first
mirror is parallel to the second mirror, it is reflected from the second mirror

(A) Perpendicular to the first mirror (B) Parallel to the first mirror

(C) Parallel to the second mirror (D) Perpendicular to the second mirror

5. Two mirrors are inclined at an angle  as shown in the figure. Light ray is incident parallel to one
of the mirrors. Light will start retracing its path after third reflection if :

(A)  = 45° (B)  = 30° (C)  = 60° (D) all three

PAGE # 1
6. A point object is kept in front of a plane mirror. The plane mirror is performing SHM of amplitude
2 cm. The plane mirror moves along the x-axis and x- axis is normal to the mirror. The ampli-
tude of the mirror is such that the object is always infront of the mirror. The amplitude of SHM of
the image is

(A) zero (B) 2 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 1 cm

7. A person’s eye is at a height of 1.5 m. He stands infront of a 0.3m long plane mirror which is
0.8 m above the ground. The length of the image he sees of himself is:

(A) 1.5m (B) 1.0m (C) 0.8m (D) 0.6m

8. A plane mirror is moving with velocity 4 ˆi  5 ˆj  8kˆ . A point object in front of the mirror

moves with a velocity 3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ . Here k̂ is along the normal to the plane mirror and
facing towards the object. The velocity of the image is :

(A)  3iˆ  4 ˆj  5kˆ (B) 3iˆ  4 ˆj  11kˆ (C)  3iˆ  4 ˆj  11kˆ (D) 7 ˆi  9 ˆj  11kˆ

9. An object of height 1 cm is kept perpendicular to the principal axis of a convex mirror of

radius of curvature 20 cm. If the distance of the object from the mirror is 20 cm then the
distance (in cm) between heads of the image and the object will be:

6404 6414 40
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
9 9 3

10. A point object is kept between a plane mirror and a concave mirror facing each other. The
distance between the mirrors is 22.5 cm. Plane mirror is placed perpendicular to principal
axis of concave mirror. The radius of curvature of the concave mirror is 20 cm. What should
be the distance of the object from the concave mirror so that after two successive reflections
the final image is formed on the object itself ? (Consider first reflection from concave mirror)

(A) 5 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 10 cm (D) 7.5 cm

11. A square ABCD of side 1mm is kept at distance 15 cm infront of the concave mirror as shown in
the figure. The focal length of the mirror is 10 cm. The length of the perimeter of its image will
be(nearly):

(A) 8 mm (B) 2 mm (C) 12 mm (D) 6 mm

PAGE # 2
12. In the figure shown find the total magnification after two successive

reflections first on M1 and then on M2 .

(A) + 1 (B) – 2 (C) + 2 (D) – 1

13. A particle is moving towards a fixed spherical mirror. The image:

(A) must move away from the mirror

(B) must move towards the mirror

(C) may move towards the mirror

(D) will move towards the mirror, only if the mirror is convex.

14. A point object on the principal axis at a distance 15 cm in front of a concave mirror of radius
of curvature 20 cm has velocity 2 mm/s perpendicular to the principal axis. The magnitude
of velocity of image at that instant will be:

(A) 2 mm/s (B) 4 mm/s (C) 8 mm/s (D) 16 mm/s

15. A point object at 15 cm from a concave mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is made to

oscillate along the principal axis with amplitude 2 mm. The amplitude of its image will be

(A) 2 mm (B) 4 mm (C) 8 mm (D) 16 mm

16. The distance of an object from the focus of a convex mirror of radius of curvature ' a ' is
' b '. Then the distance of the image from the focus is:

(A) b2 / 4a (B) a / b2 (C) a2 / 4b (D) 4b / a2

17. The largest distance of the image of a real object from a convex mirror of focal length 20
cm can be:

(A) 20 cm (B) infinite

(C) 10 cm (D) depends on the position of the object

18. Which of the following can form erect, virtual, diminished image?

(A) plane mirror (B) concave mirror (C) convex mirror (D) none of these

19. A man uses a concave mirror for shaving. He keeps his face at a distance of 20 cm from
the mirror and gets an image which is 1.5 times enlarged. Find the focal length of the
mirror.

(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 60 cm (D) 90 cm

PAGE # 3
20. Consider the situation shown in figure. Water is filled in a beaker upto a height of

10 cm. A plane mirror is fixed at a height of 5 cm from the surface of water. Distance of image
from the mirror after reflection from it of an object O at the bottom of the beaker is–

(A) 15 cm (B) 12.5 cm (C) 7.5 cm (D) 10 cm

21. The wavelength of light in vacuum is 6000 Aº and in a medium it is 4000 Aº. The refractive index
of the medium is:

(A) 2.4 (B) 1.5 (C) 1.2 (D) 0.67

22. A ray of light passes from vacuum into a medium of refractive index n. If the angle of incidence
is twice the angle of refraction, then the angle of incidence is:

(A) cos–1 (n/2) (B) sin–1 (n/2) (C) 2 cos–1 (n/2) (D) 2 sin–1 (n/2)

23. A ray of light is incident on a parallel slab of thickness t and refractive index n. If the angle
of incidence is small, then the displacement in the incident and emergent ray will be:

t  (n 1) t t n
(A) (B) (C) n 1 (D) none
n n

24. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at grazing incidence on a slab with variable refractive
index, n (y) = [k y3/2 + 1]1/2 where k = 1 m 3/2 and follows path as shown in the figure. What
is the total deviation produced by slab when the ray comes out.

(A) 60º (B) 53º (C) sin 1 (4/9) (D) no deviation at all

PAGE # 4
25. A beam of light is converging towards a point. A plane parallel plate of glass of thickness
t , refractive index  is introduced in the path of the beam as shown in the figure. The
convergent point is shiftedby (assume near normal incidence):

 1  1  1  1
(A) t  1   away (B) t 1   away (C) t  1   nearer (D) t 1   nearer
       

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B)

6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)

11. (C) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (C)

16. (C) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (B)

21. (B) 22. (C) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 33
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

1. Given that, velocity of light in quartz = 1.5  108 m/s and velocity of light in glycerine
= (9/4)  108 m/s. Now a slab made of quartz is placed in glycerine as shown. The shift of the
object produced by slab is

(A) 6 cm (B) 3.55 cm (C) 9 cm (D) 2 cm

2. The critical angle of light going from medium A to medium B is . The speed of light in
medium A is v. The speed of light in medium B is:

v
(A) sin  (B) v sin  (C) v cot  (D) v tan 

3. In the given figure an observer in air (n = 1) sees the bottom of a beaker filled with water
(n = 4/3) upto a height of 40 cm. What will be the depth felt by this observer.

(A) 20 cm (B) 30 cm (C) 50 cm (D) 90 cm

4. In the given figure rays incident on an interface would converge 10 cm below the interface if
they continued to move in straight lines without bending. But due to refraction, the rays will
bend and meet some where else. Find the distance of meeting point of refracted rays below the
interface, assuming the rays to be making small angles with the normal to the interface.

(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 25 cm (D) 30 cm

PAGE # 1
 3
5. Light goes from glass (µ = ) to air. Find the angle of incidence for which the angle of deviation
2
is 90º.

(A) 15° (B) 25° (C) 30° (D) 45°

6. A ray of light is incident normally on the first refracting face of the prism of refracting angle
A. The ray of light comes out at grazing emergence. If one half of the prism (shaded position)
is knocked off, the same ray will :–

(A) Emerge at an angle of emergence

(B) Not emerge out of the prism

(C) Emerge at an angle of emergence

(D) None of these

7. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one refracting face of a prism of angle 75 0. It passes
through the prism and is incident on the other face at the critical angle. If the refractive index of
the material of the prism is 2, the angle of incidence on the first face of the prism is

(A) 300 (B) 450 (C) 600 (D) 00

8. A prism having refractive index 2 and refracting angle 30º, has one of the refracting
surfaces polished. A beam of light incident on the other refracting surface will retrace its
path if the angle of incidence is:

(A) 0º (B) 30º (C) 45º (D) 60º

9. A ray of light is incident at angle i on a surface of a prism of small angle A and emerges
normally from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is ,
the angle of incidence i is nearly equal to :

(A) A/ (B) A/(2 ) (C) A (D) A/2

10. The maximum refractive index of a material, of a prism of apex angle 90º, for which light may be
transmitted is:

(A) 3 (B) 1.5 (C) 2 (D) None of these

PAGE # 2
11. A prism having an apex angle of 40 and refractive index of 1.50 is located in front of a vertical
plane mirror as shown in the figure. A horizontal ray of light is incident on the prism. The total
angle through which the ray is deviated is:

(A) 40 clockwise (B) 1780 clockwise (C) 20 clockwise (D) 80 clockwise

12. The cross section of a glass prism has the form of an equilateral triangle. A ray is incident
onto one of the faces perpendicular to it. Find the angle  between the incident ray and the
ray that leaves the prism. The refractive index of glass is µ = 1.5.

(A) 10° (B) 30° (C) 45° (D) 60°

13. A concave spherical surface of radius of curvature 10 cm, separates two medium X and
Y of R.I. 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the object is placed along principal axis in medium X ,
then :

(A) image is always real

(B) image is real if the object distance is greater than 90 cm

(C) image is always virtual

(D) image is virtual if the object distance is less than 90 cm

14. There is a small black dot at the centre C of a solid glass sphere of refractive index .
When seen from outside, the dot will appear to be located:

(A) away from C for all values of 

(B) at C for all values of 

(C) at C for  = 1.5, but away from C for   1.5

(D) at C only for 2  1.5.

PAGE # 3
15. The image for the converging beam after refraction through
n=1
n=3/2
the curved surface (in the given figure) is formed at:
O P x
40
(A) x = 40 cm (B) x = cm 30
3
R=20cm

40 180
(C) x =  cm (D) x = cm
3 7

16. In the given figure a plano-concave lens is placed on a paper on which a flower is drawn.
How far above its actual position does the flower appear to be ?

(A) 10 cm (B) 15 cm (C) 50 cm (D) none of these

17. A paraxial beam is incident on a glass (n = 1.5) hemisphere of

radius R=6 cm in air as shown. The distance of point of

convergence F from the plane surface of hemisphere is :–

(A) 12 cm (B) 5.4 cm (C) 18 cm (D) 8 cm

18. A double convex lens, made of a material of refractive index 1, is placed inside two liquids of
refractive indices 2 and 3, as shown. 2 > 1 > 3. A wide, parallel beam of light is incident on
the lens from the left. The lens will give rise to :–

(A) a single convergent beam (B) two different convergent beams

(C) two different divergent beams (D) a convergent and a divergent beam

19. A convexo - concave diverging lens is made of glass of refractive index 1.5 and focal length
24 cm. Radius of curvature for one surface is double that of the other. Then radii of curvature
for the two surfaces are (in cm):

(A) 6, 12 (B) 12, 24 (C) 3, 6 (D) 18, 36

20. Two symmetric double convex lenses A and B have same focal length, but the radii of curvature
differ so that, RA = 0.9 RB. If nA = 1.63, find nB.

(A) 1.7 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.5 (D) 4/3

PAGE # 4
21. When a lens of power P (in air) made of material of refractive index  is immersed in liquid
of refractive index 0. Then the power of lens is:

 1   0   0 P
(A)    P (B)   1 P (C)   1 .  (D) none of these
0 0

22. A lens behaves as a converging lens in air and a diverging lens in water. The refractive index of
the material is (refractive index of water = 1.33)
(A) equal to unity (B) equal to 1.33
(C) between unity and 1.33 (D) greater than 1.33
23. A thin symmetrical double convex lens of power P is cut into three
parts, as shown in the figure. Power of A is:

P P
(A) 2 P (B) (C) (D) P
2 3

24. In the figure given below, there are two convex lens L1 and L2 having focal length of f1 and f2
respectively. The distance between L1 and L2 will be

L1 L2

(A) f1 (B) f2 (C) f1 + f2 (D) f1 - f2

25. What should be the value of distance d so that final image is formed on the object itself.
(focal lengths of the lenses are as given in the figure).

(A) 10 cm (B) 20 cm (C) 5 cm (D) none of these

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (A) 17. (D) 18. (D) 19. (A) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (A)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 34
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : GEOMETRICAL OPTICS

1. A biconvex lens is used to project a slide on screen. The slide is 2 cm high and placed at 10 cm
from the lens. The image is 18 cm high. What is the focal length of the lens?

(A) 9 cm (B) 18 cm (C) 4.5 cm (D) 20 cm

2. The minimum distance between a real object and its real image formed by a thin converging
lens of focal length f is

(A) 4f (B) 2f (C) f (D) f/2

3. A point object O is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex lens of focal length 10 cm

as shown in figure. At what distance x from the lens should a concave mirror of focal length
60 cm, be placed so that final image coincides with the object–

(A) 10 cm

(B) 15 cm

(C) 20 cm

(D) final image can never coincide with the object in the given conditions

4. The radius of the sun is 0.75 × 109 m and its distance from the earth is 1.5 × 1011 m. Find
the diameter of the image of the sun formed by a lens of focal length 40 cm.

(A) 0.1 cm (B) 0.2 cm (C) 0.3 cm (D) 0.4 cm

3
5. Two plano-convex lenses each of focal length 10 cm & refractive index are placed
2

 4
as shown in the figure. In the space left, water  R.I.   is filled. The whole arrangement
 3
is in air. The optical power of the system is (in dioptre):

(A) 6.67 (B) - 6.67 (C) 33.3 (D) 20

PAGE # 1
6. A plano-convex lens, when silvered at its plane surface is equivalent to a concave mirror of
focal length 28 cm. When its curved surface is silvered and the plane surface not silvered,
it is equivalent to a concave mirror of focal length 10 cm, then the refractive index of the
material of the lens is:
(A) 9/14 (B) 14/9 (C) 17/9 (D) none
7. In the above question the radius of curvature of the curved surface of plano-convex
lens is :

280 180 39 280

(A) cm (B) cm (C) cm (D) cm
9 7 3 11

8. The focal length of a plano-concave lens is  10 cm, then its focal length when its plane
surface is polished is (n = 3/2):
(A) 20 cm (B)  5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) none of these
9. A convex lens of focal length 25 cm and a concave lens of focal length 20 cm are mounted
coaxially separated by a distance d cm. If the power of the combination is zero, d is equal to
(A) 45 (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 5
10. The dispersion of light in a medium implies that :
(A) lights of different wavelengths travel with different speeds in the medium
(B) lights of different frequencies travel with different speeds in the medium
(C) the refractive index of medium is different for different wavelengths
(D) all of the above.
11. Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for
(A) red (B) green (C) yellow (D) violet
12. A plane glass slab is placed over various coloured letters. The letter which appears to
be raised the least is:
(A) violet (B) yellow (C) red (D) green
13. A medium has nv = 1.56, nr = 1.44. Then its dispersive power is:

(A) 3/50 (B) 6/25 (C) 0.03 (D) none of these

14. All the listed things below are made of flint glass. Which one of these have greatest dispersive
power ().
(A) prism (B) glass slab (C) biconvex lens (D) all have same 
15. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident at small angle on a prism of apex angle 4º. The
prism has nv = 1.5 & nr = 1.48. The angle of dispersion produced by the prism in this light
is:
(A) 0.2º (B) 0.08º (C) 0.192º (D) None of these
16. A simple microscope has a focal length of 5 cm. The magnification at the least distance of
distinct vision is-
(A) 1 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 6

