AIRCRAFT INSTRUMENT SYSTEM 4. Mounting screws loose.

5. Case paint chipped.

1. Turbine engine exhaust gas 6. Leaking at line B nut.
temperatures are measured by using 7. Will not zero out.
a. Iron/constantan thermocouples. 8. Fogged.
b. chromel/alumel a. 1
thermocouples. b. 5
c. Ratiometer electrical resistance c. None.
thermometers.
7. The maximum altitude loss permitted
2. Which of the following causes of during an unpressurized aircraft
aircraft magnetic compass instrument static pressure system
inaccuracies may be compensated for integrity check is
by mechanics? a. 50 feet in 1 minute.
a. Deviation. b. 200 feet in 1 minute.
b. Magnetic compass current. c. 100 feet in 1 minute.
c. Variation.
8. A radar altimeter indicates
3. When flags such as NAV, HDG, or GS a. flight level (pressure) altitude.
are displayed on an HSI, the indication b. altitude above sea level.
is c. altitude above ground
a. that function is inoperative. level.
b. that function is operating.
c. to call attention to deviation 9. The operating mechanism of most
from the desired setting, or flight hydraulic pressure gauges is
path, or heading, etc. a. a Bourdon tube.
b. an airtight diaphragm.
4. Which instruments are connected to c. an evacuated bellows filled with
an aircraft’s static pressure system an inert gas to which suitable
only? arms, levers, and gears are
1. Vertical speed indicator. attached.
2. Cabin altimeter.
3. Altimeter. 10. Which condition would be most likely
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. to cause excessive vacuum in a
5. Airspeed indicator. vacuum system?
a. Vacuum pump overspeed.
a. 1 and 3. b. Vacuum relief valve
b. 2, 4, and 5. improperly adjusted.
c. 2 and 4. c. Vacuum relief valve spring
weak.
5. Which of the following instruments will
normally have range markings? 11. Data transmitted between
a. Altimeter. components in an EFIS are converted
b. Cylinder head temperature into
gauge, airspeed indicator. a. digital signals.
c. Altimeter, airspeed indicator b. analog signals.
c. carrier wave signals.
6. Which instrument condition is
acceptable and would not require 12. Which statement regarding an aircraft
correction? instrument vacuum system is true?
1. Red line missing. a. Dry-type vacuum pumps
2. Case leaking. with carbon vanes are very
3. Glass cracked. susceptible to damage from
 solid airborne particles and by a screw from the front of
must take in only filtered the instrument panel.
air. c. By a metal shelf separate
b. Vacuum systems are from and located behind the
generally more effective at instrument panel.
high altitudes than positive
pressure systems. 17. Which of the following instrument
c. If the air inlet to each vacuum discrepancies could be corrected by
instrument is connected to a an aviation mechanic?
common atmospheric 1. Red line missing.
pressure manifold, the system 2. Case leaking.
generally will be equipped 3. Glass cracked.
with individual instrument 4. Mounting screws loose.
filters only. 5. Case paint chipped.
6. Leaking at line B nut.
13. What marking color is used to indicate 7. Will not adjust.
if a cover glass has slipped? 8. Fogged.
a. Red.
b. White. a. 1, 4, 6.
c. Yellow. b. 3,4,5,6.
c. 1,4,5,6.
14. When performing the static system
leakage check required by Section 18. Who is authorized to repair an aircraft
91.411, the technician utilizes instrument?
a. Static pressure. 1. A certified mechanic with an
b. Positive pressure. airframe rating.
c. Negative pressure. 2. A certificated repairman with an
airframe rating.
15. When an unpressurized aircraft’s static 3. A certificated repair station
pressure system is leak checked to approved for that class instrument.
comply with the requirements of 4. A certificated airframe repair station.
Section 91.411, what aircraft a. 1,2,3 and 4
instrument maybe used in lieu of a b. 3 and 4
pitot-static system tester? c. 3
1. Vertical speed indicator.
2. Cabin altimeter. 19. A Bourdon tube instrument may be
3. Altimeter. used to indicate
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. 1. pressure.
5. Airspeed indicator. 2. temperature.
3. position.
a. 1 or 5. a. 1 and 2.
b. 2 or 4. b. 1
c. 3 c. 2 and 3

20. How would an airspeed indicator be

16. How is a flangeless instrument case marked to show the best rate-of-climb
mounted in an instrument panel? speed (one engine inoperative)?
a. By four machine screws which a. A red radial line.
extend through the instrument b. A blue radial line.
panel. c. A green arc.
b. By an expanding-type
clamp secured to the back 21. The requirements for testing and
of the panel and tightened inspection of instrument static systems
 required by Section 91 .411 are 27. What must be done to an instrument
contained in panel that is supported by shock
a. Type Certificate Data Sheets. mounts?
b. AC 43.13-lA. a. Bonding straps must be
c. Part 43, appendix E. installed across the
instrument mounts as a
22. When an aircraft altimeter is set at current path.
29.92” Hg on the ground, the altimeter b. The instrument mounts must
will read be grounded to the aircraft
a. pressure altitude. structure as a current path.
b. density altitude. c. The instrument mounts must
c. field elevation. be tightened to the specified
torque required by the
23. Cases for electrically operated maintenance manual.
instruments are made of
a. Aluminum or composite 28. What does a reciprocating engine
cases. manifold pressure gauge indicate
b. Iron or steel cases. when the engine is not operating?
c. Bakelite or plastic cases. a. Zero pressure.
b. The differential between the
24. A certificated mechanic with airframe manifold pressure and the
and powerplant ratings may atmospheric pressure.
a. perform minor repairs to aircraft c. The existing atmospheric
instruments. pressure.
b. perform minor repairs and minor
alterations to aircraft 29. Fuel flow transmitters are designed to
instruments. transmit data
c. not perform repairs to aircraft a. mechanically.
instruments. b. electrically.
c. utilizing fluid power.
25. How many of the following are
controlled by gyroscopes? 30. The function of a symbol generator
1. Attitude indicator. (SG) in an [FIS is to
2. Heading indicator. a. display alphanumeric data
3. Turn needle of the turn-and-slip and representations of aircraft
indicator. instruments.
a. Three. b. allow the pilot to select the
b. Two. appropriate system
c. One. configuration for the current
flight situation.
26. What will be the result if the instrument c. receive and process input
static pressure line becomes signals from aircraft and
disconnected inside a pressurized engine sensors and send
cabin during cruising flight? the data to the appropriate
display.
a. The altimeter and airspeed
indicator will both read low. 31. The maximum deviation (during level
b. The altimeter and airspeed flight) permitted in a compensated
indicator will both read high. magnetic direction indicator installed
c. The altimeter will read low on an aircraft certificated under
and the airspeed indicator will Federal Aviation Regulation Part 23 is
read high. a. 6 degrees
b. 8 degrees
 c. 10 degrees c. both roll and yaw.

