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Modular Mbbs Prep MCQ Practice Book Review

The document outlines a comprehensive curriculum on human physiology, covering various units such as cell physiology, membrane physiology, cardiovascular system, circulation, blood cells, respiration, and specialized conditions like aviation and deep-sea diving physiology. Each unit contains multiple chapters that delve into the functional organization of the human body, mechanisms of control, and physiological processes. Additionally, the document includes questions and answers related to physiological concepts and clinical scenarios to reinforce understanding.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
20 views41 pages

Modular Mbbs Prep MCQ Practice Book Review

The document outlines a comprehensive curriculum on human physiology, covering various units such as cell physiology, membrane physiology, cardiovascular system, circulation, blood cells, respiration, and specialized conditions like aviation and deep-sea diving physiology. Each unit contains multiple chapters that delve into the functional organization of the human body, mechanisms of control, and physiological processes. Additionally, the document includes questions and answers related to physiological concepts and clinical scenarios to reinforce understanding.

Uploaded by

Izharkakar khan
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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CONTENT PAGE

UNIT I Introduction to Physiology: The Cell and


General Physiology
CHAPTER 1 Functional Organization of the Human Body and Control of
the “Internal Environment.”
CHAPTER 2 The Cell and Its Functions.
CHAPTER 3 Genetic Control of Protein Synthesis, Cell Function, and Cell
Reproduction.

UNIT II Membrane Physiology, Nerve, and Muscle


CHAPTER 4 Transport of Substances Through Cell Membranes.
CHAPTER 5 Membrane Potentials and Action Potentials.
CHAPTER 6 Contraction of Skeletal Muscle.
CHAPTER 7 Excitation of Skeletal Muscle: Neuromuscular Transmission
and Excitation-Contraction Coupling.
CHAPTER 8 Excitation and Contraction of Smooth Muscle.
UNIT III The Heart
CHAPTER 9 Cardiac Muscle; The Heart as a Pump and Function of the
Heart Valves.
CHAPTER 10 Rhythmical Excitation of the Heart.
CHAPTER 11 The Normal Electrocardiogram.
CHAPTER 12 Electrocardiographic Interpretation of Cardiac Muscle and
Coronary Blood Flow Abnormalities: Vectorial Analysis.
CHAPTER 13 Cardiac Arrhythmias and Their Electrocardiographic
Interpretation.

UNIT IV The Circulation


CHAPTER 14 Overview of the Circulation; Biophysics of Pressure, Flow,
and Resistance.
CHAPTER 15 Vascular Distensibility and Functions of the Arterial and
Venous Systems.
CHAPTER 16 The Microcirculation and Lymphatic System: Capillary
Fluid Exchange, Interstitial Fluid, and Lymph Flow.
CHAPTER 17 Local and Humoral Control of Tissue Blood Flow.
CHAPTER 18 Nervous Regulation of the Circulation, and Rapid Control of
Arterial Pressure.
CHAPTER 19 Role of the Kidneys in Long-Term Control of Arterial
Pressure and in Hypertension: The Integrated System for Arterial
Pressure Regulation.
CHAPTER 20 Cardiac Output, Venous Return, and Their Regulation.
CONTENT PAGE

CHAPTER 21 Muscle Blood Flow and Cardiac Output During Exercise; the
Coronary Circulation and Ischemic Heart Disease.
CHAPTER 22 Cardiac Failure.
CHAPTER 23 Heart Valves and Heart Sounds; Valvular and Congenital
Heart Defects.
CHAPTER 24 Circulatory Shock and Its Treatment.

UNIT VI Blood Cells, Immunity, and


Blood Coagulation
CHAPTER 32 Red Blood Cells, Anemia, and Polycythemia.
CHAPTER 33 Resistance of the Body to Infection: I. Leukocytes,
Granulocytes, the MonocyteMacrophage System, and Inflammation.
CHAPTER 34 Resistance of the Body to Infection: II. Immunity and
Allergy Innate Immunity.
CHAPTER 35 Blood Types; Transfusion; Tissue and Organ
Transplantation.
CHAPTER 36 Hemostasis and Blood Coagulation.

UNIT VII Respiration


CHAPTER 37 Pulmonary Ventilation.
CHAPTER 38 Pulmonary Circulation, Pulmonary Edema, Pleural Fluid.
CHAPTER 39 Physical Principles of Gas Exchange; Diffusion of Oxygen
and Carbon Dioxide Through the Respiratory Membrane.
CHAPTER 40 Transport of Oxygen and Carbon Dioxide in Blood and
Tissue Fluids.
CHAPTER 41 Regulation of Respiration.
CHAPTER 42 Respiratory Insufficiency—Pathophysiology, Diagnosis,
Oxygen Therapy

UNIT VIII Aviation, Space, and Deep-Sea


Diving Physiology
CHAPTER 43 Aviation, High-Altitude, and Space Physiology.
CHAPTER 44 Physiology of Deep-Sea Diving and Other Hyperbaric
Conditions.
ORGANIZATION OF THE HUMAN BODY AND ANSWER: A
CONTROL OF THE INTERNAL ENVIRONMENT’
EXPLANATION: due to low serum potassium
concentration

1. Body water decreases in aged people due to: 4. The average number of cells in the human
body is:
A. Decreasing skeletal muscle mass and
increasing fat mass A. 35-40 trillion

B. Decreasing fat B. 100 trillion

C. None of the above C. 20 trillion

D. Both decreasing muscle and fat mass D. 5 trillion

ANSWER: B ANSWER: A

EXPLANATION: Water content is related to fat 5. Positive feedback


mass cycles

2. For most rapid muscle contractions, which


system is put into action? A. are very useful

A. Negative feedback B. Vicious and lead to death

B. Positive feedback C. sometimes vicious: & sometimes useful

C. Feed forward control. D. all of above

D. Both A and C ANSWER: C

ANSWER: B EXPLANATION: In case of birth of baby, positive


feedback is very useful, while it is harmful when
EXPLANATION: To amplify and body reactions,
person loses a lot of blood and blood pressure
positive feedback comes into action
falls significantly
3. 55-year-old woman presents to the clinic
6. The degree of effectiveness with which is
with complaints of muscle weakness, fatigue,
control system maintains constant conditions is
and constipation. Her blood pressure is 145/95
determined by:
mmHg and her serum potassium level is 2.8
mEq/L. Based on the principles of functional A. Gain of negative feedback
organization and internal environment of the
B. Chain of positive feedback
human body, which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis? C. Gain feed-forward
A Hypokalemia (potassium deficiency) D. Gain of both negative and positive feedback
B. Hyperkalemia (potassium abundance) ANSWER: A
C. Hypocalcaemia (calcium deficiency) EXPLANATION: constant environment is
maintained by negative feedback
D. Hypercalcemia (calcium abundance)
7. The baroreceptor system is an example of: D. None of these

A. Negative feedback ANSWER: C

B. Positive feedback EXPLANATION: Feed forward mechanism, is a


more precise way of achieving movement
C. Feed forward mechanism
11. A 25-year-old woman presents to the clinic
D. Adaptive control
with complaints of heavy menstrual bleeding
ANSWER: D and fatigue. Her blood pressure is 110/70
mmHg and her hemoglobin level is 10 g/dL.
EXPLANATION: baroreceptor system maintains Based on the principles of positive feedback in
normal blood pressure the human body, which of the following is the
8. Most control systems act by: most likely explanation for her symptoms?

A. Positive feedback A. Positive feedback has caused a vicious cycle


of increased uterine contractions and increased
B. Negative feedback bleeding.
C. Feed forward mechanism B, Positive feedback has caused a decrease in
D. Adaptive control uterine contractions and decreased bleeding.

ANSWER: B C. Negative feedback has caused a vicious cycle


of increased uterine contractions and increased
EXPLANATION: most systems acting in our body bleeding.
are negative feedback systems
D. Negative feedback has caused a decrease in
9. ____is often regarded as an internal uterine contractions and decreased bleeding.
environment:
ANSWER: A
A. Intracellular fluid
EXPLANATION: due to increased uterine
B. Extracellular fluid contractions, bleeding also increases
C. Both 12. Which one is not true?
D. None A. Oxygen reacts with carbohydrates, fats, and
proteins in all cells to release energy
ANSWER: C
B. All cells have the same general chemical
EXPLANATION: The internal environment of the
mechanisms for energy release from nutrients
human body contains both intracellular fluid
(ICF) and extracellular fluid (ECF). C. All cells deliver waste products into the
extracellular fluid
10. More precise movement occurs through:
D. All are true
A. Negative feedback
ANSWER: D
B. Positive feedback
EXPLANATION: all human cells produce energy
C. Feed forward mechanism
through aerobic respiration, and through
glycolysis kreb cycle etc, and the waste A. Left heart
products are releases in extracellular fluid and
B. Right heart
then into blood
C. Atrium
13. A 45-year-old man presents to the clinic
with complaints of fatigue, weakness, and D. Ventricle
frequent urination. His blood pressure is 145/95
mmHg and his fasting blood glucose level is 180 ANSWER: A
mg/dL. Which of the following statements is EXPLANATION: left ventricle pumps blood to
true regarding the functional organization and aorta through which blood moves to all parts of
internal environment of the human body in this the body
patient?
16. Which atrium is weak:
A. The patient’s blood glucose level is within the
normal range. A. Primary

B. The patient’s blood pressure is within the B. Secondary


normal range. C. Primer
C. The patient’s symptoms are consistent with D. None of the above
diabetes mellitus.
ANSWER: D
D. The patient’s symptoms are consistent with
hypoglycemia EXPLANATION: atria can be left or right

ANSWER: C 17. ___The sac

EXPLANATION: increased fasting blood sugar A. Mediastinum


and increased urination are symptoms of
B. Pericardium
diabetes mellitus
C. Peritoneum.
14. Which one is true about the extracellular
fluid? D. Gluteal