PAGE # 2
17. In a compound microscope, the intermediate image is -

(A) virtual, erect and magnified (B) real, erect and magnified

(C) real, inverted and magnified (D) virtual, erect and reduced

18. Two lenses of power -15D and +5D are in contact with each other. The focal length of the com-
bination is
(A) – 20 cm (B) –10 cm (C) +20cm (D) +10 cm
19. A Galileo telescope has an objective of focal length 100 cm & magnifying power 50. The
distance between the two lenses in normal adjustment will be

(A) 150 cm (B) 100 cm (C) 98 cm (D) 200 cm

20. The convex lens is used in-

(A) Microscope (B) Telescope (C) Projector (D) All of the above

21. The focal length of the objective of a microscope is

(A) arbitrary (B) less than the focal length of eyepiece

(C) equal to the focal length of eyepiece (D) greater than the focal length of eyepiece

22. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece of focal-length 5 cm. If the angular magnification in
normal adjustment is 10, when final image is at least distance of distinct vision (25cm) from eye
piece, then angular magnification will be :

(A) 10 (B) 12 (C) 50 (D) 60

23. A person with a defective sight is using a lens having a power of +2D. The lens he is using is

(A) concave lens with f = 0.5 m (B) convex lens with f = 2.0 m

(C) concave lens with f = 0.2 m (D) convex lens with f = 0.5 m

24. The focal lengths of the objective and eye-lens of a microscope are 1 cm and 5 cm respectively.
If the magnifying power for the relaxed eye is 45, then the length of the tube is :

(A) 30 cm (B) 25 cm (C) 15 cm (D) 12 cm

25. If the focal length of objective and eye lens are 1.2 cm and 3 cm respectively and the object is
put 1.25 cm away from the objective lens and the final image is formed at infinity. The magnify-
ing power of the microscope is :

(A) 150 (B) 200 (C) 250 (D) 400

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (D) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (D) 15. (D)
16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (C) 20. (D)
21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (D) 24. (C) 25. (B)

PAGE # 3
DPP No: 35
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : CAPACITANCE

1. Two isolated charged metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively
are connected to each other, then there is:

(A) No change in the electrical energy of the system

(B) An increase in the electrical energy of the system

(C) A decrease in the electrical energy of the system in any case

(D) A decrease in electrical energy of the system if Q1 R2  Q2 R1

2. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and then isolated. On increasing the plate separation–

Charge Potential Capacitance

(A) remains constant remains constant decreases

(B) remains constant increases decreases

(C) remains constant decreases increases

(D) increases increases decreases

3. Three plates A,B and C each of area 0.1 m2 are separated by 0.885 mm from each
other as shown in the figure. A 10V battery is used to charge the system. The energy
stored in the system is:

(A) 1 J (B) 10–1 J (C) 10–2 J (D) 10–3 J

4. The magnitude of charge in steady state on either of the plates of condenser C in the adjoin-
ing circuit is-

CER 2 CER 2 CER 1

(A) CE (B) (R  r ) (C) (R  r ) (D) (R  r )
1 2 2

PAGE # 1
5. The plate separation in a parallel plate condenser is d and plate area is A. If it is charged to V
volt & battery is disconnected then the work done in increasing the plate separation to 2d will
be–

3 0 AV 2 0 AV 2 2 0 AV2 0 AV 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 d d d 2d

6. When a charged capacitor is connected with an uncharged capacitor, then which of the
following is/are correct option/options.

(A) the magnitude of charge on the charged capacitor decreases.

(B) a steady state is obtained after which no further flow of charge occurs.

(C) the total potential energy stored in the capacitors remains conserved.

(D) the charge conservation is always true.

7. The value of equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in figure between the points P and
Q is :–

(A) 3 C (B) 2 C (C) C (D) C/3

8. An infinite number of identical capacitors each of capacitance 1F are connected as in adjoining
f i g u r e . T h e n t h e equivalent capacitance between A and B is

(A) 1F (B) 2F (C) 1/2 F (D) 

9. The equivalent capacitance across AB (all capacitance in F) is

(A) F (B) 9F (C) 48F (D) None of these

PAGE # 2
10. n the following figure, the charge on each condenser in the steady state will be–

(A) 3C (B) 6C (C) 9C (D) 12C

11. The resultant capacity between the points A and B in the adjoining circuit will be -

(A) C (B) 2C (C) 3C (D) 4C

12. The equivalent capacitance between the terminals X and Y in the figure shown will be–

(A) 100 pF (B) 200 pF (C) 300 pF (D) 400 pF

13. Two parallel plate condensers of capacity of 20µF and 30µF are charged to the potentials of
30V and 20V respectively. If likely charged plates are connected together then the common
potential difference will be-

(A) 100 V (B) 50 V (C) 24 V (D) 10 V

14. The charge on capacitor in two different RC circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as shown in figure.

Choose the correct statement(s) related to the two circuits.

(A) Both the capacitors are charged to the same magnitude of charge

(B) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are equal.

(C) The emf's of the cells may be different

(D) The emf E1 is more than E2

PAGE # 3
15. The switch S shown in figure is kept closed for a long time and then opened at t = 0, then the
current in the middle 20  resistor at t = 0.25 ms is :

25 F

20  S

12 V 20 

(A) 0.629 A (B) 0.489 A (C) 0.189 A (D) 23 mA

16. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C (without dielectrics) is filled by dielectric slabs
as shown in figure. Then the new capacitance of the capacitor is

(A) 3.9 C (B) 4 C (C) 2.4 C (D) 3 C

17. On placing a dielectric slab between the plates of an isolated charged condenser its–

Capacitance Charge Potential Difference Energy stored Electric field

(A) decreases remains decreases increases increases unchanged

(B) increases remains increases increases decreases unchanged

(C) increases remains decreases decreases decreases unchanged

(D) decreases remains decreases increases remains unchanged

18. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric are connected to a voltage source.
Now a dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted to fill the whole space between the
plates with voltage source remaining connected to the capacitor.

(A) the energy stored in the capacitor will become Ktimes

(B) the electric field inside the capacitor will decrease to K-times

(C) the force of attraction between the plates will increase to K2 – times

(D) the charge on the capacitor will increase to K-times

19. A parallel plate condenser is connected to a battery of e.m.f. 4 volt. If a plate of dielectric
constant 8 is inserted into it, then the potential difference on the condenser will be-

(A) 1/2 V (B) 2V (C) 4V (D) 32V

PAGE # 4
20. A parallel plate condenser with plate separation d is charged with the help of a battery so that
U0 energy is stored in the system. A plate of dielectric constant K and thickness d is placed
between the plates of condenser while battery remains connected. The new energy of the
system will be-

U0 U0
(A) KU0 (B) K2U0 (C) (D)
K K2

21. The work done in placing a charge of 8 × 10–18 coulomb on a condenser of capacity 100 micro-
farad is :
(A) 16 × 10–32 joule (B) 3.1 × 10–26 joule (C) 4 × 10–10 joule (D) 32 × 10–32 joule
22. A fully charged capacitor has a capacitance ‘C’. It is discharged through a small coil of resis-
tance wire embedded in a thermally insulated block of specific heat capacity ‘s’ and mass ‘m’. If
the temperature of the block is raised by ‘T’, the potential difference ‘V’ across the capacitance
is :

2mCT mCT msT 2msT

(A) (B) (C) (D)
s s C C

23. A battery is used to charge a parallel plate capacitor till the potential difference between the
plates becomes equal to the electromotive force of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored in
the capacitor and the work done by the battery will be

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1/4 (D) 1/2

24. A parallel plate condenser with a dielectric of dielectric constant K between the plates has a
capacity C and is charged to a potential V volts. The dielectric slab is slowly removed from
between the plates and then reinserted. The net work done by the system in this process is

1
(A) (K–1)CV2 (B) CV2(K – 1)/K (C) (K – 1)CV2 (D) zero
2

25. In the circuit shown in figure the capacitors are initially uncharged. The current through resistor
PQ just after closing the switch is :

(A) 2A from P to Q (B) 2A from Q to P (C) 6A from P to Q (D) zero

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (D)
6. (ABD) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (D)
11. (C) 12. (B) 13. (C) 14. (AC) 15. (C)
16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (ACD) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (D)

PAGE # 5
 DPP No. 36 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : FLUID MECHANICS

1. Figure here shows the vertical cross-section of a vessel filled with a liquid of density . The
normal thrust per unit area on the walls of the vessel at point. P, as shown, will be

(A) h g (B) H g (C) (H – h) g (D) (H – h) g cos

2. A tank with length 10 m, breadth 8 m and depth 6m is filled with water to the top. If g = 10ms –2
and density of water is 1000 kg m–3, then the thrust on the bottom is (neglect atmospheric
pressure)
(A) 6 × 1000 × 10 × 80 N (B) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 48 N
(C) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 60 N (D) 3 × 1000 × 10 × 80 N
3. In a hydraulic lift, used at a service station the radius of the large and small piston are in the
ratio of 20 : 1. What weight placed on the small piston will be sufficient to lift a car of mass
1500 kg ?
(A) 3.75 kg (B) 37.5 kg (C) 7.5 kg (D) 75 kg.
4. Two vessels A and B of different shapes have the same base area and are filled with water up
to the same height h (see figure). The force exerted by water on the base is F A for vessel A
and FB for vessel B. The respective weights of the water filled in vessels are W A and W B. Then

(A) FA > FB ; W A > WB (B) FA = FB ; W A > WB

(C) FA = FB ; W A < W B (D) FA > FB ; W A = W B
5. The density of ice is x gm/cc and that of water is y gm/cc. What is the change in volume in cc,
when m gm of ice melts?
(A) M (y – x) (B) (y – x)/m (C) mxy (x – y) (D) m (1/y – 1/x)

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6. The reading of a spring balance when a block is suspended from it in air is 60 newton. This
reading is changed to 40 newton when the block is fully submerged in water. The specific
gravity of the block must be therefore :
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 6 (D) 3/2
7. A block of volume V and of density b is placed in liquid of density l(l > b), then block is
moved upward upto a height h and it is still in liquid. The increase in gravitational potential
energy of the block is :
(A) bVgh (B) (b + l)Vgh (C) (b – l)Vgh (D) none of these
8. A block of steel of size 5 cm × 5 cm × 5 cm is weighed in water. If the relative density of steel
is 7. Its apparent weight is :
(A) 6 × 5 × 5 × 5 gf (B) 4 × 4 × 4 × 7 gf (C) 5 × 5 × 5 × 7 gf (D) 4 × 4 × 4 × 6 gf
9. A metallic sphere floats in an immiscible mixture of water (w = 103 kg/m3) and a liquid
(L = 13.5 × 103) with (1/5)th portion by volume in the liquid and remaining in water. The
density of the metal is :
(A) 4.5 × 103 kg/m3 (B) 4.0 × 103 kg/m3 (C) 3.5 × 103 kg/m3 (D) 1.9 × 103 kg/m3
10. Two bodies are in equilibrium when suspended in water from the arms of a balance. The
mass of one body is 36 g and its density is 9 g/cc. If the mass of the other is 48 g, its density
in g/cc is :
(A) 4/3 (B) 3/2 (C) 3 (D) 5
11. In order that a floating object be in a stable equilibrium, its centre of buoyancy should be
(A) vertically above its centre of gravity
(B) vertically below its centre of gravity
(C) horizontally in line with its centre of gravity
(D) may be anywhere
12. A cubical block of wood 10 cm on a side, floats at the interface of oil and water as shown in
figure. The density of oil is 0.6 g cm–3 and density of water is 1 g cm–3. The mass of the block
is

(A) 706 g (B) 607 g (C) 760 g (D) 670 g

13. A cube of wood supporting a 200 gm mass just floats in water. When the mass is removed the
cube rises by 2 cm at equilibrium. Find side of the cube.
(A) 5 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 20 cm (D) 30 cm

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14. The diagram (figure) shows a venturimeter, through which water is flowing. The speed of
water at X is 2 cm/s. The speed of water at Y (taking g = 1000 cm/s2) is :–

(A) 23 cm/s (B) 32 cm/s (C) 101 cm/s (D) 1024 cm/s
15. A tank is filled with water up to height H. Water is allowed to come out of a hole P in one of
the walls at a depth D below the surface of water as shown in the figure. Express the
horizontal distance x in terms of H and D :

D(H  D)
(A) x = D(H  D) (B) x = (C) x = 2 D(H  D) (D) x = 4 D(H  D)
2
16. A fixed cylindrical vessel is filled with water up to height H. A hole is bored in the wall at a
depth h from the free surface of water. For maximum horizontal range h is equal to :
(A) H (B) 3H/4 (C) H/2 (D) H/4
17. An incompressible liquid flows through a horizontal tube as shown in the figure. Then the
velocity ' v ' of the fluid is :

(A) 3.0 m/s (B) 1.5 m/s (C) 1.0 m/s (D) 2.25 m/s
18. For a fluid which is flowing steadily in a horizontal tube as shown in the figure, the level in the
vertical tubes is best represented by

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

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19. There are two identical small holes on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid. The
tank is open at the top. The difference in height of the two holes is h as shown in the figure.
As the liquid comes out of the two holes, the tank will experience a net horizontal force
proportional to:

(A) h1/2 (B) h (C) h3/2 (D) h2

20. A cylindrical tank of height 0.4 m is open at the top and has a diameter 0.16 m. Water is filled
in it up to a height of 0.16 m. How long it will take to empty the tank through a hole of radius
5×10–3 m at its bottom ?
(A) 46.26 sec. (B) 4.6 sec. (C) 462.6 sec. (D) 0.46 sec.
21. A large cylindrical vessel contains water to a height of 10m. It is found that the thrust acting on
the curved surface is equal to that at the bottom. If atmospheric pressure can support a water
column of 10m, the radius of the vessel is
(A) 10 m (B) 15m (C) 5m (D) 25m
22. A jet of water of cross-sectional area A hits a plate normally with velocity v. the plate is moving
in the direction of the jet with velocity V. therefore, the force exerted on the plate is
proportional to
(A) v (B) v2 (C) (v-V) (D) (v-V)2
23. A homogeneous solid cylinder of length L (L < H/2), cross–sectional area A/5 is immersed
such that it floats with its axis vertical at the liquid–liquid interface with length L/4 in the denser
liquid as shown in the figure. The lower density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure
P0. Then, density D of solid is given by :–

5 4 d
(A) d (B) d (C) 4d (D)
4 5 5

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24. A jar is filled with two non-mixing liquids 1 and 2 having densities 1 and 2, respectively. A
solid ball, made of a material of density 3, is dropped in the jar. It comes to equilibrium in the
position shown in the figure.

Which of the following is true for 1, 2 and 3 ?