32. The function of a CRT in an EFIS is to 37. A radar altimeter determines altitude
a. allow the pilot to select the by
appropriate system a. transmitting a signal and
configuration for the current receiving back a reflected
flight situation. signal.
b. display alphanumeric data b. receiving signals transmitted
and representations of from ground radar stations.
aircraft instruments. c. means of transponder
c. receive and process input interrogation.
signals from aircraft and
engine sensors and send the 38. Where may a person look for the
data to the appropriate information necessary to determine the
display. required markings on an engine
instrument?
33. Which instruments are connected to 1. Engine manufacturer’s
an aircraft’s pitot-static system? specifications.
1. Vertical speed indicator. 2. Aircraft flight manual.
2. Cabin altimeter. 3. Instrument manufacturer’s
3. Altimeter. specifications.
4. Cabin rate-of-change indicator. 4. Aircraft maintenance manual.
5. Airspeed indicator.
a. 2 or 4.
a. 1,2,3,4, and 5. b. 1 or 4.
b. 1,2, and 4. c. 2 or 3.
c. 1,3, and 5.
39. Aircraft temperature thermocouple
34. When installing an instrument in an leads may
aircraft, who is responsible for making a. not be altered and are
sure it is properly marked? designed for a specific
a. The aircraft owner. installation.
b. The instrument installer. b. be installed with either lead to
c. The instrument manufacturer. either post of the indicator.
c. be repaired using solderless
35. If a static pressure system check connectors.
reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s)
maybe located by 40. What is the fixed line mark attached to
a. pressurizing the system and the compass bowl of a magnetic
adding leak detection dye. compass called?
b. isolating portions of the line a. Reeder line.
and testing each portion b. Lubber line.
systematically starting at c. Reference line.
the instrument connections.
c. removing and visually 41. Instrument static system leakage can
inspecting the line segments. be detected by observing the rate of
change in indication of the
36. A turn coordinator instrument indicates a. airspeed indicator after
a. the longitudinal attitude of the suction has been applied to
aircraft during climb and the static system to cause a
descent. prescribed equivalent
b. the need for corrections in airspeed to be indicated.
pitch and bank.
 b. altimeter after pressure has 45. Instrument panel shock mounts
been applied to the static absorb
system to cause a prescribed a. high energy impact shocks
equivalent altitude to be caused by hard landings.
indicated. b. low frequency, high-
c. altimeter after suction has amplitude shocks.
been applied to the static c. high G shock loads imposed
system to cause a by turbulent air.
prescribed equivalent
altitude to be indicated. 46. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with
a liquid to
42. (1) Aircraft instruments are color- a. retard precession of the float.
coded to direct attention to operational b. reduce deviation errors.
ranges and limitations. c. dampen the oscillation of
(2) Aircraft instruments range markings the float.
are not specified by Title 14 of the
Code of Federal Regulations but are 47. The green arc on an aircraft
standardized by aircraft temperature gauge indicates
manufacturers. a. the instrument is not
Regarding the above statements, calibrated.
a. only No. 1 is true. b. the desirable temperature
b. only No. 2 is true. range.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. c. a low, unsafe temperature
range.
43. The operation of an angle-of-attack
indicating system is based on 48. Which of the following instrument
detectionof differential pressure at a discrepancies would require
point where the airstream flows in a replacement of the instrument?
direction 1. Red line missing.
a. not parallel to the true 2. Case leaking.
angle of attack of the 3. Glass cracked.
aircraft. 4. Mounting screws loose.
b. parallel to the angle of attack 5. Case paint chipped.
of the aircraft. 6. Leaking at line B nut.
c. parallel to the longitudinal 7. Will not zero out.
axis of the aircraft. 8. Fogged.

44. Resistance-type temperature a. 2,3,7,8.

indicators using Wheatstone bridge or b. 1,4,6,7.
ratiometer circuits may be used to c. 1, 3,5,8.
indicate the temperatures of which of
the fo1lowing? 49. Aircraft instrument value should be
1. Free air. marked and graduated in accordance
2. Exhaust gas temperature. with
3. Carburetor air. a. the instrument manufacturer’s
4. Coolant (engine). specifications.
5. Oil temperature. b. both the aircraft and engine
6. Cylinder head temperature. manufacturers’ specifications.
c. the specific aircraft
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. maintenance or flight
b. 1,3, 4,and 5. manual.
c. 1,2,3 and 6.
50. When swinging a magnetic compass,
the compensators are adjusted to 57. The method of mounting aircraft
correct for instruments in their respective panels
a. magnetic influence depends on the
deviation. a. instrument manufacturer.
b. compass card oscillations. b. design of the instrument
c. magnetic variations. case.
c. design of the instrument
51. Which procedure should you use if you panel.
find a vacuum-operated instrument
glass loose? 58. An aircraft magnetic compass is
a. Mark the case and glass with swung to up-date the compass
a slippage mark. correction card when
b. Replace the glass. a. an annual inspection is
c. Install another instrument. accomplished on the aircraft.
b. the compass is serviced.
52. An aircraft instrument panel is c. equipment is added that
electrically bonded to the aircraft could effect compass
structure to deviation.
a. Act as a restraint strap.
b. provide current return 59. The function of a display controller in
paths an EFIS is to
c. Aid in the panel installation. a. display alphanumeric data
and representations of
53. A certificated mechanic may perform aircraft instruments.
a. minor repairs to instruments. b. allow the pilot to select the
b. 100-hour inspections of appropriate system
instruments. configuration for the
c. instrument overhaul. current flight situation.
c. receive and process input
54. A synchro transmitter is connected to signals from aircraft and
a synchro receiver engine sensors and send the
a. mechanically through data to the appropriate
linkage. display.
b. electromagnetically without
wires. 60. The lubber line on a directional gyro is
c. electrically with wires. used to
a. represent the nose of the
55. The red radial lines on the face of an aircraft.
engine oil pressure gauge indicates b. align the instrument glass in
a. minimum engine safe RPM the case.
operating range. c. represent the wings of the
b. minimum precautionary safe aircraft.
operating range.
c. minimum and! or maximum 61. Aircraft instrument panels are
safe operating limits. generally shock-mounted to absorb
a. all vibration.
56. A barometric altimeter indicates b. low-frequency, high-
pressure altitude when the barometric amplitude shocks.
scale is set at c. high-frequency, high-ampl
a. 29.92” Hg. itude shocks.
b. 14.7” Hg.
c. field elevation.
 6. Which of the following functions does
a skid control system perform?
1. Normal skid control.
POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEM 2. Normal braking.
1. Which of the following are some uses 3. Fail safe protection.
for a DC-selsyn system? 4. Locked wheel skid control.
1. Indicates position of retractable 5. Touchdown protection.
landing gear. 6. Takeoff protection.
2. Indicates the angle of incidence of a. 1, 2, 3, 4
an aircraft. b. 1, 3, 4, 5
3. Indicates the altitude of an aircraft. c. 1, 2, 5, 6
4. Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler 7. (Refer to Figure 20.) What will
door position. illuminate the amber indicator light?
5. Indicates fuel quantity.
6. Indicates the rate of climb of an a. Closing the nosewheel gear
aircraft. full retract switch.
7. Indicates position of wing flaps. b. Retarding one throttle and
a. 1,4,5,7 closing the left wheel gear
b. 2,3,4,5 locked down switch.
c. 2,3,5,6 c. Closing the nose, left and
2. Which repair would require a landing right wheel gear full retract
gear retraction test? switches.
a. Landing gear safety switch.

b. Red warning light bulb.

c. Gear downlock microswitch.

3. Which of the following conditions is
most likely to cause the landing gear
warning signal to sound?
a. Landing gear locked down and
throttle advanced.