A. It's about 1/3 of whole body fluid ANSWER: B

B. It's always in constant motion throughout the EXPLANATION: pericardium is a sac like cavity in
body which heart encloses

C. It's also regarded as the internal environment 18. The duration of contraction of the heart
of the body muscle is:

D. All A. Shorter than skeletal muscle

ANSWER: D B. More rapid skeletal muscle

EXPLANATION: All are correct C. Longer than skeletal muscle

15. Which part of the heart provides systemic D. Intermediate contractions.


blood flow:
ANSWER: B
EXPLANATION: because it has to pump blood C. 105 my

19: The excitatory system of the heart is D. 90 mv


provided by.
ANSWER: C
A. Excitatory be conductive, muscle, fibers:
EXPLANATION: 105Mv
B. Nerve fibers
23. The membrane remains depolarized for
C. Actin fibers approximately:

D. Intermediate filaments A. 0.8 millisecond

ANSWER: A B. 0.2 millisecond

EXPLANATION: conducting muscle fibers are C. 0.11 millisecond


responsible for excitatory system
D. 0.36 millisecond
20. The intercalated discs are:
ANSWER: B
A. Endocardial
EXPLANATION: 0.2 millisecond
B. Subepicardial
24. The atria are separated from ventricles by:
C. Subendocardial
A. Connective tissue
D. Myocardial
B. Septum
ANSWER: D
C. Cell junctions
EXPLANATION: intercalated discs is special
D. Fibrous tissue
features of myocardium
ANSWER: D
21. Within the cardiac cells, the junctions
between cells are: EXPLANATION: fibrous tissue
A. Desmosomes 25. Action potentials in the heart are conducted
by a specialized system called:
B. Gap junctions
A. A-V Bundle
C. Occluding junctions
B. S.A-node
D. Macula junctions
C. Muscle bundle
ANSWER: B
D. AV.Node
EXPLANATION: gap junctions are found in
cardiac cells ANSWER: A
22. The action potential in the heart has a EXPLANATION: SA node and AV node are
duration of: responsible for generating impulses, muscle
bundle contracts while AV bundle are
A. 100 my
responsible for conducting impulses
B. 20 my
26. The extracellular fluid is also called: D. 1000 fold

A. External environment of body ANSWER: C

B. Internal environment of body EXPLANATION: 900 fold

C. Millieu Interieur 30. The generation of a nerve impulse is done


by:
D. Both B & C
A. Negative feedback mechanism
ANSWER: D
B. Positive feedback mechanism
EXPLANATION: known as internal environment
of body/milleu interior C. Simple diffusion

27. Carbon dioxide travels in the blood in the D. None of the above
form of:
ANSWER: B
A. CO2
EXPLANATION: positive feedback
B. HCO3-
31. ECF contains all except:
C. HCOOH
A. sodium
D. H2O & CO2
B. chloride
ANSWER: B
C. bicarbonate
EXPLANATION: CO2 combines with water to
D. waste substance
produce bicarbonates and hydrogen ions in the
presence of enzyme carbonic anhydrase E. potassium
28. Which cycle is known as a vicious cycle? ANSWER: E
A. Positive feedback cycle EXPLANATION: potassium in found in ICF
B. Negative feedback cycle 32. When the body is at rest, how many times
does all the blood circulate through the body?
C. Enzyme denaturation
A. 1
D. Both A & B
B. 2
ANSWER: A
C. 6
EXPLANATION: Positive feedback
D. 4
29. Hydrogen ions can be secreted in urine
against a concentration gradient of about: ANSWER: A
A. 10 fold EXPLANATION: one time
B. 100 fold 33. The walls of the capillaries are permeable to
all except:
C. 900 fold
A. ions
B. water B. by checking whether the urine is dark

C. carbohydrates C. by checking glucose level

D. plasma proteins D. can't be detected by a sample of urine

E. oxygen ANSWER: C

ANSWER: D EXPLANATION: it can be detected by glucose


level in urine because glucose is excreted in
EXPLANATION: plasma proteins are
urine in diabetic patients
impermeable to capillary membrane
37. Which segment of the nervous system
34. The most abundant of all the metabolic
controls all the vital functions of the body at
products are:
rest?
A. CO2
A. somatic N.S
B. O2
B. autonomic N.S
C. bile pigments
C. sympathetic N.S
D. urea
D. parasympathetic N.S
E. ammonia
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: -parasympathetic N.S works at
EXPLANATION: -CO2 is abundant metabolic resting conditions
product
38. The human body contains about:
35. All of the substances are reabsorbed from
A. 30 trillion cells
glomerular capillaries except:
B. 5.2 billion cells
A. glucose
C. 4.7 billion cells
B. amino acids
D. 35-40 trillion cells
C. water
ANSWER: D
D. some ions
EXPLANATION: 35-40 trillion cells
E. urea
39. When the body is at rest, how many times
ANSWER: E
does all the blood circulate through the body?
EXPLANATION: -urea is a waste product so it
A. 1
will be excreted
B. 2
36. A patient is diabetic, hyperglycemia is
observed. How to detect whether the patient is C. 6
diabetic or not through his urine sample?
D. 4
A. By checking insulin levels
ANSWER: A
EXPLANATION: 1 time 42. The heart of a healthy man pumps about

40. Delayed negative feedback is called: A. 5 liters

A. Feed-forward control B. 6 liters

B. Adaptive control C. 7 liter

C. Negative feedback D. 2 liter

D. None of above ANSWER: A

ANSWER: B EXPLANATION: 5 liters

EXPLANATION: Adaptive control is a type of 43. Patient presents to the clinic with
feedback mechanism that senses changes in the complaints of muscle weakness and difficulty
environment and adjusts the body's responses swallowing. The doctor suspects a disorder of
to maintain homeostasis. In contrast to which part of the nervous system?
negative feedback, which acts to correct a
A. Autonomic nervous system
deviation from a set point as soon as it occurs,
adaptive control can take longer to respond to B. Somatic nervous system
changes in the environment. Therefore, the
correct answer to the question is B. Adaptive C. Sympathetic nervous system
control. D. Parasympathetic nervous system
41. A 65-year-old woman presents to the clinic ANSWER: D
with complaints of muscle cramps, fatigue, and
tingling in her hands and feet. Her blood EXPLANATION: parasympathetic nervous
pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her serum system
calcium level is 8.0 mg/dL. Based on the 44. A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic
principles of functional organization and because she’s been feeling very thirsty, going to
internal environment of the human body, which the bathroom a lot, and having trouble seeing
of the following is the most likely diagnosis? clearly. Her blood sugar level is high when she
A. Hypokalemia (potassium deficiency) hasn’t eaten anything, so the doctor thinks she
might have diabetes. To confirm this, the doctor
B. Hyperkalemia (potassium abundance) can check her urine for glucose. Here are the
C. Hypocalcaemia (calcium deficiency) options:

D. Hypercalcemia (calcium abundance) A. Checking if there are ketones in the urine

ANSWER: C B. Seeing if the urine smells sweet

EXPLANATION: Muscle cramps, fatigue, and C. Looking for glucose in the urine
tingling in the hands and feet are common D. Checking if there’s protein in the urine
symptoms of hypocalcemia. A serum calcium
level of 8.0 mg/dL is below the normal range ANSWER: C
(which is typically 8.5-10.5 mg/dL), further EXPLANATION: glucose if found in urine of
supporting this diagnosis. diabetic patients
45. Which of the following is NOT a function of B. Potassium (K+)
the plasma membrane?
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
A. Regulation of cell shape
D. Chloride (Cl-)
B. Communication between cells
ANSWER: B
C. Control of cell movement
EXPLANATION: potassium ions are responsible
D. Control of cellular metabolism for resting membrane potential

ANSWER: A 49. Which of the following is NOT a


characteristic of epithelial tissue?
EXPLANATION: shape is regulated by
cytoskeleton A. High vascularity

46. Which of the following is an example of B. Avascularity


active transport?
C. Cellularity
A. Facilitated diffusion
D. Regeneration capacity
B. Osmosis
ANSWER: A
C. Simple diffusion
EXPLANATION: epithelium is avascular
D. Sodium-potassium pump
50. Which of the following is NOT a function of
ANSWER: D the nervous system?

EXPLANATION: all others are example of A. Sensory input


diffusion except sodium-potassium pump
B. Integration of information
47. Where does the majority of nutrient
C. Motor output
absorption occur in the body?
D. Regulation of blood pressure
A. Stomach
ANSWER: D
B. Small intestine
EXPLANATION: The nervous system is
C. Large intestine
responsible for many different functions,
D. Liver including sensory input, integration of
information, and motor output. However,
ANSWER: A
regulation of blood pressure is not a primary
EXPLANATION: stomach is responsible for function of the nervous system. Blood pressure
digestion while small intestine is responsible is primarily regulated by the cardiovascular
mainly for absorption system.

