Oral And Maxillofacial Surgery Exam

Fifth stage

1. 65years old male presented with unilateral facial paralysis, cutaneous lesion of external
auditory meatus (viral infection), vertigo, and hearing loss; what will be your diagnosis:
A. Bell’s palsy.
B. Mlkerson Rosenthal syndrome.
C. Giant cell arteritis.
D. Ramsy hunt syndrome
E. Post herpetic neuralgia
2. Which of the following with immediate danger to patient with severe facial injury:
A. Associate fracture spine.
B. Bleeding.
C. infection.
D. Respiratory obstruction.
E. Previous chronic disease
3. Trigeminal neuralgia is most commonly caused by which of the following?
A. Aneurysm.
B. Arteriovenous malformation.
C. Compression of the trigeminal nerve by an intracranial artery.
D. Multiple sclerosis plaque at the root entry zone of the trigeminal nerve.
E. Intracranial tumour.
4. Frey's syndrome (sweating during eating) is due to:
A. Damage of glossopharyngeal nerve.
B. Damage of facial nerve.
C. Damage of trochlear nerve.
D. Damage of auriculo-temporal nerve.
E. All of the above
5. When are nasopharyngeal airways considered contraindicated?
A. In conscious patients
B. In patients with anterior skull base fractures
C. In patients with mandibular fractures
D. In patients with severe damage
E. In patients with multiple injuries
6. Of the following which is almost pathognomonic of mandibular fracture:
A. Deep laceration near the area of trauma
B. Paraesthesia
C. Ecchymosis in lingual sulcus and dearranged occlusion
D. Anterior open bite
E. Deviation of mandible during opening
7. Condylar neck fracture best detected in:
A. Submentovertex projection
B. Water projection
C. Posteroanterior skull projection
D. True lateral skull projection
E. Reverse towne projection

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8. The current “gold standard” for predicting the malignant potential of the precancerous lesions is
the:
A. Presence & degree of dysplasia
B. Presence of candidal hyphae
C. Presence of red areas in the lesion
D. Presence of infection
E. Site of lesions
9. Leukoplakia in which of the following sites poses high risk comparatively?
A. Floor of the mouth
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Palate
D. Tongue
E. Both a and d
10. Which imaging modality give best opportunity to view odontogenic tumours in relation to the
jaw bones and adjacent soft tissues?
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
B. Positron emission tomography (PET) scan CT
C. Plain radiography
D. Computed tomography (CT)
E. Three-dimensional computerized tomogram (3D CT)
11. What is the role of intralesional injections in the treatment of oral submucous fibrosis?
A. Provide pain relief
B. Prevent or suppress inflammatory reaction
C. Increase fibroblastic proliferation
D. Induce collagen deposition
E. Promote tissue hyperplasia.
12. Eburnation is seen in:
A. Malunion.
B. Osteomyelitis
C. Nonunion.
D. Osteoradionecrosis.
E. Non of the above
13. A fractured mandibular condyle is displaced forward and Medially by the action of the
following muscle:
A. Temporalis.
B. Medial pterygoid.
C. Masseter.
D. Lateral pterygoid
E. Styloglossus
14. Most common complication of condylar injuries in children:
A. Pain.
B. Ankylosis.
C. Osteoarthritis.
D. Fracture of glenoid fossa.
E. Infection
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 Oral And Maxillofacial Surgery Exam
Fifth stage

15. Flattening of cheek seen in:

A. Maxillary fracture
B. Condylar fracture
C. Zygomatic complex fracture
D. Blow out fracture
E. All of above
16. Immediate management of nasal bleed in facial injuries is:
A. Reduction of nasal bones manually
B. Paraffin gauze packing
C. Positioning the patient in supine position
D. Positioning the patient in prone position
E. All of the above
17. Glasgow coma scale is used:
A. To determine motor responsiveness
B. Verbal responsiveness
C. Eye response
D. To discover level of consciousness
E. Non of above
18. What is the most common cause of mandibular fractures?
A. Sports injuries
B. Motor vehicle accidents
C. Fall
D. Assaults
E. Dental procedures
19. Which complication is associated with untreated and compound mandibular fractures?
A. Osteomyelitis
B. Ankylosis
C. Osteoradionecrosis
D. Myocardial infarction
E. Psoriasis
20. Which of the following is NOT an element of the information needed to diagnose pain and
distinguish its origin?
A. Severity of the pain
B. Provoking factors
C. Patient's blood type
D. Timing of pain attacks
E. Site at which it felt and any pain radiation

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Fifth stage

21. Forceps used for maxillary fracture disimpaction

A. Rowe
B. Bristow
C. Ash
D. Walsham
E. Extraction forceps
22. Gilles approach for reduction of zygomatic fracture is done through:
A. Temporal fossa
B. Infratemporal fossa
C. Infraorbital fossa
D. Ptrgopalatine fossa
E. All of above
23. Le fort III fracture is also called:
A. Horizontal fracture
B. Pyramidal fracture
C. Guerin fracture
D. Craniofacial disjunction
E. None of the above
24. A patient with unfavourable fracture of the angle of mandible is best treated by
A. Closed fixation with intermaxillary fixation.
B. Closed reduction with cap splints.
C. Open reduction with interosseous wiring.
D. Open reduction with rigid bone fixation.
E. None of above
25. A fracture of the mandible in elderly edentulous patient should by managed by:
A. Cup splint fixation.
B. Intermaxillary fixation.
C. Risdon wiring.
D. Tans osseous wiring.
E. Gunning splint
26. Symptoms of cluster headache are distinctive. Attacks, often multiple, frequently occur at the
same time each day, often awakening patients from sleep. Which of the following best
describes the pain associated with these attacks?
A. Is accompanied by flushing of the entire face.
B. Is unilateral and occurs in an orbit temporal distribution.
C. Peaks in 2-3 hours.
D. Requires patients to lie quietly in a darkened room.
E. All of above

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Fifth stage

27. Which symptoms are commonly reported by Giant Cell Arteritis patients?
A. Pain.
B. Blurring of vision.
C. Fever.
D. Jaw claudication
E. All of above.
28. Period of immobilization for Lateral luxated tooth is:
A. 7 to 10 days.
B. need not be immobilized.
C. 3 to 4 weeks.
D. 2 to 3 weeks
E. 2 to 8 weeks
29. 7 years old boy presented with fracture of left condylar fracture with occlusion undisturbed, the
treatment would be:
A. Immobilization for 7 days
B. Immobilization for 14 days with intermittent active opening
C. No Immobilization with restricted mouth opening for 10 days
D. Early mobilization with active mouth opining.
E. All of above.
30. A 35-years old man with a Le fort III fracture complains of blood tinged watery discharge
from his nose 2 days after the trauma. What clinical feature suggests that the discharge is CSF
leak?
A. Continuous discharge.
B. Appearance of tram line or halo rings.
C. Stoppage of discharge on pressure.
D. None of the above.
E. All of the above
31. In depressed zygomatic arch fracture, difficult in opening the mouth is caused by impingement
of:
A. Condyles.
B. Ramus.
C. Petrous temporal
D. Coronoid process
E. All of the above.
32. Which preventive treatment is commonly used for cluster headaches?
A. Antibiotics
B. Antipsychotics
C. Verapamil
D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)
E. Antidepressant
33. Zygomatic arch fracture is better viewed in:
A. Reverse town
B. Waters view
C. PA view
D. Submentovertex view
E. Lateral oblique view

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Fifth stage

34. Hanging drop sign in the maxillary sinus radiograph usually indicates
A. Nasal bone fracture
B. Orbital floor blow out fracture
C. Isolated coronoid fracture fragment hanging by temporalis muscle
D. Condylar fracture
E. All of above
35. Which of the following types of headache is characterized by unilateral location, pulsating
quality, and moderate to severe pain with aura?
A. Migraine
B. Tension-type headache
C. Cluster headache
D. Sinus headache
E. Rebound headache
36. Basic mechanism responsible for post traumatic enopthalmos
A. Increase in size of orbit
B. A decrease in content of orbit
C. A disruption in the ligament structure of the globe
D. All of the above
E. Non of above
37. The least severe damage evident on a traumatized permanent tooth is:
A. infraction.
B. loss of the crown.
C. uncomplicated dentin fracture.
D. uncomplicated enamel fracture
E. concussion
38. precocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following:
A. Jaffe’s syndrome
B. Monostotic fibrous dysplsia
C. Mccune Albright syndrome
D. Osteogenesis imperfecta
E. Neurofibromatosis
39. A patient with fibrous dysplasia can be treated by:
A. Surgical excision.
B. Removal of adjacent teeth.
C. Irradiation of the lesion.
D. Conservative surgery.
E. All of above

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Fifth stage

40. Which condition is NOT associated with central giant cell granuloma?
A. Pain
B. Root resorption
C. Bulge of the alveolar ridge
D. Radiographic homogeneity
E. Displacement of teeth
41. What is the predominant histopathological feature of giant cell lesions?
A. Lobulated bluish mass
B. Osteoclast-like giant cells
C. Hemosiderin deposition
D. Spindle-shaped fibroblastic cells
E. Wispy bone and osteoid
42. What is a potential consequence of aggressive giant cell lesions?
A. Routine radiographic discovery
B. Asymptomatic presentation
C. Mobility of teeth
D. Nasal obstruction
E. Affecting adults over 50 years old
43. What demographic is predominantly affected by central giant cell granuloma?
A. Elderly men
B. Children and young adults
C. Adults over 50 years old
D. Women after menopause
E. Middle-aged individuals
44. How is the primary hyperparathyroidism distinguished from Central Giant Cell Granuloma
(CGCG)?
A. Presence of multinucleated giant cells
B. Aggressive behaviour
C. Increased serum calcium levels
D. Decreased serum alkaline phosphate levels
E. Increased in serum phosphate level
45. What condition is the Brown tumour of hyperparathyroidism associated with in the paediatric
population?
A. Osteoporosis
B. Paget's disease
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Fibrous dysplasia
E. Central giant cell granuloma

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Fifth stage

46. Which gender is more likely to experience cluster headaches?

A. Equally prevalent in men and women
B. Women
C. Men
D. Children
E. Elderly
47. What increases the chances of recurrence in aneurysmal bone cysts?
A. Maxillary sinus involvement
B. Anterior mandible localization
C. Mid-maxillary region localization
D. Posterior mandible localization
E. Soft tissue involvement
48. How do aneurysmal bone cysts typically appear radiographically?
A. Unilocular or multilocular
B. Predominantly radio-opaque
C. Multifocal
D. Radiopaque with central lucency
E. Predominantly radiopaque
49. Which radiographic appearance is characteristic of solid/multicystic ameloblastomas?
A. Radiopaque
B. Unilocular radiolucency
C. Multilocular radiolucency with honeycomb appearance
D. Pericoronal radiolucency
E. Mixed radiolucent/radio-opaque
50. What is the preferred treatment for unicystic ameloblastomas of the mural subtype?
A. Enucleation
B. b. Resection with a 1.5 cm margin
C. Curettage
D. Chemical fixation with Carnoy solution
E. Cryosurgery
51. Which type of ameloblastoma may form de novo or develop secondarily in an odontogenic
keratocyst or dentigerous cyst?
A. Conventional ameloblastoma
B. Unicystic ameloblastoma
C. Peripheral ameloblastoma
D. Desmoplastic ameloblastoma
E. Malignant ameloblastoma

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Fifth stage

52. What is the most common odontogenic tumor, frequently encountered in clinical practice?
A. Ameloblastoma
B. Central giant cell granuloma
C. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
D. Odontoma.
E. Ameloblastic fibroodontoma (AFO)
53. How should malignant ameloblastomas be managed if surgically feasible?
A. Enucleation
B. Curettage
C. Wide local resection resection
D. Radiation and chemotherapy
E. Chemical fixation with Carnoy solution.
54. How are odontomas usually managed, considering they are slow-growing, painless, intrabony
lesions?
A. Enucleation with a 1.5 cm margin
B. Conservative surgical excision
C. Radiation therapy
D. Chemotherapy
E. Observation without intervention
55. Which type of odontoma is characterized by recognizable enamel, dentin, and cementum,
consisting of individual small teeth-like structures?
A. Compound odontoma
B. Complex odontoma
C. Ameloblastoma
D. Calcifying odontogenic cyst
E. Odontogenic fibroma
56. What is the typical duration of pain episodes in Paroxysmal Trigeminal Neuralgia?
A. Several hours
B. One hour
C. Within seconds to one minute
D. Continuous, without remission
E. Days

57. What is the PRIMARY drug of choice for the medical treatment of Paroxysmal Trigeminal
Neuralgia?
A. Gabapentin
B. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
C. Oxcarbazepine
D. Phenytoin
E. Baclofen

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58. What is the underlying reason for the symptoms in Frey's Auriculotemporal Syndrome?
A. Bacterial infection
B. Sympathetic fibres compression
C. Parasympathetic fibres reinnervation
D. Viral infection
E. Genetic predisposition
59. What is a possible cause of TMJ pain that presents in the morning and improves throughout the
day?
A. Nocturnal bruxism
B. Emotional disturbance
C. Stress-related bruxism
D. Tension headache
E. Neurological disorder

60. When might surgery be considered in the treatment of psychogenic orofacial pain?
A. As the first-line treatment
B. In all cases
C. When occlusion is adjusted
D. When there is no remission with medications
E. Only for severe cases
61. What is the primary treatment for Warthin's tumor?
A. Chemotherapy
B. Radiation therapy
C. Surgical excision
D. Antibiotic therapy
E. Immunotherapy
62. Which tissue type is believed to give rise to pleomorphic adenoma?
A. Epithelial cells
B. Connective tissue cells
C. Myoepithelial cells
D. Nervous tissue
E. Vascular tissue

63. What imaging technique may show non-filling, space-occupying, and tissue-displacing features
of Warthin’s tumor?
A. MRI
B. CT scan
C. Sialography
D. Ultrasound
E. PET scan

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64. What clinical symptoms are predominantly seen in primary Sjögren’s syndrome?
A. Dry eyes, xerostomia, rheumatoid arthritis
B. Dry eyes, xerostomia
C. Dry eyes, xerostomia, purpura
D. Dry eyes, xerostomia, lymphadenopathy
E. Dry eyes, xerostomia, parotid gland enlargement
65. What term is used to describe excessive salivation, causing severe drooling, choking, and social
embarrassment?
A. Xerostomia
B. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
C. Sjögren’s Syndrome
D. Sialorrhea
E. Ptyalism
66. What is the main intrinsic factor in the etiology of Sjögren’s Syndrome, according to most
authorities?
A. Genetic
B. Hormonal
C. Infection
D. Immunologic
E. Neurologic
67. Which malignant salivary gland tumor is also known as cylindroma?
A. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
B. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
C. Malignant mixed tumor
D. Acinic cell carcinoma
E. Necrotizing sialometaplasia
68. Which site has the highest percentage of oral cancer occurrences?
A. Floor of mouth
B. Buccal mucosa
C. Tongue
D. Retromolar trigon
E. Hard palate

69. What is the term for a precancerous condition characterized by hyperplastic candidiasis?
A. Leukoplakia
B. Erythroplakia
C. Candidal leukoplakia
D. Speckled leukoplakia
E. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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70. Which nodal levels are at highest risk for early dissemination by metastatic cancer in primary
tumors of the oral cavity?
A. Levels I, II, and III.
B. Levels IV, V, and VI.
C. Levels II, III, and IV.
D. Levels III, IV, and V.
E. Levels V, VI, and VII.
71. What is the primary advantage of using palatal tissue for grafting over the alveolar ridge in
mandibular ridge extension surgery?
A. Minimal contraction
B. High mobility
C. Maximum keratinization
D. Low resilience
E. Limited vascularity
72. Cryosurgery mechanism causes cell death and necrosis by:
A. increasing blood flow to the area
B. reducing cell membrane disruption
C. promoting cell regeneration
D. creating ice crystals in and around cells
E. enhancing vascular damage
73. . Cryosurgery is effective for the ablation of surface lesions such as:
A. cysts
B. tumors
C. abscesses
D. ulcers
E. fistulas
74. What precaution is essential for personnel in the operating room during laser surgery in the oral
and maxillofacial region?
A. Use of wet towels
B. Wearing laser protective eye glasses
C. Non-reflective instrument use
D. Proper training and certification
E. Smoke evacuation
75. What is craniosynostosis?
A. Premature fusions of craniofacial sutures
B. Excessive growth of cranial bones
C. Congenital absence of cranial bones
D. Normal fusion of cranial sutures
E. Abnormal alignment of cranial bones

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Fifth stage

76. What does decompensation of dentition involve in pre-surgical orthodontics?

A. Correcting skeletal disharmony
B. Improving angulation of teeth
C. Achieving maximum esthetic results
D. Maintaining proper tissue health
E. Preventing dental caries
77. When is orthognathic surgery considered in a stable adult deformity?
A. During excessive growth
B. After growth cessation
C. Before orthodontic treatment
D. During fetal development
E. Before periodontal considerations
78. What is the primary complication associated with the Vertical Ramus Osteotomy technique?
A. Inferior alveolar nerve damage
B. Hematoma
C. Facial nerve injury
D. Skeletal relapse
E. Excess labiomental fold
79. What does the evaluation of facial esthetics in the frontal view assess?