b. Landing gear locked down and

8. When a landing gear safety switch on
throttle retarded.
a main gear strut closes at liftoff,
c. Landing gear not locked which system is deactivated?
down and throttle retarded. a. Landing gear position system.
4. The basic difference between an b. Antiskid system.
autosyn and a magnesyn indicating c. Aural warning system.
system is the 9. Landing gear warning systems usually
a. rotor. provide which of the following
indications?
b. transmitter.
a. Red light for unsafe gear, no
c. receiver. light for gear down, green light
for gear up.
5. An antiskid system is b. Green light for gear up and
a. A hydraulic system down, red light for unsafe gear.
b. An electrohydraulic system c. Red light for unsafe gear,
c. An electrical system green light for gear down, no
light for gear up.
10. an antiskid system, wheel skid is 16. In most modern hydraulically actuated
detected by landing gear systems, the order of
gear and fairing door operation is
a. an electrical sensor. controlled by
b. a discriminator.
c. a sudden rise in brake pressure. a. sequence valves.
11. A typical takeoff warning indication
system, in addition to throttle setting, b. shuttle valves.
monitors the position of which of the
following? c. microswitches.
17. (Refer to Figure 19.) What is the
a. Ailerons, elevators, speed indication of the red landing gear
brake, and steerable fuselage position light under the following
landing gear. conditions?
b. Elevators, speed brake, Aircraft on jacks.
flaps, and stabilizer trim. Landing gear in transit.
c. Aerodynamically actuated Warning horn sounding.
slats, elevators, flaps, and
speed brake. VIEW FIGURE
12. The angle-of-attack detector operates
from differential pressure when the
airstream
a. is parallel to the longitudinal
axis of the aircraft.
b. is not parallel to the true
angle of attack of the aircraft.
c. is parallel to the angle of attack
of the aircraft.
13. In a brake antiskid system, when an
approaching skid is sensed, an a. Extinguished
electrical signal is sent to the skid b. Flashing
control valve which c. Illuminated
a. acts as a bypass for the
18. Where is the landing gear safety
debooster cylinders.
switch usually located?
b. relieves the hydraulic
pressure on the brake. a. On the main gear shock strut.
c. equalizes the hydraulic b. On the landing gear drag brace.
pressure in adjacent brakes. c. On the pilot’s control pedestal.
14. Antiskid braking systems are
generally armed by
a. a centrifugal switch.
19. The rotor in an autosyn remote
b. a switch in the cockpit.
indicating system uses
c. the rotation of the wheels above
a certain speed. a. an electromagnet.
15. Microswitches are used primarily as b. a permanent magnet.
limit switches to c. neither an electromagnet nor a
permanent magnet.
a. limit generator output.
20. The purpose of antiskid generators is
b. control electrical units
to
automatically.
c. prevent overcharging of a a. monitor hydraulic pressure
battery. applied to brakes.
 b. indicate when a tire skid occurs. 25. The rotor in a magnesyn remote
c. measure wheel rotational indicating system uses
speed and any speed
changes. a. a permanent magnet.
b. an electromagnet.
21. (Refer to Figure 20.) What is the c. an electromagnet and a
minimum circumstance that will cause permanent magnet.
thelanding gear warning horn to 26. The pneumatic (reed) type stall
indicate an unsafe condition? warning system installed in some light
a. All gears up and one throttle aircraft is activated by
retarded.
a. static air pressure.
b. Any gear up and both throttles
b. positive air pressure.
retarded.
c. negative air pressure.
c. Any gear not down and 27. (1) An airspeed indicator measures the
locked, and one throttle differential between pitot and static air
retarded. pressures surrounding the aircraft at
22. (1) An antiskid system is designed to any moment of flight.
apply enough force to operate just (2) An airspeed indicator measures the
below the skid point. differential between pitot and cabin air
(2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit pressures at any moment of flight.
when the antiskid system is turned Regarding the above statements,
off or if there is a system failure.
a. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
Regarding the above statements,
b. only No. 2 is true.
a. only No. 1 is true.
c. only No. 1 is true.
b. only No. 2 is true. 28. The primary purpose of a takeoff
warning system is to alert the crew that
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. a monitored flight control is not
properly set prior to takeoff. The
23. Stall warning systems are generally system is activated by
designed to begin warning the pilot a. an 80 knot airspeed sensor.
when a stall b. an ignition system switch not
set for takeoff.
a. is imminent. c. a thrust lever.
29. What safety device is actuated by the
b. is starting to occur. compression and extension of a
landinggear strut?
c. first affects the outboard
portions of the wings. a. Uplock switch.
b. Downiock switch.
24. At what point in the landing operation c. Ground safety switch.
does normal skid control perform its 30. What landing gear warning device(s)
function? is/are incorporated on retractable
landing gear aircraft?
a. When wheel rotation
deceleration indicates an a. A visual indicator showing gear
impending skid. position.
b. A light which comes on when
b. When wheel rotation indicates
the gear is fully down and
hydroplaning condition.
locked.
c. Anytime the wheel is rotating. c. A horn or other aural device
and a red warning light.
31. (1) When an airplane is slowed below
approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid
 system automatically deactivates to chafing by
give the pilot full control of the brakes
for maneuvering and parking.
(2) An antiskid system consists a. wrapping with electrical tape.
basically of three components; wheel b. using a suitable grommet.
speed sensors, control box, and c. wrapping with plastic.
control valves.
Regarding the above statements, 2. Which motor would be most likely to have
a. only No. 1 is true. an armature brake?
b. only No. 2 is true.
a. Starter motor.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. b. Landing light retraction motor.
c. lnverter drive motor.
32. (1) A DC-selsyn system is a widely
used electrical method of indicating a 3. What is the principal advantage of the
remote mechanical movement or series-wound dc motor?
position.
(2) A synchro-type indicating system is a. High starling torque.
an electrical system used for b. Suitable for constant speed use.
transmitting information from one point c. Low starting torque.
to another.
Regarding the above statements, 4. How can it be determined if a transformer
a. only No. 1 is true. winding has some of its turns
shorted together?
b. only No. 2 is true.
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. a. Measure the input voltage with an
33. In the air with the antiskid armed, ohmmeter.
current cannot flow to the antiskid b. The output voltage will be high.
control box because the landing gear c. The transformer will get hot in
normal operation.
a. squat switch is open.
b. down and lock switch is open. 5. If the reverse current cutout relay contact
c. antiskid valves are open. points fail to open after the
34. (Refer to Figure 19). Which repair generator output has dropped below battery
should be made if the gear switch was potential, current will flow
placed in UP position and the gear through the generator armature
does not retract?
a. in the normal direction and through
a. Replace electrical wire No. 15 the shunt field opposite the normal
b. Replace the down limit switch. direction.
c. Replace electrical wire No. 12. b. and the shunt field opposite the
35. When an airplane’s primary flight normal direction.
control surfaces are set for a particular c. opposite the normal direction and
phase of flight, such as landing or through the shunt field in the
takeoff, the corresponding control normal direction.
surface indicating system will show
6. What is the color and orientation of the
a. flap/slat position. position lights for navigation on
b. speed break position. civil airplanes?
c. trim position.
AIRCRAFT ELECTRICAL SYSTEM a. Left side - green, right side - red, rear
aft - white.
1.Where electric cables must pass through b. Left side - red, right side - green,
holes in bulkheads, formers, ribs, FirewaLls, rear aft - white.
etc., the wires should be protected from
 c. Left side - white, right side - green, b. Copper jumpers.
rear aft – red. c. Aluminum jumpers.

7. What is required when operating two 13. Grounding is electrically connecting a

aircraft ac generators in parallel? conductive object to the primary
structure. One purpose of grounding is to
a. Amperes and frequency must both
be equal. a. prevent current return paths.
b. Frequency and voltage must both b. allow static charge accumulation.
be equal. c. prevent development of radio
c. Amperes and voltage must both be frequency potentials.
equal.
14. A battery-generator system provides
8. What is the minimum bend radius for an direct current. On installations requiring
electrical wire bundle? alternating current from the battery-generator
system, it is necessary to have
a. Ten times the outside diameter of
the bundle. a. a transformer.
b. Five times the outside diameter of b. an inverter.
the bundle. c. a variable resistor between the
c. Fifteen times the outside diameter of battery and generator.
the bundle.
15. Which of the following must be
9. What is a cause of generator brush arcing? accomplished when installing an anticollision
light?
a. Seating brushes with No. 000
sandpaper. a. InstaIl a switch independent of the
b. Carbon dust particles. position light switch.
c. Low spring tension. b. Use shielded electrical cable to
assure fail-safe operation.
10. When handling a high voltage capacitor in c. Connect the anticollision light to the
an electrical circuit, be sure it aircraft position light switch.

