RECALLS 7 – NP2

SITUATION:
Arlian, a nursing student, is reviewing for her finals examination next week. She wants to master the
Reproductive organ. The following questions are pertaining to its anatomy.
1. During coitus, there are glands that release secretions to lubricate the external genitalia. What do you call
the glands located on each side of the vaginal opening?

A. Bartholin gland
B. Cowper’s gland
C. Skene gland
D. Prostate gland
2. The nurse knows that the structure that conveys the ovum from the ovaries to the uterus is the fallopian
tube. Which of the following is true about the isthmus part of the fallopian tube?

A. It is the most proximal part of the tube that lies within the uterine wall
B. This part is cut during childbirth to enlarge the vaginal opening
C. It is where fertilization of an ovum usually occurs
D. It is extremely narrow where tubal sterilization is done
3. The spermatic cord, protected by a thick fibrous coating that serves as the pathway for sperm is comprised
of:

A. Ductus deferens, arteries and veins

B. Prostate gland, cowper’s gland and vas deferens
C. Seminal vesicle, epididymis and vas deferens
D. Vas deferens, cowper’s gland and seminal vesicle
4. Spermatogenesis is the production of sperm to maintain a fixed number of chromosomes of every human
being. Spermatozoa is produced in the testes. Which among the following is true about its complex sequence
of events?

A. FSH is responsible for the release of testosterone from the testes

B. LH is responsible for the release of androgen-binding protein (ABP)
C. LH and FSH are only released in females for their menstruation
D. ABP and testosterone promotes sperm formation
5. Patient XYZ went for a laboratory test to check for his sperm count. Analysis revealed that the number of
his sperm in one ejaculation is approximately 15 million. The nurse knows that is:

a. Aspermia
b. Oligospermia
c. Normal
d. Hyperspermia
SITUATION:
As the fetus grows, body organ systems develop from specific tissue layers. Knowing these is helpful
to know because coexisting congenital disorders found in newborns usually arise from the same germ
layer.
6. Which among the Germ layers that forms the brain and spinal cord?

a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Epidermis
7. Heart is the muscle at the center of the circulatory system that pumps blood around the body as it beats.
The nurse is aware that it is from which germ layer?

a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Epidermis
8. The trachea and esophagus arise from the same germ layer which makes it common for a birth anomaly
such as fistula to occur between them. Which germ layer it arises from?

a. Ectoderm
b. Mesoderm
c. Endoderm
d. Epidermis
9. Krizzia, a pregnant client, is currently working in a company. She tells the nurse that she has to work
because her husband’s income is not enough to sustain their everyday needs. She asks the nurse how she
can prevent fetal teratogens.

a. Avoid any room where smoker gathers

b. Refrain from drinking alcohol
c. Ask employer for a statement on hazardous substances at work site
d. AOTA
SITUATION:
There is a 1.47% increase of population in the Philippines in 2022. Family Planning Health program was
held in a hospital where topics about contraceptives is discussed. Nurse Totimar is on duty and she
encountered the following questions:
10. Jana went to the clinic and confirmed with the nurse about the use of diaphragm. She should be instructed
to leave it in place after coitus for at least how many hours?

a. 1 hour
b. 6 hours
c. 12 hours
d. 24 hours
11. A 38 year old female, with 4 children, came to the clinic and inquired about her options for contraception
methods. She also stated that she smokes a pack of cigarettes a day. The nurse advised her to avoid:

a. Oral contraceptives
b. IUD
c. Cervical cap
d. Diaphragm
12. Carla, a 19-year-old working student, was trembling. She told the nurse she forgot to take her prescribed
active contraceptive pills for two consecutive days. She started crying and asked the nurse what to do. The
nurse should instruct:

a. Ignore it, take one now and use other contraceptive such as spermicide for a month
b. Take two pills now then continue tomorrow with your usual schedule
c. Throw out the rest of the pack and start a new pack of pills
d. Let’s inform the physician.
13. Carol consults the nurse because her 16-year-old daughter asks her how she can avoid the pressure of
unwanted sex? The nurse should not suggests:

a. Tell the daughter to discuss it with her partner which sexual activities will permit or not
b. Be certain that her partner understands that when she say “NO”, she means it
c. Avoid being in a high-pressure situations such as a party with known drug use
d. Tell her daughter that accepting drugs is fine if she is with her close friends
14. The nurse is teaching the client about a natural family planning method which is the basal body
temperature method. The woman does not need any further teaching when she states that:

a. “Sa araw ng ovulation ko ay tataas ng 1°C ang temperature ko”

b. “Iche-check ko ang temperature ko sa umaga pagkatapos ko mag exercise”
c. “Kapag bumaba po ang temperature ko tapos kinabukasan biglang tumaas, dapat hindi ako makipagtalik
hanggang dalawang araw pagkatapos ito tumaas”
d. “Kapag paiba-iba ang oras ng gising ko, makakaapekto ito sa BBT method”
15. The mucus of the uterine cervix changes in structure and consistency each month during a menstrual
cycle. Which assessment of cervical mucus suggests that the woman is about to ovulate?