A. Upper incisor show

B. Vertical and transverse asymmetries
C. Scleral show and eyelid position
D. Ear shape and position
E. Lip form and symmetry

80. Which descriptor is commonly associated with muscular pain?

A. Shooting
B. Dull
C. Sharp
D. Achy
E. B and D

81. What term is used to describe the sound characterized by scraping or grating during TMJ
examination?
A. Clicking
B. Crepitus
C. Fasciculations
D. Spasm
E. Hypertrophy

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Fifth stage

82. What is the most effective diagnostic imaging technique to evaluate TMJ soft tissues
A. Plain radiograph
B. Ct scan
C. MRI
D. Pet-CT
E. CBCT
83. In anterior disk displacement, the disk is positioned:
A. Anterior and lateral to the condyle
B. Anterior and medial to the condyle
C. Posterior and medial to the condyle
D. Posterior and lateral to the condyle
E. In a normal position between the condyle and articular eminence
84. What is one of the anatomic findings associated with Degenerative Joint Disease in the
temporomandibular joint (TMJ)?
A. Enlargement of the condylar head
B. Thickening of the articular disk
C. Perforated or damaged disks
D. Smooth and regular articular surfaces
E. Enhanced joint lubrication
85. What is a characteristic clinical feature of nasolabial cysts?
A. Bilateral swelling of the lips
B. Involvement of the lower labial sulcus
C. Presence of pain in the cyst
D. No impact on the nasolabial fold
E. Fluctuant and painless unilateral swelling

86. How can a superficial ranula be clinically recognized

A. Deep-seated submandibular swelling
B. Fluctuant extraoral swelling
C. Bluish dome-shaped swelling beneath the tongue
D. Palpable swelling on the palate
E. Raised swelling on the maxillary ridge

87. How are dentigerous cysts typically diagnosed radiologically?

A. Multifocal radiolucency
B. Sclerotic margin with defined borders
C. Presence of cholesterol crystals
D. No impact on adjacent teeth
E. Well-defined unilocular radiolucency associated with impacted tooth

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Fifth stage

88. In which racial group is the lowest incidence of CLP observed?

A. Asians
B. B. Whites
C. C. African-Americans
D. D. Hispanics
E. Native Americans

89. At what age is cleft palate (CP) repair typically recommended?

A. 6–9 months
B. 9–18 months
C. 18–24 months
D. 2–3 years
E. 4–5 years

90. According to the "rule of 10’s," what is the minimum hemoglobin value considered safe for
cleft lip (CL) repair surgery?
A. 8 g/dl
B. B. 9 g/dl
C. 10 g/dl
D. D. 11 g/dl
E. E. 12 g/dl

91. Which bone graft source is known for being easy to harvest and providing a large amount of
cancellous bone in alveolar reconstruction?
A. Cranium
B. Tibia
C. Mandibular symphysis
D. Iliac crest
E. Femur

92. Why should extensive flap reflection be avoided during alveoloplasty?

A. To prevent systemic complications
B. To enhance mucoperiosteal flap reflection
C. To minimize bone and soft tissue preservation
D. To avoid devitalization of bone
E. To promote infection at the surgical site

93. What is the primary purpose of gauze packs in mandibular tori removal surgery?
A. To promote infection
B. To reduce postoperative edema and hematoma formation
C. To enhance mucoperiosteal flap reflection
D. To minimize tongue function

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E. To facilitate tooth extraction

94. What is the cause of excessive hypermobile tissue without inflammation on the alveolar ridge?
A. Ill-fitting dentures
B. Adequate alveolar height
C. Lingual nerve injury
D. Systemic conditions
E. Lack of bony deficiency

95. What is the temperature threshold to avoid bone necrosis during implant site preparation?
A. Below 30°C
B. Below 47°C
C. Above 60°C
D. Above 75°C
E. Above 90°C

96. Where does lamellar bone formation occur at a slow pace during the osseointegration process?
A. Anterior mandible
B. Posterior maxilla
C. Anterior maxilla
D. Posterior mandible
E. All of the above

97. What is the purpose of the external threads on most contemporary implant fixtures?
A. Smooth-surfaced implant placement
B. Minimizing implant stability
C. Pressing the implant into position
D. Maximizing implant stability and osseointegration
E. Preventing bone growth

98. What is the role of impression copings in dental implantology?

A. Maximize implant stability
B. B. Facilitate transfer of intraoral location to the laboratory cast
C. Provide permucosal access
D. Seal the implant platform
E. Shape soft tissue for restoration

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99. What is the role of the cover or healing screw in the two-stage surgical approach?
A. Provides permucosal access
B. Shapes soft tissue for restoration
C. Maximizes implant stability
D. Seals the implant platform prior to suturing
E. Replaces the healing abutment

100. What is the primary material used for contemporary implant fixtures?
A. Stainless steel
B. Gold alloy
C. Titanium or titanium alloy
D. Zirconia
E. Aluminum

Good Luck

‫مدرس المادة‬ ‫عميد الكلية‬

‫محمد قاسم عليوي‬.‫د‬ ‫د ثائر حميد المياحي‬.‫م‬.‫أ‬
‫بورد جراحة الفم الوجة والفكين‬ ‫بورد جراحة الفم الوجه والفكين‬

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