a. has a full charge before removing it 16. Which of the following copper electrical
from the circuit. cable sizes should be selected to replace a
b. has at least a residual charge before No. 6 aluminum electrical cable?
removing it from the circuit.
c. is fully discharged before a. No. 4.
removing it from the circuit. b. No.6.
c. No.8.
11. The nominal rating of electrical switches
refers to continuous 17. Major adjustments on equipment such as
regulators, contactors, and inverters are best
a. current rating with the contacts open. accomplished outside the airplane on test
b. voltage rating with the contacts benches with necessary instruments and
closed. equipment. Adjustment procedure should be
c. current rating with the contacts as outlined by
closed.
a. the equipment manufacturer.
12. What is normally used to bond b. the FAA.
noncontiguous stainless steel aircraft c. aircraft technical orders.
components?
18. Which ot the tollowing tactors must be
a. Stainless steel jumpers. taken into consideration when determining
the wire size to use for an aircraft installation? b. Provide adequate slack in the wire
bundle to compensate for large
1. Mechanical strength. changes in temperature.
2. Allowable power loss. c. Locate the bundle above flammable
3. Ease of installation. fluid lines and securely clamp to
4. Resistance of current return path through structure.
the aircraft structure.
5. Permissible voltage drop. 24. If one switch is used to control all
6. Current carrying capability of the navigation lights, the lights are most likely
conductor. connected
7. Type of load (continuous or intermittent).
a. in series with each other and parallel
a. 2,5,6,7. to the switch.
b. 1,2,4,5. b. in series with each other and in
c. 2,4, 6,7. series with the switch.
c. parallel to each other and in series
19. Residual voltage is a result of magnetism with the switch.
in the
25. The purpose of a rectifier in an electrical
a. field windings. system is to change
b. field shoes.
c. armature. a. the frequency of alternating current.
b. direct current to alternating current.
20. Electric circuits are protected from c. alternating current to direct
overheating by means of current.
a. thermocouples. 26. Which statement relating to electric wiring
b. shunts. is true?
c. fuses.
a. When attaching a terminal to the end
21. What is the purpose of the selection of of an electric cable, it should be
derated switches for known continuous load determined that the strengthof the
current applications? cable-to-terminal joint is at least twice
the tensile strength of the cable.
a. To calculate the voltage drop across b. When attaching a terminal to the
the circuit. end of an electric cable, it should be
b. To prevent short circuits in the motor determined that the strengthof the
field windings. cable-to-terminal joint is at least
c. To obtain reasonable switch equal to the tensile strength of the
efficiency and service life. cable itself.
c. All electric cable splices should be
22. Aircraft fuse capacity is rated in covered with soft insulating tubing
(spaghetti) for mechanical protection
a. volts.
against external abrasion.
b. ohms.
c. Amperes
27. One purpose of a growler test is to
determine the presence of
23. Which of the following should be
accomplished in the installation of aircraft a. an out-of-round commutator.
wiring? b. a broken field lead.
c. a shorted armature.
a. Support the bundle to structure and/ or
solid fluid lines to prevent chafing
damage.
28. The inductor-type inverter output voltage 33. The most common method of regulating
is controlled by the the voltage output of a compound dc
generator is to vary the
a. number of poles and the speed of
the motor. a. current flowing through the shunt
b. voltage regulator. field coils.
c. dc stator field current. b. total effective field strength by
changing the reluctance of the
29. If the positive field lead between a magnetic circuit.
generator and a generator control panel c. resistance of the series field circuit.
breaks and is shorted while the engine is
running, a voltmeter connected to generator 34. In the American Wire Gauge (AWG)
output would indicate system of numbers used to designate
electrical wire sizes, the number assigned to
a. zero voltage. a size is related to its
b. residual voltage.
c. normal voltage. a. combined resistance and current-
carrying capacity.
30. During ground operation, aircraft b. current-carrying capacity.
generator cooling is usually accomplished by c. cross-sectional area.
35. Why are the iron cores of most induction
a. auxiliary air cooled through an coils laminated?
air/fuel heat exchanger.
b. an integral fan. a. To reduce the core reluctance.
c. an external motor-driven fan. b. To increase the core permeability.
c. To reduce the effects of eddy
31. (1) There are three basic types of dc currents.
motors; series, shunt, and compound.
(2) In the series motor, the field windings, 36. One advantage of using ac electrical
consisting of relatively few, turns of heavy power in aircraft is
wire, are connected in series with the
armature winding. a. that ac electrical motors can be
Regarding the above statements, reversed while dc motors cannot.
b. greater ease in stepping the
a. only No. 1 is true. voltage up or down.
b. only No. 2 is true. c. that the effective voltage is 1 .41
c. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true. times the maximum instantaneous
voltage; therefore, less power input
32. Certain transport aircraft use ac electrical is required.
power for all normal operation and battery
furnished dc electrical power for standby 37. When necessary during operation, CSD
emergency use. In aircraft of this type that disconnect is usually accomplished by
operate no dc generators, the batteries are
kept charged by a. a switch in the cockpit.
b. circuit breaker activation.
a. inverters which use the aircraft’s ac c. a shear section in the input shaft.
generators as a source of power.
b. alternators which use the aircraft’s 38. When a diode is checked for an open
generators as a source of power. circuit or a short circuit, it should be
c. rectifiers which use the aircraft’s
ac generators as a source of a. in the circuit.
powern. b. checked with a milliamp ammeter.
c. disconnected from the circuit.
39. The circuit breaker in the instrument a. The current exceeds a
lighting system protects the predetermined value.
b. The voltage rating should be lower
a. lights from too much current. than the maximum circuit voltage.
b. wiring from too much current. c. Capacity matches the needs of the
c. wiring from too much voltage. circuit.

40. The generator rating is usually found 46. When dc generators are operated in
stamped on the parallel to supply power for a single load,
their controls include an equalizer circuit to
a. firewall. assure that all generators share the load
b. generator. equally. The equalizer circuit operates by
c. Engine
a. increasing the output of the low
41. Which type of dc generator is not used as generator to equal the output of the
an airplane generator? high generator.
b. decreasing the output of the high
a. Externally grounded. generator to equal the output of the
b. Series wound. low generator.
c. Compound wound. c. increasing the output of the low
generator and decreasing the
42. How many cycles of ac voltage are output of the high generator until
produced in a six-pole alternator of the they are equal
revolving-field type for each revolution of the
rotor? 47. In installations where the ammeter is in
the generator or alternator lead, and the
a. Four.
regulator system does not limit the maximum
b. Three.
current that the generator or alternator can
c. Six.
deliver, the ammeter can be redlined at what
43. If several long lengths of electrical cable
percent of the generator or alternator rating?
are to be installed in rigid conduit, the
possibility of damage to the cable as it is a. 50
pulled through the conduit will be reduced by b. 75
c. 100
a. dusting the cable with powdered
graphite.
48. The method most often used in
b. dusting the cable with powdered
overcoming the effect of armature reaction is
soapstone.
through the use of
c. applying a light coat of dielectric
grease. a. interpoles.
b. shaded poles.
44. If a generator is equipped with a vibrator- c. drum-wound armatures in
type voltage regulator, the actual time the combination with a negatively
voltage regulator points remain open connected series field
a. depends on the load carried by the
49. The commutator of a generator
generator.
b. is controlled by the reverse-current a. changes direct current produced in
cutout relay point clearance. the armature into alternating current
c. is increased when the external load is as it is taken from the armature.
greater than the generator output. b. changes alternating current
produced in the armature into
45. What is an important factor in selecting direct current as it is taken from
aircraft fuses? the armature.
 c. reverses the current in the field coils operate?
at the proper time in order to produce
direct current. a. Centrifugal force releases a rotating
brake cog from a stationary notch
50. What is the ratio of turns between the when the armature reaches a certain
primary coil winding and the secondary coil speed and magnetic force re-
winding of a transformer designed to triple its engages the cog when the electrical
input voltage? power is turned off.
b. A friction brake is applied by a
a. Primary will have one-third as magnet and released by a spring.
many turns as its secondary. c. A friction brake is applied by a
b. Primary will have twice as many turns spring and released by a magnet.
as its secondary.
c. Primary will have three times as 56. What does a rectifier do?
many turns as its secondary
. a. Changes direct current into
51. What kind of switch should you install in a alternating current.
single wire circuit that required the switch to b. Changes alternating current into
be manually held in the ON position? direct current.
c. Reduces voltage.
a. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST),
two-position normally open (NO). 57. A series-wound dc electric motor will
b. Single-pole, single-throw (SPST), normally require
single-position.
c. Single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), a. more current at high RPM than at low
single-position normally open (NO). RPM.
b. approximately the same current
52. When using the voltage drop method of throughout its operating range of
checking circuit resistance, the speed.
c. more current at low RPM than at
a. input voltage must be maintained high RPM.
at a constant value.
b. output voltage must be maintained at 58. (Refer to Figure 18.) Which of the
a constant value. batteries are connected together incorrectly?
c. input voltage must be varied.
View Figure(s)
53. Electric wire terminals for most aircraft
applications must be what type?

a. Slotted.
b. Hook.
c. Ring.

54. The major advantages of alternating

current (AC) over direct current (DC) is the
fact that its current and voltage can easily be
increased or decreased
a. 1
a. by means of a inverter. b. 2
b. by means of a rectifier. c. 3
c. by means of a transformer.