(A) 1 > 3 > 2 (B) 1 < 2 < 3 (C) 1 < 3 < 2 (D) 3 < 1 < 2
25. A fire hydrant (as shown in the figure) delivers water of density  at a volume rate L. The
water travels vertically upward through the hydrant and then does 900 turn to emerge
horizontally at speed V. The pipe and nozzle have uniform cross-section throughout. The
force exerted by the water on the corner of the hydrant is

(A) VL (B) zero (C) 2VL (D) 2VL

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (A) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (B) 14. (B) 15. (C)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (B) 20. (A)
21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (A) 24. (C) 25. (D)

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 DPP No. 37 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : FLUID MECHANICS

1. A tube in vertical plane is shown in figure. It is filled with a liquid of density and its end B is
closedThen the force exerted by the fluid on the tube at end B will be : [Neglect atmospheric
pressure and assume the radius of the tube to be negligible in comparison to ]

g A 0
(A) 0 (B) g A0 (C) 2g A0 (D)
2

2. A U-tube of base length “” filled with same volume of two liquids of densities  and 2 is

moving with an acceleration “a” on the horizontal plane as shown in the figure. If the height
difference between the two surfaces (open to atmosphere) becomes zero, then the height h is
given by:

a 3a a 2a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2g 2g g 3g

3. A narrow tube completely filled with a liquid is lying on a series of cylinders as shown in figure.
Assuming no sliding between any surfaces, the value of acceleration of the cylinders for which
liquid will not come out of the tube from anywhere is given by
open to atmosphere

H
L

gH gH 2gH gH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2L L L 2L

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4. An open pan P filled with water (density w) is placed on a vertical rod, maintaining
equilibrium. A block of density  is placed on one side of the pan as shown in the figure.
Water depth is more than height of the block.

(A) Equilibrium will be maintained only if  < W.

(B) Equilibrium will be maintained only if   W.
(C) Equilibrium will be maintained for all relations between  and W .
(D) It is not possible to maintained the equilibrium
5. Figure shows a weighing-bridge, with a beaker P with water on one pan and a balancing
weight R on the other. A solid ball Q is hanging with a thread outside water. It has volume
40 cm3 and weighs 80 g. If this solid is lowered to sink fully in water, but not touching the
beaker anywhere, the balancing weight R' will be

(A) same as R (B) 40 g less than R

(C) 40 g more than R (D) 80 g more than R
6. A uniform rod OB of length 1m, cross-sectional area 0.012 m2 and relative density 2.0 is free
to rotate about O in vertical plane. The rod is held with a horizontal string AB which can
withstand a maximum tension of 45 N. The rod and string system is kept in water as shown in
figure. The maximum value of angle  which the rod can make with vertical without breaking
the string is

Fixed vessel
A B

a
O

(A) 45º (B) 37º (C) 53º (D) 60º

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7. A non uniform cylinder of mass m, length  and radius r is having its centre of mass at a

distance /4 from the centre and lying on the axis of the cylinder as shown in the figure. The

cylinder is kept in a liquid of uniform density  The moment of inertia of the rod about the
centre of mass is . The angular acceleration of point A relative to point B just after the rod is
released from the position shown in figure is

g 2r 2 g 2r 2 g 2r 2 3g 2r 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
 4 2 4
8. A block of iron is kept at the bottom of a bucket full of water at 2°C. The water exerts buoyant
force on the block. If the temperature of water is increased by 1°C the temperature of iron
block also increases by 1°C. The buoyant force on the block by water
(A) will increase
(B) will decrease
(C) will not change
(D) may decrease or increase depending on the values of their coefficient of expansion
9. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is rotated about its axis. The liquid rises at the
sides. If the radius of the vessel is 0.05 m and the speed of rotation is 2 rev/s, The difference
in the height of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and its sides will be (2 = 10) :
(A) 3 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 3/2 cm (D) 2/3 cm
10. A block is partially immersed in a liquid and the vessel is accelerating upwards with an
acceleration “a”. The block is observed by two observers O1 and O2 , one at rest and the other
accelerating with an acceleration “a” upward as shown in the figure. The total buoyant force
on the block is :

a a
O2

O1 (at rest)

(A) same for O1 and O2 (B) greater for O1 than O2

(C) greater for O2 than O1 (D) data is not sufficient

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11. A portion of a tube is shown in the figure. Fluid is flowing from cross-section area A1 to A2. The
two cross-sections are at distance '  ' from each other. The velocity of the fluid at section A2 is

g
. If the pressures at A1 & A2 are same, then the angle made by the tube with the
2
horizontal will be:

3 3
(A) 37º (B) sin1 (C) 53º (D) cos1
4 4
12. There is a small hole in the bottom of a fixed container containing a liquid upto height ‘h’. The
top of the liquid as well as the hole at the bottom are exposed to atmosphere. As the liquid
comes out of the hole. (Area of the hole is ‘a’ and that of the top surface is ‘A’) :
(A) the top surface of the liquid accelerates with acceleration = g
a2
(B) the top surface of the liquid accelerates with acceleration = g
A2
a
(C) the top surface of the liquid retards with retardation = g
A
ga2
(D) the top surface of the liquid retards with retardation =
A2
13. The velocity of the liquid coming out of a small hole of a large vessel containing two different
liquids of densities 2and as shown in figureis

(A) 6gh (B) 2 gh (C) 2 2gh (D) gh

14. Two water pipes P and Q having diameters 2 × 10–2 m and 4 × 10–2 m, respectively, are joined
in series with the main supply line of water. The velocity of water flowing in pipe P is
(A) 4 times that of Q (B) 2 times that of Q
(C) 1/2 times that of Q (D) 1/4 times that of Q

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15. A cup of water is placed in a car moving at a constant acceleration a to the left. Inside the
water is a small air bubble. The figure that correctly shows the shape of the water surface and
the direction of motion of the air bubble is.
a a a a

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

16. A ball is made of a material of density  where oil <  < water with oil and water representing
the densities of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball
is in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents its
equilibrium position?

(A) (B) (C) (D)

17. Water is flowing continuously from a tap having an internal diameter 8 × 10 –3 m. The water
velocity as it leaves the tap is 0.4 ms–1. The diameter of the water stream at a distance
2 × 10–1 m below the tap is close to :
(A) 5.0 × 10–3 m (B) 7.5 × 10–3 m (C) 9.6 × 10–3 m (D) 3.6 × 10–3 m
18. A uniform cylinder of length L and mass M having cross - sectional area A is suspended, with
its length vertical, from a fixed point by a massless spring such that it is half submerged in a
liquid of density  at equilibrium position. The extension x0 of the spring when it is in
equilibrium is :
Mg Mg  LA  Mg  LA  Mg  LA 
(A) (B) 1– (C) 1– (D) 1
k k  M  k  2M  k  M 

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19. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1
and d2 are filled in the tube. Each liquid subtands 90° angle at centre. Radius joining their
d1
interface makes an angle  with vertical. Ratio is :
d2

1  sin  1  cos  1  tan  1  sin 

(A) (B) (C) (D)
1  sin  1  cos  1  tan  1  cos 
20. The top of a water tank is open to air and its water level is maintained. It is giving out
0.74 m3 / min. water per minute through a circular opening of 2 cm radius in its wall. The
depth of the centre of the opening from the level of water in the tank is close to :
(A) 2.9 m (B) 9.6 m (C) 4.8 m (D) 6.0 m
21. A liquid of density  is coming out of a hose pipe of radius a with horizontal speed  and hits
a mesh. 50% of the liquid passes through the mesh unaffected. 25% looses all of its
momentum and 25% comes back with the same speed. The resultant pressure on the mesh
will be :
1 2 1 2 3 2
(A)  (B)  (C)  (D) 2
2 4 4
22. A load of mass M kg is suspended from a steel wire of length 2 m and radius 1.0 mm in
Searle's apparatus experiment. The increase in length produced in the wire is 4.0 mm. Now
the load is fully immersed in a liquid of relative density 2. The relative density of the material of
load is 8. The new value of increase in length of the steel wire is :
(A) 3.0 mm (B) zero (C) 5.0 mm (D) 4.0
–4
23. Water flows into a large tank with flat bottom at the rate of 10 m3s–1. Water is also leaking
out of a hole of area 1 cm2 at its bottom. If the height of the water in the tank remains steady,
then this height is
(A) 5.1 cm (B) 1.7 cm (C) 2.9 cm (D) 4 cm

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24. A cylindrical vessel containing a liquid is rotated about its axis so that the liquid rises at its
sides as shown in the figure. The radius of vessel is 5 cm and the angular speed of rotation is
rad s–1. The difference in the height, h (in cm) of liquid at the centre of vessel and at the side
will be

22 52 22 25 2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
25g 2g 5g 2g

25. Two identical cylindrical vessels are kept on the ground and each contain the same liquid of
density d. The area of the base of both vessels is S but the height of liquid in one vessel is x1
and in the other, x2. When both cylinders are connected through a pipe of negligible volume
very close to the bottom, the liquid flows from one vessel to the other until it comes to
equilibrium at a new height. The change in energy of the system in the process is

(D) gdS  x 22  x12 

1 3
(A) gdS(x2 + x1)2 (B) gdS(x 2  x1 )2 (C) gdS(x 2  x1 )2
4 4

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (C)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D)
16. (B) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (C)
21. (C) 22. (A) 23. (A) 24. (D) 25. (B)

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 DPP No. 38 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : ELASTICITY & VISCOSITY + SURFACE TENSION

1. The diameter of a brass rod is 4 mm and Young’s modulus of brass is 9 × 1010 N/m2. The
force required to stretch it by 0.1% of its length is :
(A) 360 N (B) 36 N (C) 144 × 103 N (D) 36 × 105 N
2. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support. When loaded with a weight in air, it
expands by La and when the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension is reduced
to Lw. Then relative density of the material of the weight is
La Lw La Lw
(A) (B) (C) (D)
La  L w La Lw La  L w

3. Two wires of equal length and cross-section area suspended as shown in figure. Their
Young's modulus are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young's modulus will be

Y1  Y2 Y1Y2
(A) Y1 + Y2 (B) (C) (D) Y1 Y2
2 Y1  Y2

4. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same materials is shown in the figure.
The thinnest wire is represented by the line :

(A) OC (B) OD (C) OA (D) OB

5. A square brass plate of side 1.0 m and thickness 0.005 m is subjected to a force F on its
smaller opposite edges, causing a displacement of 0.02 cm. If the shear modulus of brass is
0.4 × 1011 N/m2, the value of the force F is
(A) 4 × 103 N (B) 400 N (C) 4 × 104 N (D) 1000 N

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6. A metal block is experiencing an atmospheric pressure of 1 × 105 N/m2, when the same block
is placed in a vacuum chamber, the fractional change in its volume is (the bulk modulus of
metal is 1.25 × 1011 N/m2)
(A) 4 × 10–7 (B) 2 × 10–7 (C) 8 × 10–7 (D) 1 × 10–7
7. A steel rod of length  area of cross section A, Young’s modulus Y and linear coefficient of

expansion  is heated through TC. The work that can be performed by the rod when heated is
1 1 1
(A) (YAt)  (t) (B)  YAt    t  (C)  YAt    t  (D) 2  YAt    t 
2 2 2

8. A uniform wire of cross sectional area A and Young’s modulus Y is stretched within elastic
limit. If S is the stress in the wire, the elastic energy density stored in the wire in terms of the
given parameters is
S 2Y S2 S2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2Y S2 2Y Y
9. If the potential energy of a spring is V on stretching it by 2 cm, then its potential energy when
it is stretched by 10 cm will be :
(A) V/25 (B) 5 V (C) V/5 (D) 25 V
10. If work done in stretching a wire by 1mm is 2J, the work necessary for stretching another wire
of same material, but with double the radius and half the length by 1mm in joule is -
(A) 1/4 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 16
11. A metal wire of length L area of cross-section A and Young’s modulus Y is stretched by a
variable force F such that F is always slightly greater than the elastic force of resistance in the
wire. When the elongation of the wire is  :

YA 2 YA 2
(A) the work done by F is (B) the work done by F is
L 2L
(C) heat is produced during the elongation (D) None of these
12. The terminal velocity of a sphere moving through a viscous medium is :
(A) directly proportional to the radius of the sphere
(B) inversely proportional to the radius of the sphere
(C) directly proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
(D) inversely proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
13. A sphere is dropped gently into a medium of infinite extent. As the sphere falls, the force
acting downwards on it
(A) remains constant throughout
(B) increases for sometime and then becomes constant
(C) decreases for sometime and then becomes zero
(D) increases for sometime and then decreases.

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14. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of 10 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum,
(A) terminal velocity will be more than 10 m/s
(B) terminal velocity will be less than 10 m/s
(C) terminal velocity will be 10 m/s
(D) there will be no terminal velocity
15. Spherical balls of radius R are falling in a viscous fluid of viscosity  with a velocity . The
retarding viscous force acting on the spherical ball is :
(A) directly proportional to R but inversely proportional to 
(B) directly proportional to both radius R and velocity 
(C) inversely proportional to both radius R and velocity 
(D) inversely proportional to R but directly proportional to 
16. A force F is needed to break a copper wire having radius R. The force needed to break a
copper wire of radius 2 R will be :
(A) F/2 (B) 2 F (C) 4 F (D) F/4
17. Two hail stones with radii in the ratio of 1 : 2 fall from a great height through the atmosphere.
Then the ratio of their momentum after they have attained terminal velocity is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 4 (C) 1 : 16 (D) 1 : 32
18. A 50 kg motor rests on four cylindrical rubber blocks. Each block has a height of 4 cm and a
cross-sectional area of 16 cm2. The shear modulus of rubber is 2 × 106 N/m2. A sideways
force of 500 N is applied to the motor. The distance that the motor moves sideways is
(A) 0.156 cm (B) 1.56 cm (C) 0.312 cm (D) 0.204 cm
19. A small steel ball falls through a syrup at constant speed of 10 cm/s. If the steel ball is pulled
upwards with a force equal to twice its effective weight, how fast will it move upwards ?
(A) 10 cm/s (B) 20 cm/s (C) 5 cm/s (D) – 5 cm/s
20. Two identical thin metal strips, one of aluminum and the other of iron are riveted together to
form a bimetallic strip. The temperature is raised by 50º C. If the central planes of the two
strips are separated by 2nm and the coefficients of thermal expansion of aluminum and iron
are respectively 30 × 10–6/0 C and 10 × 10–6 /0 C the average radius of curvature of the
bimetallic strip is about.
(A) 50 cm (B) 100 cm (C) 150 cm (D) 200 cm
21. The pressure that has to be applied to the ends of a steel wire of length 10 cm to keep its
length constant when its temperature is raised by 100°C is :
(For steel Young's modulus is 2 × 1011 N m–2 and coefficient of thermal expansion is
1.1 × 10–5 K–1)
(A) 2.2 × 108 Pa (B) 2.2 × 109 Pa (C) 2.2 × 107 Pa (D) 2.2 × 106 Pa

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22. A pendulum made of a uniform wire of cross sectional area A has time period T. When an
additional mass M is added to its bob, the time period changes to T M. If the Young's modulus
1
of the material of the wire is Y then is equal to : (g = gravitational acceleration)
Y

 T  2  A  T  2  Mg   TM   A
2
  T   A
2

(A)  M   1 (B)  M   1 (C) 1     (D) 1    

 T   Mg  T   A   T   Mg   TM   Mg

23. A rod, of length L at room temperature and uniform area of cross section A, is made a metal
having coefficient of linear expansion /°C. It is observed that an external compressive force
F, is applied on each of its ends, prevents any change in the length of the rod, when its
temperature rises by T K. Young's modulus , Y, for this metal is :

2F F F F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
AT A( T  273) AT 2AT

24. A load of mass M kg is suspended from a steel wire of length 2 m and radius 1.0 mm in
Searle’s apparatus experiment. The increase in length produced in the wire is 4.0 mm. Now
the load is fully immersed in a liquid of relative density 2. The relative density of the material of
load is 8. The new value of increase in length of the steel wire is:
(A) 4.0 mm (B) zero (C) 5.0 mm (D) 3.0 mm
25. In an experiment to verify Stokes law, a small spherical ball of radius r and density  falls
under gravity through a distance h in air before entering a tank of water. If the terminal velocity
of the ball inside water is same as its velocity just before entering the water surface, then the
value of h is proportional to (ignore viscosity of air)
(A) r4 (B) r3 (C) r (D) r2

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (B) 4. (C) 5. (C)
6. (C) 7. (B) 8. (C) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (C) 14. (D) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (D)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (A)

www.competishun.com PAGE# 4
 DPP No. 39 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : ELASTICITY & VISCOSITY + SURFACE TENSION

1. Insects are able to run on the surface of water because :

(A) insects have less weight

(B) insects swim on water

(C) of the Archimede’s upthrust

(D) surface tension makes the surface behave as elastic membrane.