i. Scant cervical mucus

ii. (+) Spinnbarkeit

iii. Highly viscous cervical mucus

iv. (+) Ferning

a. i, ii, iii, iv
b. ii, iii, iv
c. i, ii, iv
d. ii, iv
SITUATION
Nurse Lilian is working in Guimaras Primary Health Care where routine laboratory tests is done for
pregnant client. She knows that Routine laboratory tests are performed to identify conditions that may
increase the probability of complications during pregnancy. The following questions apply:
16. Maryrose, a 22-week pregnant client, is scheduled for an amniocentesis. Which of the following nursing
instructions should be given to the client?

a. Position the patient in a sitting position to better access the fluid

b. Void immediately before the procedure
c. Drink 2-3 full glasses of water prior to the amniocentesis and void after the procedure
d. X-ray will be used to guide the procedure
17. Judy, a 23-year old primigravida is scheduled for an alpha-fetoprotein test. She asks the nurse for the
indication of the test and what the medical professional is trying to detect. The nurse correctly answers:

a. Kidney defects
b. Respiratory Defects
c. Cardiac Defects
d. Chromosomal Defects
18. Judy, still being anxious, feels sorry and says it is her first time. She is curious on how AFP is being
obtained?

a. Cervical secretions
b. Chorionic villi blood sample
c. Maternal blood sample
d. Abdominal ultrasound
19. Angela is in her first trimester. She is too excited to know the gender of her baby and asks when is the
earliest month that her baby’s gender will be determined. The nurse responds:

a. 2 months by an ultrasound
b. 4 months by an ultrasound
c. 7 months by an ultrasound
d. It is impossible. The gender is known after birth
20. Biophysical profile scoring combines five parameters in checking the overall well-being of the fetus. Among
the parameters, which is not assessed using a sonogram?

a. Fetal breathing
b. Fetal Tone
c. Fetal Heart reactivity
d. Amniotic fluid volume
21. Pretchelle, a 36 weeks in gestation is scheduled for a routine ultrasound prior to an amniocentesis. After
teaching Pretchelle about the purpose for the ultrasound, when you were validating her understanding which of
the following statements would indicate that Pretchelle needs further instruction?

A. “the test will determine where to insert the needle"

B. "the ultrasound locates a pool of amniotic fluid"
C. "the ultrasound will help to locate the placenta"
D. "the ultrasound identifies blood flow through the umbilical cord"
22. The mother received the results of her ultrasound and it indicates that there is a less than the usual amount
of amniotic fluid present. The nurse knows that oligohydramnios is not related to:

a. It suggests extreme prematurity

b. It may result to umbilical cord compression
c. It is related to poor flexion in fetal attitude
d. The pockets of amniotic fluid is around 20-24
SITUATION:
Infancy is designated as the period of time from 1 month to 1 year of age. The nurse works in an OB-
Gyne & delivery room knows that infants undergo such rapid development.
23. Baby Juju, a 1-year-old infant weighs 22.5lbs. If the infant gains weight normally, the nurse knows that
Juju’s weight when she was 6 months is:

A. 11.25lbs
B. 15 lbs
C. 7.5 lbs
D. 16.5 lbs
24. When the nurse is assigned to admitting neonates in the nursery. She makes it into a point to wear her
gloves carefully. This action is based on what scientific knowledge?
a. Meconium contains enteric bacteria which may be a cause for infection
b. The urine of infant is so alkaline which is very harmful to the skin
c. The baby is at high risk for infection and must be protected at all times
d. Amniotic fluid may contain harmful viruses
25 The attending physician has ordered to give Vitamin K 0.5mg IM for a newborn. The nurse checked the
stocks of available medication and found a vial with 2mg/mL label. The nurse calculates and give the correct
dose as:

a. 1mL
b. 0.25mL
c. 4mL
d. 0.5mL
26. When the nurse checked the 8-hour-old neonate, she assessed the hands and feets bluish in color. The
nurse is knowledgeable when she does what action?

a. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula

b. Swaddle the baby in a blanket
c. Inform the physician and ask for a possible incubator
d. Apply pulse oximeter to check for oxygen saturation
27. The postpartum mother asks the nurse if she should have their son circumcised. Which piece of scientific
information should the nurse base her answer on?

a. Boys should be circumcised because it is in the Philippine culture

b. A statement from the DOH asserts that circumcision is highly personal
c. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) experts endorse circumcision for every male newborns.
d. Circumcision is not yet allowed in newborns and should not be talked about.
28. A 1-day old baby of Mr. and Mrs. Reyes is being assessed by the nurse. Which of the following findings
should be reported to the doctor?

a. Harlequin sign
b. Erythema Toxicum
c. Choanal atresia
d. Epstein pearls
29. Trevor is for a laboratory test to check his respiratory status with acute asthma exacerbation. The nurse
has a scientific knowledge if she knows the result is from:

a. CBC
b. SGPT
c. ABG
d. CBG
30. Casey, a 4-year-old child is scheduled for breathing exercises. The goal is for her to increase her
expiratory phase? What is the appropriate task?

a. Use an incentive spirometer

b. Taking several deep breaths
c. Breathe into a paper bag
d. Blow a pinwheel
31. The mother of a child with asthma is confused with the prescription given by the doctor and says there are
a lot of medications for asthma. She asks which of the following medications has a quick relief when there is an
asthma attack?

a. Fluticasone
b. Prednisone
c. Montelukast
d. Albuterol
32. A 6-year-old child was rushed to the emergency department due to difficulty breathing.The most important
piece of information that would indicate that a child is in status asthmaticus is?

a. When is the child’s last meal?

b. When was the child’s last dose of medication?
c. What was the child’s last activity when asthma triggers?
d. When was the child last admitted?
33. Four primigravida clients went to the clinic and were assessed accordingly by the nurse on duty. Which
among the gravid clients should the nurse refer for further assessment?

a. 30 weeks’ gestation complains of supine hypotension

b. 9 weeks’ gestation complains of pyrosis with nausea and vomiting
c. 36 weeks’ gestation complains of hemorrhoids and bleeding gums
d. 34 week’s gestation complains of epigastric pain and oliguria
34. Nilda, A 37-week pregnant client, told the nurse about changes in her body, she states that her face and
hands look swollen. The nurse knows that this might be cause of:

a. Cardiac failure
b. Hepatic insufficiency
c. Pulmonary problem
d. Altered glomerular filtration
35. Nilda is diagnosed to have mild-preeclampsia. The pediatrician was worried for the fetus and asked for
diagnostic tests. The nurse knows because preeclamptic gravid clients may cause what effect on the fetus?

a. IUGR
b. HELLP
c. DIC
d. PDA
36. Nilda became conscious on her diet and asks the nurse on what she should consume to manage her
diagnosis of mild-preeclampsia. The nurse is correct when she states:

a. Restrict sodium intake

b. Avoid foods high in sugar
c. Increase oral fluid intake
d. Consume a well-balanced diet
37. Nilda was given discharge instruction about having to be on bedrest at home and questions why she has to
comply? The nurse responds with scientific basis that:

a. Bed Rest prevents you from falling while you are walking
b. Bed Rest helps in conserving enough energy for the upcoming labor
c. Bed Rest prevents premature labor from occurring
d. Bed Rest helps in increasing amount of oxygen receive by the fetus
38. Regina, a 22-year-old gravid client, told the nurse her concern and said “Napapansin ko po na parang
napapadalas ang pagbabara ang ilong ko. Wala naman po akong allergy”. The nurse knows that it is due to:

a. Increased progesterone levels

b. Increased estrogen levels
c. Increased hCG levels
d. Increased testosterone levels
39. It is noted in Regina’s assessment that she is having a mild feeling of shortness of breath. The nurse’s
recalls in her maternal and child nursing class that it is due to the diaphragm being displaced by increasing
size of the uterus. The following are the respiratory changes during pregnancy except:

a. Vital capacity does not decrease and has no change during pregnancy
b. Gravid client develops chronic respiratory alkalosis fully compensated by a chronic metabolic acidosis
c. Tidal volume is increased up to 40% as a woman draws in deeper breaths
d. Residual volume is increased up to 20% because of the pressure from the diaphragm
40. Luna, a 9th week pregnant client, is experiencing morning sickness. All of the following is related to the
normal nausea and vomiting in early pregnancy. Which is not included?

i. Due to Increasing hCG levels

ii. Due to decreasing glucose levels being used by growing fetus

iii. It usually subsides after the first 3 trimester

iv. Eating a snack before bedtime may help in preventing nausea

v. Notify physician if vomits more than once daily

a. i, ii, v
b. i only
c. i, ii, iii, iv, v
d. i, ii, iv, v
41. Marga’s pre-pregnancy weight is 68 kilograms and she is 5 ’4’’ in height. She is advised to gain how much
additional weight in her pregnancy?

a. 25 - 35 lbs
b. 15 - 25 lbs
c. 28 - 40 lbs
d. 25 - 42 lbs
42. Genesis went together with her BFF, Cassy, who is also pregnant with a pre-pregnancy weight of 121 lbs
with 5’7 in height. In Cassy’s case, she is to gain weight how much additional weight, as advised, in her
pregnancy?

a. 25 - 35 lbs
b. 15 - 25 lbs
c. 28 - 40 lbs
d. 25 - 42 lbs
43. Marga asks if she is taking enough vitamins for the growth and health of her baby and raised a concern
about folic acid. The Recommended amounts of folic acid daily to be taken during pregnancy is?

a. 0.4 mg daily
b. 40 µg daily
c. 400 mg daily
d. 4 g daily
44. Marga is concerned about her weight and how she will be able to achieve the recommended gain in her
entire pregnancy. She asks the nurse about nutrition advice. The nurse should include:

a. Obtain simple carbohydrates because it is easily digestible

b. Consume sugar substitutes to maintain glucose levels
c. Consume less than 1,500 calories per day to help regulate the weight gain
d. Advise to consume protein-rich foods
45. Lisa is communicating about the nutrition of the pregnant woman. She wants to gather information that will
give the most accurate nutrition history about the patient. She will ask:

a. How do you feel after you eat in each meal?

b. What foods should you include in an ideal food plate?
c. Can you tell me what you ate yesterday?
d. In your opinion, are you eating nutritious food? How do you say so?
46. The patient is taking prescribed oral iron supplements religiously. She was informed that it contributes to
her constipation. The nurse advised the pregnant client to:

a. Use mineral oil to relieve constipation

b. Enemas can be done because it is natural. It only uses water
c. Docusate sodium may be taken if dietary measures fail
d. Dulcolax may be taken if regular bowel evacuation fail
47. Nutrition must always form part of the health education for all pregnant mothers. When counseling a
pregnant woman about nutrition, nurse Nicole makes sure to:

A. Recommend that she weighs herself once a week

B. Tell her to eat double the amount of food that she takes before her pregnancy
C. Inform her that only very anemic women need iron/folate supplements
D. Ask per participating mothers what they eat in a day to determine if her diet is adequate
48. Four babies are in the newborn nursery. The nurse that is at highest risk for developing cold stress
syndrome is?

a. Infant with Rh incompatibility

b. Infant with neural tube defect
c. Infant born with diabetic mother
d. Infant born after 41st week of pregnancy
49. As the nurse is assessing the newborn with a high risk. What of the following assessment would lead the
nurse to suspect cold stress syndrome?

a. Erythema toxicum
b. Acyocyanosis
c. Blood glucose of 50mg/dL
d. Tachypnea
50. Another neonate, Lucy, born at 28 weeks of gestation, develops respiratory distress syndrome. The doctor
prescribed surfactant immediately after birth. The nurse knows it is administered:

a. Intravenous
b. Intramuscular
c. Endotracheally
d. Orally
51. Oxygen administration is necessary for Lucy to maintain the correct PO2 and pH levels following
surfactant administration. However, a possible complication of oxygen therapy in neonate like Lucy, since she
is a preterm baby is:

a. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
b. Cystic Fibrosis
c. Laryngomalacia
d. Croup
52. The nurse heard about the news of increasing hazing in brotherhood, fraternity or sorority. The law that
prohibits this is:

A. RA 7610
B. RA 10630
C. RA 11053
D. RA 10354
Situation:
Care of the newborn also places a lot of professional nursing practice challenges.
53. A newborn baby girl was born at 9:15 A.M. which of the following findings are normal?

