Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) General Examination

1. Which of the following is not a property

of magnetic lines of force?
(a) They form closed loops which do not cross
(b) The density increases with distance from the poles of a permanent magnet
(c) Hey are considered to have direction
(d) They seek paths of least magnetic resistance or least reluctance

2. Surrounding an electromagnet, the

magnetic field is strongest:
(a) Immediately after the current ceases to flow
(b) While the magnetizing current ceases to flow
(c) At the time the magnetic particles are applied to the part
(d) Just prior to current reversal

3. The value of permeability is:

(a) A fixed value depending upon the type of material
(b) Between 1 and 100 for all ferromagnetic materials
(c) Between 0 and 10 for all ferromagnetic materials
(d) Dependent upon the amount of magnetizing force necessary to overcome
saturation

4. The flux density of the magnetism induced by a coil is affected by:

(a) The coil size

(b) The current in the coil

(c) The number of turns in the coil

(d) All of the above

5. How many turns of a coil will be

needed to establish a longitudinal field
in a steel shaft that is 22.86 cm (9
inches) long and 7.62 cm (3 inches) in
diameter? 3000 amperes magnetizing
current is available, it is desired to
magnetize the part in accordance with
1
 the formula NI = 45,000/(L/D):

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 5

(d) 7

2
 6. How many ampere-turns are required
to magnetize a part that is 40.6 cm (16
inches) long and 5 cm (2 inches) in
diameter?

(a) 9000 ampere-turns

(b) 5625 ampere-turns

(c) 2812 ampere-turns

(d) None of the above

7. The lines of flux or force in a circularly

magnetized ferromagnetic bar:

(a) Are aligned through the piece from the south to the north pole

(b) Are aligned through the piece from the north to the south pole

(c) Leave the south pole and enter the north pole

(d) Are contained within and around the part

8. In which magnetizing method is the

current passed directly through the
part, thereby setting up a magnetic
field at right angles to the current flow?

(a) Longitudinal magnetization

(b) Coil magnetization

(c) Central conductor magnetization

(d) None of the above

9. Which of the following is false

concerning a magnetic field in and
around a hollow conductor as
compared to that of a solid conductor
of the same outside diameter when
both are of the same magnetic material,
and when the applied current is the
same?

(a) The field immediately outside the outer

surface of the hollow conductor is greater

(b) The field gradient inside the hollow conductor is steeper

(c) The fields outside the conductors are the same

(d) The fields are the same at the centre

10. The field in a section of ferromagnetic

3
 pipe being magnetized by means of a
central conductor is strongest at the:
(a) Ends of the pipe
(b) Outer surface of the pipe
(c) Inner surface of the pipe
(d) The field is uniform at all places

4
 11. For a 7.6 cm (3 inches) diameter bar
how much current is needed to
magnetize the bar for the detection of
longitudinal discontinuities:

(a) 5500 amperes

(b) 16500 amperes

(c) 1000 amperes

(d) 3000 amperes

12. For detection of longitudinal

discontinuities a 7.6 cm (3 inches)
diameter bar is magnetized in:

(a) The longitudinal direction

(b) The circular direction

(c) The clockwise direction

(d) None of the above directions

13. A bar that is 5 cm (2 inches) by 10 cm

(4 inches) by 30.5 cm (12 inches) is
being magnetized in the circular
direction. About how many amperes
are required using the perimeter
approach?

(a) 2200

(b) 4500

(c) 3800

(d) None of the above

14. An advantage of AC is that:

(a) It is most readily available

(b) Equipment can be made lighter

(c) It leaves the part demagnetized

(d) All of the above

15. When a magnetic field cuts across a crack:

(a) Electrons begin jumping back and forth across the crack

(b) The crack begins to heat up

5
 (c) Magnetic poles form at the edges of the crack

(d) All of the above

6
16. A disadvantage of AC current is that it:

(a) Cannot be used with dry powder

(b) Has poor penetrating power

(c) Can only provide low flux densities

(d) Cannot be used for residual magnetic particle testing

17. What causes a leakage field in a steel bar?

(a) A crack

(b) Reversal of the magnetic field

(c) Paint on the surface

(d) All of the above

18. An indication is a defect under which of

the following conditions?

(a) If it is greater than 3.8 cm (1.5 inches) long

(b) If it exceeds the limits of a standard or specification

(c) If it is deep

(d) Under all of the above indications

19. Paint will not affect the detection of a

crack if:

(a) The paint is thick and the defect is subsurface

(b) The paint is thin and the crack is parallel to the direction of flux lines

(c) The crack is sharp and the paint is thin

(d) All of the above

20. A magnetic particle indication is

sharp and very fine; this suggests
that the discontinuity is:

(a) Subsurface seam

(b) A shallow, tight surface crack

(c) Porosity

(d) A deep crack

7
 21. Among the following, the best type of
current for the detection of fatigue cracks
is:

(a) Half-wave direct current

(b) Alternating current

(c) Direct current

(d) Half-wave alternating current

22. Continuous magnetization provides the

most sensitivity because:

(a) The magnetic particles are present while the part is being magnetized

(b) The magnetic field is greatest while the magnetizing current is on

(c) All of the above

(d) Neither of the above

23. The sensitivity of magnetic particle

testing is greatest when the discontinuity
is:

(a) Parallel to the direction of the magnetic flux lines

(b) Perpendicular to the flow of the magnetizing current

(c) Perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic flux

(d) Perpendicular to the line between prods

24. To provide reliability and

reproducibility in magnetic particle
testing, written procedures should
include:

(a) Location of the coil and current for each magnetization

(b) Requirements for ammeter calibration

(c) Type and concentration of the particles

(d) All of the above

25. The magnetic particles are noticed to

bunch in some fillet areas and stand on
end on the edge of a part being
magnetized. These observations
indicate that the:

(a) Particle concentration is too low

8
(b) Flux density is excessive

(c) Flux density is too low

(d) Magnetizing current should be changed form AC to DC

9
 26. Flux density is a measure of the
number of magnetic flux lines
perpendicular to an area of cross-
section. If a discontinuity is in the
plane of the unit area, the strongest
magnetic article indication will be
formed when the discontinuity is:

(a) Inclined at 45º to the flux lines

(b) Parallel to the flux lines

(c) 90º to the flux lines

(d) 135º to the flux lines

27. Prods are being used to magnetize a

weld area. When dry powder is dusted
on the surface, it is observed that there
is no mobility of the particles. What is
the most probable reason for this
observation?