2. The radii of the two columns is U-tube are r1 and r2. When a liquid of density  (angle of
contact is 0°) is filled in it, the level difference of liquid in two arms is h. The surface tension of
liquid is: (g = acceleration due to gravity) :

ghr1r2 gh(r2  r1 ) 2(r2  r1 ) gh

(A) (B) (C) (D)
2(r2  r1 ) 2r1r2 ghr1r2 2(r2  r1 )

3. In a surface tension experiment with a capillary tube water rises upto 0.1 m. If the same
experiment is repeated in an artificial satellite, which is revolving around the earth ; water will
rise in the capillary tube upto a height of :

(A) 0.1 m (B) 0.2 m (C) 0.98 m (D) full length of tube

4. A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends the surface downwards along
the perimeter making an angle  with vertical edge of the disc. If the disc displaces a weight of
water W and surface tension of water is T, then the weight of metal disc is :

(A) 2 rT + W (B) 2 rT cos – W (C) 2 rT cos + W (D) W – 2 rT cos

5. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 Newton per metre. If a film is held on a ring of area
0.02 metres2, its surface energy is about :

(A) 5 × 10–2 J (B) 2.5 × 10–2 J (C) 2 × 10–1 J (D) 3 × 10–1 J

6. Water rises in a capillary tube to a height h. it will rise to a height more than h

(A) on the surface of sun (B) in a lift moving down with an acceleration

(C) at the poles (D) in a lift moving up with an acceleration.

www.competishun.com PAGE# 1
7. A tube of fine bore AB is connected to a manometer M as shown. The stop cock S controls
the flow of air. AB is dipped into a liquid whose surface tension is . On opening the stop cock
for a while, a bubble is formed at B and the manometer level is recorded, showing a difference
h in the levels in the two arms. if  be the density of manometer liquid and r the radius of
curvature of the bubble, then the surface tension  of the liquid is given by

S
A

h M
B

rhg
(A) hrg (B) 2hgr (C) 4hrg (D)
4

8. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of density ‘d’. keeping them vertical. If
the distance between the plates is ‘x’, Surface tension for liquid is T & angle of contact is 
then rise of liquid between the plates due to capillary will be :

T cos  2T cos  2T T cos 

(A) (B) (C) (D)
x d xdg xdgcos  xdg

9. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in the figure. And the frame is dipped
into a soap solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the
portion A is punctured with a pin, the thread :

Frame
A

B Thread

(A) becomes convex towards A

(B) becomes concave towards A

(C) remains in the initial position

(D) either (A) or (B) depending on size of A w.r.t. B

10. A cylinder with a movable piston contains air under a pressure p1 and a soap bubble of radius
‘r’. The pressure p2 to which the air should be compressed by slowly pushing the piston into
the cylinder for the soap bubble to reduce its size by half will be : (The surface tension is ,
and the temperature T is maintained constant)

 24   24   24   12 

(A) 8p1  (B) 4p1  (C) 2p1  (D) 2p1 
 r   r   r   r 

www.competishun.com PAGE# 2
11. A water drop is divided into 8 equal droplets. The pressure difference between the inner and
outer side of the big drop will be :

(A) same as for smaller droplet (B) 1/2 of that for smaller droplet

(C) 1/4 of that for smaller droplet (D) twice that for smaller droplet

12. A vessel whose bottom has round holes with a diameter of d = 0.1 mm is filled with water. The
maximum height of the water level h at which the water does not flow out, will be : (The water
does not wet the bottom of the vessel). [S.T of water = 70 dyn/cm]

(A) h = 24.0 cm (B) h = 25.0 cm (C) h = 26.0 cm (D) h = 28.0 cm

13. An air bubble of radius r in water is at a depth h below the water surface at some instant. If P
is atmospheric pressure, d and T are density and surface tension of water respectively, the
pressure inside the bubble will be :

4T 2T 2T 4T
(A) P + h dg – (B) P + h dg + (C) P + h dg – (D) P + h dg +
r r r r

14. The work done to get n smaller equal size spherical drops from a bigger size spherical drop of
water is proportional to :

 1   1 
(A)  2/ 3   1 (B)  1/ 3   1 (C) n1/3 – 1 (D) n4/3 – 1
n  n 

15. Two unequal soap bubbles are formed one on each side of a tube closed in the middle by a
tap. What happens when the tap is opened to put the two bubbles in communication ?

(A) No air passes in any direction as the pressures are the same on two sides of the tap

(B) Larger bubble shrinks and smaller bubble increases in size till they become equal in size

(C) Smaller bubble gradually collapses and the bigger one increases in size

(D) None of the above

16. When charge is given to a soap bubble, it shows :

(A) a decrease in size

(B) no change in size

(C) an increase in size

(D) sometimes an increase and sometimes a decreases in size

www.competishun.com PAGE# 3
17. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3 cm and another soap bubble in vacuum has a
radius of 4 cm. If the two bubbles coalesce under isothermal conditions then the radius of the
new bubble is :

(A) 2.3 cm (B) 4.5 cm (C) 5 cm (D) 7 cm

18. At critical temperature, the surface tension of a liquid :

(A) is zero (B) is infinity

(C) is same as that at any other temperature(D) cannot be determined

19. A soap bubble of radius r1 is placed on another soap bubble of radius r2(r1 < r2). The radius R
of the soapy film separating the two bubbles is :

r2r1
(A) r1 + r2 (B) r12  r22 (C) (r13 + r23) (D)
r2  r1

20. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of
water in capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in
capillary tube will be

M
(A) 2M (B) M (C) (D) 4M
2

21. Work done in increasing the size of a soap bubble from a radius of 3 cm to 5 cm is nearly.
(Surface tension of soap solution = 0.03 Nm–1)

(A) 4 mJ (B) 0.2 mJ (C) 2 mJ (D) 0.4 mJ

22. Two mercury drops (each of radius ‘r’) merge to from bigger drop. The surface energy of the
bigger drop is, if T is the surface tension :

(A) 4r2 T (B) 2r2 T (C) 28 / 3  r 2 T (D) 25 / 3  r 2 T

23. Assume that a drop of liquid evaporates by decreasing in its surface energy, so that its
temperature remains unchanged. What should be the minimum radius of the drop for this to
be possible? The surface tension is T, density of liquid is  and L is its latent heat of
vaporization.

(A) L/T (B) T / L   (C) T/L (D) 2T/L

www.competishun.com PAGE# 4
24. A capillary tube made of glass of radius 0.15 mm is dipped vertically in a beaker filled with
methylene iodide (surface tension = 0.05 Nm–1, density = 667 kg m–3) which rises to height h
in the tube. It is observed that the two tangents drawn from liquid-glass interfaces (from opp.
sides of the capillary) make an angle of 60° with one another. Then h is close to (g = 10 ms–2)
(A) 0.049 m (B) 0.087 m (C) 0.137 m (D) 0.172 m
25. Pressure inside two soap bubbles are 1.01 and 1.02 atmosphere, respectively. The ratio of
their volumes is
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 0.8 : 1 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 8 : 1

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (C)

6. (B) 7. (D) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (C)

16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (A)

21. (D) 22. (C) 23. (D) 24. (B) 25. (D)

www.competishun.com PAGE# 5
DPP No: 40
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : WAVE OPTICS

1. Two coherent sources of intensities I1 and I2 produce an interference pattern. The maximum
intensity in the interference pattern will be :–

(A) I1 + I2 (B)  (C) (I1 + I2)2 (D)

2. Two wave are represented by the equations y1 = a sin t and y2 = a cos t.The first wave :–

(A) leads the second by  (B) lags the seconds by 

 
(C) leads the second by (D) lags the seconds by

3. The resultant amplitude of a vibrating particle by the superposition of the two waves

y1 = asin and y2 = a sin t is :–

(A) a (B) a (C) 2a (D) a

4. The energy in the phenomenon of interference :–

(A) is conserved, gets redistributed (B) is equal at every point

(C) is destroyed in regions of dark fringes (D) is created at the place of bright fringes

5. The phase difference corresponding to path difference of x is :–

   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
 

6. Ratio of intensities of two light waves is given by 4 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the waves
is :

(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

7. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed; the maximum
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam are :

(A) 5 and  (B) 5 and 3 (C) 9 and  (D) 9 and 3

8. An electromagnetic wave travelling through a transparent medium is given by

 y 
E x ( y, t )  E ox sin 2  7
 3  1014 t  in S units. Then what is the refractive index of the medium?
 5  10 

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

PAGE # 1
9. If the ratio of the intensity of two coherent sources is 4 then the visibility
[(Imax – Imin)/(Imax + Imin)] of the fringes is

(A) 4 (B) 4/5 (C) 3/5 (D) 9

10. If the distance between the first maxima anBd fifth minima of a double slit pattern is 7 mm
and the slits are separated by 0.15 mm with the screen 50 cm from the slits, then wavelength
of the light used is

(A) 600 nm (B) 525 nm (C) 467 nm (D) 420 nm

11. In Young's double slit experiment, the separation between the slits is halved and the distance
between the slits and the screen is doubled. The fringe width is :–

(A) unchanged (B) halved (C) doubled (D) quadrupled

12. In Young's double slit experiment using sodium light (= 5898Å), 92 fringes are seen. If given
colour ( = 5461Å) is used, how many fringes will be seen

(A) 62 (B) 67 (C) 85 (D) 99

13. In YDSE, the source placed symmetrically with respect to the slit is now moved parallel to the
plane of the slits it is closer to the upper slit, as shown. Then ,

(A) the fringe width will increase and fringe pattern will shift down.

(B) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift up.

(C) the fringe width will decrease and fringe pattern will shift down.

(D) the fringe width will remain same but fringe pattern will shift down.

14. The contrast in the fringes in any interference pattern depends on :

(A) Fringe width (B) Wavelength

(C) Intensity ratio of the sources (D) Distance between the sources

15. Yellow light emitted by sodium lamp in Young’s double slit experiment is replaced by
monochromatic blue light of the same intensity :

(A) fringe width will decrease. (B) fringe width will increase.

(C) fringe width will remain unchanged. (D) fringes will become less intense.

PAGE # 2
16. Two coherent light sources each of wavelength  are separated by a distance 3 . The total
number of minima formed on line AB which runs from -  to + is:

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

17. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm, are illuminated with red light of wavelength
6.5 × 10–7 m. The interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m from the slits. Find
the distance between the third dark fringe and the fifth bright fringe on the same side of the
central maxima.

(A) 2.615 mm (B) 3.225 mm (C) 1.625 mm (D) 0.525 mm

18. In the figure shown if a parallel beam of white light is incident on the plane of the slits then the
distance of the nearest white spot on the screen from O is: [assume d << D,  << d]

(A) 0 (B) d/2 (C) d/3 (D) d/6

19. The Young’s double slit experiment is performed with blue and with green light of wavelengths
4360 Å and 5460 Å respectively. If X is the distance of 4th maximum from the central one, then:

(A) X(blue) = X(green) (B) X(blue) > X(green)

X(blue ) 5460
(C) X(blue) < X(green) (D) X(green)  4360

20. White light is used to illuminate the two silts in a Young’s double slit experiment. The separation
between the slits is b and the screen is at a distance d (> > b) from the slits. At a point on the
screen directly in front of one of the slits, certain wavelengths are missing. Some of these
missing wavelengths are :

b2 2b2 2b2
(A)  = (B)  = (C)  = (D) None of these
d d 3d

PAGE # 3
21. A source emitting two light waves of wavelengths 580 nm and 700 nm is used in a young's
double slit interference experiment. The separation between the slits is 0.20 mm and the
interference is observed on a screen placed at 150 cm from the slits. Find the linear separation
between the first maximum (next to the central maximum) corresponding to the two wavelengths.

(A) 0.5 mm (B) 1.9 mm (C) 0.9 mm (D) 2.9 mm

22. In Young's double slit experiment, a mica sheet of thickness t and refractive index is introduced
in the path of ray from the first source S1. By how much distance the fringe pattern will be
displaced

(A)  (B)  (C) (D) 



23. In the YDSE shown the two slits are covered with thin sheets having thickness t & 2t and
refractive index 2 and . Find the position (y) of central maxima

(A) zero (B) (C) (D) None of these

24. A two slit Young’s interference experiment is done with monochromatic light of wavelength
6000 Å. The slits are 2 mm apart. The fringes are observed on a screen placed 10 cm away
from the slits. Now a transparent plate of thickness 0.5 mm is placed in front of one of the slits
and it is found that the interference pattern shifts by 5 mm. The refractive index of the transparent
plate is :

(A)1.2 (B) 0.6 (C) 2.4 (D) 1.5

25. In a YDSE both slits produce equal intensities on the screen. A 100 % transparent thin film is
placed in front of one of the slits. Now the intensity of the geometrical centre of system on the
screen becomes 75 % of the previous intensity. The wavelength of the light is 6000Å and
glass = 1.5. The thickness of the film cannot be:

(A) 0.2  m (B) 1.0  m (C) 1.4  m (D) 1.6  m

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (D) 4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)
11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (D) 19. (C) 20. (A)
21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (A) 25. (D)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 41
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : WAVE OPTICS

1. In youngs double slit experiment, distance between the slits is d and that between the slits and
screen is D. Angle between principle axis of lens and perpendicular bisector of S 1 and S2 is
45°. The point source S is placed at the focus of lens and aperture of lens is much larger than
d. Assuming only the reflected light from plane mirror M is incident on slits, distance of central
maxima from O will be :

D D
(A) D (B) (C) D 3 (D)
3 4

2. Minimum thickness of a mica sheet having  = which should be placed in front of one

of the slits in YDSE is required to reduce the intensity at the centre of screen to half of maximum
intensity is-

(A) /4 (B) /8 (C) /2 (D) /3

3. White light is incident normally on a glass plate (in air) of thickness 500 nm and refractive index
of 1.5. The wavelength (in nm) in the visible region (400 nm - 700nm) that is strongly reflected
by the plate is:

(A) 450 (B) 600 (C) 400 (D) 500

4. A soap film of thickness 0.3 m appears dark when seen by the refracted light of wavelength
580 nm. What is the index of refraction of the soap solution, if it is known to be between
1.3 and 1.5?

(A) 0.45 (B) 1.45 (C) 2.25 (D) 3.15

5. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 560 nm falls on a thin film of oil (refractive index = 1.4).
What should be the minimum thickness of the film so that it weakly transmits the light?