48. The resting membrane potential arises 51. The chemical messengers released into the
primarily due to the concentration gradient of bloodstream by the endocrine system are
which ion? called:

A. Sodium (Na+) A. Hormones


ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

CONTENTS
 General Anatomy
1. Introduction
2. Skeleton
3. Joints
4. Muscles
5. Cardiovascular System
6. Lymphatic System
7. Nervous System
8. Skin and Fasciae
9. Connective Tissue, Ligaments and Raphe
10. Principles of Radiography

 General Embryology
 Chapter 1. Introduction to molecular regulation
 Chapter 2. Gametogenesis
 Chapter 3. First week of development
 Chapter 4. Second week of development
 Chapter 5. Third week of development
 Chapter 6. Third to eight weeks
 Chapter 7. Gut tube and body cavity
 Chapter 8. Third month to birth
 Chapter 9. Defect and prenatal diagnosis
 Chapter 10. Development of axial skeleton
 Chapter 11. Muscular system
 Chapter 12. Limbs
 Chapter 13. Cardiovascular system
 Chapter 14. Respiratory System
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

 General Histology
 Chapter 1. Introduction
 Chapter 3. Epithelium
 Chapter 4. Glands
 Chapter 5. Connective tissue
 Chapter 6. Connective tissue proper
 Chapter 8. Bone
 Chapter 13. Circulatory System
 Chapter 15. Integumentary system
 Chapter 17. Respiratory System

 Upper Limb from SNELL


 Bones of Shoulder, Axilla and Breast
 Back of Skin and Joints of Upper Limb
 Upper Arm Anatomy
 Cubital fossa, Forearm and Bones of Hand
 Wrist and Hand
 Joints of Upper Limb
 Injury of Upper Limb

 Upper Limb from KLM


 Bones of the Upper Limb
 Brachial Plexus And Axilla
 Arm
 Forearm
 Joints of Upper Limb
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

 Lower Limb from SNELL

 Bones of Leg and Foot


 Anatomy of Gluteal Region
 Back of Thigh and Hip Joint
 Popliteal Fossa
 Fascial Compartments of Leg
 Ankle
 Joints of the Lower Limb
 Lower Limb Injury

 Lower Limb from KLM


 Bones of the Lower Limb
 Gait Cycle
 Deep Fascia and Cutaneous Nerves Of
Lower Limb
 Anterior and Medial Compartment of Thigh.
 Gluteal Region and Posterior Thigh
 Popliteal Fossa and Leg
 Foot
 Joints of Lower Limb
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

 Thorax from SNELL

 Structure of Thoracic Wall and Musculature


 Intercostal space and diaphragm
 Mediastinum and Pleura
 Thoracic Cavity
 Heart and Pericardium

 Thorax from KLM

 Thoracic Wall
 Thoracic Viscera
 Pericardium
 Mediastinal Viscera
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

CHAPTER 01: ‘INTRODUCTION TO


GENERAL ANATOMY’
1. Cadaveric anatomy is studied on: 7. Father of medicine is:
A) Artificial bodies A) Hippocrates
B) Dead bodies B) Herophilus
C) Microscopic bodies C) Leonardo
D) All D) None

2. Living anatomy include: 8. Father of anatomy is:


A) Inspection B) Radiography A) Hippocrates
C) Percussion D) Endoscopy B) Herophilus
E) All C) Leonardo
D) None
3. The study of bones and deeper organs by
plain and contrast radiography by ultrasound 9. Prince of physician is:
and CT scan in: A) Hippocrates
A) Clinical Anatomy B) Herophilus
B) Radiographic anatomy C) Leonardo
C) Comparative anatomy D) Galen
D) Applied anatomy
E) Surface anatomy 10. The originator of cross sectional anatomy
is:
4. The study of the factors which influence and A) Hippocrates
determine the form, structure and function of B) Herophilus
different parts of the body is: C) Leonardo
A) Environmental anatomy D) None
B) Radiographic anatomy
C) Comparative anatomy 11. Who discovered circulation of blood?
D) Applied anatomy A) Hippocrates
E) Surface anatomy B) Herophilus
C) Leonardo
5. The study which deal with external features D) William Harvey
and measurements of different races and
groups of people is: 12. When a person is lying on her/his back,
A) Environmental anatomy arms by the side, palms facing upwards and
B) Radiographic anatomy feet put together, the position is:
C) Comparative anatomy A) Supine position
D) Physical anthropology B) Prone position
E) Surface anatomy C) Anatomical position
D) Lithotomical position
6. The study of deeper parts of the body in
relation to the skin surface is: 13. Person lying on his/her face, chest and
A) Environmental anatomy abdomen is said to be in:
B) Radiographic anatomy A) Supine position
C) Comparative anatomy B) Prone position
D) Physical anthropology C) Anatomical position
E) Surface anatomy D) Lithotomical position
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

14. Person lying on her back with legs up 16. Plane parallel to median or midsagittal
and feet supported in straps. This position is: plane is the:
A) Supine position A) Sagittal plane
B) Prone position B) Median plane
C) Anatomical position C) Midsagittal plane
D) Lithotomical position D) Transverse plane

15. When a person is standing straight with 17. A plane passing through the Centre of the
eyes looking forwards, both arms by the side of body dividing it into two equal halves i.e. right
body, palms facing forwards, both feet and left is:
together, the position is: A) Sagittal plane
A) Supine position B) Median plane
B) Prone position C) Midsagittal plane
C) Anatomical position D) Transverse plane
D) Lithotomical position E) B and C

18. A plane at right angles to sagittal or median plane which divides the body into anterior and
posterior halves is called:
A) Sagittal plane B) Median plane
C) Midsagittal plane D) Transverse plane
E) Coronal plane

19. A plane at right angles to both sagittal and 22. The precapillary or postcapillary
coronal planes which divides the body into communication between vessels is called:
upper and lower parts is called: A) Anastomosis
A) Sagittal plane B) End arteries
B) Median plane C) Tendon
C) Midsagittal plane D) Aponeurosis
D) Transverse plane
E) Coronal plane 23. A form of necrosis (death) combined
with putrefaction:
20. In which of the following movements the A) Gangrene
angle between articulating surface don’t B) Apoptosis
change: C) Necrosis
A) Circumduction D) None
B) Gliding
C) Flexion 24. Increase in the size due to increase in the
D) Extension number of cell
A) Hyperplasia
21. When tip of thumb touches the tips of any B) Hypertrophy
of fingers is C) Atrophy
A) Opposition D) Aplasia
B) Abduction
C) Adduction 25. Increase in the size without any increase in
D) Flexion the number of cell
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Aplasia
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. E
3. B 4. A
5. D 6. E
7. A 8. B
9. D 10. C
11. D 12. A
13. B 14. D
15. C 16. A
17. E 18. E
19. D 20. B
21. A 22. A
23. A 24. A
25. B
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

UPPER
UPPER LIMB
LIMB MCQ’S
MCQ’S FROM SNELLS
SNELLS
 ‘BONES OF SHOULDER, AXILLA AND
BREAST’
 AXILLA

1. Axilla Give a passage way from... to...? 7. Which one of the following artery is the
A) Root of neck to upper limb branch of 3rd part of axillary artery?
B) Root of leg to lower limb A) Highest thoracic artery
C) With in upper limb B) Thoracoacromial artery
D) With in lower limb C) Subscapular artery
D) Lateral thoracic artery
2. What is present medial wall of axilla?
A) Upper 6 ribs serratus anterior muscle 8. Which of the following lies on medial side of
B) Upper 4 to 5 ribs and serratus anterior axillary artery throw out its course in the axilla?
muscle A) Ulnar nerve
C) Coracobrachialis and biceps muscle B) Medial cord of brachial plexus
D) Pectoralis major and minnor muscles C) Axillary vein
D) Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
3. What is the key muscle of axilla?
A) Pectoralis major 9. The brachial plexus is formed in the:
B) Subclavius A) Anterior triangle of neck
C) Subcostal B) Near the head of humerus
D) Pectoralis minnor C) Wind around neck
D) Posterior triangle of neck
4. The connective tissue of clavipectoral fascia
continue downwards as: 10. Cords of brachial artery are arranged
A) Inguinal ligament around:
B) Suspensory ligament A) Brachial artery
C) Ligament of humerus B) Axillary vein
D) Glenohumral ligament C) Axillary artery
D) None of above
5. Nerve supply of trapezius muscles is:
A) Axillary nerve 11. The nerves arising from roots of brachial
B) Accessory nerve plexus are:
C) Radial nerve A) Dorsal scapular nerve
D) Subscapularis nerve B) Long thoracic nerve
C) None of above
6. Axillary artery ends on? D) Both A and B
A) Upper border of teres minor
B) Lower border of teres minor 12. Largest branch of brachial plexus is:
C) Upper border of teres major A) Axillary nerve B) Radial nerve
D) Lower border of teres major C) Ulnar nerve D) Median nerve
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

13. Which of the following lymph nodes receive 15. Arterial anastomosis around the shoulder
efferent lymph vessels from all the other joint is in between:
axillary nodes? A) Subclavian artery and axillary artery
A) Infraclavicular B) Subclavian and brachial artery
B) Apical group C) Between branches of subclavian artery
C) Central group D) None of above
D) Lateral group
16. Lower lesion of brachial plexus effects?
14. The capsule of shoulder joint is absent on? A) Radial and ulnar nerve
A) Posterior surface B) Axillary nerve
B) Anterior surface C) Median nerve
C) Lateral surface D) Ulnar and median nerve
D) Medial surface

 ANSWER KEY
1. A 10. C. Cords of brachial plexus arranged
2. B around the axillary artery. Here the brachial
3. D. It is used to divide axillary artery into 3 plexus, axillary artery and vein are enclosed in
parts. axillary sheath.
4. B 11. D
5. B 12. B
6. D 13. B
7. C 14. B
8. C 15. A
9. D 16. D. Because nerve fibres from this segment
run in the ulnar and median nerve

 BREAST

1. Breast are situated in which region? 3. Witch’s milk in newborns is cause of:
A) Pectoral region A) Maternal hormone crossing placenta
B) Inguinal region B) Fetal hormones
C) Axillary region C) Genetically disorders
D) Abdominal region D) None of above

2. Breast extends from _ rib to _ rib and from _ 4. Gynecomastia refers to the:
margin of__ to mid axillary line: A) Absence of breast
A) 3rd, 7th rib, lateral, sternum B) Female having large breast
B) 3rd, 7th rib, medial, sternum C) Male having large breast
C) 2nd, 6th rib, lateral, sternum D) No breasts
D) 2nd, 6th rib, medial, sternum
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