55. How does the magnetic brake used to

stop rotation of an electric motor armature
59. The navigation lights of some aircraft 64. For general electrical use in aircraft, the
consist of a single circuit controlled by a acceptable method of attaching a terminal to
single switch which has an ON position and a wire is by
an OFF position, with no additional positions
possible. This switch is referred to as a a. crimping.
b. soldering.
a. double-pole, single-throw (DPST), c. crimping and soldering.
two-position switch.
b. single-pole, double-throw (SPDT), 65. Which of the following are the major parts
two-position switch. of a dc motor?
c. single-pole, single-throw (S PST),
two-position switch. 1. Armature assembly.
2. Field assembly.
60. A circuit protection device called a current 3. Brush assembly.
limiter is essentially a slow blow fuse and is 4. Commutator.
designed to be used in 5. Pole piece.
6. Rheostat.
a. 400 cycle AC circuits. 7. End frame.
b. heavy power circuits. a. 1, 2, 3, 7.
c. starter-generator circuits. b. 2,3,4,5.
c. 3,5,6,7.
61. Oil canning of the sides of aluminum or 66. In an ac circuit with no phase lead or lag,
steel electrical junction boxes is considered to which is true?
be
a. Real power is zero.
a. normal operation in vibration prone b. Real power is greater than apparent
areas. power.
b. a shorting hazard. c. Real power equals apparent power.
c. acceptable operation.
67. Aluminum wire must be stripped very
62. Some electric motors have two sets of carefully because
field windings wound in opposite directions so
that the a. high resistance will develop in
stripping nicks.
a. speed of the motor can be more b. stripping nicks can cause short
closely controlled. circuits.
b. power output of the motor can be c. individual strands will break easily
more closely controlled. after being nicked.
c. motor can be operated in either
direction. 68. The voltage output of an alternator may
be regulated by controlling the
63. When using an ohmmeter to check the
continuity of a generator field coil, the coil a. speed of the alternator.
should b. voltage output of the dc exciter.
c. resistance in the rotor windings.
a. be removed from the generator
housing. 69. Bonding connections should be tested for
b. show high resistance when the meter
prods are connected to the terminals a. resistance value.
of the coil. b. amperage value.
c. show very low resistance if it is a c. reactance.
series field coil.
70. The three kinds of circuit-protection
devices used most commonly in aircraft
circuits are c. Resettable and reusable.

a. circuit breakers, resistors, and 77. To help minimize radio interference a

current limiters. capacitor will largely eliminate and provide a
b. circuit breakers, fuses, and steady direct current if the capacitor is
current limiters. connected to the generator in
c. circuit breakers, capacitors, and
current limiter plug-ins mechanical a. parallel.
reset types. b. series
c. series/parallel.
71. CSD driven generators are usually cooled
by 78. How is a shunt-wound dc generator
connected?
a. oil spray.
b. an integral fan. a. One field is shunted across the other.
c. both ram air and an integral fan. b. Both fields are shunted across the
armature.
72. When approved, splices may be used to c. The field and armature are shunted
repair manufactured harnesses or installed with a capacitor.
wiring. The maximum number of splices
permitted between any two connectors is 79. Circuits that must be operated only in an
emergency or whose inadvertent activation
a. one. could endanger a system frequently employ
b. two.
c. three. a. guarded switches.
b. push-pull-type circuit breakers only
73. What is the advantage of a current (no switches).
limiter? c. spring-loaded to off toggle or rocker
switches.
a. It breaks circuit quickly.
b. It can be reset easily. 80. If it is necessary to use an electrical
c. It will take overload for a short connector where it may be exposed to
period. moisture, the mechanic should

74. The pole pieces or shoes used in a dc a. coat the connector with grease.
generator are a part of the b. use a special moisture-proof type.
c. spray the connector with varnish or
a. armature assembly. zinc-chromate.
b. field assembly.
c. brush assembly 81. A voltage regulator controls generator
. output by
75. When adding a rheostat to a light circuit
to control the light intensity, it should be a. introducing a resistance in generator-
connected in to-battery lead in the event of
overload.
a. parallel with the light. b. shorting out field coil in the event of
b. series with the light. overload.
c. series parallel with the light switch. c. varying current flow to generator
field coil.
76. What is the advantage of a circuit breaker
when compared to a fuse? 82. To test generator or motor armature
windings for opens,
a. Never needs replacing.
b. Always eliminates the need of a
switch.
 a. place armature in a growler and 88. When considering an alteration, the
connect a 110V test light on criteria upon which the selection of electric
adjacent segments; light should cable size should be based are
light.
b. check adjacent segments on a. applied voltage and allowable voltage
commutator with an ohmmeter on the drop.
high resistance scale. b. current-carrying capacity and
c. use a 12/24V test light between the allowable voltage drop.
armature core segments and the shaft. c. current-carrying capacity and applied
voltage.
83. The primary considerations when
selecting electric cable size are 89. If the (+) terminal of a voltmeter is
connected to the (-) terminal of the source
a. current-carrying capacity and voltage and the (-) terminal of the meter is
allowable voltage drop. connected to the (+) terminal of the source
b. the voltage and amperage of the load voltage, the voltmeter will read
it must carry.
c. the system voltage and cable length. a. correctly.
b. low voltage.
84. Static inverters are electronic devices that c. backwards.
change DC to AC with the
90. The strength of the core of an
a. use of an oscillator. electromagnet depends upon the material
b. properties of an exclusive OR gate. from which it is constructed and which of the
c. input from an amplifier control by following?
integrated circuits.
a. The number of turns of wire in the coil
and the applied voltage.
85. An aircraft electrical circuit control relay is b. The number of turns of wire in the
coil and the amount of current
a. an electronically operated switch. (amperes) passing through the coil.
b. a device which converts electrical c. The size (cross section) and the
energy to kinetic energy. number of turns of wire in the coil and
c. any conductor which receives the applied voltage.
electrical energy and passes it on with
little or no resistance. 91. What type of instrument is used for
measuring very high values of resistance?
86. How are generators rated?
a. Megohmmeter.
a. Watts at rated voltage. b. Shunt-type ohmmeter.
b. Amperes at rated voltage. c. Multimeter
c. The impedance at rated voltage.
92. (Refer to Figure 19.) Upon completion of
87. What is the most accurate type of the landing gear extension cycle, the green
frequency-measuring instrument? light illuminated and the red light remained lit.
What is the probable cause?
a. Integrated circuit chip having a
clock circuit. View Figure(s)
b. Electrodynamometers using
electromagnetic fields.
c. Electromagnets using one permanent
magnet.
 98. The overvoltage control automatically
protects the generator system when
excessive voltage is present by
a. Short in the down limit switch.
b. Short in the gear safety switch. a. opening the shunt field circuit.
c. Short in the up limit switch. b. opening and resetting the field control
relay.
93. What is the voltage drop for a No. 18 c. breaking a circuit to the trip coil of the
copper wire 50 feet long to carry 12.5 field control relay.
amperes, continuous operation?
Use the formula VD = RLA 99. To what depth is the mica insulation
VD = Voltage drop between the commutator bars of a dc
R = Resistance per ft = .00644 generator undercut?
L = Length of wire
A = Amperes a. One-half the width of the mica.
a. 1/2V. b. Equal to twice the width of the mica.
b. 1V c. Equal to the width of the mica.
c. 4V.
100. If anyone generator in a 24-volt dc
94. How should a voltmeter be connected? system shows low voltage, the most likely
cause is
a. In series with the source.
a. an out-of-adjustment voltage
b. In parallel with the load.
regulator.
c. In series with the load.
b. shorted or grounded wiring.
c. a defective reverse current cutout
95. The poles of a generator are laminated to
relay.
a. reduce flux losses.
b. increase flux concentration. 101. During inspection of an anticollision light
c. reduce eddy current losses installation for condition and proper operation,
it should be determined that
96. When selecting hardware for attaching
bonding connections to an aircraft structure, a. electrical or mechanical
which of the following should be considered? interconnections are provided so that
the anticollision light will operate at
1. Mechanical strength. b. all times that the position light switch is
2. Allowable power loss. in the ON position.
3. Ease of installation. an appropriately rated fuse is in
4. Permissible voltage drop. position at the light to protect the
5. Amount of current to be carried. connecting wiring against electrical
6. Type of load (continuous or intermittent). faults.
a. 1, 3 , 5 c. the anticollision light can be
b. 4, 5, 6 operated independently of the
c. 1, 3, 3 position lights.

97. An ammeter in a battery charging system 102. Aircraft electrical junction boxes located
is for the purpose of indicating the in a fire zone are usually constructed of

a. amperage available for use. a. asbestos.

b. total amperes being used in the b. cadmium-plated steel.
airplane. c. stainless steel.
c. rate of current used to charge the 103. What is a method used for restoring
battery. generator field residual magnetism?
 a. Flash the fields. c. only plain nuts and lockwashers
b. Reseat the brushes. have been used for terminal
c. Energize the armature. attachment to the studs.

104. Integrated drive generators (IDG) 109. The type of electric wire terminals used
employ a type of high output ac generator for most aircraft applications, in addition to
that utilizes providing good current carrying capabilities,
are designed primarily
a. brushes and slip rings to carry
generated dc exciter current to the a. To prevent circuit failure due to
rotating field. terminal disconnection.
b. battery current to excite the field. b. for uncomplicated and rapid circuit
c. a brushless system to produce connection and disconnection.
current. c. for permanent connection to the
circuit.
105. How does the routing of coaxial cables
differ from the routing of electrical wiring? 110. If a wire is installed so that it comes in
contact with some moving parts, what
a. Coaxial cables are routed parallel with protection should be given the wire?
stringers or ribs.
b. Coaxial cables are routed at right a. Wrap with soft wire solder into a
angles to stringers or ribs. shield.
c. Coaxial cables are routed as b. Wrap with friction tape.
directly as possible. c. Pass through conduit.