(A) 10 nm (B) 60 nm (C) 75 nm (D) 100 nm

PAGE # 1
6. A parallel coherent beam of light falls on fresnel biprism of refractive index  and angle . The
fringe width on a screen at a distance D from biprism will be (wavelength = )

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

7. Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature is evident by

(A) polarization (B) interference (C) reflection (D) diffraction
8. If 0 is the intensity of the principal maximum in the single slit diffraction pattern, then what will be
its intensity when the slit width is doubled ?

(A) 0 (B) 0 /2 (C) 20 (D) 40

9. When an unpolarized light of intensity 0 is incident on a polarizing sheet, the intensity of the light
which does not get transmitted is

1 1
(A) zero (B) 0 (C)  (D) 
2 0 4 0

10. Two parallel beams of light of wavelength  inclined to each other at angle (<<1)are incident on
a plane at near normal incidence. The fringe width will be :

 2 
(A) 2  (B) (C) (D) 2sin 
 

11. If the first minima in a Young’s slit experiment occurs directly infornt of one of the slits. (distance
between slit & screen D = 12 cm and distance between slits d = 5 cm) then the wavelength of
the radiation used is :

2 2 4 4
(A) 2 cm only (B) 4 cm only (C) 2m, cm, cm (D) 4cm, cm, cm
3 5 3 5

12. An interference is observed due to two coherent sources 'A' & 'B' having phase constant zero
separated by a distance 4  along the y  axis where  is the wavelength of the source. A
detector D is moved on the positive x  axis. The number of points on the x  axis excluding the
points, x = 0 & x =  at which maximum will be observed is

(A) three (B) four (C) two (D) infinite

PAGE # 2
13. A long narrow horizontal slit lies 1 mm above a plane mirror. The interference pattern produced
by the slit and its image is viewed on a screen distant 1m from the slit. The wavelength of light
is 600 nm. Then the distance of the first maxima above the mirror is equal to (d << D):

S
d
0
D 

(A) 0.30 mm (B) 0.15 mm (C) 60 mm (D) 7.5 mm

14. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the two slits act as coherent sources of waves of equal
amplitude A and wavelength . In another experiment with the same arrangement the two slits
are made to act as incoherent sources of waves of same amplitude and wavelength. If the
intensity at the middle point of the screen in the first case is 1 and in the second case is 2 , then
1
the ratio  is :
2

(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 0.5 (D) 4

15. Two coherent point sources S1 and S2 are separated by a

small distance 'd' as shown. The fringes obtained on the

screen will be :

(A) points

(B) straight lines

(C) semi-circles

(D) concentric circles

16. Tow beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization
are seen through a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and
beam B has zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30º makes the two beams appear
A
equally bright. If the initial intensities of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then B
equals

3 1
(A) 3 (B) (C) 1 (D)
2 3

17. On a hot summer night, the refractive index of air is smallest near the ground and increases
with height from the ground. When a light beam is directed horizontally, the Huygens’ principle
leads us to conclude that as it travels, the light beam :

(A) becomes narrower (B) goes horizontally without any deflection

(C) bends downwards (D) bends upwards

18. Assuming human pupil to have a radius of 0.25 cm and a comfortable viewing distance of
25 cm, the minimum separation between two objects that human eye can resolve at 500 nm
wavelength is :

(A) 1 m (B) 30 m (C) 100 m (D) 300 m

PAGE # 3
19. Unpolarized light of intensity I passes through an ideal polarizer A. Another identical polarizer B is
I
placed behind A. The intensity of light beyond B is found to be
. Now another identical polarizer
2
I
C is placed between A and B. The intensity beyond B is now found to be . The angle between
8
polarizer A and C is :
(A) 45° (B) 60° (C) 0° (D) 30°
20. The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of
the slit is 1 m. The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane waves. If another slit of same
width is made near it, Young’s fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a distance 50 cm
from the slits. If the observed fringe width is 1 cm, what is slit separation distance?
(i.e. distance between the centres of each slit.)
(A) 75m (B) 100 m (C) 25 m (D) 50 m
21. In a double slit experiment, green light (5303 Å) falls on a double slit having a separation of
19.44 m and a width of 4.05 m. The number of bright fringes between the first and the
second diffraction minima is
(A) 05 (B) 09 (C) 10 (D) 04
22. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the path difference, at a certain point on the screen,
1
between two interfering waves is th of wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this point to
8
that at the centre of a bright fringe is close to
(A) 0.74 (B) 0.94 (C) 0.80 (D) 0.85
23. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the slits are placed 0.320 mm apart. Light of wavelength
 = 500 nm is incident on the slits. The total number of bright fringes that are observed in the
angular range –30º    30º is

(A) 640 (B) 320 (C) 321 (D) 641

24. Two coherent sources produce waves of different intensities which interfere. After interference,
the ratio of the maximum intensity to the minimum intensity is 16. The intensity of the waves
are in the ratio :
(A) 4 : 1 (B) 16 : 9 (C) 5 : 3 (D) 25 : 9
25. If the source of light used in a Young’s double slit experiment is changed from red to violet :
(A) consecutive fringe lines will come closer.
(B) the central bright fringe will become a dark fringe.
(C) the fringes will become brighter.
(D) the intensity of minima will increase.

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (C) 3. (B) 4. (B) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (C)
11. (A) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (D)
16. (D) 17. (D) 18. (B) 19. (A) 20. (C)
21. (D) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (D) 25. (A)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 42
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : STRING WAVE & SOUND WAVE

1. The equation of a wave travelling along the positive x–axis, as shown in figure at t = 0 is
given by:–

+1

0 X
–0.5
–1

(A) (B) (C) (D)

2. For the wave shown in figure, the equation for the wave, travelling along +x axis with velocity
350 ms–1 when its position at t = 0 is as shown

314 379
(A) 0.05 sin ( x – 27475 t) (B) 0.05 sin ( x – 27475 t)
4 5

314 289
(C) 1 sin ( x – 27475 t) (D) 0.05 sin ( x + 27475 t)
4 5

3. The displacement of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive x-direction is given by

y = 1/(1 + x2) at time t = 0 and y = 1/[1 + (x – 1)2] at t = 2 seconds where x and y are in meters.
The shape of the wave disturbance does not change during the propagation. The velocity of
the wave is

(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 0.25 m/s (C) 0.5 m/s (D) 5 m/s

4. A transverse wave is described by the equation Y = Y0 sin 2 (ft – x/). The maximum particle
velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if

(A)  =  Y0/4 (B)  =  Y0/2 (C)  =  Y0 (D)  = 2 Y0

PAGE # 1
 
5. A travelling wave on a string is given by y = A sin [x + t + ]. If  = 0.56 /cm,  = 12/sec,
6
A = 7.5 cm, then find the position and velocity of particle at x = 1 cm and t = 1s is

(A) 4.6 cm, 46.5 cm s–1 (B) 3.75 cm, 77.94 cm s–1

(C) 1.76 cm, 7.5 cm s–1 (D) 7.5 cm, 75 cm s–1

6. A transverse wave of amplitude 0.50m, wavelength 1m and frequency 2 Hz is propagating on

a string in the negative x-direction. The expression of the wave is

(A) y(x, t) = 0.5 sin (2x – 4t) (B) y(x, t) = 0.5 cos (2x + 4t)

(C) y(x, t) = 0.5 sin (x – 2t) (D) y(x, t) = 0.5 cos (2x – 2t)

7. Both the strings, shown in figure, are made of same material and have same cross-section.
The pulleys are light. The wave speed of a transverse wave in the string AB is v1 and in CD it
is v2. The v1/v2 is

1
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2 (D)
2

8. Two small boats are 10m apart on a lake. Each pops up and down with a period of 4.0 seconds
due to wave motion on the surface of water. When one boat is at its highest point, the other
boat is at its lowest point. Both boats are always within a single cycle of the waves. The speed
of the waves is :

(A) 2.5 m/s (B) 5.0 m/s (C) 14 m/s (D) 40 m/s

9. A wave pulse is generated in a string that lies along x-axis. At the points A and B, as shown in
figure, if RA and RB are ratio of wave speed to the particle speed respectively then :

(A) RA > RB (B) RB > RA

(C) RA = RB (D) Information is not sufficient to decide.

PAGE # 2
   x 
10. The equation of a wave is y = 4 sin   2t    where y, x are in cm and time in seconds. The
2 8 
amplitude, wave length, velocity and frequency of the wave are, respectively,

(A) 4 cm, 32 cm, 16 cm/s, 0.5Hz (B) 8 cm, 16 cm, 32 cm/s, 1.0Hz

(C) 4 cm, 32 cm, 32 cm/s, 0.5Hz (D) 8 cm, 16 cm, 16 cm/s, 1.0Hz

11. A loop of a string of mass per unit length  and radius R is rotated about an axis passing
through centre perpendicular to the plane with an angular velocity . A small disturbance is
created in the loop having the same sense of rotation. The linear speed of the disturbance for
a stationary observer is :

(A) R (B) 2R (C) 3R (D) zero

12. A transverse periodic wave on a string with a linear mass density of 0.200 kg/m is described by
the following equation y = 0.05 sin(420t – 21.0 x)

where x and y are in metres and t is in seconds. The tension in the string is equal to :

(A) 32 N (B) 42 N (C) 66 N (D) 80 N

13. A wave moving with constant speed on a uniform string passes the point x = 0 with amplitude
A0, angular frequency 0 and average rate of energy transfer P0. As the wave travels down the
string it gradually loses energy and at the point x = , the average rate of energy transfer
P0
becomes . At the point x = , angular frequency and amplitude are respectively :
2

(A) 0 and A0/ 2 (B) 0/ 2 and A0

(C) less than 0 and A0 (D) 0/ 2 and A0 / 2

14. A sinusoidal wave with amplitude ym is travelling with speed V on a string with linear density .
The angular frequency of the wave is . The following conclusions are drawn. Mark the one
which is correct.

(A) doubling the frequency doubles the rate at which energy is carried along the string

(B) if the amplitude were doubled, the rate at which energy is carried would be halved

(C) if the amplitude were doubled, the rate at which energy is carried would be doubled

(D) the rate at which energy is carried is directly proportional to the velocity of the wave.

15. Sinusoidal waves 5.00 cm in amplitude are to be transmitted along a string having a linear
mass density equal to 4.00 × 10–2 kg/m. If the source can deliver a average power of 90 W and
the string is under a tension of 100 N, then the highest frequency at which the source can
operate is (take 2 = 10):

(A) 45 Hz (B) 50 Hz (C) 30 Hz (D) 62 Hz

16. The average power transmitted through a given point on a string supporting a sine wave is.
0.40 watt when the amplitude of wave is 2 mm. What average power will transmitted through
this point its amplitude is increased to 4 mm.

(A) 0.40 watt (B) 0.80 watt (C) 1.2 watt (D) 1.6 watt

PAGE # 3
17. When two waves of the same amplitude and frequency but having a phase difference of ,
travelling with the same speed in the same direction (positive x), meets at a point then.

(A) their resultant amplitude will be twice that of a single wave but the frequency will be same

(B) their resultant amplitude and frequency will both be twice that of a single wave

(C) their resultant amplitude will depend on the phase angle while the frequency will be the
same

(D) the frequency and amplitude of the resultant wave will depend upon the phase angle.

18. The rate of transfer of energy in a wave depends

(A) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency

(B) directly on the square of the wave amplitude and square root of the wave frequency

(C) directly on the wave frequency and square of the wave amplitude

(D) directly on the wave amplitude and square of the wave frequency

19. Two waves of amplitude A1, and A2 respectively and equal frequency travels towards same
point. The amplitude of the resultant wave is

(A) A1 + A2 (B) A1 – A2

(C) between A1 + A2 and A1 – A2 (D) Can not say

20. A wave pulse, travelling on a two piece string, gets partially reflected and partially transmitted
at the junction. The reflected wave is inverted in shape as compared to the incident one. If the
incident wave has speed v and the transmitted wave v,

(A) v > v

(B) v = v

(C) v < v

(D) nothing can be said about the relation of v and v.

21. The effects are produced at a given point in space by two waves described by the equations,
y1 = ym sin t and y2 = ym sin (t + ) where ym is the same for both the waves and  is a phase
angle. Tick the incorrect statement among the following.

(A) the maximum intensity that can be achieved at a point is twice the intensity of either wave
and occurs if  = 0

(B) the maximum intensity that can be achieved at a point is four times the intensity of either
wave and occurs if  = 0

(C) the maximum amplitude that can be achieved at the point its twice the amplitude of either
wave and occurs at  = 0

(D) When the intensity is zero, the net amplitude is zero, and at this point  = .

PAGE # 4
22. The following figure depicts a wave travelling in a medium. Which pair of particles are in phase.

(A) A and D (B) B and F (C) C and E (D) B and G

23. A wave represented by the equation y = a cos(kx  t) is superposed with another wave to
form a stationary wave such that the point x = 0 is a node . The equation for other wave is :

(A) a sin (kx + t) (B) a cos(kx + t) (C) a cos(kx  t) (D) a sin(kx  t)

24. Two stretched wires A and B of the same lengths vibrate independently. If the radius, density
and tension of wire A are respectively twice those of wire B, then the fundamental frequency of
vibration of A relative to that of B is

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 8

25. A steel wire of mass 4.0 g and length 80 cm is fixed at the two ends. The tension in the wire is
50 N. The wavelength of the fourth harmonic of the fundamental will be :

(A) 80 cm (B) 60 cm (C) 40 cm (D) 20 cm

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (B) 5. (B)

6. (B) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (B) 10. (A)

11. (B) 12. (D) 13. (A) 14. (D) 15. (C)

16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)

21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (C)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 43
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : STRING WAVE & SOUND WAVE

1. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crests are 100m apart and velocity is 25m/s. The
boat bounces up once in every :–

(A) 2500 s (B) 75 s (C) 4 s (D) 0·25 s

2. When sound wave is refracted from air to water, which of the following will remain unchanged?

(A) wave number (B) wavelength (C) wave velocity (D) frequency

3. A piece of cork is floating on water in a small tank. The cork oscillates up and down vertically
when small ripples pass over the surface of water. The velocity of the ripples being 0.21 ms –1,
22
wave length 15 mm and amplitude 5 mm, the maximum velocity of the piece of cork is ( = )
7

(A) 0.44 ms–1 (B) 0.24 ms–1 (C) 2.4 ms–1 (D) 4.4 ms–1

4. The frequency of a man’s voice is 300 Hz and its wavelength is 1 meter. If the wavelength of a
child’s voice is 1.5 m, then the frequency of the child’s voice is:

(A) 200 Hz (B) 150 Hz (C) 400 Hz (D) 350 Hz.

5. A wave of frequency 500 Hz travels between X and Y, a distance of 600 m in 2 sec. How many
wavelength are there in distance XY:–

(A) 1000 (B) 300 (C) 180 (D) 2000

6. A machine gun is mounted on an armored car moving with a speed of 20 ms–1. The gun can
point against the direction of motion of car. The muzzle speed of bullet is equal to speed of
sound in air i.e., 340 ms–1. The time difference between bullet actually reaching and sound of
firing reaching at a target 544 m away from car at the instant of firing is

(A) 1.2 s (B) 0.1 s (C) 1 s (D) 10 s

PAGE # 1
7. A tuning fork is vibrating with constant frequency and amplitude. If the air is heated without
changing pressure the following quantities will increase.

(A) Wavelength (B) Frequency (C) Velocity (D) Time period

8. The ratio of speed of sound in a monoatomic gas to that in water vapours at any temperature
is. (when molecular weight of gas is 40 gm/mol and for water vapours is 18 gm/mol)

(A) 0.75 (B) 0.73 (C) 0.68 (D) None of these

9. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, In which of the following gases the
velocity of sound will be largest.