UPPER LIMB MCQ’S FROM KLM

 ‘BONES OF UPPER LIMB’


1. A 20-year-old male presented with history of 6. A patient has a history of stab wound and he
pain on movement of his right wrist. He has a cannot move his arm above horizontal.
history of fall on the outstretched hand few Consequently, it leads to winging of scapula.
days back. On examination there is pain and Which of the following muscle paralysis leads to
tenderness in right snuff box of hand. Which of the winging of scapula?
the following is most likely to have been A) Serratus Posterior
injured? B) Supraspinatus
A) Scaphoid B) Pisiform C) Subscapularis
C) Lunate D) Triquetrum D) Serratus Anterior

2. In Colle’s fracture: 7. Which of the following is a prime flexor of


A) The distal fragment of radius is displaced shoulder?
posteriorly A) Clavicular head of Pectoralis Major
B) The head of ulna is displaced laterally B) Coracobrachialis
C) The upper part of radius is displaced C) Short head of Biceps
posteriorly D) Sternocostal head of Pectoralis Major
D) The olecranon process of ulna is displaced E) Short head of triceps
anteriorly
8. A 27-year-old patient presents with an
3. A fall on elbow fractures, the medial inability to move scapula forward and
epicondyle and adjacent structures are downward. Which of the following is most likely
damaged. Among deficits listed below, select to be damaged?
most likely to be encountered in the patient: A) Teres Major
A) Inability to flex wrist B) Teres Minor
B) Inability to extend wrist C) Supraspinatus
C) Inability to oppose thumb D) Serratus Anterior
D) Inability to grasp a piece of paper between
extended 2nd and 3rd finger 9. Which of the following is a prime adductor of
E) Inability to abduct the wrist shoulder?
A) Pectoralis Major
4. Which of the following is not a feature of B) Teres Major
carpal tunnel syndrome? C) Coracobrachialis
A) Pain in hand D) Short head of biceps
B) Sensory loss in lateral 3 and ½ finger E) Long head of triceps
C) Motor loss in all interossei
D) Paralysis of Palmaris Brevis 10. Abduction of shoulder is initiated by:
E) Wasting of thenar eminence A) Supraspinatus
B) Infraspinatus
5. Which of the following is most commonly C) Deltoid
fractured bone? D) Serratus anterior
A) Scaphoid B) Lunate E) Trapezius
C) Trapezium D) Capitate
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

11. A middle aged women came to ER with 16. Which of the following bones forms bony
history of intermittent pain in thumb and thenar boundary of cervico-axillary canal to protect
eminence. Examination revealed motor, neurovascular bundle supplying upper limb?
sensory and trophic symptoms caused by a A) Clavicle B) Scapula
compression of median nerve. The condition is: C) Vertebrae D) Ribs
A) Erb’s Paralysis E) Sternum
B) Klumpke’s Paralysis
C) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome 17. Which of the following nerves is related to
D) Claw like hand surgical neck of humerus?
E) Duputyren’s Contracture A) Axillary
B) Radial
12. Regarding ulna, all of the following are C) Median
correct except: D) Ulnar
A) Brachialis is inserted at coronoid process of E) Musculocutaneous
ulna
B) Carrying angle is because of pulley shaped 18. Which of the following muscles is attached
trochlea on radial tuberosity?
C) Anatomical snuff box is performed by distal A) Biceps Brachii
ulna B) Brachioradialis
D) Ulna forms elbow joint C) Pronator Teres
D) Pronator Quadratus
13. A patient with a fracture of clavicle at E) Supinator
junction of inner and middle third of bone. The
bone exhibits redoing of medial side of bone. 19. Pisiform is a bone that grows under the
Which of the following will cause downward tendon of:
displacement of lateral portion of fractured A) Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
clavicle? B) Flexor Digitorum profundus
A) Pectoralis major and Deltoid C) Flexor Pollicis Longus
B) Deltoid and Trapezius D) Flexor Carpi Radialis
C) Pectoralis Minor and gravity E) Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
D) Deltoid and Gravity
20. Which of the following is commonest site of
14. What type of joint is sternoclavicular joint? injury of ulnar nerve?
A) Hinge A) At wrist
B) Ball and socket B) Lateral to pisiform bone
C) Synovial C) Posterior to medial epicondyle
D) Pivot D) When it divides into terminal branches
E) None of above
21. While walking to his lecture hall, a first year
15. What is origin of flexor carpi ulnaris (ulnar medical student slipped on the wet pavement
head)? and fell against the curb, injuring his left arm.
A) Olecranon process Radiograph showed a mid-shaft humeral
B) Anterior border fracture. Which pair of structures was most likely
C) Interosseous border injured at the fractured arm?
D) Posterior surface A) Median nerve and brachial artery
E) None of above B) Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex
humeral artery
C) Radial nerve and brachial artery
D) Suprascapular vessels
E) Long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic
artery
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

22. Which of these bones start to ossify first?


A) Humerus B) Clavicle
B) Ulna D) Phalanges

23. Which of these arrangements show the carpal bones from lateral to medial side?
A) Lunate, triquetrum, scaphoid, pisiform
B) Triquetrum, pisiform, lunate, scaphoid
C) Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
D) Scaphoid, pisiform, triquetrum, lunate

24. Which of the following fracture is known as silver fork deformity?


A) Smith’s fracture
B) Bennet’s fracture
C) Boxer’s fracture
D) Colle’s fracture

 ANSWER KEY
1. A. Scaphoid bone forms the floor of
anatomical snuff box, causes deep tenderness 9. A. The prime adductor is pectoralis major.
when there is a fall on outstretched hand. It 10. A. The abduction is initiated by
damages radial artery and causes avascular supraspinatus 0-150 and deltoid abducts arm
necrosis of bone. Other bones are not present from 150 – 900.
in anatomical snuff box. 11. C. Compression to median nerve causes
2. A. It is a characteristic fracture in which distal carpal tunnel syndrome. Ulnar nerve injury
fragment of radius is displaced posteriorly. causes Claw hand. Erb’s palsy is caused by
3. D. Ulnar nerve is present behind medial injury to upper trunk of brachial plexus.
epicondyle so it is most likely to be damaged. Klumpke’s paralysis is lower trunk injury.
Damage to this nerve causes inability to grip a 12. C. Anatomical snuff box is performed by
piece of paper between fingers. This is ulnar distal radius.
nerve paralysis. 13. D. The lateral fragment of the clavicle is
4. D. Carpal tunnel syndrome is mainly caused displaced downward by the pull of deltoid
by an injury to median nerve. However, palmaris muscle and gravity. The medial fragment is
brevis is innervated by ulnar nerve so in this displaced upward by the pull of
case the answer is D. sternocleidomastoid muscle. None of the other
5. A. Lunate is most commonly dislocated muscles are involved.
bone and Scaphoid is most commonly injured 14. C. Sternoclavicular joint is a saddle type
bone. synovial joint.
6. D. Injury to long thoracic nerve due to 15. A. The tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris (ulnar
stabbed wound which results in paralysis of head) originates from olecranon process of ulna
serratus anterior and inability to elevate arm and not from the borders of ulna bone.
above horizontal. The condition is known as 16. A. Clavicle covers cervico-axillary canal
winged scapula. and protects underlying neurovascular
7. A. The prime flexors of shoulder are structures.
clavicular head of pectoralis major and Deltoid.
8. D. The serratus anterior is responsible for
protraction of scapula and acts as a boxer
muscle.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

17. A. 21. C. Radial nerve and deep brachial artery


are injured because they lie in the spiral groove
Nerve Part of humerus involved located on mid-shaft. Median nerve and
Axillary Surgical neck of humerus brachial artery injury can be caused by
nerve supracondylar fracture by falling on an
Radial nerve Spiral groove of shaft of outstretched hand. Axillary nerve and posterior
humerus circumflex humeral artery injury can be caused
Ulnar nerve Behind medial epicondyle by fracture of surgical neck of humerus.
Median Supracondylar region 22. B. Clavicle is the first bone to start
nerve ossifying and the last bone to complete its
ossification.
18. A. Biceps Brachii is attached on radial 23. C. Fact
tuberosity. 24. D. Colle’s fracture results from forced
19. E. Pisiform is the smallest carpal bone and dorsiflexion of hand. This is often referred to as
is a pea shaped bone embedded in the flexor dinner fork deformity because a posterior
carpi ulnaris tendon. angulation occurs in forearm just proximal to
20. C. Ulnar nerve is present posterior to wrist and normal anterior curvature of relaxed
medial epicondyle and is the most common hand.
site on injury.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

LOWER LIMB MCQS FROM SNELLS

 ‘BONES OF LEG AND FOOT’


1. Which bone forms the heel of the foot? D. Vastus lateralis
A. Calcaneus 8. Between the anterior and posterior
B. Talus intercondylar area of tibia is area called:
C. Navicular A. Tibial tuberosity
D. Cuboid B. Tibial plateaus
C. Medial malleolus
2. The tibia and fibula are connected by a joint D. Intercondylar eminence
at the:
A. Knee 9. Soleal line lies on which bone?
B. Ankle A. Femur
C. Hip B. Tibia
D.Wrist C. Fibula
D. Talus
3. The longest bone in the human body is the:
A.Femur 10. Tibial tuberosity receives the attachment of:
B.Tibia A. ligamentum patellae
C. Fibula B. Soleus muscle
D. Patella C. Posterior cruciate ligament
D. Anterior cruciate ligament
4. The bone that forms the kneecap is the:
A. Femur 11. Regarding fibula, all of the following are
B. Tibia true except:
C. Fibula A. Slender lateral bone
D. Patella B. Takes no part in articulation at knee joint
C. Provide attachment to muscle
5. Which of the following is the largest D. Takes part in transmission of body weight
seasmoid bone?
A. Patella 12. A patient with traumatic dislocation of
B. Tibia patella without fracture of patella results from
C. Calcaneum direct trauma to:
D. Navicular A. Vastus medialis
B. Soleus muscle
6. Which of the following is true regarding C. Gastrocnemius
patella? D. Adductor magnus
A. Develops within tendon of quadriceps
femoris 13. Nancy, a middle aged lady got hit by
B. Its Apex is connected to tibial tuberosity bumper of automobile at lateral side of knee
C. Separated from skin by subcutaneous bursa joint. On examination, doctor found that medial
D. All collateral ligament is torned as a result of
forced abduction. Which of the following will be
7. Patella is prevented from being displaced mostly fracture in this case?
laterally during action of quadriceps muscle by: A. proximal end of tibia
A. Vastus medialis B. Distal end of tibia
B. Large size of medial condyl of femur C. Fibula
C. Vastus intermedialis D. Femur
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