A. Yellow skin tones at 12 hours of age

B. Passage of meconium within the first 24 hours
C. Respiratory rate of 70/minute at rest
D. Bleeding from umbilicus
54. As you were carrying this newborn infant to her mother's room, her mother remarked, "I think my baby is
afraid of me. Every time I make a loud noise, he jumps". You should:

A. Reassure her that this is a normal reflex reaction for her baby
B. Wrap the baby more tightly in warm blankets
C. Take the baby back to the nursery for a neurologic evaluation
D. Encourage her not to be so nervous with her baby
55. While performing the discharge assessment on a 2 day old new born, you found that after blanching the
skin on the forehead, the color turns to yellow. You know that this indicates:

A. An infectious liver condition

B. A normal biologic response
C. Jaundice related to breast feeding
D. an Rh Incompatibility problem
Situation
Doing home follow-ups is common for nurses and OB - Gyne clients. The following situations
56. You visited a breastfeeding mother at home 2 weeks after delivery. The mother now has fever with flu-like
symptoms./ on assessment you noted a warm, reddened, painful area over her right breast. Your best action
is:

A. Tell the mother to stop breastfeeding and pumping milk from her breast for the child
B. Contact the physician for orders of antibiotics for her
C. Further assess the mother's feeding technique and knowledge of breast care
D. Get a sample of her breast milk for culture
57. Nicole just had a vaginal delivery of her second child 2 days ago. She breastfeeds her baby without
difficulty. You visited her and during your postpartum assessment you EXPECT normal findings to be as:

A. Fundic height at 1 cm above the umbilicus

B. Some feeling of after pains
C. Voiding frequently, 50-75 mL per episode of voiding
D. Pinkish to brownish vaginal discharge
58. Ruthchelle had vaginal delivery of her first baby 6 weeks ago and you see her for follow-up postpartum
visits. She is feeding well and is bottle-feeding her infant successfully. During your physical assessment, you
EXPECT normal findings as:

A. Having some pink striae but starting to fade

B. Tender breast, some milk expressed
C. Fundus 6cm below the umbilicus on palpation
D. With creamy, yellow vaginal discharge
59. In the postpartum period, you should instruct your client to perform which of the following exercises to
strengthen her pelvis floor muscles?

A. Kegel exercises
B. lung exercise
C. push-up
D. sit-ups
60. Another nursing focus is the monitoring of postpartum clients for possible complications. Postpartum
hemorrhage is one of the primary causes of maternal mortality associated with child bearing. Which among the
following T’s is the most frequent cause of postpartum hemorrhage?

A. Tissue
B. Trauma
C. Tone
D. Thrombin
Situation:
A current initiative of the Department of Health (DOH) is the program called essential intrapartal
Newborn (EINC). This provides meaningful measures to be undertaken by healthcare professionals in
doing immediate intrapartal maternal care and newborn care management and the following condition
apply.
61. Nurse Nicole is a member of the birthing team when Michelle gave birth to her first born. Inside the
delivery room Nicole assisted the attending obstetrician. To address the concerns of keeping the baby warm,
her first step in obtaining thermal protection for the newborn is to.

A. Dry the baby thoroughly after the cord has been cut
B. Dry the baby thoroughly immediately after giving birth
C. Cover the baby with a clean, dry cloth after the cord has been cut
D. Cover the baby with clean, dry cloth, immediately after birth
62. After providing necessary drying and warmth and support to the newborn. Nurse Michelle observed other
details as essential parts of the immediate care of a normal newborn which includes:

A. Deep suctioning of the airway to remove mucous

B. Removing used wet cloth, and covering the baby with clean, dry cloth
C. Stimulation the baby by slapping the soles of the baby’s feet
D. Skin-to-skin contact by placing the baby over the mother’s chest
63. In applying essential new born care (ENC), Nurse Richard keeps in mind that care of the umbilicus should
include:

A. Cleaning with cooled, boiled water and leaving it uncovered

B. Covering with a Sterile compress
C. Cleaning with alcohol
D. Applying antibiotic cream
64. The vitamin K is administered to the newborn for which of the following reason?