106 What protection to wires and cables does 111. Which of the following is not one of the
conduit provide when used in aircraft purposes of interpoles in a generator?
installations?
a. Reduce field strength.
a. Electromagnetic. b. Overcome armature reaction.
b. Mechanical. c. Reduce arcing at the brushes.
c. Structural.
107. In troubleshooting an electrical circuit, if 112. In aircraft electrical systems, automatic
an ohmmeter is properly connected across a reset circuit breakers
circuit component and some value of
resistance is read, a. Should not be used as circuit
protective devices.
a. the component has continuity and is b. Are useful where only temporary
open. overloads are normally encountered.
b. either the component or the circuit is c. Must be used in all circuits essential
shorted. to safe operation of the aircraft.
c. the component has continuity and
is not open. 113. If the Integrated Drive Generator (IDG)
scavenge oil filter is contaminated with metal,
108. During inspection of the terminal strips you should
of an aircraft electrical system, it should be
determined that a. do an oil analysis to diagnose the
problem.
a. only locknuts have been used for b. remove and replace the IDG.
terminal attachment to the studs. c. replace the oil and filter at 25 hour
b. the terminal studs are anchored intervals.
against rotation.
114. Aircraft which operate only ac
generators (alternators) as a primary source
of electrical power normally provide current b. Excessive current draw from the
suitable for battery charging through the use battery.
of c. Constant current charging of the
battery to more than 100 percent of
a. a stepdown transformer and a its capacity.
rectifier.
b. an inverter and a voltage-dropping 120. How can the direction of rotation of a dc
resistor. electric motor be changed?
c. a dyna motor with a half-wave dc
output. a. Interchange the wires which connect
the motor to the external power
115. A circuit breaker is installed in an aircraft source.
electrical system primarily to protect the b. Reverse the electrical connections
to either the field or armature
a. circuit and should be located as windings.
close to the source as possibLe. c. Rotate the positive brush one
b. circuit and should be located as commutator segment.
close to the unit as possible.
c. electrical unit in the circuit and 121. The most common method of attaching
should be located as close to the a pin or socket to an individual wire in an MS
source as possible. electrical connector is by

116. What is the maximum amount of time a a. crimping.

circuit can be in operation and still be an b. soldering.
intermittent duty circuit? c. crimping and soldering.

a. Three minutes. 122. What is the frequency of an alternator

b. Two minutes. dependent upon?
c. One minute.
a. Voltage.
117. The only practical method of maintaining b. RPM.
a constant voltage output from an aircraft c. Current.
generator under varying conditions of speed
and load is to vary the 123. In a generator, what eliminates any
possible sparking to the brush guides caused
a. strength of the magnetic field. by the movement of the brushes within the
b. number of conductors in the holder?
armature.
c. speed at which the armature rotates. a. The brush pigtail.
b. Brush spring tension.
118. The pin section of an AN/MS connector c. Undercutting the mica on the
is normally installed on commutator.

a. the power supply side of a circuit. 124. A certain switch is described as a single-
b. the ground side of a circuit. pole, double-throw switch (SPDT). The throw
c. either side of a circuit (makes no of a switch indicates the number of
difference).
a. circuits each pole can complete
119. Which of the following is most likely to through the switch.
cause thermal runaway in a nickel- cadmium b. terminals at which current can enter
battery? or leave the switch.
c. places at which the operating device
a. A high internal resistance condition. (toggle, plunger, etc.) will come to
 rest and at the same time open or c. International Civil Aviation
close a circuit. Organization (ICAO) standards.

125. A voltage regulator controls generator 130. The voltage in an ac transformer

voltage by changing the secondary that contains twice as many ioops
as the primary will be
a. resistance in the generator output
circuit. a. greater and the amperage less
b. current in the generator output than in the primary.
circuit. b. greater and the amperage greater
c. resistance of the generator field than in the primary.
circuit. c. less and the amperage greater than
in the primary.
126. The starting current of a series-wound 131. How should the splices be arranged if
dc motor, in passing through both the field several are to be located in an electrical wire
and armature windings, produces a bundle?

a. low starting torque. a. Staggered along the length of the

b. speed slightly higher when unloaded. bundle.
c. high starting torque. b. Grouped together to facilitate
inspection.
127. Electric wiring installed in aircraft without c. Enclosed in a conduit.
special enclosing means (open wiring) offers
the advantages of ease of installation, simple 132. A CSD unit drives a generator through
maintenance,and reduced weight. When the use of
bundling open wiring, the bundles should
a. a synchronous electric motor.
a. be limited as to the number of b. an infinitely variable mechanical
cables to minimize damage from a gearing system.
single electrical fault. c. a variable hydraulic pump and
b. include at least one shielded cable to hydraulic motor.
provide good bonding of the bundle
to the airframe.
c. be limited to a minimum bend radius
of five times the bundle diameter to
BASIC ELECTRICITY
avoid excessive stresses on the
cable insulation. 1.The purpose of providing a space
underneath the plates in a lead acid battery’s
128. A CSD unit that is disconnected in flight,
due to a malfunction such as over cell container is to?
temperature, may be reconnected
A.Prevent sediment buildup from
a. automatically if the temperature falls contacting the plates causing a short
back into the normal operating range. circuit.
b. manually by the flightcrew.
c. only on the ground by B.Allow for convection flow of the electrolyte
maintenance personnel. in order to provide for cooling of the plates.

129. AN/MS electrical connectors are C.Ensure that the electrolyte quantity ratio to
specifically designed to meet the number of plates and plate area is
adequate.
a. Technical Standard Order (TSO)
specifications. 2.The electrolyte of nickel cadmium battery is
b. military specifications. the lowest when the battery is?
A. Being Charge B.In a discharge B.reduced battery service life for both type of
condition C. Under a heavy load condition batteries.

3.How can the state-of-charge of a nickel- C.Contamination of both types of

cadmium battery be determined? batteries.

A.By the measuring the specific gravity of the 8.An increase in which of the following factors
electrolyte. will cause a increase in the inductive
resistance of a circuit?
B.By measured discharge
A.Inductance and frequency
C.By the level of the electrolyte B.Resistance and voltage
4.Which of the following best describes the C.Resistance and capacitive
operating principal in a nickel-cadmium reactance.
battery installed in an aircraft? 9.Through which material will magnetic lines
A.At full charge, the electrolyte will be at its of force pass the most readily?
lowest level and should be filled. A. Iron B. Copper C.
B.To completely charge a Nickel-cadmium Aluminum
battery,some gassing must take 10.Diodes are used in electrical power supply
place;thus,some water will be used. circuits primarily as;
C.When positive plates slowly give up A.Switches B.Rectifiers
oxygen,which is regained by the negative B.Relays
plates,the battery is charging.
11.What unit is used to express electrical
5.A lead-acid battery with 12 cells connected power?
in series (no load voltage =2.1 volts per cell )
furnishes 10 amperes to a load of 2-ohms A.Volt B.Watt C.Ampere
resistance.the internal resistance of the
battery in this instance is? 12.A 1-horsepower,24 –volt dc electrc motor
that is 80 percent efficient requires 932.5
A.0.52 ohm B.2.52 ohm C.5.0 ohm watts.How much power will a 1-
horsepower ,12-volt dc electric motor that is
6.How many amperes will a 28-volt generator 75 percent efficient require?(note: 1
be required tom supply to a circuit containing horsepower=746 watts)
five lamps in parallel,three of which have a
resistance of 6 ohm each and two of which A.932.5 watts B.1,305.5 watts
have a resistance of 5 ohm each? C.994.6 watts

A.1.11 ampere B.1 ampere 13.Which requires the most electrical power
C.25.23 amperes during operation? (note: 1 horsepower=746
watts)
7.What is the likely result of servicing and
charging nickel-cadmium and lead acid A.A 12-volt motor requiring 8 amperes.
batteries together in the same service area?
B.Four 30 watts lamps in a 12 volts parallel
A.Lowered amp-hour capacities,for both circuit.
types of batteries.
C.Two lights requiring 3 amperes each in C.Increased internal resistance generates
a 24 volt parallel system. sufficient heat to prevent freezing.