(a) The magnetizing current is not high enough

(b) The flux density is too low

(c) DC is being used

(d) All of the above are possible reasons

28. The current from portable high amperage

units can be applied to the object using:

(a) Prods

(b) Cable coils

(c) Pre-wrapped coils

(d) All of the above

29. How can parts be tested to determine if

they have been adequately demagnetized?

(a) By bringing a suspended paper clip near the middle of the part

(b) By using a small horseshoe permanent magnet

(c) By using a small magnetometer held at a corner of the part

(d) By sprinkling some magnetic particles on the part

30. The statement ‘magnetic particle testing

can be applied to plated and painted
parts’.
10
(a) May be true depending upon the thickness of the coating

(b) May be true if flux densities are increased

to compensate for the coating thickness

(c) Is true only for circular circumstances

(d) Both (a) and (b)

11
 31. A group of indications, some sharp and
some broad and fuzzy, were found on
an area of a small forging.
Demagnetization and re-inspection
eliminated these indications. What was
the probable cause?

(a) Forging lap

(b) Magnetic writing

(c) Change in permeability

(d) Subsurface variation

32. Magnetic particle testing is most likely to

find subsurface discontinuities in:

(a) Soft steels with high permeability

(b) Soft steels with low permeability

(c) Hardened steels with low permeability

(d) Hardened steels with high permeability

33. Which of the following is not an

advantage of Magnetic Particle testing?

(a) Fast and simple to perform

(b) Can detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

(c) Most reliable for finding surface cracks in all types of material

(d) Works well through a thin coat of paint

34. Which of the following does not represent

a limitation of Magnetic Particle testing?

(a) The type of materials which may be effectively tested

(b) The directionality of the magnetic field

(c) The need for demagnetization

(d) The ability to detect discontinuities filled with foreign material

35. The most effective NDT method for

locating surface cracks in
ferromagnetic materials is:

(a) Ultrasonic testing

(b) Radiographic testing

12
(c) Magnetic particles testing

(d) Liquid penetrant testing

13
 36. A discontinuity which is produced during
solidification of the molten metal is
called:

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

37. Pipe would be classified as what type of

discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

38. A seam would be classified as what type

of discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

39. A lamination in steel plate would be

classified as what type of discontinuity?

(a) Inherent

(b) Processing

(c) Service

(d) None of the above

40. An internal rupture caused by working

steel at improper temperatures is called a:

(a) Lap

(b) Cold shut

(c) Forging burst

(d) Slag inclusion

14
 1.1.2 Magnetic Particles Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Specific
Examination

1. Demagnetization, ASTM E709-95

recommends a coil of ampere-turns:

(a) 1000 to 3000

(b) 3000 to 5000

(c) 5000 to 10000

(d) 10000 to 15000

2. According to ASTM E709-95 when

dry particles are used magnetic particle
testing shall not be performed on the
surface of parts whose temperature
exceeds:

(a) 57ºC

(b) 79ºC

(c) 158ºC

(d) 136ºC
3. According to ASTM E709-95 in using
prod technique, prod spacing shall not
exceed:

(a) 50 mm

(b) 100 mm

(c) 150 mm

(d) 200 mm

4. According to ASTM E709-95, the UV

intensity shall not be less than:

(a) 600 µW/cm2

(b) 700 µW/cm2

(c) 800 µW/cm2

(d) 900 µW/cm2

5. According to ASTM E709-95 in using

prod technique on a 50 mm thickness
plate with a prod spacing of 101 mm
(4 inches), current shall be selected in
15
 the following range:

(a) 300-450 A

(b) 400-500 A

(c) 500-625 A

(d) 550-700 A

6. According to ASMT E709-95

alternating current electromagnetic
yokes should give a lifting force of at
least:

(a) 1.5 kg

(b) 2.5 kg

(c) 3.5 kg

(d) 4.5 kg

7. According to ASTM E709-95 direct

current electromagnetic yokes should
have a lifting force of at least:

(a) 15 kg

(b) 16 kg

(c) 17 kg

(d) 18 kg
8. According to ASTM E709-95 the UV
light shall be centred on (1 Å = 10-10m):

(a) 3000 Å

(b) 3250 Å

(c) 3400 Å

(d) 3650 Å

9. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the UV light
intensity shall be above:

(a) 700 µW/cm2

(b) 800 µW/cm2

(c) 900 µW/cm2

(d) 1000 µW/cm2

16
10. According to ASTM E709-95 when fluorescent particles are used, the bulb shall be
warmed up prior to use for at least:

(a) 1 min

(b) 2 min

(c) 3 min

(d) 4 min

(e) 5 min

11. According to ASTM E709-95 with

prod technique, the prods shall be
tipped if the open circuit voltage is
over:
(a) 10 V
(b) 15 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V

12. According to ASME Section VIII, a

linear indication is defined as an
indication in which the length is equal
to or greater than the width by a factor
of:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
13. According to ASTM E709-95 the
viscosity limit (measured in centi
Stokes) of the wet medium
(conditioned water) should not exceed:

(a) 1 cSt

(b) 3 cSt

(c) 6 cSt

(d) 4 cSt

14. According to ASTM E709-95 when

applying fluorescent magnetic particles
technique, the operator shall be in
darkness area at least prior to

17
 examination:

(a) 2 min

(b) 3 min

(c) 4 min

(d) 5 min

15. According to ASTM E709-95 the

alkalinity of conditioned water shall not
exceed:

