Modular Mbbs Prep MCQ Practice Book Review
Modular Mbbs Prep MCQ Practice Book Review
CHAPTER 21 Muscle Blood Flow and Cardiac Output During Exercise; the
Coronary Circulation and Ischemic Heart Disease.
CHAPTER 22 Cardiac Failure.
CHAPTER 23 Heart Valves and Heart Sounds; Valvular and Congenital
Heart Defects.
CHAPTER 24 Circulatory Shock and Its Treatment.
1. Body water decreases in aged people due to: 4. The average number of cells in the human
body is:
A. Decreasing skeletal muscle mass and
increasing fat mass A. 35-40 trillion
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A
B. It's always in constant motion throughout the EXPLANATION: pericardium is a sac like cavity in
body which heart encloses
C. It's also regarded as the internal environment 18. The duration of contraction of the heart
of the body muscle is:
27. Carbon dioxide travels in the blood in the D. None of the above
form of:
ANSWER: B
A. CO2
EXPLANATION: positive feedback
B. HCO3-
31. ECF contains all except:
C. HCOOH
A. sodium
D. H2O & CO2
B. chloride
ANSWER: B
C. bicarbonate
EXPLANATION: CO2 combines with water to
D. waste substance
produce bicarbonates and hydrogen ions in the
presence of enzyme carbonic anhydrase E. potassium
28. Which cycle is known as a vicious cycle? ANSWER: E
A. Positive feedback cycle EXPLANATION: potassium in found in ICF
B. Negative feedback cycle 32. When the body is at rest, how many times
does all the blood circulate through the body?
C. Enzyme denaturation
A. 1
D. Both A & B
B. 2
ANSWER: A
C. 6
EXPLANATION: Positive feedback
D. 4
29. Hydrogen ions can be secreted in urine
against a concentration gradient of about: ANSWER: A
A. 10 fold EXPLANATION: one time
B. 100 fold 33. The walls of the capillaries are permeable to
all except:
C. 900 fold
A. ions
B. water B. by checking whether the urine is dark
E. oxygen ANSWER: C
EXPLANATION: Adaptive control is a type of 43. Patient presents to the clinic with
feedback mechanism that senses changes in the complaints of muscle weakness and difficulty
environment and adjusts the body's responses swallowing. The doctor suspects a disorder of
to maintain homeostasis. In contrast to which part of the nervous system?
negative feedback, which acts to correct a
A. Autonomic nervous system
deviation from a set point as soon as it occurs,
adaptive control can take longer to respond to B. Somatic nervous system
changes in the environment. Therefore, the
correct answer to the question is B. Adaptive C. Sympathetic nervous system
control. D. Parasympathetic nervous system
41. A 65-year-old woman presents to the clinic ANSWER: D
with complaints of muscle cramps, fatigue, and
tingling in her hands and feet. Her blood EXPLANATION: parasympathetic nervous
pressure is 120/80 mmHg and her serum system
calcium level is 8.0 mg/dL. Based on the 44. A 50-year-old woman comes to the clinic
principles of functional organization and because she’s been feeling very thirsty, going to
internal environment of the human body, which the bathroom a lot, and having trouble seeing
of the following is the most likely diagnosis? clearly. Her blood sugar level is high when she
A. Hypokalemia (potassium deficiency) hasn’t eaten anything, so the doctor thinks she
might have diabetes. To confirm this, the doctor
B. Hyperkalemia (potassium abundance) can check her urine for glucose. Here are the
C. Hypocalcaemia (calcium deficiency) options:
EXPLANATION: Muscle cramps, fatigue, and C. Looking for glucose in the urine
tingling in the hands and feet are common D. Checking if there’s protein in the urine
symptoms of hypocalcemia. A serum calcium
level of 8.0 mg/dL is below the normal range ANSWER: C
(which is typically 8.5-10.5 mg/dL), further EXPLANATION: glucose if found in urine of
supporting this diagnosis. diabetic patients
45. Which of the following is NOT a function of B. Potassium (K+)
the plasma membrane?
C. Calcium (Ca2+)
A. Regulation of cell shape
D. Chloride (Cl-)
B. Communication between cells
ANSWER: B
C. Control of cell movement
EXPLANATION: potassium ions are responsible
D. Control of cellular metabolism for resting membrane potential
48. The resting membrane potential arises 51. The chemical messengers released into the
primarily due to the concentration gradient of bloodstream by the endocrine system are
which ion? called:
CONTENTS
General Anatomy
1. Introduction
2. Skeleton
3. Joints
4. Muscles
5. Cardiovascular System
6. Lymphatic System
7. Nervous System
8. Skin and Fasciae
9. Connective Tissue, Ligaments and Raphe
10. Principles of Radiography
General Embryology
Chapter 1. Introduction to molecular regulation
Chapter 2. Gametogenesis
Chapter 3. First week of development
Chapter 4. Second week of development
Chapter 5. Third week of development
Chapter 6. Third to eight weeks
Chapter 7. Gut tube and body cavity
Chapter 8. Third month to birth
Chapter 9. Defect and prenatal diagnosis
Chapter 10. Development of axial skeleton
Chapter 11. Muscular system
Chapter 12. Limbs
Chapter 13. Cardiovascular system
Chapter 14. Respiratory System
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
General Histology
Chapter 1. Introduction
Chapter 3. Epithelium
Chapter 4. Glands
Chapter 5. Connective tissue
Chapter 6. Connective tissue proper
Chapter 8. Bone
Chapter 13. Circulatory System
Chapter 15. Integumentary system
Chapter 17. Respiratory System
Thoracic Wall
Thoracic Viscera
Pericardium
Mediastinal Viscera
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
14. Person lying on her back with legs up 16. Plane parallel to median or midsagittal
and feet supported in straps. This position is: plane is the:
A) Supine position A) Sagittal plane
B) Prone position B) Median plane
C) Anatomical position C) Midsagittal plane
D) Lithotomical position D) Transverse plane
15. When a person is standing straight with 17. A plane passing through the Centre of the