A. Newborns are susceptible to avitaminosis

B. Newborns have no intestinal bacteria
C. Hemolysis of the fetal red blood cells destroys vitamin K
D. The newborn’s liver incapable of producing sufficient vitamin K
65. Practice like cord clamping and the traditional “milking” of the cord immediately post delivery have now
been proven to be beneficial. These can also results in more harm and complications especially in pre-terms
and in the fragile blood vessels in the brain of the newborn. Richard NOW modifies and introduces a new
newborn care practice termed as:

A. Routine Separation
B. “Unang Yakap”
C. Properly timed cord clamping
D. Partographing
Situation:
If emergencies occur inside healthcare facilities where supplies and equipment’s are expectedly
available and assumed complete, similar healthcare situations are also present in “pre-hospital” or
pre-institutional” settings requiring the same degree of nursing care management. The following
applies.
66. During the second second trimester of pregnancy, a pregnancy woman is ideally given her first dose of
tetanus toxoid by intramuscular injection. Which of the following is appropriate for the disposition of used
syringes and needles in the pre-institutional settings?

A. Cap again before throwing in garbage cans

B. Decontaminate before even reusing
C. Place in puncture – proof containers
D. Place in a garbage can
67. The pregnant client with threatened miscarriage is advised by the nurse to avoid coitus for two weeks
which she asks the purpose why. The nurse responds correctly:

a. It prevents infection
b. It prevents threatened miscarriage to change to imminent
c. It pokes the live fetus
d. It is unethical and unprofessional
68. Mrs. Nicole Richards came to you with an obstetric history of three (3) spontaneous abortions, is now 12
weeks pregnant, and attending her OB’s high rick clinic. Mrs. Richard expresses to you her concern over this
pregnancy. In order for you to determine that the patient is experiencing Imminent miscarriage occur when:

A. Bright red vaginal bleeding

B. Abdominal cramping
C. Cervical dilation
D. Loss of products halted
69. You are faced with a patient, Mican who is suspected of having ruptured tubal pregnancy. In obtaining the
history from this client you should expect the client to indicate that her symptoms of pain in the lower abdomen
and vaginal bleeding starting:

A. Midway through the second semester

B. At the beginning of the last trimester
C. Immediately after implantation occurred
D. About the sixth (6th) week of pregnancy
70. You are assessing a client, Michelle with pregnancy-induced hypertension, you expect Miles with
pregnancy-induced hypertension, you expect Miles’s blood pressure to be:

A. 30/15 mmHg over the baseline BP of Michelle’s prior to pregnancy on 2 occasions at 6 hours apart or
140/90 mmHg and over
B. Above her baseline BP during her non-pregnancy state and accompanied by headache
C. 150/100 mmHg while standing and sitting since prior to pregnancy
D. Above her baseline BP during her non-pregnancy state and fluctuating at each reading
71. You are caring for Michelle, a patient on MgS04 therapy for severe pre-eclampsia. The danger signal
prompting alert for the first sign of excessive blood magnesium level is:

A. Disappearance knee – jerk reflex

B. Increased respiratory rate
C. Development of cardiac dysrhythmia
D. Disturbance in sensorium
Situation:
Nurse Michelle retired early form service as clinical instructor in a college of nursing in Alfonso Cavite
and opened he PRIMARY HEALTH CARE (PHC) NURSONG CLINIC. One of her health programs
focused on CHILD SURVIVAL which includes addressing malnutrition.
Using the IMCI Approach the following situations and questions apply
72. Among the first clients in nurse Michelle’s PHC Clinic Raffy, a 6 month’s old child, with visible severe
wasting and severe palmar pallor which nurse Raffy classified as:

A. Not very weight/No Anemia

B. Anemia/severe malnutrition
C. Severe malnutrition/severe anemia
D. Anemia/very low birth weight
73. Another child, Sam, has some palmar pallor can be classifies as having:

A. Severe anemia
B. Low weight for age
C. Anemia
D. No anemia
74. Intestinal parasitism may be a cause of malnutrition in the case of Sam. Given that IMCI best practiced
beginning at the primary level of health care, treatment of parasitism has also been covered. In these cases,
mebendazole is given as a single dose for:

A. 10 month old children

B. Hookworm/Whipworm infection as problem in specified areas
C. Children who received a dose the previous month
D. Children with Feeding problems
75. Iron deficiency anemia may also be prevalent in some areas and in this condition IRON SUPLEMENTS
may be given for:

A. 1 week
B. 3 weeks
C. 30 days
D. 14 days
76. Vitamin A should also be given to children EXCEPT for when:

A. There is severe malnutrition

B. Children who has received vitamin A in the last 3 months
C. Has normal weight
D. Children 6 months or older
Situation:
Documentation is an important aspect of every nursing activity. This is a major area of responsibility
which helps facilitate continuity of work within a 24-hour cycle.
77. Nicole, a 26-year old mother was admitted for hyperemesis gravidarum. While taking her history it would
be MOST important to report which of the following? Nicole has:

A. Anxieties over the effect of her condition to the baby

B. Cool lower extremities, bilaterally
C. Diminished palpable peripheral pulses
D. Allergy to shellfish
78. You are on duty and from the report/endorsements from the previous shift which client should you attend
to FIRST? A client who is:

A. Schedule to receive heparin and the PTT is 70 seconds

B. Receiving Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) and complains of a fine macular rash
C. Receiving a blood transfusion and complains of a dry mouth
D. Receiving IV potassium and complains of burning at the IV site
79. You are reviewing the nurse's notes in your obstetric client's chart. You would be MOST concerned by
which of the following entries?

A. "the client's skin is blanched over the scapular areas"

B. b.’’Foley catheter draining clear urine and the pH is 6.5"
C. vital signs are within normal limits"
D. "the client drinks 3 glasses of orange juice every day"
80. You are the nurse on duty and at approximately 6 PM you began to open the nurses' notes for the evening
shift. The last entry is noted for 1PM, and there is no signature. The MOST appropriate nursing response for
you is:

A. Begin charting on the next line below the last entry, and make a note for the day nurse to make a late entry
to complete the chart
B. To leave approximately 3 or 4 lines for the day nurse to enter the day information and sign the chart
C. Not to make any entry notes until the day nurse has been notifies of the problem and returns to the unit to
complete her charting
D. Review with the client the activities after 1PM, and enter what are determined to be the activities after 1 PM
Situation:
Telling and sharing are very important tools of transmitting health awareness to clients particularly
during children's growth and development years. These conditions apply.
81. A mother asks you when the soft spot on the front of the baby's head will close. Your appropriate response
is " the anterior fontanel will close:

A. By 12 to 18 months of age"
B. Shortly after the posterior fontanel; closes"
C. In a 6 months"
D. By the time the baby is 1 year old"
82. Another mother asks you to explain what fine motor skills are. She has heard that it has something? to do
with a school-aged child's ability to draw and color within the lines, and she wants to know what this mean in
an infant. You would explain that fine motor development is the ability to:

A. Write and draw, and that infant do not have any fine motor skills yet
B. Use all of the fingers of both hands equally well in a coordinated manner
C. Picks up items and moves them from place to place in a voluntary fashion
D. Coordinates hand to eye movement in an orderly and progressive manner
83. As you are working with the parents of Nicole, a 32 months old child was having a tantrum, becoming
aggressive and running away. The nurse knows that the patient is in which developmental stage?

A. Trust vs mistrust
B. Initiative vs guilt
C. Autonomy vs shame and doubt
D. Identity vs role confusion
84. The parents of Richard, a toddler who has intrusive behavior and in need of redirection asked you how to
respond to their child. Your most appropriate response is:

A. Separate Richard from others for him to think how best he should rightly interact with others"
B. "let Richard know the behavior is not acceptable by speaking with a firm, loud voice"
C. Send Richard to his room and set a later time for a serious talk"
D. gently touch Richard's shoulder to get his attention and with a firm eye-to-eye contact speak to him with
concern"
85. Nicole, a mother of a 34 month old boy is upset that her child begun to wet in bed and thumb-- suck after
being admitted to the hospital, Nicole asked you to explain why this happens. Which of the following is your
best response?

A. "this behavior is a defense mechanisms when normal routine changes"

B. "your child probably do not like me or another nurse assigned to him"
C. "bedwetting and thumb-sucking are the child's way of getting even for abandonment"
D. " your toddler is angry and this is a way of telling you of his unhappiness"
Situation:
In your area of assignment which is LABOR AND DELIVERY, you get to handle varied cases of birthing
mothers. The following conditions apply.
86. You are attending to Nicole, whose cervix is completely dilated and with the fetal head is at 2 (-) station.
The head of Nicole's fetus has not descended in the past hour. What most appropriate initial assessment
should you make?