(a) 10.0 pH

(b) 10.5 pH

(c) 11.0 pH

(d) 11.5 pH

16. According to ASTM E709-95, with

wet continuous magnetization
technique, the duration of
magnetization current is of the order
of:

(a) 0.5 sec

(b) 1.0 sec

(c) 1.5 sec

(d) 2.0 sec

17. According to ASTM E709-95 in using

prods having a spacing of 19 mm (3/4
inches) and above, the magnetizing
current shall be:

(a) From 90 to 110 A/25 mm (1 inch)

(b) From 100 to 125 A/25 mm (1 inch)

(c) From 90 to 120 A/ 25 mm (1 inch)

(d) From 100 to 200 A/25 mm (1 inch)

18. According to ASTM E709-95 powder
shall be applied upon the part to be
tested in such a manner that:

(a) A light uniform coating is formed

(b) In excess coating

18
(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

19. According to ASTM E709-95 before

turning off current and examination,
dry powder in excess shall be:

(a) Removed by a dry-air current

(b) Kept in place

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

20. According to ASTM E709-95

demagnetization can be performed by:

(a) Decreasing alternating current

(b) Reversing direct current

(c) All of the above

(d) None of the above

(e)

(f)

19
 1.1.3 Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 (MT-2) Answers to
Questions

Magnetic Particle Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
35 35
36
37
38
39
40
41
42
43
10 44 10
11 45 11
12 46 12
13 47 13
14 48 14
15 49 15
16 50 16
17 51 17
18 52 18
19 53 19
20 54 20
21 55 21
22 56 22
23 57 23
24 58 24
25 59 25
26 60 26
27 61 27
28 62 28
29 63 29
30 64 30
31 65 31
32 66 32
33 67 33
34 34

20
1.2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2)

1.2.1 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) General Examination

1. Increasing the kV setting on an X ray

machine increases the:

(a) Penetrating power

(b) Short wavelength components of the X ray beam

(c) Radiation intensity

(d) All of the above

2. During the manufacturing of a casting, the

purpose of a riser is:

(a) To introduce molten metal into the mould

(b) To provide additional molten metal to allow for shrinkage during solidification

(c) To allow excess heat to escape during solidification

(d) To provide a vent for excess steam to escape

3. An effective method of recognising a film

artifact is:

(a) Viewing a film in daylight

(b) Viewing film in reflected light from a viewer

(c) Comparing both film shot with a double film technique

(d) All of the above

4. The main reason for using a casting is

that:

(a) Castings are stronger than other metal product forms

(b) Castings are normally of higher quality than other metal product forms

(c) Complex shapes of minimum weight are easily manufactured

(d) None of the above

5. A change in which of the following

parameters would require a new X ray
exposure chart?

(a) kV

(b) Required film density

21
 (c) Test piece thickness

(d) All of the above

22
 6. Static marks on radiographic film are
caused by:

(a) An improperly grounded X ray tube

(b) Scratches on the lead screens

(c) Poor film handling technique

(d) Old film

7. Of the following radiographic sources,

which emits the most penetrating
radiation?

(a) Co-60

(b) Ra-226

(c) Cs-137

(d) Ir-192

8. Which of the following techniques

would probably reduce the amount
of back scattered radiation reaching
the film during a radiographic
exposure?

(a) Using a finer grained film

(b) Backing the cassette with a sheet of lead

(c) Removing lead screens

(d) All of the above

9. Radiographic contrast is dependant on:

(a) Density

(b) Processing

(c) Radiation energy

(d) All of the above

10. A plot of film density versus log of

relative exposure is called:

(a) An H&D curve

(b) A sensitometric curve

(c) A characteristic curve

23
 (d) All of the above

24
 11. The most common material used for
targets in X ray tubes is:

(a) Tungsten

(b) Copper

(c) Silver

(d) Beryllium

12. A dark crescent shaped spot, clearly

in the base metal adjacent to a weld
would probably be:

(a) Burn through

(b) Film crimp mark

(c) A crack

(d) A water spot on the film

13. Which of the following are potential

sources of scattered radiation?

(a) Test piece

(b) Cassette

(c) Floor

(d) All of the above

14. If the required exposure time for a

2220 GBq (60 curie) Ir-192 source is
2 minutes, what exposure time would
be required at 1110 GBq (30 curie)
source:

(a) 2/3 minutes

(b) 60 minutes

(c) 2 minutes

(d) 4 minutes

15. An advantage of a larger grain film is:

(a) It has higher speed

(b) It has better definition

(c) It has lower speed

25
 (d) None of the above

26
 16. How does radiation intensity change with
increasing distance from the source?

(a) Inversely with distance

(b) Inversely with the square of distance

(c) Directly with distance

(d) Directly with the square of distance

17. A weld discontinuity which consists of

unmelted joint surfaces at the root, and
which may be caused by poor fit- up, is
called:

(a) Hot short cracking

(b) A slag inclusion

(c) Incomplete penetration

(d) Burn through

18. Mottling due to X ray diffraction can be

identified by:

(a) Noting a large change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

(b) Noting a slight change between two

successive exposures with the test piece
rotated slightly about the beam axis

(c) Noting a characteristic pattern corresponding to the lattice spacing

(d) None of the above

19. Which of the following welding

discontinuities would be considered the
most serious?

(a) Porosity

(b) Incomplete penetration

(c) Crack

(d) Slag inclusions

20. A depression at the edge of a weld

where the base metal has been
melted during welding is called:

(a) Burn through

27
 (b) Undercut

(c) Root concavity

(d) Root convexity

28
 21. Which of the following would not be
considered a film artifact?

(a) Sugar

(b) Chemical streaks

(c) PI lines

(d) Pressure marks

22. Gamma ray or high voltage X ray

radiography, using film without lead
screens, is likely to result in:

(a) Mottling of the film

(b) Increased geometric unsharpness

(c) No apparent difference, but increased exposure time

(d) No apparent difference, but decreased exposure time

23. Which of the following would be

detrimental to radiographic image
sharpness?