eyes looking forwards, both arms by the side of body dividing it into two equal halves i.e. right
body, palms facing forwards, both feet and left is:
together, the position is: A) Sagittal plane
A) Supine position B) Median plane
B) Prone position C) Midsagittal plane
C) Anatomical position D) Transverse plane
D) Lithotomical position E) B and C
18. A plane at right angles to sagittal or median plane which divides the body into anterior and
posterior halves is called:
A) Sagittal plane B) Median plane
C) Midsagittal plane D) Transverse plane
E) Coronal plane
19. A plane at right angles to both sagittal and 22. The precapillary or postcapillary
coronal planes which divides the body into communication between vessels is called:
upper and lower parts is called: A) Anastomosis
A) Sagittal plane B) End arteries
B) Median plane C) Tendon
C) Midsagittal plane D) Aponeurosis
D) Transverse plane
E) Coronal plane 23. A form of necrosis (death) combined
with putrefaction:
20. In which of the following movements the A) Gangrene
angle between articulating surface don’t B) Apoptosis
change: C) Necrosis
A) Circumduction D) None
B) Gliding
C) Flexion 24. Increase in the size due to increase in the
D) Extension number of cell
A) Hyperplasia
21. When tip of thumb touches the tips of any B) Hypertrophy
of fingers is C) Atrophy
A) Opposition D) Aplasia
B) Abduction
C) Adduction 25. Increase in the size without any increase in
D) Flexion the number of cell
A) Hyperplasia
B) Hypertrophy
C) Atrophy
D) Aplasia
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. E
3. B 4. A
5. D 6. E
7. A 8. B
9. D 10. C
11. D 12. A
13. B 14. D
15. C 16. A
17. E 18. E
19. D 20. B
21. A 22. A
23. A 24. A
25. B
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
UPPER
UPPER LIMB
LIMB MCQ’S
MCQ’S FROM SNELLS
SNELLS
‘BONES OF SHOULDER, AXILLA AND
BREAST’
AXILLA
1. Axilla Give a passage way from... to...? 7. Which one of the following artery is the
A) Root of neck to upper limb branch of 3rd part of axillary artery?
B) Root of leg to lower limb A) Highest thoracic artery
C) With in upper limb B) Thoracoacromial artery
D) With in lower limb C) Subscapular artery
D) Lateral thoracic artery
2. What is present medial wall of axilla?
A) Upper 6 ribs serratus anterior muscle 8. Which of the following lies on medial side of
B) Upper 4 to 5 ribs and serratus anterior axillary artery throw out its course in the axilla?
muscle A) Ulnar nerve
C) Coracobrachialis and biceps muscle B) Medial cord of brachial plexus
D) Pectoralis major and minnor muscles C) Axillary vein
D) Medial cutaneous nerve of arm
3. What is the key muscle of axilla?
A) Pectoralis major 9. The brachial plexus is formed in the:
B) Subclavius A) Anterior triangle of neck
C) Subcostal B) Near the head of humerus
D) Pectoralis minnor C) Wind around neck
D) Posterior triangle of neck
4. The connective tissue of clavipectoral fascia
continue downwards as: 10. Cords of brachial artery are arranged
A) Inguinal ligament around:
B) Suspensory ligament A) Brachial artery
C) Ligament of humerus B) Axillary vein
D) Glenohumral ligament C) Axillary artery
D) None of above
5. Nerve supply of trapezius muscles is:
A) Axillary nerve 11. The nerves arising from roots of brachial
B) Accessory nerve plexus are:
C) Radial nerve A) Dorsal scapular nerve
D) Subscapularis nerve B) Long thoracic nerve
C) None of above
6. Axillary artery ends on? D) Both A and B
A) Upper border of teres minor
B) Lower border of teres minor 12. Largest branch of brachial plexus is:
C) Upper border of teres major A) Axillary nerve B) Radial nerve
D) Lower border of teres major C) Ulnar nerve D) Median nerve
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
13. Which of the following lymph nodes receive 15. Arterial anastomosis around the shoulder
efferent lymph vessels from all the other joint is in between:
axillary nodes? A) Subclavian artery and axillary artery
A) Infraclavicular B) Subclavian and brachial artery
B) Apical group C) Between branches of subclavian artery
C) Central group D) None of above
D) Lateral group
16. Lower lesion of brachial plexus effects?
14. The capsule of shoulder joint is absent on? A) Radial and ulnar nerve
A) Posterior surface B) Axillary nerve
B) Anterior surface C) Median nerve
C) Lateral surface D) Ulnar and median nerve
D) Medial surface
ANSWER KEY
1. A 10. C. Cords of brachial plexus arranged
2. B around the axillary artery. Here the brachial
3. D. It is used to divide axillary artery into 3 plexus, axillary artery and vein are enclosed in
parts. axillary sheath.
4. B 11. D
5. B 12. B
6. D 13. B
7. C 14. B
8. C 15. A
9. D 16. D. Because nerve fibres from this segment
run in the ulnar and median nerve
BREAST
1. Breast are situated in which region? 3. Witch’s milk in newborns is cause of:
A) Pectoral region A) Maternal hormone crossing placenta
B) Inguinal region B) Fetal hormones
C) Axillary region C) Genetically disorders
D) Abdominal region D) None of above
2. Breast extends from _ rib to _ rib and from _ 4. Gynecomastia refers to the:
margin of__ to mid axillary line: A) Absence of breast
A) 3rd, 7th rib, lateral, sternum B) Female having large breast
B) 3rd, 7th rib, medial, sternum C) Male having large breast
C) 2nd, 6th rib, lateral, sternum D) No breasts
D) 2nd, 6th rib, medial, sternum
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
11. A middle aged women came to ER with 16. Which of the following bones forms bony
history of intermittent pain in thumb and thenar boundary of cervico-axillary canal to protect
eminence. Examination revealed motor, neurovascular bundle supplying upper limb?
sensory and trophic symptoms caused by a A) Clavicle B) Scapula
compression of median nerve. The condition is: C) Vertebrae D) Ribs
A) Erb’s Paralysis E) Sternum
B) Klumpke’s Paralysis
C) Carpal Tunnel Syndrome 17. Which of the following nerves is related to
D) Claw like hand surgical neck of humerus?