14.Which of these will cause the resistance of 19.What may result if water is added to a
a conductor to decrease? nickel-cadmium battery when it is not fully
charged?
A.Decrease the length or the cross sectional
area. A.Excessive electrolyte dilution.

B.Decrease the leght or increase the cross B.Excessive spewing is likely to occur
sectional area. during the charging cycle.

C.Increase the length or decrease the cross C.No Adverse effects since water may be
sectional area. qadded anytime.

15.Transfer of electric energy from one circuit 20.In nickel-cadmium batteries, a rise in cell
to another without the aid of electrical temperature
connections;
A.Cause an increase internal resistance
A.is called induction B.Causes decrease in internal
resistance C.Increase cell voltage
B.is called capacistance
21.What is the operating resistance of a 30
C.Can cause excessive arcing and heat,and watt light bulb designed for a 28 volt system?
as a result is practical or use only with low
voltages/amperages. A. 1.07 ohms B. 26 ohms C.
0.93ohm.
16.A 14 ohm resistor is to be instlled in a
series circuit carrying .05 ampere.How much 22.Nickel-cadmium batteries which are stored
power will the resistor be required to for long period of time will show low liquid
dissipate? level because?

A.At least .70 miliwatt B.At least A.Electrolyte evaporates through the vents.
35 milliwatts C.Less than 0.35 watt B.Of current leakage from individual
cells. C.Electrolyte becomes absorbed
17.In a parallel cicuit with four 6 ohm resistors into the plates
across a 24 volt battery ,what is the total
voltage across resistor three(VR3) 23.A circuit has applied voltage of 30 volts
and a load consisting of a 10 ohm
In the circuits? resistor.What is the 10 ohm resistor?
A.6 volts B.18 volts C.24 A.10 volts B.20 volts C.30 volts
volts
24.Capacitors are sometimes used in a dc
18.A fully charged lead-acid battery will not circuits to,
freeze until extremely low temperatures are
reached because? A.Counteract inductive reactance at specific
locations.
A.The acid is in the plates,thereby increasing
the specific gravity of the solution. B.Smooth out slight pulsation in
current/voltage.
B.most of the acid is in the solution.
C.Assist in stepping voltage and current up A.1/2horsepower,24 volt motor which is 75
and /or down. percent efficient.

25.Which of the following are commonly used B.Four 30 watt lamps arranged in a 12 volt
as rectifiers in electrical circuits? 1.Anodes 2. parallel circuits
Cathodes 3. Diodes
C.Four 40 watts lamps discharge in a 13 volts
A.3,1 B.2,3 C.3 parallel circuits.

26.In a parallel circuits with a three 6 ohms 31.The electrolyte of a nickel cadmium
resistors across a 12 volt battery .what is the battery is highest when the battery is ?
total current (it) value in the circuits?
A.In a fully charge condition B.In a
A.2 amps. B. 6 amps. C.12 amps discharge condition. C.Under no-load
condition
27.which condition is an indication of
improperly torqued cell link connetions of a 32.Forward biasing of a solid state device will
nickel-cadmium battery? cause the device to?

A.Light spewing at the cell caps. A.Conduct via Zener breakdown B.Conduct
C.Turn off
B.Toxic And corrosive deposits of potassium
carbonate crystals. 33.The correct way to connect a test
voltmeter in a circuit is?
C.Heat or burn marks on the hardware.
A.In a series with unit. B.Between
28.Which statements is correct when made in the source voltage and the load C.,In
reference to a parallel circuits? parallel with a unit.
A.The current is equal in all portions of the 34.Through which material will magnetic line
circuits . will force pass the most readily?
B.The total current is equal to the sum of A.Copper B.Iron
the currents through the individual C.Aluminum
branches of the circuits.
35.The opposition offered by coil to flow of
C.The current in amperes can be found by alternating current is called (Disregard
dividing the EMF in volts by the sum ogf the Resistance)
resistors in ohms.
A.Impedance B.Reluctance
29.What will a voltmeter read if properly C.Inductance reactance
connected across a closed switch in a circuit
with electrical power on? 36.Capacitors are sometimes used in dc
circuits to?
A.Voltage drop in the component(s)the switch
is connected to. B.System voltage A.Counteract inductive reactance at specific
C.Zero voltage locations.

30.Which requires the most electrical power ? B.Smooth out sight pulsation in
(Note:1 horsepower=746 watts) current/voltage
C.Assist in stepping voltage and current up A.Equal to the highest applied voltage.
and/or down
B.At least 20 percent greater than the highest
37.A 24 volt source is required to a furnish applied voltage.
parallel circuit consisting of two resistors of
equal value.what is the value of each C.At least 50 percent greater than the
resistor? highest applied voltage.

(Note: r(t)=Eˆ2/P) 43.Diodes are use in electrical power supply

circuits primarily as:
A.24 ohms B.12 ohms C.6
ohms A.switches B.Rectifiers
C.Relays
38.What happened to the current in a voltage
step up transformer with ratio of 1 to 4? 44.Convert farads to picofarads by:

A.The current is stepped down by a 1to 4 A.Multiplying farads by 10 to the power of

ratio 12 B.Multiplying microfarads by 10 to the
power of 12 C.Multiplying picofarads by 10
B.The current is stepped by 1 to 4 ratio to the power of 12

C.The current does not charge 45.Electrostatic fields are also known as?

39.What is the basic unit of electrical A.Dielectric fields B.Electostatic

quantity? fields C.static fields

A.Electromotive force B.Ampere 46.Which of the following logic gates will

C.Coulomb provide an active high out only when all
inputs are different?
40.What determines the amount of current
which wil flow through a battery while it is A.XNOR B.NAND C.XOR
being charged by a constant voltage source?
47.What is the ampere hour rating of a
A.The total plate area of the battery B.the storage battery thatis designed to deliver 45
State-of-charge of the battery. C.The amperes for 2.5 hours?
Ampere-hour Capacity of the battery
A.112.5 Ampere hour B.90.0
41.When different rated capacitors are Ampere hour C.45.0 Ampere hours.
connected in parallel in a circuit,the total
capacistance is? (Note:C(T)=C(1)+C(2)+c(3) 48.When installing an electrical switch,under
…..) whicho= of the following conditions should
the switch be derated from its nominal current
A.Less than capacitance of the lowest rated rating?
capacitor.
A.Conductive Circuits B.Direct
B.Equal to the capacitance of the highest Current Motor Circuits
rated capacitor. C.Capacitive Circuits

C.Equal to the sum of all the capacitances. 49.The resistance of the current return path
through the aircraft is always considered
42.The working voltage of a capacitor in an neglible,provided this?
ac circuit should be?
A.Voltage drop across the circuit is checked 57.When calculating power in a reactive or
B.Generator is properly inductance ac circuit,the true power is?
grounded C.Structure is
adequately bonded A.More than the apparent power.

50.The allowable voltage drop between the B.Less than the apparent power in a reactive
generator and the bus bar is? circuit and more than the apparent power in
an inductive circuit.
A.1 percent of the regulated voltage
C.Less than the apparent power
B.2 percent of the regulated voltage
58.What is the operating resistance of a 30
C.Less than the voltage drop permitted watt light bulb designed for a 28 volt system?
between the battery and the bus bar.
A.1.07 ohms B.26 ohms C.0.93 ohm
51.A cabin entry light of 10 watts and a dome
light of 20 watts are connected in parallel to a 59.Unless otherwise specified ,any values
30 volts source if the voltage across the 10 given for current or voltage in an ac circuits
watt light is measured ,it will be? are assumed to be?