(a) Small focal spot

(b) Small film focal distance

(c) Small object to film distance

(d) None of the above

24. A change in which the following

parameters would require a new X
ray exposure chart?

(a) kV

(b) X ray machine

(c) Test piece thickness

(d) All of the above

25. If the required exposure time for a

1850 GBq (50 curie) Ir-192 source is
4 minutes, what exposure time would
be required for 925 GBq (25 curie)
source:

(a) 4 minutes

(b) 8 minutes
29
 (c) 2 minutes

(d) 16 minutes

30
 26. A radiograph is made using film X
with an exposure of 10 mA-min. Film
density obtained in the area of interest
is 1.0. If it is desired to achieve a
density of 2.0 in the area of interest,
what exposure is required? (Log
relative exposure = 1.1 for a density of
1.0 and 1.62 for a density of 2.0)

(a) 41.67 mA-min

(b) 10 mA-min

(c) 12.6 mA-min

(d) 33.1 mA-min

27. The least offensive of the following

welding discontinuities would probably
be:

(a) Incomplete penetration

(b) Lack of fusion

(c) Slag inclusions

(d) Porosity

28. A quantity calculated by the formula,

0.693/(decay constant), is called:

(a) Half value layer

(b) Mass attenuation constant

(c) Half-life

(d) Specific activity

29. The density difference displayed from

one area of a film radiograph to another
is called:

(a) Subject contrast

(b) Radiographic contrast

(c) Film contrast

(d) Film latitude

30. The half-life of Co-60 is approximately:

(a) 74 days

31
 (b) 129 days

(c) 5.3 years

(d) 30.1 years

32
 31. Increasing the mA setting on an X ray
machine:

(a) Decreases exposure time

(b) Increases exposure time

(c) Increases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

(d) Decreases the short wavelength components of the X ray beam

32. Which of the following would be

considered a film artifact?

(a) Excessive film density

(b) Light leaks

(c) Inadequate penetration

(d) Sugar

33. Which of the following would be

detrimental to radiographic image
sharpness?

(a) Small focal spot

(b) Large film focal distance

(c) Small object to film distance

(d) None of the above

34. The half-life of Ir-192 is approximately:

(a) 74 days

(b) 129 days

(c) 5.3 years

(d) 30.1 years

35. A dark crescent shaped mark in the

centre of a weld bead radiographic
image would probably be:

(a) A film artifact

(b) Porosity

(c) A tungsten inclusion

(d) Root concavity

33
 36. A photon-nuclear interaction in which
energy is converted into sub-atomic
particles is called:

(a) The photoelectric effect

(b) The Compton effect

(c) Pair production

(d) Bremsstrahlung

37. An interaction in which radiation is

produced by the rapid deceleration of
an electron is called:

(a) The photoelectric effect

(b) The Compton effect

(c) Pair production

(d) Bremsstrahlung

38. The gamma factor of Tm-170 is:

(a) 1.37 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(b) 0.59 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(c) 0.0062 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

(d) 0.38 R·h-1·Ci-1 at one metre

39. An exposed radiographic film which

transmits 1% of the light incident on it
has what density:

(a) 1.0

(b) 2.0

(c) 99.0

(d) 0.5

40. If the radiation intensity is 5 Gy/h (500

R/h) at a distance of 152.4 cm (5 feet)
from a source, what is the intensity at
1524 cm (50 feet)?

(a) 0.5 Gy/h (50 R/h)

(b) 1.0 Gy/h (100 R/h)

(c) 0.1 Gy/h (10 R/h)

34
(d) 0.05 Gy/h (5 R/h)

35
 1.2.2 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Specific Examination

1. Contrast and definition are the two

major factors that determine the of
the radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Graininess

(d) Intensity

2. Scatter radiation:

(a) Is not controllable

(b) Is controllable to some extent, but cannot be completely eliminated

(c) Can be eliminated completely by changing the kV

(d) Can be eliminated completely by using lead intensifying screens

3. Which of the following factors will affect
the definition of the radiographic image?

(a) Intensity of radiation

(b) Film density

(c) Tube current

(d) Focal spot size

4. Slow films:

(a) Give better definition than fast films

(b) Are faster than fast films

(c) Require shorter exposure times than fast films

(d) Usually have less contrast than fast films

5. Contrast is defined as the comparison

between on different areas of
the radiograph:

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Sharpness

(d) Latitude
36
 6. Definition is defined as the measure
of the of the outline of the
image in the radiograph.

(a) Density

(b) Sensitivity

(c) Sharpness

(d) Latitude

7. As radiation (X ray or gamma ray) energy

is lowered:

(a) Radiation of longer wavelength and better penetration is produced

(b) Radiation of shorter wavelength and better penetration is produced

(c) Radiation of shorter wavelength and less penetration is produced

(d) Radiation longer wavelength and less penetration is produced

8. Dark crescent-shaped indications on a
radiographic film are most likely caused
by:

(a) Crimping film after exposure

(b) Crimping film before exposure

(c) Sudden extreme temperature change while processing

(d) Warm or exhausted fixer

9. Lead screen are primarily used to:

(a) Improve the quality of the radiography by increasing the effect of scatter
radiation

(b) Intensify the primary beam

(c) Decrease film graininess

(d) Reduce density of film

10. Static marks are most often caused by:

(a) Film bent when inserted in a cassette or holder

(b) Foreign material or dirt imbedded in screens

(c) Scratches on lead foil screens

(d) Improper film handling techniques

11. When radiographic energy is decreased:

37
 (a) The subject contrast decreases

(b) The film contrast decreases

(c) The subject contrast increases

(d) The film contrast decreases

12. The major cause for poor definition is:

(a) A source-to-film distance which is too long

(b) Screens which are too thin

(c) Film graininess

(d) Too small a source size

13. In order to increase latitude so that
thick and thin portions may be
radiographed at reasonable viewing
densities simultaneously:

(a) Fluorescent screen should be employed

(b) Led screens should be at least 5 mm thick

(c) The cassette may be loaded with two separate films of different speeds

(d) Radiograph the object at low energy

14. A dark circle type indication appearing

on a radiograph that is the result of the
failure of a core support to completely
melt is called:

(a) A hot tear

(b) A gas hole

(c) An unfused chaplet

(d) A spongy shrink

15. Dark rounded indications with rather

smooth edges appear on the radiograph
of casting made in sand mould. These
indications would be interpreted as:

(a) Slag inclusions

(b) Misrun

(c) Shrinkage

(d) Gas holes

38
 16. A dark, sharply defined, straight line in
the centre of the weld, and running
parallel with the length of the weld
should be interpreted as:

(a) Porosity

(b) Incomplete penetration

(c) A slag inclusion

(d) Lack of fusion

17. A dark, jagged, linear indication

appears on a radiograph of a casting.
The area is a transition area between a
thick and a thin section. This indication
should be interpreted as:
(a) A hot tear
(b) A gas hole
(c) An unfused chaplet
(d) A spongy shrink
18. In a radiograph of a weld there is an
indication appearing at the end of the
weldbead. It appears as a dark rounded
indication with fine small tails coming
from around the rounded indication
giving it some what of a star-shaped
appearance. This would probably be:

(a) A crater crack

(b) A slag inclusion

(c) Root concavity

(d) A star crack

19. The density of the radiograph through

the weld area is 3.2 while the density in
the base metal is 2.9. This would
probably indicate:

(a) Too high a kV was used

(b) Too low a kV was used

(c) There is excessive weld reinforcement

(d) Weld underfill

20. When radiographing a part which contains

39
 a crack, it will appear on the radiograph
as:

(a) A dark continuous line

(b) A light, irregular line

(c) Either a dark or light line

(d) A dark linear indication which could be continuous or intermittent

40
41
 1.2.3 Radiographic Testing Level 2 (RT-2) Answers to questions

Radiographic Testing Level 2 Answers to Questions

General Examination Specific Examination
35 69 35 69
36 70 36 70
37 71 37 71
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18 52 86 18 52
19 53 87 19 53
20 54 88 20 54
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34 68 34 68

42
 ULTRASONIC
TESTING (UT)

1.3 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1)

1.3.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) General Examination

1. The divergence of an ultrasonic beam is dependant on:

(a) Transducer wavelength and diameter

(b) Test specimen density

(c) The sound wave's angle of incidence

(d) The degree of damping of the ultrasonic transducer

2. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface between zero degrees
and the first critical angle:

(a) The sound beam is totally reflected

(b) Only shear waves are produced in the second material

(c) Shear waves and longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

(d) Only longitudinal waves are produced in the second material

3. The piezoelectric material in a search unit which vibrates to produce ultrasonic waves
is called:

(a) A backing material

(b) A lucite wedge

(c) A transducer element or crystal

(d) A couplant

4. When a longitudinal wave is incident upon an inclined interface and is refracted at

ninety degrees, the angle of the incident longitudinal wave is called:

(a) The Snell constant

(b) The Snell angle

(c) The mode conversion constant

(d) The first critical angle

43
44
5. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through liquids?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface

(d) All of the above

6. When the motion of the particles of a medium is transverse to the direction of

propagation, the wave being transmitted is called a:

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Lamb wave

7. Which of the following test frequencies would generally provide the best penetration
in a 12 inch thick specimen of coarse-grained steel?

(a) 1.0 MHz

(b) 2.25 MHz

(c) 5.0 MHz

(d) 10 MHz

8. An oscilloscope display in which the screen base line is adjusted to represent the one
way distance in a test piece is called a:

(a) A scan display

(b) B scan display

(c) C scan display

(d) D scan display

9. A common use of ultrasonic testing is:

(a) Cleaning

(b) Detecting of sub-surface indications

(c) Determination of the test piece ductility

(d) Communications

45
 10. Sound waves of a frequency beyond the hearing range of the human ear are referred
to as ultrasonic waves or vibrations, and the term embraces all vibrational waves of
frequency greater than approximately:

(a) 20 kHz

(b) 2 MHz

(c) 2 kHz

(d) 200 kHz

11. Y cut crystals produce:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Surface waves

12. The cable that connects the ultrasonic instrument to the search unit is specially
designed so that one conductor is centred inside another. The technical name for such
a cable is:

(a) BX cable

(b) Conduit

(c) Coaxial cable

(d) Ultrasonic conductor cable grade 20

13. As ultrasonic frequency increases:

(a) Wavelength increases

(b) Wavelength decreases

(c) Sound velocity increases

(d) Sound velocity decreases

14. In an A scan presentation, the amplitude of vertical indications on the screen

represents the:

(a) Amount of ultrasonic sound energy returning to the search unit

(b) Distance travelled by the search unit

(c) Thickness of material being tested

(d) Elapsed time since the ultrasonic pulse was generated

46
15. Loss of the test piece back wall echo during scanning may be caused by:

(a) An abnormally homogeneous material structure

(b) A smooth entry surface on the test piece

(c) A discontinuity which is not parallel to the entry surface

(d) An opposite surface which is parallel to the entry surface

16. When a sound beam is reflected:

(a) The angle of reflection is found using Snell's law

(b) The angle of reflection equals the angle of incidence

(c) All the sound energy is reflected unless the acoustic impedance is zero

(d) Beam spread is decreased

17. Which of the following circuits converts electrical energy to ultrasonic energy?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The transducer

(c) The transformer

(d) The power supply

18. An instrument display in which the horizontal base line represents elapsed time and
the vertical deflection represents signal amplitudes is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) A time line display

19. Which of the following circuits provides short duration, high energy pulses which are
used to excite the transducer?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The amplifier

(c) The transducer

(d) The clock

47
 20. A cross section view of a test piece is produced by which of the following?