E) Duputyren’s Contracture A) Axillary
B) Radial
12. Regarding ulna, all of the following are C) Median
correct except: D) Ulnar
A) Brachialis is inserted at coronoid process of E) Musculocutaneous
ulna
B) Carrying angle is because of pulley shaped 18. Which of the following muscles is attached
trochlea on radial tuberosity?
C) Anatomical snuff box is performed by distal A) Biceps Brachii
ulna B) Brachioradialis
D) Ulna forms elbow joint C) Pronator Teres
D) Pronator Quadratus
13. A patient with a fracture of clavicle at E) Supinator
junction of inner and middle third of bone. The
bone exhibits redoing of medial side of bone. 19. Pisiform is a bone that grows under the
Which of the following will cause downward tendon of:
displacement of lateral portion of fractured A) Flexor Digitorum Superficialis
clavicle? B) Flexor Digitorum profundus
A) Pectoralis major and Deltoid C) Flexor Pollicis Longus
B) Deltoid and Trapezius D) Flexor Carpi Radialis
C) Pectoralis Minor and gravity E) Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
D) Deltoid and Gravity
20. Which of the following is commonest site of
14. What type of joint is sternoclavicular joint? injury of ulnar nerve?
A) Hinge A) At wrist
B) Ball and socket B) Lateral to pisiform bone
C) Synovial C) Posterior to medial epicondyle
D) Pivot D) When it divides into terminal branches
E) None of above
21. While walking to his lecture hall, a first year
15. What is origin of flexor carpi ulnaris (ulnar medical student slipped on the wet pavement
head)? and fell against the curb, injuring his left arm.
A) Olecranon process Radiograph showed a mid-shaft humeral
B) Anterior border fracture. Which pair of structures was most likely
C) Interosseous border injured at the fractured arm?
D) Posterior surface A) Median nerve and brachial artery
E) None of above B) Axillary nerve and posterior circumflex
humeral artery
C) Radial nerve and brachial artery
D) Suprascapular vessels
E) Long thoracic nerve and lateral thoracic
artery
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
23. Which of these arrangements show the carpal bones from lateral to medial side?
A) Lunate, triquetrum, scaphoid, pisiform
B) Triquetrum, pisiform, lunate, scaphoid
C) Scaphoid, lunate, triquetrum, pisiform
D) Scaphoid, pisiform, triquetrum, lunate
ANSWER KEY
1. A. Scaphoid bone forms the floor of
anatomical snuff box, causes deep tenderness 9. A. The prime adductor is pectoralis major.
when there is a fall on outstretched hand. It 10. A. The abduction is initiated by
damages radial artery and causes avascular supraspinatus 0-150 and deltoid abducts arm
necrosis of bone. Other bones are not present from 150 – 900.
in anatomical snuff box. 11. C. Compression to median nerve causes
2. A. It is a characteristic fracture in which distal carpal tunnel syndrome. Ulnar nerve injury
fragment of radius is displaced posteriorly. causes Claw hand. Erb’s palsy is caused by
3. D. Ulnar nerve is present behind medial injury to upper trunk of brachial plexus.
epicondyle so it is most likely to be damaged. Klumpke’s paralysis is lower trunk injury.
Damage to this nerve causes inability to grip a 12. C. Anatomical snuff box is performed by
piece of paper between fingers. This is ulnar distal radius.
nerve paralysis. 13. D. The lateral fragment of the clavicle is
4. D. Carpal tunnel syndrome is mainly caused displaced downward by the pull of deltoid
by an injury to median nerve. However, palmaris muscle and gravity. The medial fragment is
brevis is innervated by ulnar nerve so in this displaced upward by the pull of
case the answer is D. sternocleidomastoid muscle. None of the other
5. A. Lunate is most commonly dislocated muscles are involved.
bone and Scaphoid is most commonly injured 14. C. Sternoclavicular joint is a saddle type
bone. synovial joint.
6. D. Injury to long thoracic nerve due to 15. A. The tendon of flexor carpi ulnaris (ulnar
stabbed wound which results in paralysis of head) originates from olecranon process of ulna
serratus anterior and inability to elevate arm and not from the borders of ulna bone.
above horizontal. The condition is known as 16. A. Clavicle covers cervico-axillary canal
winged scapula. and protects underlying neurovascular
7. A. The prime flexors of shoulder are structures.
clavicular head of pectoralis major and Deltoid.
8. D. The serratus anterior is responsible for
protraction of scapula and acts as a boxer
muscle.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
ANSWER KEY
10. A. Apex of patella is connected to tibial
1. A. The bone that forms the heel of the foot is tuberosity by ligamentum patella.
the calcaneus. It is the largest tarsal bone in 11. D. Fibula takes no part in transmission of
the foot and plays a crucial role in weight- body weight
bearing and walking. 12. A. Quadriceps muscle especially vastus
2. B. The tibia and fibula are connected by a medialis with or without fracture to patella.
joint at the Ankle. This joint allows for 13. A. Proximal end of tibia usually results from
movement and stability in the lower leg and direct violence to lateral side of knee joint as
foot. when a person is hit by the bumper of an
3. A. Femur. It is located in the thigh and automobile.
connects the hip to the knee. The femur is 14. A. Talus only
responsible for supporting the body's weight 15. B. Calcaneum which form prominence of
and facilitating movement. heel.