14. Which tarsal bone articulates with both tibia


and fibula at ankle joint? 18. The tubercle on base of fifth metatarsal
A. Talus B. Calcaneum bone give attachment to tendon of:
C. Navicular D. Cuniform A. Peroneus longus
B. Peroneus tertius
15. The largest bone of the foot is: C. Peroneus brevis
A. Talus B. Calcaneum D. Gastronecmius
C. Navicular D. Cuniform
19. The base of 5th metatarsal can be
16. The structure on calcaneum that separate fractured during which movement of foot:
peroneus longus and brevis muscle: A. Inversion
A. Peroneal tubercle B. Eversion
B. Sulcus calcanei C. Dorsiflexion
C. Sustentaculum tali D. Plantar flexion
D. All
20. Neck fracture of talus occur during which
17. A deep groove on inferior surface of cuboid movement at ankle joint:
bone lodges the tendon of: A. Inversion
A. Peroneus longus B. Eversion
B. Peroneus tertius C. Dorsiflexion
C. Peroneus brevis D. Plantar flexion
D. Gastronecmius

 ANSWER KEY
10. A. Apex of patella is connected to tibial
1. A. The bone that forms the heel of the foot is tuberosity by ligamentum patella.
the calcaneus. It is the largest tarsal bone in 11. D. Fibula takes no part in transmission of
the foot and plays a crucial role in weight- body weight
bearing and walking. 12. A. Quadriceps muscle especially vastus
2. B. The tibia and fibula are connected by a medialis with or without fracture to patella.
joint at the Ankle. This joint allows for 13. A. Proximal end of tibia usually results from
movement and stability in the lower leg and direct violence to lateral side of knee joint as
foot. when a person is hit by the bumper of an
3. A. Femur. It is located in the thigh and automobile.
connects the hip to the knee. The femur is 14. A. Talus only
responsible for supporting the body's weight 15. B. Calcaneum which form prominence of
and facilitating movement. heel.
4. D. Patella is a small, triangular bone that sits 16. A. Peroneal tubercle which is present on
in front of the knee joint and helps protect the lateral surface of calcaneum.
knee and aid in movement. 17. A. Peroneus longus.
5. A. Patella is largest seasmoid bone. 18. C. Peroneus brevis tendon
6. D. All are correct. 19. A. The base of 5th metatarsal can be
7. A. It is prevented from being displaced fractured during forced inversion of foot at
laterally during action by lower horizontal fibers which time the tendon of insertion of the
of _vastus medialis_ and by large size of peroneus brevis muscle pulls off the base of
_lateral condyl_ of feumr. metatarsal.
8. D. Intercondylar eminence (snell book line). 20. C. Neck fracture of talus occur during
9. B. It lies on posterior surface of tibia for which dorsiflexion of ankle joint when neck is
attachment of soleus muscle. driven against the anterior edge of distal end of
tibia.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

LOWER LIMB MCQ’S FROM KLM

1. Tensor fascia lata has proximal attachment 7. Hip bone includes all of the following except:
to: A. Ilium
A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. Greater Trochanter
B. Anterior inferior iliac spine C. Obturator foramen
C. Posterior superior iliac spine D. Pubis
D. Anterior superior iliac spine & anterior
part of external lip of iliac crest 8. Which structure of femur has a fovea for
E. Posterior superior iliac spine & anterior ligament?
part of external lip of iliac crest A. Trochanter
B. Shaft
2. What is the most common anomaly of the C. Head
sole of the foot in which the foot is turned D. Medial condyle
medially adducted and plantar flexed?
A. Adducted foot B. Club foot 9. The second largest bone of the human body
C. Cleft foot D. Congenital foot is:
A. Femur
3. Which of the following structures passes B. Fibula
behind the medial malleolus? C. Humerus
A. Superficial peroneal nerve D. Tibia
B. Tibial nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve 10. The site where the neck and shaft join in
D. Common peroneal nerve femur is indicated by the:
A. Intertrochanteric line
4. A boy was hit on the lateral side of knee B. Intertrochanteric crest
joint, due to which his head of fibula got C. Spiral line
fractured, which nerve got injured? D. Linea Aspera
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Deep peroneal nerve 11. Fracture of the neck of the femur results in
C. Femoral nerve avascular necrosis of the femoral head,
D. Popliteal nerve probably resulting from lack of blood supply
from which of the following arteries?
5. A patient is received in ER department with A. Obturator
history of car accident. He sustains injury on B. Superior gluteal
the right-side knee. After examination doctor C. Lateral femoral circumflex
diagnose it as a case of foot drop. Common D. Medial femoral circumflex
peroneal nerve winds around the: E. Inferior gluteal
A. Lateral condyle of tibia
B. Lateral condyle of femur 12. If the acetabulum is fractured at its
C. Medial condyle of tibia posterior superior margin by dislocation of hip
D. Head of fibula joint, which of the following bones could be
E. Neck of fibula involved?
A. Ischium
6. Which of the following muscles is also B. Sacrum
known as peripheral heart? C. Ilium
A. Soleus B. Plantaris D. Head of femur
C. Popliteus D. Gastrocnemius E. Pubis
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

13. A 50-year old man was given an antibiotic 20. Anterior dislocation of femur on tibia
course by intramuscular gluteal injection (IM) damages which ligament?
after a major surgery. To avoid sciatic nerve A. Anterior cruciate ligament
injury, the needle should be inserted into which B. Posterior cruciate ligament
area? C. Collateral ligament
A. Lower medial quadrant of gluteal region D. Both anterior and posterior
B. Over the sacrospinous ligament E. Deltoid ligament
C. Midway between ischial tuberosity and
the lesser Trochanter 21. A 30 year old female presented to ER after
D. Upper lateral quadrant of gluteal region accident with short left leg and rotated laterally.
E. Midpoint of gemelli muscles What is the cause?
A. Hip dislocation
14. Which of the following bones is also called B. Inferior gluteal nerve damage
“shin bone”? C. Superior gluteal nerve damage
A. Fibula D. Femoral neck fracture
B. Tibia
C. Femur 22. Gluteus maximus:
D. Radius A. Covers piriformis
B. Arises from gluteal tubercle
15. The largest tarsal bone in the foot is: C. Supplied by inferior gluteal nerve
A. Cuboid D. Supplied by superior gluteal nerve
B. Talus
C. Calcaneus 23. A 23-year old athlete ran for his match
D. Navicular practice. He felt some pain in leg and next day
noticed some swelling around the ankle. It was
16. Which of the following tarsal bones although painful but was able to stand on toes.
articulates with the leg bones? Which muscle helps him to stand on toes?
A. Calcaneus A. Plantaris B. Achilles
B. Cuneiform C. Popliteus D. Soleus
C. Navicular
D. Talus 24. An old man falls from the bed and got a
fracture on the neck of femur. Cause of
17. The most common site of tibial fracture is: osteoporosis is:
A. Middle and inferior thirds A. Poor diet
B. Superior 1/3rd B. Decrease blood supply
C. Superior and middle thirds C. Old age
D. Inferior 1/3rd D. Hormonal insufficiency

18. Which vascular part of fibula is used for 25. Fracture of acetabulum posterolaterally
bone graft? leads to which bones fracture?
A. Middle B. Upper A. Pubis B. Sacrum
C. Lateral D. Medial C. Ischium and ilium
D. Pubic symphysis
19. Sprained ankle from excessive eversion
most likely demonstrates which structure is 26. Which of the following is not attached to
damaged? greater Trochanter?
A. Talofibular ligament A. Gluteus maximus
B. Deltoid ligament B. Gluteus medius
C. Tendon Calcaneus C. Gluteus minimus
D. Interosseous ligament D. Obturator internus
E. Piriformis
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

27. A patient comes to a doctor because he 29. Which of the following ligament limit
had difficulty in standing and had a waddling extension of hip joint?
gait. Which nerve is most likely to have been A. Pubofemoral
damaged? B. Iliofemoral
A. Sciatic nerve C. Ischiofemoral
B. Femoral nerve D. Hamstring muscle
C. Obturator nerve E. Abdominal wall
D. Superior gluteal nerve
30. Structure from medial to lateral in femoral
28. Foot drop involves which nerve? triangle is:
A. Common peroneal nerve A. Nerve, artery and vein
B. Femoral nerve B. Vein, artery and nerve
C. Genitofemoral nerve C. Nerve, vein and artery
D. Tibial nerve D. None