(A) H2 (B) N2 (C) He (D) CO2

10. A sound absorber attenuates the sound level by 20 dB. The intensity decreases by a factor
of:–

(A) 1000 (B) 10000 (C) 10 (D) 100

11. A sound of intensity  is greater by 3.0103 dB from another sound of intensity 10 nW cm–2. The
absolute value of intensity of sound level  in Wm–2 is :

(A) 2.5 × 10–4 (B) 2 × 10–4 (C) 2.0 × 10–2 (D) 2.5 × 10–2

12. For a sound source of intensity W/m2, corresponding sound level is B0 decibel. If the intensity
is increased to 4, new sound level becomes approximately :

(A) 2B0 dB (B) (B0 + 3)dB (C) (B0 + 6)dB (D) 4B0 dB

13. The sound intensity is 0.008 W/m2 at a distance of 10 m from an isotropic point source of
sound. The power of the source is approximately :

(A) 2.5 watt (B) 0.8 watt (C) 8 watt (D) 10 watt

14. Sound signal is sent through a composite tube as shown in the figure. The radius of the
semicircular portion of the tube is r. Speed of sound in air is v. The source of sound is capable
of giving varied frequencies in the range of 1 and 2 (where 2 > 1). If n is an integer then
frequency for maximum intensity is given by :

nv nv nv nv
(A) (B) r (   2) (C)  r (D) (r  2) 
r

PAGE # 2
15. An interference is observed due to two coherent sources ‘A’ & ‘B’ separated by a distance 4
along the yaxis where  is the wavelength of the source. A detector D is moved on the
positive xaxis. The number of points on the xaxis excluding the points, x = 0 & x =  at which
maximum will be observed is -

(A) three (B) four (C) two (D) infinite

16. When a sound wave is reflected from a wall, the phase difference between the reflected and
incident pressure wave is:

(A) 0 (B)  (C) /2 (D) /4

17. A cylindrical tube, open at both ends, has a fundamental frequency ƒ in air. The tube is dipped
vertically in water so that half of its in water. The fundamental frequency of the air column is now:–

(A) (B) (C) ƒ (D) 2ƒ

18. At the closed end of an organ pipe :

(A) the displacement is zero (B) the displacement amplitude is maximum

(C) the pressure amplitude is zero (D) the pressure amplitude is maximum

19. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe is same as the first overtone frequency of
an open pipe. If the length of open pipe is 50 cm, the length of closed pipe is

(A) 25 cm (B) 12.5 cm (C) 100 cm (D) 200 cm

20. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its first harmonic and another pipe P2 open
at ends vibrating in its third harmonic are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio
of the length of P1 and P2 is:–

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PAGE # 3
21. A tube of diameter d and of length  unit is open at both the ends. Its fundamental frequency of
resonance is found to be 1. The velocity of sound in air is 330 m/sec. One end of tube is now
closed. The lowest frequency of resonance of tube is now 2. Taking into consideration the end
2
correction,  is
1

(  0.6 d) 1 (  0.3 d) 1 (  0.6 d) 1 (d  0.3 )

(A) (  0.3 d) (B) 2 (  0.6 d) (C) 2 (  0.3 d) (D)
2 (d  0.6 )

22. A resonance tube is resonated with tuning fork of frequency 256 Hz. If the length of first and
second resonating air columns are 32 cm and 100 cm, then end correction will be

(A) 1 cm (B) 2 cm (C) 4 cm (D) 6 cm

23. Frequency of tuning fork A is 256 Hz. It produces 4 beats/second with tuning fork B. When wax
is applied at tuning fork B then 6 beats/second are heard. Frequency of B is:–

(A) 250 Hz (B) 260 Hz

(C) 252 Hz (D) (A) & (C) both may possible

24. A sound source of frequency 512 Hz is producing 6 beats with a guitar. If the string of guitar is
stretched slightly then beat frequency decreases. The original frequency of guitar is

(A) 506 Hz (B) 512 Hz (C) 518 Hz (D) 524 Hz

25. A tuning fork of known frequency 256 Hz. makes 5 betas per second with the vibrating string of a
piano. The beat frequency decreases to 2 beats per second when the tension in the piano string
is slightly increased. The frequency of the piano string before increasing the tension was :

(A) (256 + 2) Hz. (B) (256 – 2) Hz (C) (256 – 5) Hz (D) (256 + 5) Hz

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (D) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A)

6. (B) 7. (AC) 8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (D)

11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (B) 15. (A)

16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (AD) 19. (B) 20. (C)

21. (C) 22. (B) 23. (C) 24. (A) 25. (C)

PAGE # 4
 DPP No. 44 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : CALORIMETRY AND THERMAL EXPANSION

1. A small quantity, mass m, of water at a temperature (inºC) is poured on to a large mass M

of ice which is at its melting point. f c is the specific heat capacity of water and L the latent
heat of fusion of ice, then the mass of ice melted is given by :
ML mc Mc mc
(A) (B) (C) (D)
mc ML L L

2. A thermally isolated vessel contains 100 g of water at 0ºC. When air above the water is
pumped out, some of the water freezes and some evaporates at 0ºC itself. then the mass of
the ice formed if no water is left in the vessel. Latent heat of vaporization of water at
0ºC = 2.10 × 106 J/kg and latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg.
(A) 86.2 g (B) 13.8 g (C) 76.2 g (D) 65.6 g
3. 20 gm ice at –10 ºC is mixed with m gm steam at 100 ºC. Minimum value of m so that finally
all ice and steam converts into water. (Use sice=0.5 cal/gmºC,swater=1 cal/gmºC,L (melting)
= 80 cal/gm and L (vaporization) = 540 cal/gm)
85 85 32 64
(A) gm (B) gm (C) gm (D) gm
32 64 85 85
4. 2 kg ice at – 20 ºC is mixed with 5 kg water at 20 ºC . Then final amount of water in the
mixture will be : [Specific heat of ice = 0.5 cal/gm ºC, Specific heat of water = 1 cal/gm ºC,
Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm]
(A) 6 kg (B) 7 kg (C) 3.5 kg (D) 5 kg
5. From what height should a piece of ice (0°C) fall so that it melts completely? Only one-quarter
of the energy produced is absorbed by the ice as heat. (Latent heat of ice = 3.4 × 10 5 J kg–1,
g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 60 km (B) 90 km (C) 125 km (D) 136 km
6. 300 g of water at 25ºC is added to 100 g of ice at 0ºC. Find the final temperature of the
mixture.
(A) 0ºC (B) 1ºC (C) 2ºC (D) 2ºC
7. Two large holes are cut in a metal sheet. If this is heated, distances AB and BC, (as shown)

(A) both will increase (B) both will decrease

(C) AB increases, BC decreases (D) AB decreases, BC increases

www.competishun.com PAGE# 1
8. A steel scale is to be prepared such that the millimeter intervals are to be accurate within
6 × 10–5 mm. The maximum temperature variation from the temperature of calibration during
the reading of the millimeter marks is ( = 12 × 10–6 /ºC)
(A) 4.0°C (B) 4.5°C (C) 5.0°C (D) 5.5°C
9. Expansion during heating –
(A) occurs only in a solid
(B) increases the density of the material
(C) decreases the density of the material
(D) occurs at the same rate for all liquids and solids.
10. f a bimetallic strip is heated, it will
(A) bend towards the metal with lower thermal expansion coefficient.
(B) bend towards the metal with higher thermal expansion coefficient.
(C) twist itself into helix.
(D) have no bending.
11. Two rods, one of aluminium and the other made of steel, having initial length 1and 2 are

connected together to form a single rod of length 1 + 2. The coefficients of linear expansion

for aluminium and steel are a and s respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the

1
same amount when their temperature are raised by tºC, then find the ratio .
( 1  2 )

s a s a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a s (a   s ) (a   s )

12. A liquid with coefficient of volume expansion  is filled in a container of a material having the
coefficient of linear expansion  .f the liquid overflows on heating, then –
(A)  > 3 (B)  < 3 (C)  = 3 (D) none of these
13. What should be the sum of lengths of an aluminium and steel rod at 0oC is, so that at all
temperatures their difference in length is 0.25m. (Take coefficient of linear expansion for
aluminium and steel at 0oC as 22 × 10-6 / oC and 11 × 10-6 / oC respectively.)
(A) 0.25m (B) 0.50m (C) 0.75m (D) 0.90m
o
14. A steel tape is correctly calibrated at 20 C and is used to measure the length of a table at
30 oC. Find the percentage error in the measurement of length. [steel= 11 × 10-6/ oC]
(A) 1.1 × 102 (B) 1.1 × 10–2 (C) 2.1 × 10–2 (D) 1.1 × 10–3
15. A difference of temperature of 25º C is equivalent to a difference of :
(A) 45º F (B) 72º F (C) 32º F (D) 25º F

www.competishun.com PAGE# 2
16. A metal ball of specific gravity 4.5 and specific heat 0.1 cal/gm-°C is placed on a large slab of
ice at 0°C. When ball’s temperature become 0°C then half of the ball sinks in the ice. The
initial temperature of the ball is :-
(Latent heat capacity of ice = 80 cal/g, specific gravity of ice = 0.9)
(A) 100 °C (B) 90 °C (C) 80 °C (D) 70 °C
17. In a steel factory it is found that to maintain M kg of iron in the molten state at its melting point
an input power P watt is required. When the power source is turned off, the sample
completely solidifies in time t second. The latent heat of fusion of iron is.
(A) 2 Pt / M (B) Pt / 2M (C) Pt / M (D) PM / t
18. Steam at 100º C is passed into 1.1 kg of water contained in a calorimeter of water equivalent
0.02 kg at 15º C till the temperature of the calorimeter and its contents rises to 80º C. The
mass of the steam condensed in kilogram is :
(A) 0.130 (B) 0.065 (C) 0.260 (D) 0.135
19. If  is the moment of inertia of a solid body having -coefficient of linear expansion then the
change in  corresponding to a small change in temperature T is
1
(A) T (B) T (C) 2 T (D) 3 T
2

20. Two rods having length 1 and 2, made of materials with the linear coefficient of expansion 1

and 2, were welded together. The equivalent coefficients of linear expansion for the obtained
rod :-

1 2  2 1 1  2  2
1 11  2 2 1  12
2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1  2 1   2 1  2 1   2

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (D)
6. (A) 7. (A) 8. (C) 9. (C) 10. (A)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (C) 14. (B) 15. (A)
16. (C) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (C) 20. (C)

www.competishun.com PAGE# 3
 DPP No. 45 PHYSICS
Maximum Time C3 TARGET
JEE-MAINS
50 Min (COMPETISHUN CRASH COURSE)

SYLLABUS : CALORIMETRY AND THERMAL EXPANSION

1. The volume thermal expansion coefficient of an ideal gas at constant pressure is

1 1
(A) T (B) T2 (C) (D)
T T2
(Here T = absolute temperature of gas)
2. A metal ball immersed in water weighs w1 at 5ºC and w2 at 50ºC. The coefficient of cubical
expansion of metal is less than that of water. Then
(A) w1 > w2 (B) w1 < w2 (C) w1 = w2 (D) data is insufficient
3. A piece of metal floats on mercury. The coefficient of volume expansion of the metal and
mercury are 1 & 2 respectively. If the temperatures of both mercury and the metal are
increased by an amount T, the fraction of the volume of the metal submerged in mercury
changes by the factor of. (Ratio of final fraction to the initial fraction)
1   2 T 1  1T
(A) (B) (C) 1 + ( + 2)T (D) None of these
1  1T 1   2 T

4. Two vertical glass tubes filled with a liquid are connected at their lower ends by a horizontal
capillary tube. One tube is surrounded by a bath containing ice and water at 0°C and the other
by hot water at t°C. The difference in the height of the liquid in the two columns is h, and the
height of the column at 0°C is h0. Coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid is.

h 2h 2h0 h0
(A) (B) (C) (D)
h0 t h0 t ht ht

5. STATEMENT-1 : Gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid thermometers.

STATEMENT-2 : Coefficient of thermal expansion of gases is more than liquid.
(A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(B) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
Statement-1
(C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
(D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True.
www.competishun.com PAGE# 1
6. The specific heat capacity of a metal at low temperature (T) is given as:
3
 T 
Cp (kjK–1 kg–1) = 32  
 400 

A 100 gram vessel of this metal is to be cooled from 20K to 4K by a special refrigerator
operating at room temperature (27ºC). The amount of work required to cool the vessel is :
(A) greater than 0.148 kJ (B) between 0.148 kJ and 0.028 kJ
(C) less than 0.028 kJ (D) equal to 0.002 kJ
7. A metal rod of Young’s modulus Y and coefficient of thermal expansion  is held at its two
ends such that its length remains invariant. If its temperature is raised by tºC, the linear stress
developed in its is :
Y 1 t
(A) (B) Yt (C) (D)
t (Yt) Y

8. An aluminium sphere of 20 cm diameter is heated from 0ºC to 100ºC. Its volume changes by
(given that coefficient of linear expansion for aluminium AI = 23 × 10–6/ºC)
(A) 2.89 cc (B) 9.28 cc (C) 49.8 cc (D) 28.9 cc
9. A wooden wheel of radius R is made of two semicircular parts (see figure). The two parts are
held together by a ring made of a metal strip of cross sectional area S and length L. L is
slightly less than 2R. To fit the ring on the wheel, it is heated so that its temperature rises by
T and it just steps over the wheel. As it cools down to surrounding temperature, it presses
the semicircular parts together. If the coefficient of linear expansion of the metal is , and its
Young's modulus is Y, the force that one part of the wheel applies on the other part is :

(A) 2SYT (B) SYT (C) SYT (D) 2SYT

10. A pendulum clock lose 12 s a day if the temperature is 40°C and gains 4 s a day if the
temperature is 20°C. The temperature at which the clock will show correct time, and the
co-efficient of linear expansion () of the metal of the pendulum shaft are respectively :
(A) 60°C ;  = 1.85 × 10–4/°C (B) 30°C ;  = 1.85 × 10–3/°C
(C) 55°C ;  = 1.85 × 10–2/°C (D) 25°C ;  = 1.85 × 10–5/°C
11. A metal ball of mass 0.1 kg is heated upto 500°C and dropped into a vessel of heat capacity
800 JK–1 and containing 0.5 kg water. The initial temperature of water and vessel is 30°C.
What is the approximate percentage increment in the temperature of the water? [Specific Heat
Capacities of water and metal are, respectively, 4200 Jkg–1K–1 and 400 Jkg–1K–1]
(A) 25% (B) 20% (C) 30% (D) 15%

www.competishun.com PAGE# 2
12. When 100 g of a liquid A at 100°C is added to 50 g of a liquid B at temperature 75°C, the
temperature of the mixture becomes 90°C. The temperature of the mixture, if 100 g of liquid A
at 100°C is added to 50 g of liquid B at 50°C, will be
(A) 85°C (B) 80°C (C) 70°C (D) 60°C
13. Ice at –20°C is added to 50 g of water at 40°C. When the temperature of the mixture reaches
0°C, it is found that 20 g of ice is still unmelted. The amount off ice added to the water was
close to (Specific heat of water = 4.2 J/g/°C Specific heat of Ice = 2.1 J/g/°C Heat of fusion of
water at 0°C = 334 J/g)
(A) 100 g (B) 40 g (C) 50 g (D) 60 g
14. A calorimeter of water equivalent 20 g contains 180 g of water at 25°C. ‘m’ grams of steam at
100°C is mixed in it till the temperature of the mixture is 31°C. The value of ‘m’ is close to
(Latent heat of water = 540 cal g–1, specific heat of water = 1 cal g–1 °C–1)
(A) 2 (B) 3.2 (C) 2.6 (D) 4
15. A 750 Hz, 20 V (rms) source is connected to a resistance of 100 , an inductance of 0.1803 H
and a capacitance of 10 F all in series. The time in which the resistance (heat capacity
2 J/°C) will get heated by 10°C. (assume no loss of heat to the surroudings) is close to
(A) 348 s (B) 418 s (C) 245 s (D) 365 s
16. A bullet of mass 5 g, travelling with a speed of 210 m/s, strikes a fixed wooden target. One
half of its kinetic energy is converted into heat in the bullet while the other half is converted
into heat in the wood. The rise of temperature of the bullet if the specific heat of its material is
0.030 cal/(g – °C) (1 cal = 4.2 × 107 ergs) close to
(A) 83.3°C (B) 87.5°C (C) 38.4°C (D) 119.2°C

ANSWER KEY
1. (C) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (A) 5. (A)
6. (B) 7. (B) 8. (D) 9. (D) 10. (D)
11. (B) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
16. (B)

www.competishun.com PAGE# 3
DPP No: 46
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : CENTER OF MASS

1. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length varies as
 = kx2/L (where k is a constant and x is the distance measured from one end) is at the following
distance from the same end.