4. D. Patella is a small, triangular bone that sits 16. A. Peroneal tubercle which is present on
in front of the knee joint and helps protect the lateral surface of calcaneum.
knee and aid in movement. 17. A. Peroneus longus.
5. A. Patella is largest seasmoid bone. 18. C. Peroneus brevis tendon
6. D. All are correct. 19. A. The base of 5th metatarsal can be
7. A. It is prevented from being displaced fractured during forced inversion of foot at
laterally during action by lower horizontal fibers which time the tendon of insertion of the
of _vastus medialis_ and by large size of peroneus brevis muscle pulls off the base of
_lateral condyl_ of feumr. metatarsal.
8. D. Intercondylar eminence (snell book line). 20. C. Neck fracture of talus occur during
9. B. It lies on posterior surface of tibia for which dorsiflexion of ankle joint when neck is
attachment of soleus muscle. driven against the anterior edge of distal end of
tibia.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
1. Tensor fascia lata has proximal attachment 7. Hip bone includes all of the following except:
to: A. Ilium
A. Anterior superior iliac spine B. Greater Trochanter
B. Anterior inferior iliac spine C. Obturator foramen
C. Posterior superior iliac spine D. Pubis
D. Anterior superior iliac spine & anterior
part of external lip of iliac crest 8. Which structure of femur has a fovea for
E. Posterior superior iliac spine & anterior ligament?
part of external lip of iliac crest A. Trochanter
B. Shaft
2. What is the most common anomaly of the C. Head
sole of the foot in which the foot is turned D. Medial condyle
medially adducted and plantar flexed?
A. Adducted foot B. Club foot 9. The second largest bone of the human body
C. Cleft foot D. Congenital foot is:
A. Femur
3. Which of the following structures passes B. Fibula
behind the medial malleolus? C. Humerus
A. Superficial peroneal nerve D. Tibia
B. Tibial nerve
C. Deep peroneal nerve 10. The site where the neck and shaft join in
D. Common peroneal nerve femur is indicated by the:
A. Intertrochanteric line
4. A boy was hit on the lateral side of knee B. Intertrochanteric crest
joint, due to which his head of fibula got C. Spiral line
fractured, which nerve got injured? D. Linea Aspera
A. Sciatic nerve
B. Deep peroneal nerve 11. Fracture of the neck of the femur results in
C. Femoral nerve avascular necrosis of the femoral head,
D. Popliteal nerve probably resulting from lack of blood supply
from which of the following arteries?
5. A patient is received in ER department with A. Obturator
history of car accident. He sustains injury on B. Superior gluteal
the right-side knee. After examination doctor C. Lateral femoral circumflex
diagnose it as a case of foot drop. Common D. Medial femoral circumflex
peroneal nerve winds around the: E. Inferior gluteal
A. Lateral condyle of tibia
B. Lateral condyle of femur 12. If the acetabulum is fractured at its
C. Medial condyle of tibia posterior superior margin by dislocation of hip
D. Head of fibula joint, which of the following bones could be
E. Neck of fibula involved?
A. Ischium
6. Which of the following muscles is also B. Sacrum
known as peripheral heart? C. Ilium
A. Soleus B. Plantaris D. Head of femur
C. Popliteus D. Gastrocnemius E. Pubis
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
13. A 50-year old man was given an antibiotic 20. Anterior dislocation of femur on tibia
course by intramuscular gluteal injection (IM) damages which ligament?
after a major surgery. To avoid sciatic nerve A. Anterior cruciate ligament
injury, the needle should be inserted into which B. Posterior cruciate ligament
area? C. Collateral ligament
A. Lower medial quadrant of gluteal region D. Both anterior and posterior
B. Over the sacrospinous ligament E. Deltoid ligament
C. Midway between ischial tuberosity and
the lesser Trochanter 21. A 30 year old female presented to ER after
D. Upper lateral quadrant of gluteal region accident with short left leg and rotated laterally.
E. Midpoint of gemelli muscles What is the cause?
A. Hip dislocation
14. Which of the following bones is also called B. Inferior gluteal nerve damage
“shin bone”? C. Superior gluteal nerve damage
A. Fibula D. Femoral neck fracture
B. Tibia
C. Femur 22. Gluteus maximus:
D. Radius A. Covers piriformis
B. Arises from gluteal tubercle
15. The largest tarsal bone in the foot is: C. Supplied by inferior gluteal nerve
A. Cuboid D. Supplied by superior gluteal nerve
B. Talus
C. Calcaneus 23. A 23-year old athlete ran for his match
D. Navicular practice. He felt some pain in leg and next day
noticed some swelling around the ankle. It was
16. Which of the following tarsal bones although painful but was able to stand on toes.
articulates with the leg bones? Which muscle helps him to stand on toes?
A. Calcaneus A. Plantaris B. Achilles
B. Cuneiform C. Popliteus D. Soleus
C. Navicular
D. Talus 24. An old man falls from the bed and got a
fracture on the neck of femur. Cause of
17. The most common site of tibial fracture is: osteoporosis is:
A. Middle and inferior thirds A. Poor diet
B. Superior 1/3rd B. Decrease blood supply
C. Superior and middle thirds C. Old age
D. Inferior 1/3rd D. Hormonal insufficiency
18. Which vascular part of fibula is used for 25. Fracture of acetabulum posterolaterally
bone graft? leads to which bones fracture?
A. Middle B. Upper A. Pubis B. Sacrum
C. Lateral D. Medial C. Ischium and ilium
D. Pubic symphysis
19. Sprained ankle from excessive eversion
most likely demonstrates which structure is 26. Which of the following is not attached to
damaged? greater Trochanter?
A. Talofibular ligament A. Gluteus maximus
B. Deltoid ligament B. Gluteus medius
C. Tendon Calcaneus C. Gluteus minimus
D. Interosseous ligament D. Obturator internus
E. Piriformis
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
27. A patient comes to a doctor because he 29. Which of the following ligament limit
had difficulty in standing and had a waddling extension of hip joint?
gait. Which nerve is most likely to have been A. Pubofemoral
damaged? B. Iliofemoral
A. Sciatic nerve C. Ischiofemoral
B. Femoral nerve D. Hamstring muscle
C. Obturator nerve E. Abdominal wall
D. Superior gluteal nerve
30. Structure from medial to lateral in femoral
28. Foot drop involves which nerve? triangle is:
A. Common peroneal nerve A. Nerve, artery and vein
B. Femoral nerve B. Vein, artery and nerve
C. Genitofemoral nerve C. Nerve, vein and artery
D. Tibial nerve D. None
ANSWER KEY
1. D. The TFL originates from the anterior 8. C. The round head of femur makes up to two
superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the anterior thirds of a sphere that is covered with articular
aspect of the iliac crest and descends between cartilage, except for a medially placed
and is attached to the deep fascia and the depression or pit, the fovea for the ligament of
superficial fascia of the IT (iliotibial tract) band. the head.
2. B. Club-foot is a common developmental 9. D. Located on the anteromedial side of leg,
disorder of the lower limb. It is defined as nearly parallel to the fibula,, the tibia is the
fixation of the foot in adduction, in supination second largest bone in the body.
and in varus, i.e. inclined inwards, axially 10. A. The site where the neck and shaft is
rotated outwards and pointing downwards. indicated by the Intertrochanteric line, a
3. B. Behind the medial malleolus structures roughened ridge formed by attachment of a
that pass are: tibialis posterior tendon, flexor powerful ligament.
digitorum longus tendons, tibial nerve, flexor 11. D. The chief arterial supply to the head of
hallucis longus and posterior tibial artery. femur is from the branches of the medial
4. B. The deep peroneal nerve can be injured femoral circumflex artery. The lateral femoral
in the area of the fibula head, where it lies circumflex artery may supply the femoral head
superficially. Compartment syndrome in the by anastomosing with the medial femoral
lower leg can also lead to tibial or peroneal circumflex artery. The posterior branch of the
nerve injuries, depending on the compartment Obturator artery give rise to artery of head of
affected. femur. The superior and inferior gluteal arteries
5. E. Common peroneal nerve passes forwards donot supply the head of femur.
around the neck of the fibula within the 12. C. The acetabulum is a cup-shaped cavity
substance of fibularis (peroneus) longus, on the lateral side of hip bone and is formed
where it terminates by dividing into the superiorly by the ilium, posteroinferiorly by the
superficial and deep fibular (peroneal) nerves. Ischium, and anteromedially by the pubis. The
The nerve can be palpated behind the head of sacrum and the head of femur donot
the fibula and as it winds around the neck of participate in the formation of the acetabulum.
the fibula. 13. D. To avoid damaging the sciatic nerve
6. A. The Soleus is responsible for pumping during an intramuscular injection, the clinician
venous blood back into the heart from the should insert the needle in the upper lateral
periphery, and is often called the skeletal quadrant of the gluteal region.
muscle pump and peripheral heart. 14. B. Fact
7. B. Greater Trochanter is a part of femur.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
15. C. The Calcaneus is the largest tarsal bone 23. A. Able to stand ---> Plantaris
and lies underneath the talus where it Can’t stand ---> Achilles
constitutes the heel. It has two articulations: 24. D. Post menopausal Osteoporosis is
Superiorly – subtalar (talocalcaneal) joint – mainly due to deficiency of hormone estrogen
between the Calcaneus and the talus. as age progresses.
16. D. The talus forms the connecting bone 25. C. The bones present posterior to
between the leg and foot. It articulates with the acetabulum are ilium and Ischium so most
tibia and fibula superomedially and likely to be damaged.
superolaterally to form the talocrural joint 26. A. The gluteus maximus does not insert on
(ankle joint) and inferiorly with the Calcaneus the greater trochanter. It inserts on the gluteal
forming the subtalar joint and navicular to form tuberosity and lateral femur.
the talocalcaneonavicular joint. 27. D. Difficulty in standing from sitting --->
17. A. The tibial shaft is narrowest at the gluteus maximus damage (inferior gluteal
junction of its middle and inferior thirds, which nerve)
is the most frequent site of fracture. Waddling gait ---> gluteus medius and minimus
18. A. Fact damage (superior gluteal nerve)
19. B. This injury typically occurs with an 28. A. The most common cause of foot drop
eversion injury that results in a tear of is peroneal nerve injury. This nerve is also
the deltoid ligament or medial malleolar called the fibular nerve is a branch of the
fracture. The forced eversion causes a sciatic nerve. It supplies movement and
complete disruption of the tibiofibular sensation to the lower leg, foot, and toes.
syndesmosis and fracture of the proximal Conditions that affect the nerves and muscles
fibula. in the body can lead to foot drop.
20. B. ACL injured ---> anterior dislocation of 29. B. Abduction of hip joint limited by --->
tibia or posterior dislocation of femur Pubofemoral ligament
PCL injured ---> posterior dislocation of tibia or Extension of hip joint limited by ---> iliofemoral
anterior dislocation of femur ligament
21. D. Femoral neck fractures may present Flexion of hip joint with knee extended is
with a shortened and externally rotated lower limited by ---> hamstring muscles
limb. Flexion of hip joint with knee flexed is limited
22. C. Superior gluteal nerve innervates by ---> anterior abdominal wall
gluteus medius and minimus. Gluteus maximus 30. B. VAN ---> medial to lateral “vein, artery
originates from between anterior and posterior and nerve”
gluteal lines.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
11. While demonstrating about joints of 16. Patient presented in the Emergency Room
thoracic cage to students, Teacher told undergoing through the swear injury in the
students that a typical rib articulates posteriorly thoracic region. The doctor advised the
with the vertebral column at two joints; students to do the surgical creation of an
A) Joints of heads of ribs opening through the thoracic wall to enter a
+Costotransverse joints pleural cavity this procedure is called as?
B) Joints of heads of ribs+Costovertebral joints A) Tracheostomy
C) Costovertebral joints and Costochondral B) Thoracotomy
joints C) Pleurotomy
D) Costochondral joints +Costotransverse
joints 17. Considering the scenario explained in the
previous question to perform the
12. The type of joint between lateral end of posterior thoracotomy, the most satisfactory
costal cartilages and sternal end of ribs at approach or incisions should be at the level
which no movement normally occurs is; of?
A) Symphysis A) 5th-7th Vertebra
B) Synovial plane joint B) 5th -7th Intercostal spaces
C) Synchondrosis C) 4th-8th Intercostal spaces
13. The flat articular surfaces of tubercles and 18. Cervical ribs are relatively common in 0.
transverse processes of the 7th to 10th ribs 52% of people and may interfere with neuro
allow gliding resulting in elevation and vascular structures exiting the superior thoracic
depression of the lateral most portions of these aperture. Resection maybe required to relieve
ribs in the transverse plane results into which pressure on these structures, which can be
movement? performed through;
A) Pump handle movement A) Transaxiallary approach
B) Bucket handle movement B) Thoracotomy
C) None of these C) Tracheostomy
D) Both A and B D) Flial chest
14. The patient presented in ER after road 19. An old female in early 40s presented in
accident, the nurse assumed that his first rib is Emergency Room having pain and presence of
fractured. But the doctor told her that it is rarely hard lump in the pit of her stomach(epigastric
fractured b/c of fossa). As a surgeon what you will call this?
A) Its protected location A) Benign tumor
B) Its attachments B) Ossified Xiohoid process
C) Its curved structure C) Paralysed muscles
D) Its hardness
20. Road traffic accidents are common
15. The clinical condition in which multiple nowadays. A boy in his 30s was driving an
fractured rib segments of the wall move automobile and was involved in an automobile
paradoxically inwards on inspiration and accident and his chest was forced into the
outwards on expiration is called as; steering column .He had pain in his thoracic
A) Flial chest region due to crush injury, x-ray will show?
B) Pigeon chest A) Heart Rupture
C) HORSE Chest B) Sternal fractures
D) Inverted chest C) Vertebral fractures
D) Huneral fractures
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
21. Among following muscles which one is 26. Which thoracic nerve gives the large lateral
used to elevate the RIBS? cutaneous branch that is intercostobrachial
A) Serratus posterior Inferior nerve that usually supplies the floor, skin and
B) Serratus posterior Superior subcutaneous tissue of the axilla and medial
C) Transversus thoracics side of arm?
D) Internal Intercostals A) T2 and sometimes T3
B) T3 and sometimes T4
22. A person came to OPD and explained his C) T4 and sometimes T5
condition of being facing difficulty in elevating
ribs /during inspiration. After checkup Dr. told 27. Intercostal arteries course through the
him that the muscle having 12 fan shaped thoracic wall between the ribs. Each space
parts is paralyzed. Which of the following is bring supplied by 3 arteries. Regarding
this? posterior intercostal arteries, 1st and 2nd
A) Serratus posterior inferior Intercostal arteries arise from the;
B) Serratus posterior superior A) Superior Intercostal artery
C) Transversus thoracics B) Cistocervical trunk
D) Levators costarum C) Subclavian artery
D) All of these
23. The thoracic wall is lined internally with
endothoracic fascia. While the pectoral 28. The internal thoracic arteries arise in the
facia forms a major part of the bed of breast. root of neck from inferior surfaces of first part
Another layer deep to the pectoralis major of subclavein arteries and terminates in
muscle and its facia suspended from the the................... By dividing into the superior
clavicle is; epigastric and musculophrenic arteries.
A) Pectoral Fascia A) 4th IC space
B) Sibson's facia B) 5th IC space
C) Clavipectoral facia C) 6th IC space
D) 7th IC space
24. The 3rd-6th intercostal nerves enter the
medial most parts of the posterior intercostal 29. A patient came on OPD and he was having
spaces in the endothoracic facia .Near the difficulties in breathing and was using
angles of the ribs the nerves passes between; accessory respiratory muscles. This clinical
A) Endothoracic facia and external Intercostals pathological condition is called as;
B) Endothoracic facia and internal Intercostals A) Dyspnea
C) External and internal Intercostals B) Dysartharia
D) Internal Intercostals and innermost C) Apnea
Intercostals D) Tachypnea
25. Although the anterior ramus of most 30. A patient in ER had burning pain in the
thoracic spinal nerves is simply the intercostal dermatome supplied by the nerve involved in
nerve of that level. The anterior ramus of the viral infection of ganglion of that level. There
first thoracic spinal nerve first divides into a were dermatomically distributed skin lesions,
large superior and the small inferior part. shingles and pain b/c of reaction of
WHICH one of the following parts joins the VARICELLA ZOSTER VIRUS causing;
brachial plexus supplying the upper limb? A) Herpes Zoster
A) The superior part B) Hepatitis
B) The inferior part C) Dyspnea
C) The lateral part D) Klumpkes paralysis
D) All of these
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
A) Embedding
5. The most commonly used microscope by the B) Sectioning
students and research workers is; C) Staining
A) Confocal microscope D) Fixation
B) Dark field microscope
C) Bright field microscope 12. The most commonly used fixative is;
D) Phase contrast microscope A) Picric acid
B) Osmium tetroxide
6. Bright field microscope is generally consists C) Glyoxal
of ____ components; D) Formalin
A) Four B) Five
C) Six D) Seven 13. The most commonly used embedding
agent;
7. Which objective lens is called oil immersion A) Epoxy resin
objective; B) Carbowax
A) 4 B) 10 C) Paraffin wax
C) 40 D) 100 D) Methacrylate
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
14. Which of the following is a basic dye; 21. The major action of _____ is to bring about
A) Orange G B) Hematoxylin stabilization of proteins by causing the
C) Acid fuchsin D) Eosin formation of cross links between protein
molecules.