A.Equal to the voltage across the 20 watt A.Instantaneous values B.Effective

light B.Half the voltage across the 20 watt values C.Maximum values
light C.One-third of the input voltage 60.A 14 ohmresistor is to be installed in a
52.Forward biasing of a solid state device will series circuit carrying .05 ampere.how much
cause the device to? power will the resistor be required to
dissipate?
A.Conduct via a Zener breakdown
B.Conduct C.Turn off A.At least .70 milliwatt B.At least
35 milliwatts C.Less than .035 watt
53.The position offered by a coil to the flow of
alternating current is called (Disregard Communication and Navigation System
resistance)

A.Impedance B.ReluctanceC.Inductive 1. When would a U.S resident NOT be

reactance required to hold a federal
communications commission (FCC)
54.The potential difference between two
Restricted Radio Telephone Operator
conductors which are insulated form each
Permit to operate two-way aircraft VHF
other is measured in: radio equipment?
A.volts B.Amperes
C.Coulombs A. When flying or communicating with
destinations outside the United
56.When referring to an electrical circuits States.
diagram,what point is considered to be at B. When flying or communicating
zero voltage? within the United Sates.
C. When the radio equipment is
A.The circuit breaker B.The switch operated in aircraft certified for
C.The ground reference VFR flight only.
2. The purpose of a localizer is to
 A. Set the airplane on the proper with the frontal area of .125 square
approach angle to the runway. feet installed on an aircraft with a
B. Indicates the distance the airplane speed of 225 MPH?
is from the end of the runway.
C. Align the airplane with the center A. 2.069 pounds.
of the runway. B. 2.073 pounds.
3. (Refer to Figure 33) What kind of C. 2.080 pounds.
antenna is this? 9. In the Landing configuration GPWS
typically monitors the radio (Radar)
A. A VOR/glide slope antenna. altimeter; air data computer;
B. A marker beacon receiver antenna. instrument landing system; and
C. A radar beacon transponder
antenna. A. Aileron, rudder, and elevator.
4. What will occur if the aircraft attitude is B. Landing gear and Flap positions.
changed by its autopilot system in C. Spoiler, slat, and stabilizer
order to correct for an error and the positions.
involved control surfaces are returned 10. (Refer to Figure 28) what kind of
to streamline by the time the aircraft antenna is this?
has reached its correct positions?
A. An ELT antenna
A. Overshoot and Oscillation. B. A DME antenna
B. Undershoot and oscillation. C. A VHF communications antenna
C. Normal Operation 11. An emergency locator transmitter
5. Dutch roll, a combination yawing and (ELT) in normally activated by an
rolling oscillation that affects many inertial switch or equivalent
sweptwing aircraft, is counteracted mechanism if subjected to force of a
with prescribed intensity and duration. It
must activate when the force is
A. A flight director system. applied?
B. An aileron damper system.
C. A yaw damper system A. Parallel to the longitudinal axis
6. In which control element of an of the aircraft.
autopilot system is an attitude B. Parallel to the vertical axis of the
indicator? aircraft.
C. In any direction relative to the
A. Command aircraft axes.
B. Sensing 12. Which of the following provides
C. Input manual maneuverability of the aircraft
7. (Refer to Figure 15) What is the is the while the autopilot is engaged?
approximate drag load on an antenna
with a frontal area of .137 square feet A. Servo-amplifier
installed on an aircraft with a speed of B. Directional gyro indicator
275 MPH? C. Flight controller
13. What is the main purpose of a servo in
A. 3.387 pounds. an autopilot system?
B. 3.741 pounds.
C. 3.592 pounds. A. Correct for displacement of the
8. (Refer to Figure 15) What is the aircraft about its axis.
approximate drag load on an antenna
 B. Change mechanical energy to A. When the transmitter has been in
electrical energy. use for more than one
C. Move the control surface as cumulative hour.
commanded. B. Must be replaced annually of if the
14. The preferred location of a VOR five G switch has been activated.
antenna on light aircraft is on C. When the transmitter has been
tested more than ten times.
A. The bottom of the fuselage and as 20. (Refer to figure 26) Where is the
far forward as possible. strongest signal for this antenna?
B. Top of the cabin with the apex of
the V pointing forward. A. Below the antenna
C. Top of the vertical stabilizer. B. Above the antenna
15. When installing coaxial cable, it should C. Ahead of the antenna
be secured firmly along its entire 21. (Refer to figure 32) What kind of
length antenna is this?

A. At 1-foot intervals A. A lightning detector system

B. Wherever the cable sags antenna.
C. At 2-foot intervals B. A marker beacon receiver antenna.
16. What component is the sensing device C. A radar beacon transponder
in an electrochemical autopilot antenna.
system? 22. (Refer to figure 22) What kind of
antenna is this?
A. Servo
B. Gyro A. This is glide slope antenna.
C. Controller B. This is a DME or a radar beacon
17. An emergency locator transmitter transponder.
(ELT) battery must be capable of C. This is a loop and sense
furnishing power for signal antenna.
transmission for at least 23. Which channel of an autopilot detects
changes in pitch attitude of an aircraft?
A. 36 hours
B. 48 hours A. Elevator
C. 72 hours B. Aileron
18. On modern large aircraft, what C. Rudder
electronic device typically monitors 24. The addition of avionics and
flight parameters and performs associated antenna systems forward
autopilot functions? of the CG limit will affect

A. Flight management computer A. Empty weight and useful load.

B. Transponder B. CG limits and useful load
C. Control/Display unit C. Useful load and maximum gross
19. When must the emergency locator weight
transmitter (ELT) battery be replaced 25. In an autopilot, which signal nullifies
(other than reading the replacement the input signal to the ailerons?
date)?
A. Displacement signal
B. Course signal
C. Follow-up signal
26. What is the operating principle of the A. A glide slope antenna
sensing device used in an autopilot B. A VOR and Localizer antenna
system? C. A radar beacon transponder
antenna
A. The reaction of the force 90° away
from the applied force in the
direction of gyro rotation. 32. (Refer to figure 30) What kind of
B. The relative motion between a antenna is this?
gyro and its supporting system.
C. The rate of change of motion A. A lightning detector system
between the gyro gimbal rings and antenna
the aircraft. B. A VOR and Localizer antenna
27. (Refer to figure 24) What kind of C. A satellite weather antenna
antenna is this? 33. Part of the ADF system used on
aircraft includes
A. A dipole antenna
B. A Marconi antenna A. RMI indicator antenna
C. A loop antenna B. Marker beacon antenna
28. The purpose of a glideslope system is C. Sense loop antenna
to 34. One antenna can be used for the radio
range and standard broadcast bands
A. Provide for automatic altitude in light aircraft because the
reporting to air traffic control.
B. Indicate the distance the airplane is A. Two ranges are close together
from the end of the runway. B. Antenna is Omnidirectional
C. Assist the pilot in making a C. Antenna length may be
correct angle of descent to the electronically adjusted
runway. 35. Doubles are used when antennas are
29. Installed radio equipment is protected installed to
from damage due to jolts and vibration
by A. Eliminate antenna vibration
B. Prevent oil canning of the skin
A. Shock mounts C. Reinstate the structural strength
B. Spring and/or viscous damper of the aircraft skin
mounted racks. 36. A fully integrated autopilot controls the
C. Rubber or foam cushioning aircraft around how many axes?
material between circuit chassis
and case. A. Two
30. The preferred location of an ELT is B. Three
C. Four
A. Where it is readily accessible to the 37. An aircraft antenna installation must be
pilot or a member of the flight crew grounded
while the aircraft is in flight.
B. As far aft as possible. A. To the airframe
C. As far aft as possible, but B. To the engine
forward of the vertical fin. C. To the radio rack
31. (Refer to Figure 27) What kind of 38. (Refer to figure 23) What is this
antenna is this? antenna used for?
 44. VHF radio signals are commonly used
A. This is an altitude encoder used in
with transponders
B. This is TCAS receiver used with A. ATC communications
monitoring and altering systems B. VOR navigation
C. This is an aircraft radar beacon C. Both VOR navigation and ATC
transponder used for location communications
identification 45. (1) Use solder to attach bonding
39. After an Automatic Direction-Finding jumpers on radio equipment.
antenna has been installed, the (2) Radio equipment is bonded to the
aircraft in order to provide a low-
A. Antenna must be grounded impedance ground and to minimize
B. Loop must be calibrated radio interference from static electrical
C. Transceiver must be compensated charges. Regarding the above
statements,

40. What component of an autopilot A. Only No.1 is true

system applies torque to the control B. Both No.1 and No.2 are true
surfaces of an aircraft? C. Only No.2 is true

A. Servo
B. Controller 46. What is the primary purpose of an
C. Gyro autopilot?
41. When bending Coaxial cable, the bend
radius should be at least A. To relieve the pilot of control of
the aircraft during long periods
A. 10 times the diameter of the of flight.
cable B. To fly a more precise course for the
B. 15 times the diameter of the cable pilot.
C. 20 times the diameter of the cable C. To obtain the navigational aid
42. (Refer to figure 34) What kind of necessary for extended overwater
antenna is this? flights.
47. When an antenna is installed, it should
A. A VOR/Glide slope antenna be fastened
B. A marker beacon receiver antenna
C. A radar beacon transponder A. To the primary structure at the
antenna approximate intersection of the
43. In general, the purpose of an aircraft three aircraft axes.
transponder is to B. With a reinforcing double on each
side of the aircraft skin.
A. