mCA - 20 2

Question Booklet Version: A

Qn. Booklet No: 24025 Roll Number:

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES

1 Fill in the OMR sheet carefully as per the instructions given on the back of the OMR
Sheet / Admit Card. OMR sheet not correctly filled in willnot bevalued.
2 Write your Roll Number (all eight digits) and Version as A on the Question Booklet
and on the left hand side of the OMR sheet (basic data part).
3. Theexamination consists of 120 Objective type multiple choice questions, which are to
be answered in 120 minutes.

4 After opening the Question Booklet at 10.00 a.m., ensure that there are 120 Questions
and that the printing of allthe questions are legible. If there are any missing or illegibly
printed questions, the matter may be reported to the Invigilator immediately.
5 There are 4 options (A, B, C & D) for each objective type question. Mark the most
appropriate answer to each question by blackening fully the corresponding bubble in the
OMR sheet with a black/blue ink ball point pen. For every correct answer 1 mark
will be awarded. No deduction of mark will be made for incorrect answer and
unanswered questions. Marking of more than one bubble against a question number in
the OMR sheet shall be considered as an incorrect answer. Erasing, overwriting, partial
marking, etc. shall also be treated as incorrect answer.

6. Rough work and calculations can be made in the blank pages attached to the question
booklet. Watch, Calculator, Mobile phone, Electronic instruments etc. shall not be
allowed in the examination hall.

7. The OMR Sheet and the Hall Ticket should be returned to the Invigilator. The
Counterfoilof the Hall Ticket and Question Booklet and candidates copy of the OMR
answer sheet can be retained by the candidate after the examination.
8. Answer keys will be published in the website www.Ibscentre.kerala.gov. in after the
examination. Complaints, if any, from the candidates regarding the questions, responses
/probable answer may be sent to the Email id [email protected] before 5.00
p.m. within three calendar days from the date of publication of the answer keys.
Complaints not substantiated with supporting documents will not be considered.
However the decision of the experts regarding such complaints on the answer keys shall
be final.

9. The Answer sheet of candidates who indulge in malpractice in any form shall not be
valued.

10. The candidates will be allowed to leave the hall only after the completion of the
examination time and after handing over the Answer sheet to the Invigilator.
 A
24025 120MINUTES
1. The mapping used in cache memory is:
A) Direct mapping B) Absolute mapping
C) Immediate mapping D) Explicit mapping
2. Page replacement algorithm which suffers Belady's anomaly is:
A) First In First Out B) Optimal
C) Least Recently Used D) Most Recently Used
3. Main advantage of ER diagram is:
A) It requires no hardware
B) Easy to understand
C) Itrequires no technical knowledge
D) All of the above

4 An attribute which has more than one value for a given entity is known as
attribute.
A) Derived B) Multivalued
C) Compound D) Independent
5 Program counter is used to store:
A) Address of the next instruction to be executed from memory
B) Address of the last instruction to be executed from memory
C) Both A and B
D) Neither A nor B

6 DMA controller is:

A) 8156 B) 8257 C) 8255 D) 8279

7 Binary equivalent of decimal 17.8 is:

A) 11110.001 B) 01111.111
C) 11000.011 D) None of these

8 Convert hexadecimal 8AC to binary:

A) 1000 1010 1100 B) 1100 1110 0011
C) 0101 1100 1110 D) 1111 1|10 0001

9. Convert 11100100 to hexadecimal:

A) A4 B) E4 C) DS D) C4

10. How many memory words can be generated if there are n' address lines?
A) 2n B) 2 C) 2"+1 D) 2"-2
 19. 18. 17. 16. 15. 14. 13. 12. 11.