(A) 3L/4 (B) L/4 (C) 2L/3 (D) L/3

2. The centre of mass of the shaded portion of the disc is : (The mass is uniformly distributed in
the shaded portion) :

R R
(A) to the left of A (B) to the left of A
20 12

R R
(C) to the right of A (D) to the right of A
20 12

3. A uniform wire of length  is bent into the shape of 'V' as shown. The distance of its centre
of mass from the vertex A is

 
(A)  (B) (C) (D) None of these

4. A semicircular portion of radius ‘r’ is cut from a uniform rectangular plate as shown in figure.
The distance of centre of mass 'C' of remaining plate, from point ‘O’ is :

2r 3r 2r 2r
(A) (B) 2 ( 4  ) (C) (D) 3 ( 4  )
(3  ) ( 4  )

PAGE # 1
5. The velocity of centre of mass of the system as shown in the figure

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

6. Two particles of mass 1 kg and 0.5 kg are moving in the same direction with speed of 2m/s and
6m/s respectively on a smooth horizontal surface. The speed of centre of mass of the system
is:

10 10 11 12
(A) m/s (B) m/s (C) m/s (D) m/s
3 7 2 3

7. Two particles having mass ratio n : 1 are interconnected by a light inextensible string that
passes over a smooth pulley. If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre of
mass of the system is :

2 2
 n  1  n  1  n  1
(A) (n – 1)2 g (B)   g (C)   g (D)  n  1  g
 n  1  n  1  

8. There are two particles of same mass. If one of the particles is at rest always and the other has

an acceleration a . Acceleration of centre of mass is

1  
(A) zero (B) a (C) a
2

(D) centre of mass for such a sxystem can not be defined.

9. A particle of mass m is made to move with uniform speed v0 along the perimeter of a regular
hexagon, inscribed in a circle of radius R. The magnitude of impulse applied at each corner
of the hexagon is

(A) 2mv0sin/6 (B) mv0sin/6 (C)mv0sin/3 (D) 2mv0sin/3

10. A particle of mass 4m which is at rest explodes into three fragments. Two of the fragments
each of mass m are found to move with a speed 'v' each in mutually perpendicular directions.
The minimum energy released in the process of explosion is :

(A) (2/3) mv2 (B) (3/2) mv2 (C) (4/3) mv2 (D) (3/4) mv2

PAGE # 2
11. A man of mass 'm' climbs on a rope of length L suspended below a balloon of mass M. The
balloon is stationary with respect to ground. If the man begins to climb up the rope at a speed
vrel (relative to rope). In what direction and with what speed (relative to ground) will the balloon
move?

mv rel Mv rel
(A) downwards, (B) upwards,
mM mM

mv rel (M  m)v rel

(C) downwards, (D) downwards,
M M
12. A particle of mass 4m which is at rest explodes into masses m, m & 2m. Two of the fragments
of masses m and 2m are found to move with equal speeds v each in opposite directions.
The total mechanical energy released in the process of explosion is

(A) mv2 (B) 2mv2 (C) 1/2 mv2 (D) 4mv2

13. Two masses of 1g and 4g are moving with equal kinetic energy. The ratio of the magnitude of
their linear momentum is -

(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4

14. Two blocks of masses m and M are moving with speeds v1 and v2 (v1 > v2) in the same direction
on the frictionless surface respectively, M being ahead of m. An ideal spring of force constant
k is attached to the backside of M (as shown). The maximum compression of the spring when
the block collides is :

m M
(A) v1 (B) v2
k k

mM
(C) (v1 – v2) (M  m) K (D) None of above is correct.

15. A ball of mass 50 gm is dropped from a height h = 10 m. It rebounds losing 75 percent of its
kinetic energy. If it remains in contact with the ground for t = 0.01 sec., the impulse of the
impact force is : (take g = 10 m/s2)

(A) 1.3 N–s (B) 1.06 N-s (C) 1300 N–s (D) 105 N–s

16. A bullet of mass m moving vertically upwards instantaneously with a

velocity 'u' hits the hanging block of mass 'm' and gets embedded in it,
as shown in the figure. The height through which the block rises after the

collision. (assume sufficient space above block) is :

(A) u2/2g (B) u2/g (C) u2/8g (D) u2/4g

17. A bullet of mass m = 50 gm strikes (t  0)a sand bag of mass M = 5 kg hanging from a fixed

point, with a horizontal velocity v p . If bullet sticks to the sand bag then just after collision the
ratio of final & initial kinetic energy of the bullet is:

(A) 10–2 (B) 10–3 (C) 10–6 (D) 10–4

PAGE # 3
18. A solid iron ball A of radius r collides head on with another stationary solid iron ball B of radius
2r. The ratio of their speeds just after the collision (e = 0.5) is :
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
19. A body of mass 1 kg strikes elastically with another body at rest and continues to move in
the same direction with one fourth of the initial velocity. The mass of the other body is –
(A) 0.6 kg (B) 2.4 kg (C) 3 kg (D) 4 kg
20. A super-ball is to bounce elastically back and forth between two rigid walls at a distance d from
each other. Neglecting gravity and assuming the velocity of super-ball to be v0 horizontally, the
average force (in large time interval) being exerted by the super-ball on one wall is :

1 mv 02 mv 02 2mv 02 4mv 02
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 d d d d

21. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity hits another stationary sphere of the same
mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then ratio of speed of the first sphere to the speed of
the second sphere after head on collision will be :

 1 e   1 e   e  1  e  1
(A)   (B)   (C)   (D)  
 1 e   1 e   e  1  e  1
22. Ball 1 collides head on with an another identical ball 2 at rest. Velocity of ball 2 after collision
becomes two times to that of ball 1 after collision. The coefficient of restitution between the two
balls is :
(A) e = 1/3 (B) e = 1/2 (C) e = 1/4 (D) e = 2/3
23. A particle moving horizontally collides with a fixed plane inclined at 60o to the horizontal. If
it bounces vertically, the coefficient of restitution is:

(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these

24. If the thrust force on a rocket which is ejecting gases with a relative velocity of 300 m/s, is
210 N. Then the rate of combustion of the fuel will be :
(A) 10.7 kg/sec (B) 0.07 kg/sec (C) 1.4 kg/sec (D) 0.7 kg/sec
25. A ball moves horizontally in a closed box making several collisions with the walls. The box is
kept on a smooth horizontal surface. The velocity of the centre of mass during the motion of
the ball.
(A) of the box remains constant (B) of the box plus the ball system remains constant
(C) depends on value of e (D) of the ball relative to the box remains constant

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (A) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (B)
6. (A) 7. (C) 8. (B) 9. (A) 10. (B)
11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (B) 14. (C) 15. (B)
16. (C) 17. (D) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (C) 24. (D) 25. (B)

PAGE # 4
DPP No: 48
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ROTATIONAL BODY DYNAMICS

1. On account of the earth rotating about its axis :-

(A) the linear velocity of objects at equator is greater than at other places

(B) the angular velocity of objects at equator is more than that of objects at poles

(C) the linear velocity of objects at all places at the earth is equal, but angular velocity is different

(D) at all places the angular velocity and linear velocity are uniform

2. A fly wheel originally at rest is to reach an angular velocity of 36 radian/s in 6 second. The total
angle it turns through in the 6 second is

(A) 54 radian (B) 108 radian (C) 6 radian (D) 216 radian

3. The rotating rod starts from rest and acquires a rotational speed n = 600 revolution/minute in
2 seconds with constant angular acceleration. The angular acceleration of the rod is

(A) 10  rad/s2 (B) 5  rad/s2 (C) 15  rad/s2 (D) None of these

4. A fan is running at 3000 rpm. It is switched off. It comes to rest by uniformly decreasing its
angular speed in 10 seconds. The total number of revolutions in this period.

(A) 150 (B) 250 (C) 350 (D) 300

5. A sphere is rotating uniformly about an axis passing through its centre then:

(A) The particles on the surface of the sphere do not have any angular acceleration.

(B) The particles on the axis do not have any linear acceleration

(C) Different particles on the surface have same angular speeds.

(D) All the particles on the surface have same linear speed

6. Three particles, each of mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC
of side  cm (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line AX
perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, in gram cm 2 units will be :–

5 3 3
(A) 2 m2 (B) m 2 (C) m 2 (D) m 2
4 2 4

PAGE # 1
7. A circular disc is to be made by using iron and aluminium so that it acquired maximum moment
of inertia about geometrical axis. It is possible with :–

(A) aluminium at interior and iron surrounded to it.

(B) iron at interior and aluminium surrounded to it.

(C) using iron and aluminium layers in alternate order.

(D) sheet of iron is used at both external surface and aluminium sheet as internal layer.

8. The moment of inertia of a thin uniform rod of mass M and length  about an axis perpendicular
to the rod, through its centre is I. The moment of inertia of the rod about an axis perpendicular
to the rod through its end point is :–

(A) I/4 (B) I/2 (C) 2I (D) 4I

9. Two rings of the same radius and mass are placed such that their centres are at a common
point and their planes are perpendicular to each other. The moment of inertia of the system
about an axis passing through the centre and perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings
is (mass of the ring = m, radius = r) :–

(A) mr2 (B) mr2 (C) mr2 (D) 2mr2

10. A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from A copper plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 2r is made from a copper plate of thickness t/2. The relation
between the moments of inertia IA and IB is

(A) IA > IB (B) IA = IB

(C) IA < IB (D) depends on the values of t and r.

11. Let A and B be the moments of inertia of two solid cylinders of identical geometrical shape and
size about their axes, the first made of aluminium and the second of iron.

(A) A < B (B) A = B (C) A > B

(D) relation between A and B depends on the actual shapes of the bodies.

12. A unifrom thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at the middle point O as shown in figure.
Consider an axis passing through its middle point O and perpendicular to the plane of the bent
rod. Then moment of inertia about this axis is :

2 1 1
(A) mL2 (B) mL2 (C) mL2 (D) dependent on 
3 3 12

PAGE # 2
  
13. If a rigid body is subjected to two forces F1 = 2 î  3 ĵ  4k̂ acting at (3,3,4) and F2 = – 2 î – 3 ĵ – 4k̂
acting at (1, 0, 0) then which of the following is (are) true?

(A) The body is in equilibrium.

(B) The body is under the influence of a torque only.

(C) The body is under the influence of a single force.

(D) the body is under the influence of a force together with a torque .


14. A force F = 2 î  3 ĵ  k̂ acts at a point (2,  3, 1). Then magnitude of torque of this force about
point (0, 0, 2) will be:

(A) 6 (B) 3 5 (C) 6 5 (D) none of these

15. Four equal and parallel forces are acting on a rod (as shown in figure) in horizontal plane at
distances of 20 cm, 40 cm, 60 cm and 80 cm respectively from one end of the rod. Under the
influence of these forces the rod :

(A) is at rest (B) experiences a torque

(C) experiences a linear motion (D) experiences a torque and also a linear motion

16. A rod of weight w is supported by two parallel knife edges A & B and is in equilibrium in a
horizontal position. The knives are at a distance d from each other. The centre of mass of the
rod is at a distance x from A. The normal reactions at A and B will be :

(A) NA = 2w (1  x/d), NB = wx/d ] (B) NA = w (1  x/d), NB = wx/d ]

(C) NA = 2w (1  x/d), NB = 2wx/d ] (D) NA = w (2  x/d), NB = wx/d ]

17. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant
torque opposing its motion for 8 second to bring it to rest finally. The value of torque in Nm

is :– (given )

(A) 48 (B) 72 (C) 96 (D) 120

18. A rod of mass M and length L is placed in a horizontal plane with one end hinged about the

vertical axis. A horizontal force of F= is applied at a distance from the hinged end. The
angular acceleration of the rod will be :-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PAGE # 3
19. A person supports a book between finger and thumb as shown (the point of grip is assumed
to be at the corner of the book). If the book has a weight of W then the person is producing
a torque on the book of

(A) W anticlockwise (B) W anticlockwise

(C) Wa anticlockwise (D) Wa clockwise

20. In the figure (A) half of the meter scale is made of wood while the other half of steel. The
wooden part is pivoted at O. A force F is applied at the end of steel part. In figure (B) the
steel part is pivoted at O' and the same force is applied at the wooden end:–

(A) More angular acceleration will be produced in (A)

(B) More angular acceleration will be produced in (B)

(C) Same angular acceleration will be produced in both conditions

(D) Information is incomplete

21. A uniform circular disc A of radius r is made from a metal plate of thickness t and another
uniform circular disc B of radius 4r is made from the same metal plate of thickness t/4. If equal
torques act on the discs A and B, initially both being at rest. At a later instant, the angular
speeds of a point on the rim of A and another point on the rim of B are A and B respectively.
We have

(A) A > B (B) A = B (C) A < B

(D) the relation depends on the actual magnitude of the torques.

22. One end of a uniform rod having mass m and length  is hinged. The rod is placed on a smooth
horizontal surface and rotates on it about the hinged end at a uniform angular velocity . The
force exerted by the hinge on the rod has a horizontal component

1
(A) m2 (B) zero (C) mg (D) m2
2

PAGE # 4
23. Two men support a uniform horizontal rod at its two ends. If one of them suddenly lets go, the
force exerted by the rod on the other man just after this moment will:

(A) remain unaffected

(B) increase

(C) decrease

(D) become unequal to the force exerted by him on the rod.