15. Which of the following is an acidic dye; A) Fixative
A) Toluidine blue B) Embedding agent
B) Methylene blue C) Dye
C) Hematoxylin D) Paraffin wax
D) Eosin
22. The purpose of embedding is to _____ the
16. The basophilic substances which attract tissue;
basic dye are themselves _____ in nature; A) Soften
A) Acidic B) Basic B) Harden
C) Neutral D) Amphoteric C) Stain
D) Stabilize
17. The cytoplasm of cell generally stains;
A) Acidophilic B) Basophilic 23. The function of condenser lens is;
C) Neutral D) None of these A) Produce a beam of light
B) Focus the light
18. Which of the following stain is combination C) Gather the light
of acidic and basic dye; D) None of these
A) H&E B) Orange G
C) Pictric acid D) Methylene blue 24. In ______ microscope, fluorescent
compounds have affinity for specific cell
19. By H&E staining technique, the acidophilic components are used as stains.
substances take a _____ color; A) Polarizing microscope
A) Blue to purple B) Confocal microscope
B) Brown to black C) Stereo microscope
C) Pinkish to reddish D) Fluorescent microscope
D) Yellow to orange
25. If two ocular lens (eyepiece lens) are
20. By H&E staining technique, the basophilic present then the microscope is called;
substances take a _____ color; A) Monocular microscope
A) Blue to purple B) Binocular microscope
B) Brown to black C) Electron microscope
C) Pinkish to reddish D) Polarizing microscope
D) Yellow to orange
ANSWER KEY
1. B. Magnification of a microscope means its 3. B. Resolution is inversely related to
ability to enlarge the image of the object being wavelength of source of illumination employed,
viewed. i.e. shorter the wavelength, greater the
2. A. Resolution of a microscope implies its resolution.
ability to allow the observer to distinguish 4. C. The light microscope is also called optical
between two small objects situated close microscope which uses visible light to make an
together. image.
5. C. Bright field microscope is most commonly
used by students and research workers.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
6. B. Five components of bright field 16. A. The nucleus of cell takes a basic stain
microscope are; light source (illuminator), becz itself it contains acid (DNA and RNA).
condenser lens, stage, objective lens, ocular Similarly, acidophilic substances are
lens. themselves basic in nature and therefore,
7. D. Four objective lenses are usually make bond which acidic dyes.
available in a microscope. Out of these, first 17. A. The cytoplasm of cells stains acidophilic
three magnify the image 4, 10 and 40 times. becz the constituent proteins of cytosol are rich
The fourth one enlarges the image 100 times in basic amino acids.
and is called oil immersion objective. 18. A. H&E is a combination of basic dye
8. C. Oil immersion is a technique used to (hematoxylin) and acidic dye (eosin).
enhance the resolving power of light 19. C. Pinkish to reddish color e.g. cytosol of
microscope. cell.
9. C. Resolving power of commonly used bright 20. A. Light blue to deep blue or purple e.g.
field microscope is about 0.2 micro meter and it nucleus of cell.
can magnify the images 1000 – 1500 times. 21. A. Action of fixative.
10. A. The high resolving and magnifying 22. B. After hardening, tissue has a
power of electron microscope allows study of consistency that permits it to be sectioned
structure of body tissues at subcellular level together with the tissue piece.
(ultra structures or fine structures). 23. B. The condenser lens focuses the light on
11. B. 4 steps in tissue preparation are; specimen to be examined.
fixation, embedding, sectioning, staining. 24. D. In fluorescent microscope, fluorescent
12. D. Formalin is most commonly used. components having affinity for specific cell
13. C. Paraffin wax is most commonly used. components are used as stain e.g. the
14. B. The commonly used basic dyes include fluorescent stain acridine orange binds with
hematoxylin, toluidine blue, and methylene DNA & RNA.
blue. 25. B. Only one ocular lens is present in
15. D. The acidic dyes which are in common monocular microscopes, whereas binocular
use include eosin, acid fuchsin, orange G, and has two ocular lenses.
picric acid.
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
5. The formation of primordial germ cells 11. Where does fertilization typically occur in
occurs during which week of embryonic humans?
development? A. Uterus
A. 2nd week B. 4th week B. Fallopian tube
C. 6th week D. 8th week C. Cervix
D. Vagina
6. Which of the following is responsible for the
maintenance of male germ line stem cells? 12. After ejaculation, sperm cells undergo a
A. Sertoli cells process called capacitation. What is the
B. Leydig cells purpose of capacitation?
C. Granulosa cells A. Activation of sperm motility
D. Theca cells B. Maturation of spermatozoa
C. Development of acrosomal enzymes
7. Which hormone stimulates spermatogenesis D. Enhanced ability to penetrate the oocyte
in males?
A. Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 13. Which of the following is essential for
B. Luteinizing hormone (LH) successful fertilization to occur?
C. Gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) A. Fusion of pronuclei
D. Testosterone B. Formation of polar bodies
C. Implantation in the endometrium
D. Maturation of the corpus luteum
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
14. How many chromosomes are present in a 22. In human, the time required for a
mature human gamete? spermatogonium to develop into a mature
A. 23 B. 46 spermatozoon is approximately
C. 69 D. 92 A. 75 days
B. 73 days
15. The acrosome reaction is triggered by C. 74 days
contact between the sperm and which structure D. Vary from person to person
of the oocyte?
A. Zona pellucida 23. Approximately how many sperms are
B. Granulosa cells formed per day?
C. Cumulus oophorus A. 350 million B. 280 million
D. Corpus luteum C. 400 million D. 300 million
16. After fertilization, the zygote undergoes 24. Shortly before puberty, the sex cords
rapid cell divisions. What is this process acquire a lumen and become the
called? A. Seminiferous tubules
A. Cleavage B. Gastrulation B. Vas deferens
C. Organogenesis D. Differentiation C. Epididymis
D. Urogenital tract
17. In humans, fertilization usually takes place
within how many hours after ovulation? 25. During maturation phases of sperm,
A. 12-24 hours B. 24-48 hours sperms are embedded in cytoplasm of which
C. 48-72 hours D. 72-96 hours cells
A. Sustentacular cells B. Sertoli cells
18. Which of the following is responsible for C. Leydig cells D. Both A and B
preventing fertilization by multiple sperm?
A. Cortical reaction 26. One spermatogonia generates how many
B. Acrosome reaction mature spermatozoa
C. Zona reaction A. 4 mature sperms
D. Implantation reaction B. Variable
C. 2 mature sperms +2 polar bodies
19. The union of sperm and egg during D. 1 mature sperm + 3 polar bodies
fertilization restores the diploid number of
chromosomes. How many chromosomes are 27. At birth, germ cells in the male infant can
present in the zygote? be recognized in which cords
A. 23 B. 46 A. Sex cords B. Epididymis
C. 69 D. 92 C. Vas deferens D. Penis
20. Following fertilization, the zygote 28. Process of spermatogenesis starts at:
undergoes mitotic divisions and forms a solid A. At puberty
ball of cells known as: B. At birth
A. Morula B. Blastocyst C. During intrauterine life
C. Trophoblast D. Inner cell mass D. At childhood
21. Process through which spermatids are 29. By seeing which characters you can say it
converted to mature sperm is called a mature sperm:
A. Spermatogenesis A. Having condensed nucleus
B. Spermiogensis B. Haploid number of cells
C. Puberty C. Possess tail
D. Secondary character of male D. Only A and C
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
ANSWER KEY
1. A) Spermatogenesis 8. B) The process of oocyte maturation and
2. B) Meiosis || development is primarily regulated by
3. D) 4 functional sperm cells are produced Luteinizing hormone (LH)
from each primary spermatocyte 9. A) Corpus luteum is derived from the
4. A) In humans, meiosis in oogenesis is remnants of the Graffian follicle after
initiated during Pre-implantation of ovulation
embryonic development 10. A) In humans, both spermatogenesis and
5. C) The formation of primordial germ cells oogenesis result in the formation of
occurs during 6th week of embryonic gametes with 23 chromosomes each
development 11. B) In Humans fertilization typically occurs
6. A) Sertoli cells is responsible for the in Fallopian tube
maintenance of male germ line stem cells 12. D) After ejaculation, sperm cells undergo a
7. A) Follicle stimulating hormone process called capacitation. The purpose of
(FSH) stimulates spermatogenesis in capacitation is Enhanced ability to
males penetrate the oocyte
ANATOMY MCQ’S BOOK BY DRS OF 2027-28
13. A) Fusion of pronuclei is essential for 25. D) During maturation phases of sperm,
successful fertilization to occur sperms are embedded in cytoplasm
14. A) 23 chromosomes are present in a of Sustentacular and sertoli cells
mature human gamete 26. A) One spermatogonia generates how 4
15. A) The acrosome reaction is triggered by mature spermatozoa/sperms
contact between the sperm and zona 27. A) At birth, germ cells in the male infant
pellucida of the oocyte can be recognized in sex cords
16. A) After fertilization, the zygote undergoes 28. A) Process of spermatogenesis starts at
rapid cell divisions this process is called puberty
cleavage 29. D) By seeing condensed nucleus and tail
17. A) In humans, fertilization usually takes we can say it as mature sperm
place within 12-24 hours after ovulation 30. A) Spermatogenesis is regulated by
18. C) Zona reaction is responsible for production of Luteinizing hormone
preventing fertilization by multiple sperm19. 31. A) Oogonia is Diploid
19. B) The union of sperm and egg during 32. D) in mitotic division there is no
fertilization restores the diploid number of variablity,chromosome no is same in
chromosomes.46 chromosomes are daughter cells andthere is no crossing over
present in the zygote 33. A) Zona pellucida is Glycoprotein
20. A) Following fertilization, the zygote 34. D) Oogenesis starts during intra-uterine life
undergoes mitotic divisions and forms a 35. A) A primary oocyte together with its
solid ball ofcells known as Morula surrounding flat epithelial cells is known as
21. B) Process through which spermatids are a primordial follicle
converted to mature sperm is 36. A) Exploid refers to any exact multiple of
called Spermiogensis 1n
22. C) In human, the time required for a 37. C) Trisomy 21 (Down syndrome) is caused
spermatogonium to develop into a mature by one extra copy of 21st chromosome
spermatozoon is approximately 74 days 38. D) in meiosis crossing over occurs, genetic
23. D) Approximately 300 million sperms are variablity increases, and random
formed per day distribution of homologous chromosomes
24. A) Shortly before puberty, the sex cords 39. B) Meiosis II is completed only if
acquire a lumen and become the Fertilization occurs
Seminiferous tubules 40. D) Zona pellucida is secreted by Cumulus
oophorus and Primary oocyte