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) A time line display

21. Echo amplitude losses may be caused by:

(a) Entry surface roughness

(b) Coarse grain size

(c) Discontinuity orientation

(d) All of the above

22. Which of the following is an advantage of using a focused transducer?

(a) The useful range of the transducer is decreased

(b) The useful range of the transducer is increased

(c) Sensitivity to the effects of a rough surface is increased

(d) Greater sensitivity is achieved in the transducer's useable range

23. Which of the following circuits provide current to operate the ultrasonic instrument?

(a) The pulse generator

(b) The amplifier

(c) The power supply

(d) The sweep generator

24. Which of the following is a true statement?

(a) Higher frequencies produce lower sensitivity

(b) Higher frequencies produce longer wavelengths

(c) Thicker crystals produce lower frequency transducers

(d) Longer wavelengths produce higher sensitivity

48
25. Which type(s) of sound wave modes will propagate through solids?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface

(d) All of the above

26. The longitudinal wave incident angle at which the refracted shear wave angle equals
ninety degrees is called:

(a) The Snell angle

(b) The Snell constant

(c) The first critical angle

(d) The second critical angle

27. The amount of beam divergence from a crystal is primarily dependent on

the:

(a) Type of test

(b) Tightness of crystal backing in the search unit

(c) Frequency and crystal size

(d) Pulse length

28. In ultrasonic testing, a liquid coupling medium between the crystal surface and the
part surface is necessary because :

(a) Lubricant is required to minimize wear on the crystal surface

(b) An air interface between the crystal surface

and the part surface would almost completely
reflect the ultrasonic vibrations

(c) The crystal will not vibrate if placed directly

in contact with the surface of the part being
inspected

(d) The liquid is necessary to complete the electrical circuit in the search unit

29. X cut crystals produce:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Surface waves

49
 30. Lower frequency transducers are normally used:

(a) In contact testing applications

(b) In angle beam testing applications

(c) In immersion testing applications

(d) Where deeper penetration is required

31. All other factors being equal, which of the following modes of vibration has the
greatest velocity?

(a) Shear wave

(b) Transverse wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) Longitudinal wave

32. In immersion testing, the position of the search unit is often varied to transmit sound
into the test part at various angles to the front surface. Such a procedure is referred to
as:

(a) Angulation

(b) Dispersion

(c) Reflection testing

(d) Refraction

33. The angle of a refracted shear wave generated as a sound wave passes at an angle
through an acoustic interface is dependant on:

(a) The acoustic impedances of the materials of each side of the interface

(b) The frequency of the incident sound wave

(c) The wavelength of the incident sound wave

(d) The hardness of the materials on each side of the interface

34. Which of the following is a likely effect of a rough test piece surface?

(a) An improved ultrasonic signal to noise ratio

(b) A more penetrating sound beam

(c) Loss of discontinuity signal amplitude

(d) Higher test reliability

50
35. Wavelength is:

(a) The distance from the crest to the next trough of a sound wave

(b) The time required for a sound wave to

propagate from a trough to the next trough
of a sound wave

(c) The distance a sound wave travels in one second

(d) The distance from trough to trough or from peak to peak of a sound wave

36. The velocity of surface waves is approximately the velocity of

shear waves in the same material.

(a) Two times

(b) Four times

(c) One half

(d) Nine-tenths

37. An ultrasonic instrument control which allows moving an A scan display to the left or
right without changing the distance between any echoes displayed is called:

(a) The sweep length or range control

(b) The damping control

(c) The sweep delay

(d) The pulse length control

38. A disadvantage of using natural quartz crystals in a search unit is that:

(a) It will dissolve in water

(b) It is the least effective generator of

ultrasonic energy of all commonly used
materials

(c) It easily loses it operating characteristics as it ages

(d) None of the above is correct

39. The formula Sin A/Sin B = VA/VB is known as:

(a) The Fresnell relationship

(b) Snell's law

(c) The law of sines

(d) The critical velocity ratio

51
 40. A 25 MHz search unit would most likely be used during:

(a) Straight beam contact testing

(b) Immersion testing

(c) Angle beam contact testing

(d) Surface wave contact testing

(e) Sizing blocks

41. During ultrasonic testing by the immersion method, it is frequently necessary to

angulate the search unit when a discontinuity is located at an angle in order to:

(a) Avoid a large number of back reflections that

could interfere with a normal test pattern

(b) Obtain a maximum response if the

discontinuity is not originally oriented
perpendicular to the ultrasonic beam

(c) Obtain a discontinuity indication of the same

height as the indication from the flat
bottomed hole in a reference block

(d) Obtain the maximum number of entry surface reflections

42. Which of the following transducer materials is the most efficient receiver of
ultrasonic energy?

(a) Lead metaniobate

(b) Quartz

(c) Lithium sulphate

(d) Barium titanate

43. An ultrasonic wave in which particle displacement is 90 degrees to the direction of

wave propagation is called a:
(a) Longitudinal wave
(b) Shear wave
(c) Compressional wave
(d) Plate wave

44. An advantage of using lithium sulphate in search units it that:

(a) It is one of the most efficient generators of ultrasonic energy
(b) It is one of the most efficient receivers of ultrasonic energy
(c) It is insoluble

52
(d) It can withstand temperatures as high as 700ºC

53
 45. Moving a search unit over a test surface either manually or automatically is referred
to as:

(a) Scanning

(b) Attenuating

(c) Angulating

(d) Resonating

1.3.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 1 (UT-1) Specific Examination

1. Which of the following materials of the same alloy is most likely to produce the

(a) casting

54
1.4 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2)