24. Two rotating bodies have same angular momentum but their moments of inertia are I 1
and I2 respectively (I1>I2). Which body will have higher kinetic energy of rotation:–

(A) First (B) Second

(C) Both will have same kinetic energy (D) Not possible to predict

25. A thin rod of length L and mass m is suspended from one end and rotated with n rotations
per second. The rotational kinetic energy of the rod will be:–

(A) 2mL22n2 (B) mL22n2 (C) mL22n2 (D) mL22n2

ANSWER KEY
1. (A) 2. (B) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (AC)

6. (B) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C)

11. (A) 12. (C) 13. (A) 14. (C) 15. (B)

16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (B) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (C) 24. (B) 25. (C)

PAGE # 5
DPP No: 48
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ROTATIONAL BODY DYNAMICS

1. A rod is hinged at its centre and rotated by applying a constant torque starting from rest.
The power developed by the external torque as a function of time is :–

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

2. A body is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface and its rotational kinetic energy is
equal to the translational kinetic energy. The body is :–

(A) disc (B) sphere (C) cylinder (D) ring

3. A uniform metre stick is held vertically with one end on the floor and is allowed to fall. The
speed of the other end when it hits the floor assuming that the end at the floor does not slip :

(A) 4g (B) 3g (C) 5g (D) g

4. A particle of mass m moves with a constant velocity. Which of

the following statements is not correct about its angular

momentum about point O:

(A) it is zero when it is at A and moving along OA

(B) the same at all points along the line DE

(C) of the same magnitude but oppositely directed at B and D

(D) increases as it moves along the line BC

PAGE # 1
5. A thin rod of mass M and length L is struck at one end by a ball of clay of mass m, moving
with speed v as shown in figure. The ball sticks to the rod. After the collision, the angular
momentum of the clay-rod system about A, the midpoint of the rod, is

(A) (B) (C) (D) mvL

6. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel changes its angular momentum from A0 to
4A0 in 4 sec. the magnitude of this torque is :

(A) 4A0 (B) A0 (C) 3A0 /4 (D) 12A0

7. A particle is projected at time t = 0 from a point P on the ground with a speed V0, at an angle of
45° to the horizontal. What is the magnitude of the angular momentum of the particle about P
at time t= v0/g.

mv 20 mv 30 mv 02 mv 30
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2g 2g 2g 2 2g

8. A boy sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his arms folded. If he stretches his arms, his
angular momentum about the axis of rotation

(A) increases (B) decreases

(C) remains unchanged (D) doubles

9. In the given figure a ball strikes a rod elastically and rod is smoothly hinged at point A. Then
which of the statement(s) is/are correct for the collision?

(A) linear momentum of system (ball + rod) is conserved

(B) angular momentum of system about hinged point A is conserved
(C) initial KE of the system is equal to final KE of the system
(D) linear momentum of ball is conserved.

PAGE # 2
10. A cord is wound over a cylinder of radius r and moment of inertia I. A mass m is attached
to the free end of the cord. The cylinder is free to rotate about its own horizontal axis. If mass
m is released from rest, then the velocity of the mass after it had fallen through a distance
h will be-

(A) (2gh)1/2 (B) (C) (D)

I I I

11. The centre of a disc rolling without slipping on a plane surface moves with speed u. A particle,
on the lower half of the rim making an angle 60º with vertical, will be moving at speed

(A) zero (B) u (C) u (D) 2u

12. Consider a disc rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface at a linear speed V as shown in
figure

(A) the speed of the particle A is 2V

(B) the speed of B, C and D are all equal to V

(C) the speed of C is zero and speed of B is 2V

(D) the speed of O is less than the speed of B

13. When a bicycle is in motion (accelerating) on a rough horizantal plane, the force of friction
exerted by the plane on the two wheels is such that it acts :

(A) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel,
when the speed increases.

(B) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel,
when brakes are applied on rear wheel.

(C) In the backward direction on both front and the rear wheels, when brakes are applied on
both wheels.

(D) In the forward direction on both the front and the rear wheels

14. A hollow sphere and a solid sphere having equal mass and equal radii are rolled down without
slipping on a rough inclined plane.

(A) The two spheres reach the bottom simultaneously

(B) The hollow sphere reaches the bottom with lesser speed.

(C) The solid sphere reaches the bottom with greater kinetic energy

(D) The two spheres will reach the bottom with same linear momentum

PAGE # 3
15. A smooth inclined plane fixed in a car accelerating on a horizontal road is shown in figure. The
angle of incline  is related to the acceleration a of the car as a = g tan. If a rigids sphere is set
in pure rolling on the incline

(A) it will continue pure rolling (B) Friction will act on it

(C) its angular velocity will increase (D) its angular velocity will decrease.

16. A body is given translational velocity and kept on a surface that has sufficient friction. Then:

(A) body will move forward before pure rolling

(B) body will move backward before pure rolling

(C) body will start pure rolling immediately

(D) none of these

17. If the earth were to suddenly contract to of its present radius without any change in itss

mass then the duration of the new day will be nearly :–

(A) hour (B) 24n hour (C) hour (D) 24n2 hour

18. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius ‘r’ is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring. The new angular velocity of the ring will be :–

(A) (B) (C) (D)

19. A sphere is released on a smooth inclined plane from the top. When it moves down its angular
momentum is:

(A) conserved about every point

(B) conserved about the point of contact only

(C) conserved about the centre of the sphere only

(D)conserved about any point on a fixed line parallel to the inclined plane and passing through
the centre of the ball.

PAGE # 4
20. A circular wooden loop of mass m and radius R rests flat on a horizontal frictionless surface. A
bullet, also of mass m, and moving with a velocity V, strikes the loop and gets embedded in it.
The thickness of the loop is much smaller than R. The angular velocity with which the system
rotates just after the bullet strikes the loop is

V V 2V 3V
(A) (B) 3R (C) 3R (D) 4R
4R

21. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal force 'F' is
applied normal to one of the faces at a point that is directly above the centre of the face, at a
3a
height above the base. The minimum value of 'F' for which the cube begins to tilt about the
4
edge is (assume that the cube does not slide).

2 4 5 1
(A) mg (B) mg (C) mg (D) mg
3 3 4 2

22. A homogenous block having its cross-section to be a parallelogram of sides 'a' and 'b' (as
shown) is lying at rest and is in equilibrium on a smooth horizontal surface. Then for acute
angle  :

b b b b
(A) cos   (B) cos   (C) cos   (D) cos  
a a a a

23. A solid sphere is placed on a horizontal plane. A horizontal impulse I is applied at a distance h
above the central line as shown in the figure. Soon after giving the impulse the sphere starts
rolling. The ratio h/R would be-

(A) (B) (C) (D)

PAGE # 5
24. Two particles, each of mass M, are connected by a rod of negligible mass and length L. The
system is lying on a horizontal frictionless surface. An impulse Mv, perpendicular to the rod, is
given at one end of the rod as shown in the figure. The angular velocity acquired by the rod is

4v 2v v v
(A) (B) (C) (D)
L L L 4L

25. A thin uniform rod of length 4 l, mass 4m is bent at the points as shown in the fig. What is the
moment of inertia of the rod about the axis passing point O & perpendicular to the plane of the
paper.

m 2 10m 2 m 2 m 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 3 12 24

ANSWER KEY
1. (B) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (D) 5. (C)

6. (C) 7. (D) 8. (C) 9. (BC) 10. (C)

11. (B) 12. (ACD) 13. (ABC) 14. (B) 15. (A)

16. (A) 17. (C) 18. (B) 19. (D) 20. (B)

21. (A) 22. (A) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B)

PAGE # 6
DPP No: 49
Maximum Time TARGET
50 Min JEE-MAINS
SYLLABUS : ROTATIONAL BODY DYNAMICS
1. The moment of inertia of a hollow cubical box of mass M and side a about an axis passing
through the centres of two opposite faces is equal to

5 Ma2 5 Ma2 5 Ma2 5 Ma2

(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 6 12 18

2. Let be the moment of inertia of a uniform square plate about an axis AB that passes through
its centre and is parallel to two of its sides. CD is a line in the plane of the plate that passes
through the centre of the plate and makes an angle  with AB as shown in figure. The moment
of inertia of the plate about the axis CD is then equal to

(A) (B) sin2  (C) cos2  (D) cos2 (/2)

3. Two uniform rods of equal length but different masses are rigidly joined to form an Lshaped
body, which is then pivoted about O as shown in the figure. If in equilibrium the body is in the
shown configuration, ratio M/m will be:

m O
90° M
30°

(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 3

4. A uniform rod of length  is placed symmetrically on two walls as shown in figure. The rod is in
equilibrium. If N1 and N2 are the normal forces exerted by the walls on the rod then

(A) N1 > N2 (B) N1 > N2

(C) N1 = N2 (D) N1 and N2 would be in the vertical directions.

PAGE # 1
5. In the pulley system shown in the figure, if radii of the bigger and smaller pulley are 2 m and 1
m respectively and the acceleration of block A is 5 m/s2 in the downward direction, then the
acceleration of block B will be:

(A) 0 m/s2 (B) 5 m/s2 (C) 10 m/s2 (D) 5/2 m/s2

6. The angular momentum of a particle about origin is varying as L = 4t + 8 (S units) when it
moves along a straight line y = x – 4 (x,y in meters). The magnitude of force acting on the
particle would be :

(A) 1 N (B) 2 N (C) 2N (D) 3N

7. When a person throws a meter stick it is found that the centre of the stick is moving with a
speed of 10 m/s vertically upwards & left end of stick with a speed of 20 m/s vertically upwards.
Then the angular speed of the stick is:

(A) 20 rad/ sec (B) 10 rad/sec (C) 30 rad/sec (D) none of these

8. As shown in the figure, a uniform disc of mass m is rolling without slipping with a angular
velocity . The portion AB is rough and BC is smooth. When it crosses point B disc will be in :

A µ0 =0 C
B

(A) translational motion only (B) pure rolling motion

(C) rotational motion only (D) none of these

9. A large spool of rope lies on the ground as shown in the fig. The end, labelled X is pulled a
distance S in the horizontal direction. The spool rolls without slipping. The centre of mass of
the spool moves a distance

S
X

S S
(A) 2 S (B) S (C) (D)
2 4

PAGE # 2
10. A small block of mass ‘m’ is rigidly attached at ‘P’ to a ring of mass ‘3m’ and radius ‘r’. The
system is released from rest at  = 90° and rolls without sliding. The angular acceleration of
ring just after release is

P


g g g g
(A) 4 r (B) 8 r (C) 3 r (D) 2 r

11. A box of dimensions  and b is kept on a truck moving with an acceleration a. If box does not
slide, maximum acceleration for it to remain in equilibrium (w.r.t.truck) is :

b
a
l

g gb
(A) (B) (C) g (D) none of these
b 

12. A small particle of mass m is projected at an angle  with the x-axis with an initial velocity v0 in
v 0 sin θ
the x-y plane as shown in the figure. At a time t < , the angular momentum of the
g
particle is

(A) –mg v0 t2 cos  ĵ (B) mg v0 t cos  k̂

1 1
(C) – mg v0 t2 cos  k̂ (D) mg v0 t2 cos  î
2 2

where î, ĵ and k̂ are unit vectors along x, y and z-axis respectively..

13. A thin horizontal circular disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its centre. An
insect is at rest at a point near the rim of the disc. The insect now moves along a diameter of
the disc to reach its other end. During the journey of the insect, the angular speed of the disc:

(A) remains unchanged (B) continuously decreases

(C) continuously increases (D) first increases and then decreases

PAGE # 3
14. A mass m hangs with the help of a string wrapped around a pulley on a frictionless bearing.
The pulley has mass m and radius R. Assuming pulley to be a perfect uniform circular disc, the
acceleration of the mass m, if the string does not slip on the pulley, is :

3 2 g
(A) g (B) g (C) g (D)
2 3 3

15. A pulley of radius 2m is rotated about its axis by a force F = (20t – 5t2) newton (where t is
measured in seconds) applied tangentially. If the moment of inertia of the pulley about its axis
of rotation is 10 kg m2, the number of rotations made by the pulley before its direction of motion
is reversed, is :

(A) less than 3 (B) more than 3 but less than 6

(C) more than 6 but less than 9 (D) more than 9

16. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected with a velocity  making an angle of 30º with the horizontal.
The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the point of projection when the
particle is at its maximum height ‘h’ is :

m 3 3 m3 3 m2
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
2g 16 g 2 g

17. A mass ‘m’ supported by a massless string wound around a uniform hollow cylinder of mass m
and radius R. If the string does not slip on the cylinder, with what acceleration will the mass fall
on release ?

2g g 5g
(A) (B) (C) (D) g
3 2 6

PAGE # 4
18. A particle of mass m is moving along the side of square of side ‘a’ with a uniform speed  in the
x-y plane as shown in the figure :

y a
D C

a   a

A
a B
R
45°
O x


Which of the following statements is false for the angular momentum L about the origin ?

 R 
(A) L  m  – a  kˆ when the particle is moving from C to D.
 2 

  R 
(B) L  m   a  kˆ when the particle is moving from B to C.
 2 

 m
(C) L  R kˆ when the particle is moving from D to A.
2
 m
(D) L  – R kˆ when the particle is moving from A to B.
2

19. A slender uniform rod of mass M and length l is pivoted at one end so that it can rotate in a
vertical plane (see figure). There is negligible friction at the pivot. The free end is held vertically
above the pivot and then released. the angular acceleration of the rod when it makes an angle
 with the vertical is.



2g 3g 2g 3g
(A) cos  (B) sin  (C) sin  (D) cos 
3l 2l 3l 2l

PAGE # 5
20. Seven identical circular planar disks, each of mass M and radius R are welded symmetrically
as shown. The moment of inertia of the arrangement about the axis normal to the plane and
passing through the point P is :

73 181 19 55
(A) MR 2 (B) MR 2 (C) MR 2 (D) MR 2
2 2 2 2

21. An L-shaped object, made of thin rods of uniform mass density, is suspended with a string as
shown in figure. If AB = BC, and the angle made by AB with downward vertical is , then :

A z


90° x
B

1 1 1 2
(A) tan = (B) tan = (C) tan = (D) tan =
2 3 2 3 3

22. A homogeneous solid cylindrical roller of radius R and mass M is pulled on a cricket pitch by a
horizontal force. Assuming rolling without slipping, angular acceleration of the cylinder is :

F F 3F 2F
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3mR 2mR 2mR 3mR

 x
23. The linear mass density of a thin rod AB of length L varies from A to B as (x)   0  1   ,
L  
where x is the distance from A. If M is the mass of the rod then its moment of inertia about an
axis passing through A and perpendicular to the rod is

2 2 5 3 2 7
(A) ML (B) ML2 (C) ML (D) ML2
5 12 7 18

PAGE # 6
24. Consider two uniform discs of the same thickness and different radii R1 = R and R2 = R made
of the same material. If the ratio of their moments of inertia I1 and I2, respectively, about their
axes is I1 : I2 = 1 : 16 then the value of  is

(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 2 2 (D) 2

25. Moment of inertia (M.I.) of four bodies, having same mass and radius, are reported as ;

I1 = M.I. of thin circular ring about its diameter.

I2 = M.I. of circular disc about an axis

perpendicular to the disc and going through the centre,

I3 = M.I. of solid cylinder about its axis and

I4 = M.I. of solid sphere about its diameter.

Then :

5
(A) I1 + I3 < I2 + I4 (B) I1 + I2 = I3 + I4 (C) I1 = I2 = I3 > I4 (D) I1 = I2 = I3 < I4
2

ANSWER KEY
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (D)

6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (B) 9. (C) 10. (B)

11. (B) 12. (C) 13. (D) 14. (C) 15. (B)

16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A,C) 19. (B) 20. (B)

21. (B) 22. (D) 23. (D) 24. (A) 25. (C)

PAGE # 7