instructions.
C) A) D)C) B) A) A)Statement
Statement Identify A)
Nibble function
Boolean
C) A) is: If Meta
data is
A) B) A)is:
D) C)EEPROM
Instructions Memory C) A)the If D)C) B) A)The
function
resultant function
Neither
advantage
address
address
Two Zero Both Specify
Neither Specify bits 4
(A+C).(A+D).(B+A)
(A+B).(C+D).(A+C) AB+BC+AC
AB+BB+CA above Electrically
Programmable
Electronically
EditableElectrically
Electronically Both
Effective
fragmnentation
Minimizethe
the is
Address only l 2: 1: equal
A Boolean f(A, f(A, known A
that Vectored true
Maskable Aand
Aand address
address to:
do nor statement/s: B, B, utilization
nor of
BRegister C, C) B) as Editable Erasable B memory
not B B)
2 B) function Erasable B
interrupts data
specify in in interrupts D) -E(1,2,3,5)
memory
VO bits 5
=£ about ----Programmable of
management
(MAR) (1, Programmable
port only C) is: programmable
data.
memory
any can are 2,
2
D) B) for for is D)B) 3, D)B) is
operands associated
be 4, implemented
a used
a
read read enabled None of 5,9,10, None
theseof C) is:
these
None
address
ofOne C) these
(A+B).(A+D).(C+B) AB+CB+CA
to: Read Read
or
or or Reference
Memory
Only Read
write write Both with bits 6 11) below
addresses or Only Only
disabledstatic is using Only
operation
operation 1 implemented MemoryMemory
&2
vector SOP Memory
are
explicitly.
D) D) form, D)
known
24025 -A address.
bits 7
using the create
Neither
as--- resultant
POS
nor l form,
2
 20. Which of the following is/are an example of secondary
A) Hard disc B)
memory?
C)
Compact disc
Flash drive D) Allof these
21. Set of instructions that are used toexecute
known as: particular task to get particular result is
A) Assembler B) Compiler
C)
Computer program D) Loader
22. One Terabyte is equal to:
A) 1000 Gigabyte
C)
B) 1000 Megabytes
2048 Gigabyte D) 2048 Megabytes
23. Perform binary subtraction.
1100 1011=?
A) 0010 B) 0001 C) 0100 D) 1000
24. Which of the following is known as universal logic gate?
A) NAND B) NOR
C) Both A and B D) NeitherA nor B
25. Identify the true statement/s:
Statement 1:TRAP is a non-maskable interrupt in 8085
Statement 2: RST 7.5 is a maskable interrupt in 8085
A) 1only B 2 only
C) Neitherl nor 2 D) Both 1 & 2
26. Logical address space is divided into fixed size block called:
A) Frames B) Pages C) Overlay D) Cache
27. Maximum size of virtual memory is limited to:
A) Size of physical memory
B) Size of logicalmemory
C) Size of secondary storage
D) None of these

28. Which of the following is an example of DBMS?

A) IBM DB2 B) Open NMT C) Opera D) All of these
29. DML stands for:
A) Data Managing Language B) Data Manipulation Language
C) Data Maskable Language D) Data Marketing Language

24025 - A
30. Identity the truc statement/s:
Statement 1: Bitis the sallest unit of data in acomputer
Statement 2: Byte is the biggest unit of data in a computer
A) l only B) 2 only C) Both I &2 D) Neither 1 nor 2

31. main()

int a,b:
if(a-0)
printf("hai"):
else
printf("hello"):
Output of the program is:
A) hai B) hello
C) hai hello D) Compilation error
32. Errors in the program can be detected using:
A) Compiling B) Running C) Executing D) Debugging
33. Iterations in the C language can be implemented using:
A) for B) while C) do-while D) Allof these
34. main()
int x-5,y=6,z;
ZFX++ ty++;
printf("%d",z);
The value of 'z' is:
A) 10 B) 11 C) 12 D) 13
35. System software is used to:
A) Control the operation of a computer
B) Perform debugging
C) Run applications
D) None of the above

36. Computers can be communicated to outside world using:

A) Memory B)
C) Processor D)
Input/Output
Hard disc
devices
37. The binary number 1101 in
A) A B)
hexadecimal representation is:
15 C) 14 D) D

4
24025 - A
38. Binary equivalent of the decimal number 9 is:
A) 1000 B) 1001 C) 1010 D) 1110
39. If all the input signals are 1, output
A)
ofAND gate is:
Always 0 B) Always 1 C) Either 0 or 1 D) None of these
40. Allthe arithmeticand logical operations are
A) Motherboard performed using:
B) Registers
C) ALr D) Cache Memory
41. Gate which is used to reverse the output from 0 to 1 and
A) NAND vice-versa:
B) NOR C) NOT D) EXOR
42. Boolean functions can be represented using:
A) Symbol table B) Truth table
C) Parsing table D) All of these
43. What is the complement of XYZ?
A) X'+Y'+' B) X'+Y+Z' C) X+Y+Z' D) X+Y+Z
44. The terms in Product of Sum (POS) are known as:
A) min term B) max term C) Sum term D) product term
45. Number of min terms in an expression comprises of 'n' variables is:
A) 2n B) C) 2"+1 D) 2-1
46. Cache memory is implemented using:
A) Static RAM B) Dynamic RAM
C) Both A & B D) Neither A nor B
47. The output of the compiler is:
A) Machine code B) Register code
C) System software D) Application Software
48. 'strrev'string library function is used to:
A) Compares two stringswithout regard to case
B) Reverse the given string
C) Copy first n characters of one string into another
D) Appends one string at the end of another
49. Transitive functional dependency is eliminated in:
A) 1NF B) 2 NF C) 3 NF D) 4 NF

24025 - A
S0. Identify the true statement/s:
Statement l: Cache memory is placed between RAM and CPU
Statement 2: Cache memory is used to hold frequently requested data
Statement 3: Cache memory and virtual memory are same
AY Ionly B) 1&2 only C) 2&3only D) 1,2 & 3

S1.
If ratio of corresponding sides of two similar triangles is 3:4, then the ratio of their
areas IS:
A) 3:4 B) 4:3 CY 9:16 D) 16:9

S2. The distance of the point (-2,-5) from the Y-axis is:
A) 2 units B) 3 units C) 5 units D) 7 units

53. A bag contains 3 red, 4 blue and 5 green balls. A ball is drawn at random from
the bag. The probability that the ball drawn is not red is:
1 3 1
A) B) D)
4 4 3

54. The largest coefficient in the expansion of (1 + x)0 is:

10! 10! 10! 10!
A) 5! B) 5!2 C) D)
5!4! 4

55. In how many ways 4 boys and 3 girls can be seated in a row so that they sit
alternately:
A) 12 B) 36 C) 144 D) 256
a-1
56. then the value of ais:
3 7
A) B) 2 C) D)
2 2

57. The centre of the circle x + y+ 4x+ 6y- 24 = 0 is at:

A) (2.3) B) (4.6) C) (-2,-3) D) (-4,-6)
58. The length of the latus rectum of the curve x = 16y is:
A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D) 32

59. If log02 = 0.3010 then log, 10 is:

699 1000
A) 301
B) C) 0.3010 D) 0.6990
301

60. Two dice are tossed together. The probability that the
the top of the dice is 12 is: product of the numbers on
1
A) B) 1 4
C) 12 D)

6
24025 - A
 71. 70. 69. 68. 66. 65. 64. 63. 62. 61.
67.

volumes
A) is: A A) If The of
A)value Zero.
Sum is C)points cuboid
A) Two
A) How perimeter
A)ofThe of C) A)
The A) isof
: k If A)The A) The A)|x<3is:
A
cylinder sin the sum number
1 equation HCF relation cubes 8
3
1:3 1
many triangle
-1 10 sq.cm150 3x
4x- of 4x
16x (3,-2)
20 is
A
= ----
and - the of + x
2 V3 terms each
COs550 350sin 4y 3y of zeros the 14y+5
18y + between
and cm.
is
a then is: chosen
cone a = = a smallest + (5,7) of
of right 14 14line
B) B) the B) B) the B) B) of B) 13=0 x B)volume B)
have value 630cot 270tan is the =0 is: and from
arithmetic triangle 3x
1:2 15
quadratic composite
2 40 9 5
same 3 1 sq.cm200 + y 8cm 9,
of 4y such
is: -7,
base 2cot'A is are
7
progression 60cmandits D) B) = D)B) that -5,
and
14. polynomial number ioined -3,
- C) C) C) Then C) C)
the
C) same C) 9x 6x 2x4x C) C) -1,0,
1 and + + point end
is: + +the
2 1
17
40, sq.cm300
9y18y 60 to 3 2 2,
1:1 height. hypotenuse is 12y 8y= 6 2x- 3the
35, equation + +P(x,y) end. 3,
= smallest 1313 6.
30... 24 28 kx The The
Then =0=0 is
of is5+ equidistant probability
be prime surface
D) the D) D) D) taken D)25cm. a D) D) D) D)
24025 A
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is:
72.
The diameter of the spherical ball obtaincd by melting thrce solid metallie spherical balls
of radii 3cm, 4cm and Scm is:
A) 6 cm B) 8 cm C) 10 cm D) 12 cm

73. The area of the square that can be inscribed in a circle of radius 6 cm is:
A) 36 sq.cnm B) 48 sq.cm C) 72 sq.cm D) 144 sq.Cm
74. The top of two poles of height 16m and 1Om are connected by a wire. If the wire
makes an angle of 60 with the horizontal, then the length of the wire is:
A) 12V3 m B) 4V3 m C) 12 m D) 6V2 m
75. If sin - cos = then the value of sin 20 is:
2
1 3
A) 4 B) C) 1 D)
4 4

76. Out of 1000 staff in an office, 48% preferred coffee 54% tea and 64% fruit juice. Of the
total, 28% used coffee and tea, 32% used tea and fruit juice and 30% used coffee and
fruit juice. Only 6% used none of these. How many staff used all the three?
A) 140 B) 160 C) 180 D) 280

77. Iff(*) = then f-() is:

A) 1-x B) 1-x-1 C) D) x-1-1
X-1

78. If a variable assumes values 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 with frequencies 1, 2, 3, 4

and 5
respectively. Then what is the arithmetic mean of the variable?
1
A) 3
B) 3 C) 5.5 D) 11

79. Complete the series 2, 12, 36,,150.

A) 72 B) 75 C) 80 D) 120

80. Some of the letters of the series a aca ba_ab bac are missing which are
order in one of the alternatives given below. Choose the correct alternative.given that
in

A) bbab B) bacb C) bbcb D) abcb

81. If the time in the mirror image of a clock is 3 hours 30
minutes. Then the actual
time shown by the clock is:
9 hours 30 minutes B) 8 hours 30 minutes
9 hours D) None of these

24025 - A
 In questions 82 and 83, choose the corrcct logical conclusions bascd on atlcast
two of the statenments given bclow but not iom onc statement alonc.
Statement |: Al| Dogs are Lions
Statemcnt 2: Al Lions are Cats
Statement 3: Some Cats are Tigers
82. A) AllDogs are Tigers B) All Cats are Lions
C) All Dogs are Cats D) Both A & C

83. A) All Tigers are Cats B) Some Cats are Dogs

C) Some Lions are Tigers D) None of these is correct.

Read the information given below and answer the questions 84 to 86.

Sixpeople P. Q. R. S, T and U have the following characteristics. P is richer than Q but shorter
than U: R is poorer than S and taller than P: Qis richer than T but taller than U; S is poorer as
well as shorter than T: T is poorer as wellas shorter than P:Uis richer than P and taller than R.
84. Who is the tallest?
A) Q B) R C) D) U

85. Who is the richest?

A) B) P C) D) U

86. Who is the poorest?

A) U B) R C) D) S

Read the following passage andexanmine each inference given in questions 87 to 90 in the
context of this passage.

Some important observations about The World Economic Forum's (WEF) Global Risks
Reports are given here. It's 2021 report placed environmental degradation as the top long-term
risk for the second year in a row. The report identifies climate action failure as the most
impactful risk and the second most likely long-term risk. It's 2006 report warned that a flu like
pandemic in the future would impact travel, tourism, and other service industries, and pose
long-term harm to investor risk appetites, global trade, and consumption demand. In 2020,
COVID-19 resulted in severe human and economic costs, negatively impacted travels and all
industries. threatening to scale back progress on reducing poverty and inequality and to further
weaken global cooperation and social cohesion. An uneven recovery from the pandemic could
further exacerbate inequality, the report cautions. Since the global pandemic became a reality,
the report suggests the world has become more altuned to risk, which ofters an opportunity to
leverage this attention and identify more eflective ways to communicate risk to decision
makers.

24025 - A
87.
The warning of WEF Gobal Risks Report 2006 about possible impacts of aflu like
pandemic became true in 2020 with the outbrcak of COVID 19.
A) definitcly true B) probably true
C) definitely false D) data provided is inadequate
88.
The 2021 report says the positive impact of the COVID19 pandemic is that the
inequality could be considerably reduced.
A)
C)
definitely true B) probably true
definitely false D) data provided is inadequate
89. The reports addressed the possible solutions of environmental degradation.
A) definitely true B) probably true
C) definitely false D) data provided is inadequate
90. The COVID 19 pandemic is an opportunity to identify effective ways to
communicate risks tothe decision makers to take decisions to address the risks.
A) definitely true B) probably true
C) definitely false D) data provided is inadequate
91. lfpand q are positive integers such thatp = , then which of the
statements is more correct? following
A) pand q may be equal B) p may be greater than q
C) p may be less than g D) All the above options are true
92. The ascending order of the numbers 7.V8.V9 is:
A) V8, V9./7 B) 7,N9./8 C) 9,/8.17 D) V7,/8.49
93. If a, b, c are three numbers in geometric
true? progression, then which of the following is
atc
A) b = B) b= yac C) h=
2
2 D) b= aC
94. If x:y= Z:W=4.5:2.5, then the value of (x +
z)/(y + w) is:
5 45 9
A) B) CY
9 4 5 D) None of these
95. The value of log 0.00001 to the base 0.1 is:
A) B) -5 C) D) 4

96. If 2* = 3 = 12 , then the value of xy- z(x+ 2y) is:

A) 3 B) 2 C) D) 0

97. A number consisting of two digits is four times the

sum of its
difference of digits added to the number its digits are reversed.digits.
Then
If nine times of the
the
A) 24 B) 36 number is:
C) 48
D) All of these
10
24025 - A
98. A shop owner has 1000 botles of soft drinks in his store and wishes to distribute them
In amonth. From expericnce it is known that the demand of the number of bottles, D in
a month is given by )= -1000p +2000p +9000, where p is thc pricc in rupees per
bottle. Then what is the price per bottle that will result zcro inventory?
A) Rs. § B) Rs, 4 C) Rs.3 D) Rs.2

99, II eleven tcams are participating in a quiz contest, then the number of ways the first.
second and third positions may be won as:
A) 165 B) 445 C) 990 D) None of these

T00. The number of arrangement of the letters of the word FAILURE, so that vowels are
always coming together is:
A) 576 B) 288 C) 1152 D) 432

Qns. 101-106. Fill n the blanks using the correct options:

101. They saw the snow mountains towering---- them.
A) On B) above C) OVer D) acrosS

102. We can scarcely afford the rent, -----?

A) do we? B) don't we? C) can we? D) can't we?

103. One of the players---- injured during the match.

A) have B) were C) was D) are

104. A synonym for the word claim is---

A) negate B) contention C) repudiate D) abjure
105. Complete the following sentence using theappropriate clause.
You should work hard, lest--
A) you fail B) you willnot fail
C) you should fail D) you should notfail

106. In mathematics ------ accuracy is essential.

A) A B) An C) The D) None of these
107. Choose the suitable phrasal verb for theword given in italics:
Our government is trying its best to abolish untouchability.
A) doaway with B) get off C) do off D) get over

108. Change the following sentence into indirect speech.

The carpenter told me, "I will complete the furniture in two days".
A) The carpenter told me that he will complete the furniture in two days.
B) The carpenter told me that he would complete the furniture in two days.
C) The carpenter told me that he would be completing the
furniture in two days.
The carpenter told me that he will be completing the furniture
D) in two days.