 ANSWER KEY
1. D. The TFL originates from the anterior 8. C. The round head of femur makes up to two
superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the anterior thirds of a sphere that is covered with articular
aspect of the iliac crest and descends between cartilage, except for a medially placed
and is attached to the deep fascia and the depression or pit, the fovea for the ligament of
superficial fascia of the IT (iliotibial tract) band. the head.
2. B. Club-foot is a common developmental 9. D. Located on the anteromedial side of leg,
disorder of the lower limb. It is defined as nearly parallel to the fibula,, the tibia is the
fixation of the foot in adduction, in supination second largest bone in the body.
and in varus, i.e. inclined inwards, axially 10. A. The site where the neck and shaft is
rotated outwards and pointing downwards. indicated by the Intertrochanteric line, a
3. B. Behind the medial malleolus structures roughened ridge formed by attachment of a
that pass are: tibialis posterior tendon, flexor powerful ligament.
digitorum longus tendons, tibial nerve, flexor 11. D. The chief arterial supply to the head of
hallucis longus and posterior tibial artery. femur is from the branches of the medial
4. B. The deep peroneal nerve can be injured femoral circumflex artery. The lateral femoral
in the area of the fibula head, where it lies circumflex artery may supply the femoral head
superficially. Compartment syndrome in the by anastomosing with the medial femoral
lower leg can also lead to tibial or peroneal circumflex artery. The posterior branch of the
nerve injuries, depending on the compartment Obturator artery give rise to artery of head of
affected. femur. The superior and inferior gluteal arteries
5. E. Common peroneal nerve passes forwards donot supply the head of femur.
around the neck of the fibula within the 12. C. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped cavity
substance of fibularis (peroneus) longus, on the lateral side of hip bone and is formed
where it terminates by dividing into the superiorly by the ilium, posteroinferiorly by the
superficial and deep fibular (peroneal) nerves. Ischium, and anteromedially by the pubis. The
The nerve can be palpated behind the head of sacrum and the head of femur donot
the fibula and as it winds around the neck of participate in the formation of the acetabulum.
the fibula. 13. D. To avoid damaging the sciatic nerve
6. A. The Soleus is responsible for pumping during an intramuscular injection, the clinician
venous blood back into the heart from the should insert the needle in the upper lateral
periphery, and is often called the skeletal quadrant of the gluteal region.
muscle pump and peripheral heart. 14. B. Fact
7. B. Greater Trochanter is a part of femur.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

15. C. The Calcaneus is the largest tarsal bone 23. A. Able to stand ---> Plantaris
and lies underneath the talus where it Can’t stand ---> Achilles
constitutes the heel. It has two articulations: 24. D. Post menopausal Osteoporosis is
Superiorly – subtalar (talocalcaneal) joint – mainly due to deficiency of hormone estrogen
between the Calcaneus and the talus. as age progresses.
16. D. The talus forms the connecting bone 25. C. The bones present posterior to
between the leg and foot. It articulates with the acetabulum are ilium and Ischium so most
tibia and fibula superomedially and likely to be damaged.
superolaterally to form the talocrural joint 26. A. The gluteus maximus does not insert on
(ankle joint) and inferiorly with the Calcaneus the greater trochanter. It inserts on the gluteal
forming the subtalar joint and navicular to form tuberosity and lateral femur.
the talocalcaneonavicular joint. 27. D. Difficulty in standing from sitting --->
17. A. The tibial shaft is narrowest at the gluteus maximus damage (inferior gluteal
junction of its middle and inferior thirds, which nerve)
is the most frequent site of fracture. Waddling gait ---> gluteus medius and minimus
18. A. Fact damage (superior gluteal nerve)
19. B. This injury typically occurs with an 28. A. The most common cause of foot drop
eversion injury that results in a tear of is peroneal nerve injury. This nerve is also
the deltoid ligament or medial malleolar called the fibular nerve is a branch of the
fracture. The forced eversion causes a sciatic nerve. It supplies movement and
complete disruption of the tibiofibular sensation to the lower leg, foot, and toes.
syndesmosis and fracture of the proximal Conditions that affect the nerves and muscles
fibula. in the body can lead to foot drop.
20. B. ACL injured ---> anterior dislocation of 29. B. Abduction of hip joint limited by --->
tibia or posterior dislocation of femur Pubofemoral ligament
PCL injured ---> posterior dislocation of tibia or Extension of hip joint limited by ---> iliofemoral
anterior dislocation of femur ligament
21. D. Femoral neck fractures may present Flexion of hip joint with knee extended is
with a shortened and externally rotated lower limited by ---> hamstring muscles
limb. Flexion of hip joint with knee flexed is limited
22. C. Superior gluteal nerve innervates by ---> anterior abdominal wall
gluteus medius and minimus. Gluteus maximus 30. B. VAN ---> medial to lateral “vein, artery
originates from between anterior and posterior and nerve”
gluteal lines.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

THORAX MCQ’S FROM SNELLS

 ‘STRUCTURE OF THORACIC WALL AND


MUSCULATURE’
1. Which type of bone is sternum? 9. The 1st costal cartilages articulate with the
A) Short B) Long manubrium, by which joint
C) Irregular D) Flat A) Cartilaginous joint
B) Synovial joint
2. Manubrium lies opposite to which vertebrae? C) Fibrous joint
A) T3 T4 B) T4 T5 D) Plane synovial joint
C) T6 T7 D) T1 T2
10. Which muscle extends forward to the costal
3. Which of the following is floating rib? cartilage where it is replaced by an
A) 1 B) 6 aponeurosis, the anterior intercostal
C) 9 D) 12 membrane?
A) External intercostal
4. Costal groove which carries nerves arteries B) Internal intercostal
is found on which border of rib? C) Innermost intercostal
A) Superior D) All
B) Anterior
C) Lateral 11. Intercostal vessels are arranged in the
D) Inferior following order from above downward:
A) Artery, nerve, vein
5. The head of rib has two facets for B) Nerve, artery, vein
articulation with the numerically corresponding C) Vein, artery, nerve
vertebral body and with D) Vein, nerve, artery
A) Upper rib
B) Lower rib 12. Which intercostal muscle forms the
C) Both deepest layer?
D) None A) External intercostal
B) Internal intercostal
6. Xiphisternal joint lies at level of: C) Innermost intercostal
A) T6 B) T4 D) All
C) T9 D) T12
13. Angle of Louis is angle between:
7. Cervical rib is a rib arising commonly from: A) Manubrium and body
A) C1 B) C7 B) Body and xiphoid
C) T1 D) T12 C) Manubrium and xiphoid
D) Sternum and costal cartilage
8. Which ligament connect head of rib to
intervertebral disc? 14. Part of sternum that becomes ossified at its
A) Interarticular ligament proximal end during adult life is:
B) Ligamentum teres A) Body B) Manubrium
C) Lateral collateral ligament C) Xiphoid D) All
D) Nonarticular ligament
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

THORAX MCQ’S FROM KLM


 ‘THORACIC WALL’
1. The Thorax includes the primary organs of 6. The intercostal spaces are named according
respiratory and cardiovascular system. The to the rib forming the superior border of the
thoracic cavity is divided into three major space. The space below the 12th rib thus is
spaces; central mediastinum and; referred to as the;
A) Right and left pulmonary cavities A) 12th Intercostal space
B) Pulmonary and peritoneal cavities B) Subcostal space
C) Pleural and pericardial cavities C) Subchondral space
D) All of these
7. The body of sternum is narrower and thinner
2. The thoracic skeleton forms the than the manubrium. It is located at level of
osteocartilagenous cage. The thoracic skeleton the;
includes 12 pairs of ribs, cartilages and; A) T4-T7
A) 12 Thoracic Vertebra B) T5-T9
B) IV discs and sternum C) T3-T5
C) Cervical vertebra
D) Both A and B 8. The Xiohoid process is smallest and most
variable part of sternum; thin and elongated. Its
3. Ribs are curved flat bones that form most of inferior end lies at the level of;
the thoracic cage. Regarding false ribs the ribs A) T7
having indirect connection with sternum; B) T8
Vertebrochondral ribs are; C) T9
A) 1st -7th D) T10
B) 8th-10th
C) 11th-12th 9. As the size of thoracic cavity is often
D) 6th -10th overestimated, domes of the diaphragm rise as
high as a level of which intercosal space and
4. Body of the ribs is thin, flat and curved. The abdominal Viscera like liver, spleen and
concave internal surface of body has....... stomach lie superior to the plane of inferior
Paralleling the inferior border of rib and thoracic aperture?
provides some protection to inter A) 4th Intercostal space
coastal vessels and nerves? B) 5th Intercostal space
A) Costal Facets C) 6th Intercostal space
B) Neck of rib D) 7th Intercostal space
C) Costal groove
D) Scalene tubercle 10. The Xiohoid process is an important
landmark in the median plane because it is a
5. The first seven costal cartilages attach midline marker for the superior limit of -------,
directly and independently to the sternum; central tendon of diaphragm and inferior border
while 8th-10th ribs articulate with costal if-------?
cartilages just superior to them forming A) Stomach/Heart
continuous articulated? B) Lungs/Heart
A) Thoracic cage C) Liver/Heart
B) Costal margin D) Kidneys /lungs
C) Superior aperture
D) Vertebrochondral angle
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

11. While demonstrating about joints of 16. Patient presented in the Emergency Room
thoracic cage to students, Teacher told undergoing through the swear injury in the
students that a typical rib articulates posteriorly thoracic region. The doctor advised the
with the vertebral column at two joints; students to do the surgical creation of an
A) Joints of heads of ribs opening through the thoracic wall to enter a
+Costotransverse joints pleural cavity this procedure is called as?
B) Joints of heads of ribs+Costovertebral joints A) Tracheostomy
C) Costovertebral joints and Costochondral B) Thoracotomy
joints C) Pleurotomy
D) Costochondral joints +Costotransverse
joints 17. Considering the scenario explained in the
previous question to perform the
12. The type of joint between lateral end of posterior thoracotomy, the most satisfactory
costal cartilages and sternal end of ribs at approach or incisions should be at the level
which no movement normally occurs is; of?
A) Symphysis A) 5th-7th Vertebra
B) Synovial plane joint B) 5th -7th Intercostal spaces
C) Synchondrosis C) 4th-8th Intercostal spaces

13. The flat articular surfaces of tubercles and 18. Cervical ribs are relatively common in 0.
transverse processes of the 7th to 10th ribs 52% of people and may interfere with neuro
allow gliding resulting in elevation and vascular structures exiting the superior thoracic
depression of the lateral most portions of these aperture. Resection maybe required to relieve
ribs in the transverse plane results into which pressure on these structures, which can be
movement? performed through;
A) Pump handle movement A) Transaxiallary approach
B) Bucket handle movement B) Thoracotomy
C) None of these C) Tracheostomy
D) Both A and B D) Flial chest

14. The patient presented in ER after road 19. An old female in early 40s presented in
accident, the nurse assumed that his first rib is Emergency Room having pain and presence of
fractured. But the doctor told her that it is rarely hard lump in the pit of her stomach(epigastric
fractured b/c of fossa). As a surgeon what you will call this?
A) Its protected location A) Benign tumor
B) Its attachments B) Ossified Xiohoid process
C) Its curved structure C) Paralysed muscles
D) Its hardness
20. Road traffic accidents are common
15. The clinical condition in which multiple nowadays. A boy in his 30s was driving an
fractured rib segments of the wall move automobile and was involved in an automobile
paradoxically inwards on inspiration and accident and his chest was forced into the
outwards on expiration is called as; steering column .He had pain in his thoracic
A) Flial chest region due to crush injury, x-ray will show?
B) Pigeon chest A) Heart Rupture
C) HORSE Chest B) Sternal fractures
D) Inverted chest C) Vertebral fractures
D) Huneral fractures
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

21. Among following muscles which one is 26. Which thoracic nerve gives the large lateral
used to elevate the RIBS? cutaneous branch that is intercostobrachial
A) Serratus posterior Inferior nerve that usually supplies the floor, skin and
B) Serratus posterior Superior subcutaneous tissue of the axilla and medial
C) Transversus thoracics side of arm?
D) Internal Intercostals A) T2 and sometimes T3
B) T3 and sometimes T4
22. A person came to OPD and explained his C) T4 and sometimes T5
condition of being facing difficulty in elevating
ribs /during inspiration. After checkup Dr. told 27. Intercostal arteries course through the
him that the muscle having 12 fan shaped thoracic wall between the ribs. Each space
parts is paralyzed. Which of the following is bring supplied by 3 arteries. Regarding
this? posterior intercostal arteries, 1st and 2nd
A) Serratus posterior inferior Intercostal arteries arise from the;
B) Serratus posterior superior A) Superior Intercostal artery
C) Transversus thoracics B) Cistocervical trunk
D) Levators costarum C) Subclavian artery
D) All of these
23. The thoracic wall is lined internally with
endothoracic fascia. While the pectoral 28. The internal thoracic arteries arise in the
facia forms a major part of the bed of breast. root of neck from inferior surfaces of first part
Another layer deep to the pectoralis major of subclavein arteries and terminates in
muscle and its facia suspended from the the................... By dividing into the superior
clavicle is; epigastric and musculophrenic arteries.
A) Pectoral Fascia A) 4th IC space
B) Sibson's facia B) 5th IC space
C) Clavipectoral facia C) 6th IC space
D) 7th IC space
24. The 3rd-6th intercostal nerves enter the
medial most parts of the posterior intercostal 29. A patient came on OPD and he was having
spaces in the endothoracic facia .Near the difficulties in breathing and was using
angles of the ribs the nerves passes between; accessory respiratory muscles. This clinical
A) Endothoracic facia and external Intercostals pathological condition is called as;
B) Endothoracic facia and internal Intercostals A) Dyspnea
C) External and internal Intercostals B) Dysartharia
D) Internal Intercostals and innermost C) Apnea
Intercostals D) Tachypnea

25. Although the anterior ramus of most 30. A patient in ER had burning pain in the
thoracic spinal nerves is simply the intercostal dermatome supplied by the nerve involved in
nerve of that level. The anterior ramus of the viral infection of ganglion of that level. There
first thoracic spinal nerve first divides into a were dermatomically distributed skin lesions,
large superior and the small inferior part. shingles and pain b/c of reaction of
WHICH one of the following parts joins the VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS causing;
brachial plexus supplying the upper limb? A) Herpes Zoster
A) The superior part B) Hepatitis
B) The inferior part C) Dyspnea
C) The lateral part D) Klumpkes paralysis
D) All of these
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

LAIQ HUSSAIN HISTOLOGY MCQ’S

CHAPTER 01: ‘INTRODUCTION’


1. The ability to enlarge the image of object is 8. Which of the following is a technique used to
called; enhance the resolving power of light
A) Resolution microscope;
B) Magnification A) Magnification
C) Refractive index B) Transmission
D) Transmission C) Oil immersion
D) Illumination
2. The ability to distinguish between two small
objects situated close together; 9. The resolving power of commonly used
A) Resolution bright field microscope is about;
B) Magnification A) 0.2 nm
C) Refractive index B) 0.02nm
D) Transmission C) 0.2 micro meter
D) 0.02 micro meter
3. Resolution is inversely related to;
A) No. of pixels in an image 10. The resolution and magnification of
B) Wavelength electron microscope is _____ than light
C) Both of these microscope;
D) None of these A) Higher
B) Lesser
4. The light microscope is also called; C) Same
A) Transmission microscope D) None of these
B) Scanning microscope
C) Optical microscope 11. Tissue preparation involves 4 steps out of
D) None of these which the 3 step is;
rd

A) Embedding
5. The most commonly used microscope by the B) Sectioning
students and research workers is; C) Staining
A) Confocal microscope D) Fixation
B) Dark field microscope
C) Bright field microscope 12. The most commonly used fixative is;
D) Phase contrast microscope A) Picric acid
B) Osmium tetroxide
6. Bright field microscope is generally consists C) Glyoxal
of ____ components; D) Formalin
A) Four B) Five
C) Six D) Seven 13. The most commonly used embedding
agent;
7. Which objective lens is called oil immersion A) Epoxy resin
objective; B) Carbowax
A) 4 B) 10 C) Paraffin wax
C) 40 D) 100 D) Methacrylate
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

14. Which of the following is a basic dye; 21. The major action of _____ is to bring about
A) Orange G B) Hematoxylin stabilization of proteins by causing the
C) Acid fuchsin D) Eosin formation of cross links between protein
molecules.
15. Which of the following is an acidic dye; A) Fixative
A) Toluidine blue B) Embedding agent
B) Methylene blue C) Dye
C) Hematoxylin D) Paraffin wax
D) Eosin
22. The purpose of embedding is to _____ the
16. The basophilic substances which attract tissue;
basic dye are themselves _____ in nature; A) Soften
A) Acidic B) Basic B) Harden
C) Neutral D) Amphoteric C) Stain
D) Stabilize
17. The cytoplasm of cell generally stains;
A) Acidophilic B) Basophilic 23. The function of condenser lens is;
C) Neutral D) None of these A) Produce a beam of light
B) Focus the light
18. Which of the following stain is combination C) Gather the light
of acidic and basic dye; D) None of these
A) H&E B) Orange G
C) Pictric acid D) Methylene blue 24. In ______ microscope, fluorescent
compounds have affinity for specific cell
19. By H&E staining technique, the acidophilic components are used as stains.
substances take a _____ color; A) Polarizing microscope
A) Blue to purple B) Confocal microscope
B) Brown to black C) Stereo microscope
C) Pinkish to reddish D) Fluorescent microscope
D) Yellow to orange
25. If two ocular lens (eyepiece lens) are
20. By H&E staining technique, the basophilic present then the microscope is called;
substances take a _____ color; A) Monocular microscope
A) Blue to purple B) Binocular microscope
B) Brown to black C) Electron microscope
C) Pinkish to reddish D) Polarizing microscope
D) Yellow to orange

ANSWER KEY
1. B. Magnification of a microscope means its 3. B. Resolution is inversely related to
ability to enlarge the image of the object being wavelength of source of illumination employed,
viewed. i.e. shorter the wavelength, greater the
2. A. Resolution of a microscope implies its resolution.
ability to allow the observer to distinguish 4. C. The light microscope is also called optical
between two small objects situated close microscope which uses visible light to make an
together. image.
5. C. Bright field microscope is most commonly
used by students and research workers.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

6. B. Five components of bright field 16. A. The nucleus of cell takes a basic stain
microscope are; light source (illuminator), becz itself it contains acid (DNA and RNA).
condenser lens, stage, objective lens, ocular Similarly, acidophilic substances are
lens. themselves basic in nature and therefore,
7. D. Four objective lenses are usually make bond which acidic dyes.
available in a microscope. Out of these, first 17. A. The cytoplasm of cells stains acidophilic
three magnify the image 4, 10 and 40 times. becz the constituent proteins of cytosol are rich
The fourth one enlarges the image 100 times in basic amino acids.
and is called oil immersion objective. 18. A. H&E is a combination of basic dye
8. C. Oil immersion is a technique used to (hematoxylin) and acidic dye (eosin).
enhance the resolving power of light 19. C. Pinkish to reddish color e.g. cytosol of
microscope. cell.
9. C. Resolving power of commonly used bright 20. A. Light blue to deep blue or purple e.g.
field microscope is about 0.2 micro meter and it nucleus of cell.
can magnify the images 1000 – 1500 times. 21. A. Action of fixative.
10. A. The high resolving and magnifying 22. B. After hardening, tissue has a
power of electron microscope allows study of consistency that permits it to be sectioned
structure of body tissues at subcellular level together with the tissue piece.
(ultra structures or fine structures). 23. B. The condenser lens focuses the light on
11. B. 4 steps in tissue preparation are; specimen to be examined.
fixation, embedding, sectioning, staining. 24. D. In fluorescent microscope, fluorescent
12. D. Formalin is most commonly used. components having affinity for specific cell
13. C. Paraffin wax is most commonly used. components are used as stain e.g. the
14. B. The commonly used basic dyes include fluorescent stain acridine orange binds with
hematoxylin, toluidine blue, and methylene DNA & RNA.
blue. 25. B. Only one ocular lens is present in
15. D. The acidic dyes which are in common monocular microscopes, whereas binocular
use include eosin, acid fuchsin, orange G, and has two ocular lenses.
picric acid.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