1.4.1 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) General Examination

1. Most commercial ultrasonic testing is performed at frequencies between:

(a) 1 MHz and 10 MHz

(b) 1 MHz and 100 MHz

(c) 10 MHz and 50 MHz

(d) 1 MHz and 25 MHz

2. For a transducer with any given Q, resolution increases with:

(a) Sensitivity

(b) Frequency

(c) Wavelength

(d) Crystal thickness

3. Resolving power of a transducer is directly proportional to its:

(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Q

4. The term is used to refer to the product of wave velocity and density is:

(a) Acoustic impedance

(b) The velocity-density ratio

(c) Index of refraction

(d) Reflection co-efficient

5. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence, the reflection coefficient is given by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

55
 6. For an ultrasonic beam with normal incidence the transmission coefficient is given
by:

(a) [(Z1+Z2)2]/[(Z1-Z2)2]

(b) (Z1+Z2)/(Z1-Z2)

(c) [(4) (Z1)(Z2)]/[(Z1+Z2)2]

(d) [(Z1-Z2)2]/[Z1+Z2)2]

7. Snell's law is given by which of the following:

(a) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VB/VA

(b) (Sin A)/(Sin B) = VA/VB

(c) (Sin A)/ VB = V(Sin B)/VA

(d) (Sin A)[VA] = (Sin B)[ VB]

8. Snell's law is used to calculate:

(a) Angle of beam divergence

(b) Angle of diffraction

(c) Angle of refraction

(d) None of the above

9. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 37.9 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 26 degrees

(b) 45 degrees

(c) 48 degrees

(d) 64 degrees

10. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in steel [VS = 0.323cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 45.7 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 64 degrees

(b) 45.7 degrees

(c) 60 degrees

(d) 70 degrees

56
11. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 43.5 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees

12. Calculate the refracted shear wave angle in aluminium [VS = 0.31cm/microsec] for an
incident longitudinal wave of 53 degrees in Plexiglas [VL = 0.267cm/microsec]

(a) 53 degrees

(b) 61 degrees

(c) 42 degrees

(d) 68 degrees

13. Lithium sulphate, barium titanate and lead metaniobate are examples of:

(a) Magnetostrictive elements

(b) Piezoelectric elements

(c) Rochelle salts

(d) Y cut crystals

14. The particle motion for compression waves is:

(a) Parallel to wave propagation

(b) Transverse to wave propagation

(c) Elliptical

(d) Circular

15. Shear waves for ultrasonic testing are usually produced:

(a) X cut crystals

(b) Y cut crystals

(c) Modulated R-F conversion

(d) Mode converted longitudinal waves

57
 16. Near surface resolution can be improved by:

(a) Using a narrow band transducer

(b) Using a focused transducer

(c) Using a high Q transducer

(d) None of the above

17. The most important requirement for paintbrush transducer is:

(a) Uniform beam intensity across the transducer

(b) A pinpoint focal spot

(c) Good horizontal linearity characteristics

(d) Prescribed vertical and horizontal linearity characteristics

18. Which of the following is an advantage of a focused transducer?

(a) Extended useful range

(b) Reduced sensitivity in localised area

(c) Improved signal to noise ratio over an extended range

(d) Higher resolution over a limited range

19. Which of the following is intended to be a ‘first cut’ or rough inspection device to be
followed by more precise evaluation of any discontinuities found?

(a) Wheel transducer

(b) Focused transducer

(c) Paintbrush transducer

(d) Ball transducer

20. A wider entry surface indication or pulse may result from:

(a) Side lobes of the sound beam being reflected from a rough surface

(b) Using a lower energy pulser

(c) Using a higher amplifier attenuation setting

(d) Huygen's principle

58
 21. Which of the following methods might be used to reduce attenuation losses in an
ultrasonic test?

(a) Use a shorter wavelength

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Change from longitudinal waves to shear waves

(d) Change to a coarser grained test piece

22. When comparing discontinuity echoes to equivalent flat bottom hole echoes in
materials with similar impedance, surface finish and attenuation:

(a) The flaw is never larger than the flat bottom hole

(b) The flaw is never smaller than the flat bottom hole

(c) The flaw is always smaller than the flat bottom hole

(d) None of the above

23. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

(a) Large parts are easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) High test frequencies may be used

(d) Most test systems are not easily transported in the field

24. An advantage of immersion testing is that:

(a) Large parts may be easily inspected

(b) Most test systems are easily transported in the field

(c) Low test frequencies may be used

(d) Irregularly shaped test pieces can be virtually completely examined

25. An ultrasonic data display which shows a plan view presentation of the data is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

59
 26. An ultrasonic display which shows a cross section of the test piece and any flaws
which are found are called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

27. An ultrasonic display which shows echo locations and amplitude is called:

(a) A scan

(b) B scan

(c) C scan

(d) Orthogonal view

28. An advantage of using lower frequencies during ultrasonic testing is that:

(a) Near surface resolution is improved

(b) Sensitivity to small discontinuities is improved

(c) Beam spread is reduced

(d) Sensitivity to unfavourable oriented flaws is improved

29. A method of compensating for the ‘dead zone’ or near surface resolution problems is
to:

(a) Inspect all areas of the test piece twice to assure repeatability of indications

(b) Re-inspect from the opposite side of the test piece if geometry permits

(c) Re-inspect using a higher energy pulse

(d) Re-inspect using a higher frequency transducer that does not have a ‘dead
zone’

30. When testing a test piece with parallel front and back surfaces, no back wall echo can
be obtained. Which of the following actions might enable you to obtain a back wall
echo?