A. Determine if Nicole's bladder is distended

B. Assess fetal status, fetal heart tones, and scalp pH
C. Submit Nicole for x-rays to determine fetal size
D. Notify the surgical team so that an operative delivery can be planned
87. A newborn, at 1 minute after vaginal delivery, is pink with blue hands and feet, has a lusty cry. heart rate of
140, prompt response to stimulation with crying, and maintains minimal flexion, with sluggish movement. If you
should perform an Apgar score, how would you score for this newborn?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 10
D. 7
88. A postpartum mother, after giving birth 6 hours ago, was checked by the nurse and noted a temperature of
38C. The nurse knows that the appropriate action to do is:

a. Report immediately to the physician because it may be a sign of infection

b. Encourage the mother to take in fluids.
c. Inform the mother to be on bed rest without bathroom privilege
d. Do nothing as this is expected.
89. A breastfeeding mother has received an advice from the nurse on how to stop engorgement. Which of the
following acts by the mother demonstrates that the instruction was successful?

a. Every after feeding, she pumps her breast

b. the mother feeds her infant on demand
c. Ten minutes are spent feeding the baby on each side of the breast.
d. She adds formula as a supplement to each feeding.
90. A multigravida postpartum mother reported having excruciating stomach cramps every time she is nursing
her infant. Which of the nurse's subsequent answers is appropriate?

a. Suggest to the mother to give the baby bottle feeding for several days until the pain subsides.
b. Give the mother instruction on how to massage her fundus.
c. Give the patient instructions on how to breastfeed in a different positions.
d. Describe how hormones in breastfeeding work.
Situation:
Human development is a lifelong process of physical, behavioral, cognitive, and emotional growth and
change. The following questions pertains to the pediatric growth and development.
91. When preparing to conduct prenatal and parenting classes for a group of parents, the clinic's nursing staff
will be providing childcare for the parents' children who range in age from 15 months to 6 years. The clinic has
a playroom. Which of the following activities would be most appropriate to include?

a. A group sing-along
b. Drawing and painting projects
c. Free play with adult supervision
d. Watching cartoon videos.
92. Which of the following would suggest that the parents of a 6-year-old boy with leukemia have age-
appropriate expectations regarding their child's response to his approaching death after the nurse has taught
them how to talk with their child about death and dying?

a. He is too young to comprehend what is happening to him

b. He might believe that his behavior causes his own death
c. He will accept that his illness will cause death
d. He will understand how much his siblings will miss him.
93. After the nurse instructs the parents of a 5-month-old infant about the purpose of the Denver
Developmental Screening Test (DDST), which of the following statements by the parents about what the test
measures would indicate that the teaching was effective?

a. Intelligence quotient.
b. Emotional development.
c. Social and physical abilities.
d. Potential for future development
94. While the nurse talks to the mother about her baby's motor skill development. The nurse should
communicate to the mother that a newborn will most likely be able to do which of the following by the age of 7
months?

a. Walk with one handheld

b. Use a spoon to successfully eat
c. Stand while holding onto furniture
d. Sit alone using the hands for support.
95. According to the developmental theories, which important developmental event during a toddler is
essential?

a. The child learns to feed himself

b. The child is able to develop friendships
c. The child learns how to walk independently
d. The child participates in being potty-trained.
SITUATION:
There has been an increasing rate of neonatal jaundice in the hospital approximately 60% of term and
80% of preterm newborns. The following questions are applied:
96. When administering phototherapy to a baby, which of the following safety care measures should you
include?

A. Cover the baby with a sheet during therapy

B. Check the baby’s blood glucose before therapy
C. Apply a special sunscreen to the baby’s skin prior to the treatment
D. Shield the baby’s eyes and protect the gonads
97. Baby yosh, a newborn diagnosed with erythroblastosis fetalis, was admitted in the NICU. Which of the
subsequent signs or symptoms should the nurse be looking for?

a. Patches of alopecia
b. Ruddy complexion
c. Erythema toxicum
d. Anasarca
98. Which of the following laboratory findings would the nurse expect to see in baby yosh that is in congruent
with his diagnosis?

a. Sodium 125 mEq/L.

b. Hematocrit 24%.
c. Potassium 5.5 mEq/L.
d. Leukocyte count 45,000 cells/mm3
99. The nurse received the test results of the mother and her baby. The nurse saw that the direct Coombs test
is positive. The sample required for the procedure is?
A. Newborn’s blood
B. Mother’s blood
C. Newborn’s urine
D. Mother’s urine
100. To measure bilirubin levels in a neonate with jaundice, a heel stick is required. During the procedure,
the nurse should do which action?

a. Prior to the procedure, wrap the food in an ice pack for one full minute
b. Lateral heel should be avoided to prevent damage on the sensitive structures
c. Let the skin air dry after rubbing the skin with alcohol
d. Grasping the calf firmly may prevent harm throughout the procedure.