Chapter 2: ‘Gametogenesis: Conversion of


Germ Cells into Male and Female Gametes’
1. During which stage of gametogenesis does 8. The process of oocyte maturation and
crossing over occur? development is primarily regulated by which
A. Spermatogenesis hormone?
B. Oogenesis A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C. Fertilization B. Luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. Implantation C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
2. Which of the following is responsible for the
formation of polar bodies during oogenesis? 9. Which of the following structures is derived
A. Meiosis I B. Meiosis II from the remnants of the Graffian follicle after
C. Mitosis D. Fertilization ovulation?
A. Corpus luteum
3. How many functional sperm cells are B. Zona pellucida
produced from each primary spermatocyte? C. Cumulus oophorus
A. 1 B. 2 D. Secondary oocyte
C. 3 D. 4
10. In humans, both spermatogenesis and
4. In humans, meiosis in oogenesis is initiated oogenesis result in the formation of gametes
during which stage of embryonic development? with:
A. Pre-implantation A. 23 chromosomes each
B. Post-implantation B. 46 chromosomes each
C. Fetal development C. Variable numbers of chromosomes
D. Puberty D. No chromosomes

5. The formation of primordial germ cells 11. Where does fertilization typically occur in
occurs during which week of embryonic humans?
development? A. Uterus
A. 2nd week B. 4th week B. Fallopian tube
C. 6th week D. 8th week C. Cervix
D. Vagina
6. Which of the following is responsible for the
maintenance of male germ line stem cells? 12. After ejaculation, sperm cells undergo a
A. Sertoli cells process called capacitation. What is the
B. Leydig cells purpose of capacitation?
C. Granulosa cells A. Activation of sperm motility
D. Theca cells B. Maturation of spermatozoa
C. Development of acrosomal enzymes
7. Which hormone stimulates spermatogenesis D. Enhanced ability to penetrate the oocyte
in males?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 13. Which of the following is essential for
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH) successful fertilization to occur?
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) A. Fusion of pronuclei
D. Testosterone B. Formation of polar bodies
C. Implantation in the endometrium
D. Maturation of the corpus luteum
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

14. How many chromosomes are present in a 22. In human, the time required for a
mature human gamete? spermatogonium to develop into a mature
A. 23 B. 46 spermatozoon is approximately
C. 69 D. 92 A. 75 days
B. 73 days
15. The acrosome reaction is triggered by C. 74 days
contact between the sperm and which structure D. Vary from person to person
of the oocyte?
A. Zona pellucida 23. Approximately how many sperms are
B. Granulosa cells formed per day?
C. Cumulus oophorus A. 350 million B. 280 million
D. Corpus luteum C. 400 million D. 300 million

16. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes 24. Shortly before puberty, the sex cords
rapid cell divisions. What is this process acquire a lumen and become the
called? A. Seminiferous tubules
A. Cleavage B. Gastrulation B. Vas deferens
C. Organogenesis D. Differentiation C. Epididymis
D. Urogenital tract
17. In humans, fertilization usually takes place
within how many hours after ovulation? 25. During maturation phases of sperm,
A. 12-24 hours B. 24-48 hours sperms are embedded in cytoplasm of which
C. 48-72 hours D. 72-96 hours cells
A. Sustentacular cells B. Sertoli cells
18. Which of the following is responsible for C. Leydig cells D. Both A and B
preventing fertilization by multiple sperm?
A. Cortical reaction 26. One spermatogonia generates how many
B. Acrosome reaction mature spermatozoa
C. Zona reaction A. 4 mature sperms
D. Implantation reaction B. Variable
C. 2 mature sperms +2 polar bodies
19. The union of sperm and egg during D. 1 mature sperm + 3 polar bodies
fertilization restores the diploid number of
chromosomes. How many chromosomes are 27. At birth, germ cells in the male infant can
present in the zygote? be recognized in which cords
A. 23 B. 46 A. Sex cords B. Epididymis
C. 69 D. 92 C. Vas deferens D. Penis

20. Following fertilization, the zygote 28. Process of spermatogenesis starts at:
undergoes mitotic divisions and forms a solid A. At puberty
ball of cells known as: B. At birth
A. Morula B. Blastocyst C. During intrauterine life
C. Trophoblast D. Inner cell mass D. At childhood

21. Process through which spermatids are 29. By seeing which characters you can say it
converted to mature sperm is called a mature sperm:
A. Spermatogenesis A. Having condensed nucleus
B. Spermiogensis B. Haploid number of cells
C. Puberty C. Possess tail
D. Secondary character of male D. Only A and C
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

30. Spermatogenesis is regulated by 36. Exploid refers to any exact multiple of


production of which hormone A. 1n B. 2n
A. Luteinizing hormone B. FSH C. 4n D. 3n
C. Testosterone D. Androgen
37. Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is caused by
31. Oogonia is/has one extra copy of which chromosome
A. Diploid B. Haploid A. 16th chromosomes
C. 46 pairs of chromosomes B. 20th chromosomes
D. 23 chromosomes C. 21st chromosomes
D. 13th chromosomes
32. Results of mitotic division
A. Variability increases 38. Results of meiosis:
B. Number of chromosomes is maintained is A. Genetic variability increases
next generation B. Crossing over occurs
C. Crossing over can take place C. Random distribution of homologous
D. All are wrong chromosomes
D. All of above
33. Zona pellucida is:
A. Glycoprotein 39. Meiosis II is completed only if
B. Lipoprotein A. Ovulation occurs
C. Glycolipid B. Fertilization occurs
D. Mucopolysaccriade C. Menstrual bleeding occurs
D. Release of progesterone takes place
34. Oogenesis states at which stage of life
A. Before puberty B. After puberty 40. Zona pellucida is secreted by
C. At birth D. During IUL A. Cumulus oophorus
B. Primary oocyte
C. Appears by its ownself
35. A primary oocyte together with its
D. Both A and B
surrounding flat epithelial cells is known as a:
A. Primordial follicle B. Growing follicle
C. Primary follicle D. Graffian follicle

ANSWER KEY
1. A) Spermatogenesis 8. B) The process of oocyte maturation and
2. B) Meiosis || development is primarily regulated by
3. D) 4 functional sperm cells are produced Luteinizing hormone (LH)
from each primary spermatocyte 9. A) Corpus luteum is derived from the
4. A) In humans, meiosis in oogenesis is remnants of the Graffian follicle after
initiated during Pre-implantation of ovulation
embryonic development 10. A) In humans, both spermatogenesis and
5. C) The formation of primordial germ cells oogenesis result in the formation of
occurs during 6th week of embryonic gametes with 23 chromosomes each
development 11. B) In Humans fertilization typically occurs
6. A) Sertoli cells is responsible for the in Fallopian tube
maintenance of male germ line stem cells 12. D) After ejaculation, sperm cells undergo a
7. A) Follicle stimulating hormone process called capacitation. The purpose of
(FSH) stimulates spermatogenesis in capacitation is Enhanced ability to
males penetrate the oocyte
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28

13. A) Fusion of pronuclei is essential for 25. D) During maturation phases of sperm,
successful fertilization to occur sperms are embedded in cytoplasm
14. A) 23 chromosomes are present in a of Sustentacular and sertoli cells
mature human gamete 26. A) One spermatogonia generates how 4
15. A) The acrosome reaction is triggered by mature spermatozoa/sperms
contact between the sperm and zona 27. A) At birth, germ cells in the male infant
pellucida of the oocyte can be recognized in sex cords
16. A) After fertilization, the zygote undergoes 28. A) Process of spermatogenesis starts at
rapid cell divisions this process is called puberty
cleavage 29. D) By seeing condensed nucleus and tail
17. A) In humans, fertilization usually takes we can say it as mature sperm
place within 12-24 hours after ovulation 30. A) Spermatogenesis is regulated by
18. C) Zona reaction is responsible for production of Luteinizing hormone
preventing fertilization by multiple sperm19. 31. A) Oogonia is Diploid
19. B) The union of sperm and egg during 32. D) in mitotic division there is no
fertilization restores the diploid number of variablity,chromosome no is same in
chromosomes.46 chromosomes are daughter cells andthere is no crossing over
present in the zygote 33. A) Zona pellucida is Glycoprotein
20. A) Following fertilization, the zygote 34. D) Oogenesis starts during intra-uterine life
undergoes mitotic divisions and forms a 35. A) A primary oocyte together with its
solid ball ofcells known as Morula surrounding flat epithelial cells is known as
21. B) Process through which spermatids are a primordial follicle
converted to mature sperm is 36. A) Exploid refers to any exact multiple of
called Spermiogensis 1n
22. C) In human, the time required for a 37. C) Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is caused
spermatogonium to develop into a mature by one extra copy of 21st chromosome
spermatozoon is approximately 74 days 38. D) in meiosis crossing over occurs, genetic
23. D) Approximately 300 million sperms are variablity increases, and random
formed per day distribution of homologous chromosomes
24. A) Shortly before puberty, the sex cords 39. B) Meiosis II is completed only if
acquire a lumen and become the Fertilization occurs
Seminiferous tubules 40. D) Zona pellucida is secreted by Cumulus
oophorus and Primary oocyte

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