(a) Use a wetter transducer

(b) Use a lower frequency transducer

(c) Use a transducer with a narrower bandwidth

(d) Use a higher frequency transducer

60
31. Materials which can readily be inspected with frequencies of 1 to 5 MHz are:

(a) Steel, cast iron and concrete

(b) Titanium, wood and aluminium

(c) Magnesium, titanium and steel

(d) All of the above

32. When variations are noticed in the front surface reflection, the test piece should be
inspected for possible near surface discontinuities by:

(a) Using a lower frequency transducer

(b) Using a higher pulse energy

(c) Inspecting from the opposite side

(d) Calibrating on a smaller diameter flat bottom hole

33. Forging bursts are most often orientated:

(a) Parallel to the surface

(b) Perpendicular to the surface

(c) In a random manner

(d) At an angle of 45 degrees to the surface

34. The purpose of adding a wetting agent to an immersion bath is:

(a) To make sure the bath is wet

(b) To reduce corrosive properties of the bath

(c) To eliminate air bubbles in the bath

(d) To prevent rust

35. During immersion testing of pipe or tubing the incident longitudinal wave angle must
be limited to a narrow range. The reason for the upper limit is:

(a) To avoid complete reflection of ultrasound from the test piece

(b) To prevent formation of Rayleigh waves

(c) To prevent formation of shear waves

(d) To avoid saturating the test piece with ultrasound

61
 36. A calibration for immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing should establish a
transducer position such as:

(a) I.D. and O.D. notches produce equal responses for equivalent metal path
distances

(b) Rayleigh waves are generated through the entire pipe or tubing wall

(c) All ultrasound enters the test piece

(d) Only longitudinal waves are generated in the test piece

37. One way of identifying spurious echoes in an ultrasonic test is:

(a) Re-test the test piece to verify that the echoes are repeatable

(b) Clean and re-test the teat piece to determine if the echoes can be eliminated

(c) Use the reject control to eliminate unwanted echoes

(d) Decrease the gain to see if the echoes can be eliminated

38. During immersion ultrasonic testing of pipe or tubing, spurious echoes may be caused
by:

(a) Dirt on the test piece

(b) Grease on the test piece

(c) Air bubbles on the test piece

(d) All of the above

39. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of concrete
are:

(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

40. Typical frequencies which might be used to perform ultrasonic testing of ferrous and
non-ferrous welds are:

(a) 25 to 100 kHz

(b) 200 to 5 MHz

(c) 1 MHz to 5 MHz

(d) 2.25 MHz to 10 MHz

62
 1.4.2 Ultrasonic Testing Level 2 (UT-2) Specific Examination

1. Which of the following may result in a long narrow rod if the beam divergence results
in a reflection from a side of the test piece before the sound wave reaches the back
surface?

(a) Multiple indications before the first back reflection

(b) Indications from multiple surface reflections

(c) Conversion from the longitudinal mode to shear mode

(d) Loss of front surface indications

2. Acoustic energy propagates in different modes. Which of the following represent a

mode?

(a) Longitudinal wave

(b) Shear wave

(c) Surface wave

(d) All of the above

3. Which of the following would be considered application(s) of ultrasonic testing?

(a) Determination of a material’s elastic modulus

(b) Study of a material’s metallurgical structure

(c) Measurement of a material’s thickness

(d) All of the above

63
 4. Waves whose particle displacement is parallel to the direction of propagation are
called:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Lamb waves

(d) Rayleigh waves

5. Sound waves with particle displacement transverse to the direction of wave travel are
known as:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

(d) Plate waves

6. The only sound waves which travel in liquids are:

(a) Longitudinal waves

(b) Shear waves

(c) Rayleigh waves

(d) Plate waves

7. In steel, the velocity of sound is greatest in which of the following modes of

vibration?

(a) Longitudinal

(b) Shear

(c) Surface wave

(d) Sound velocity is identical in all modes, in a given material

8. The scattering of the rays of an ultrasonic beam due to reflection from a highly
irregular surface is called:

(a) Angulation

(b) Dispersion

(c) Refraction

(d) Diffraction

64
9. Acoustic impedance is a material's:

(a) (Density)/(velocity)

(b) (Density) × (velocity)

(c) Refractive index

(d) (Density)/(refractive index)

10. When a sound beam is incident on an acoustic interface at some angle other than
normal incidence, which of the following occurs?

(a) Reflection

(b) Refraction

(c) Mode conversion

(d) All of the above

11. The angle formed by an ultrasonic wave as it enters a medium of different velocity
than the one from which it came and a line drawn perpendicular to the interface
between the two media is called:

(a) The angle of incidence

(b) The angle of refraction

(c) The angle of diffraction

(d) The angle of reflection

12. Which of the following frequencies would probably result in the greatest ultrasonic
attenuation losses?

(a) 1 MHz

(b) 2.25 MHz

(c) 10 MHz

(d) 25 MHz

13. Attenuation is made up of:

(a) Diffusion and absorption

(b) Scatter and reflection

(c) Absorption and scatter

(d) Reflection at grain boundaries

65
 14. The most important factor required for the proper interpretation of ultrasonic test
results is:

(a) The ultrasonic signal amplitude

(b) A knowledge of the test specimen material and its construction

(c) A knowledge of the ultrasonic instruments operating characteristics

(d) The ultrasonic signal location

15. A significant limitation of a lower frequency, single element transducer is:

(a) Scatter of sound beam due to microstructure of test object

(b) Increased grain noise or ‘hash’

(c) Less beam spread

(d) Impaired ability to display discontinuities just below the entry surface

16. Which of the following is the least efficient generator of ultrasonic waves:

(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulphate

(c) Lead metaniobate

(d) Barium titanate

17. Which of the following is the least efficient receiver of ultrasonic Energy?

(a) Quartz

(b) Lithium sulphate

(c) Lead metaniobate

(d) Barium titanate

18. The length of the zone adjacent to a transducer in which fluctuations in sound
pressure occur is mostly affected by:

(a) The frequency of the transducer

(b) The diameter of the transducer

(c) The length of transducer cable

(d) Both (a) and (b)

66
19. An advantage of using a transducer with a large beam spread is:

(a) Higher sensitivity to small discontinuities

(b) Less likelihood of spurious echoes

(c) Greater likelihood of spurious echoes

(d) Greater likelihood of detecting randomly oriented discontinuities

20. Resolution is inversely proportional to:

(a) Wavelength

(b) Crystal thickness

(c) Bandwidth

(d) Mechanical losses

67
68