11
24025 - A
109. Arrange the jumbledsentences in order to make a paragraph.
1. But Cassius did not like this, and plucking Brutus by the sleeve said.
'Brutus, a word with you'.
Hesaid that it was not a good idea to let Antony spcak, as the people might
be moved by his words.
3.
Mark Antony asked Brutus togrant him permission to make an orationat
Caesar's funeral: and Brutus readily gave it to him.
4.
He led Brutus away and told him quictly. You know not what you do'.
A) 3.2. 1,4 B 3.4, 2, 1 C) 3, 1,4. 2 D) 3.2. 4. 1
110. Convert the sentence into passive voice:
Everyone had warned me about the weather before I went to Scotland.
A) Ihad been warned about the weather before I went to Scotland.
B) I was warned about the weather before I went to Scotland.
CY Ihad warned about the weather before I went to Scotland.
D) I was being warned about the weather before Iwent to Scotland.

111. Spot the eror in the underlined sections of the sentence given
below:
If it rain, /we shall not /play the match. No error.
A B D

Read the following passage and answer the Questions from 112-115.
Isat yesterday morning employed in deliberating on which, among
that occurred to my imagination, I should bestow the paper of today. the various subjects
meditation by which nothing was determined, Igrew every momentAfter
a short effort of
ideas wandered from the first intention, and I rather wished to more irresolute, my
any settled subject: till at last I was awakened from this think, than thought upon
from the press: the time was come for which Ihad been dream of study by a summons
thus negligently purposing to
provide. and, however dubious or sluggish, I was now necessitated to write.
Though to a writer whose design is so comprehensive and
miscellaneous that he may
accommodate himself with a topic from every scene of life, or view of nature, it is no great
aggravation of his task to be obliged to a sudden composition; yet Icould
reproach myself for having so long neglected what was unavoidably to benot forbear to
which every moment's idleness increased the difficulty. There done, and of
in reflecting that I, who had only trifled till was however some pleasure
diligence was necessary, might still
congratulate myself upon my superiority to multitudes who have trifled till diligence is
vain; who can by no degree of activity or
resolution recover the opportunities which have
slipped away; and who are condemned by their own carelessness to hopeless calamity and
barren sorrow.

112. The wordcarrying the meaning doubtful' from the

A) deliberate B) passage is:
summons C) dubious D) sluggish

12
24025 - A
 113. The word opposite in meaning to lazy' Irom the passage is:
A) sumons B) sluggish C) idleness D) diligence
114. The word closcr in mcaning lo kecp onesel/from doing something is:
A) bestow B) negligent C) oblige D) forbear
11$. The writer econgratulates himself for:
A) Summons from the press
B)
C)
Superiority torecover the opportunities
Reproaching himself to idlencss
D) Sclecting topics from everyday life
116. The first tourist astronaut of India:
A) Sunitha Wlliams B) Rakesh Sharma
C) Raju Chari D) GopiThotakura
117. Winner of the Purple Cup' in the Indian Premier League 2024:
A) Harshit Rana B) ViratKohli
C) Harshal Patel D) Michel Starc

118. Hepatitis B infection is caused by:

A) Bacteria B) Virus C) Fungi D) Parasites

119. Director of the film 'AllWe Imagine as Light' which won the Grand Prix Award in
Cannes film festival 2024:
A) Anasuya Sengupta B) Chayya Kadam
C) Payal Kapadia D) Kani Kusruti

120. The Unnati MSME Scheme' of the government of Kerala provides:

A) Asum of 10 lakhs towomen graduate
B) A sum of 60 lakhs to chosen Adivasi and Dalit individuals only
C) Free land to chosen entrepreneur
D) A sum of 50 lakhs to chosen owners of entrepreneur

13 24025 - A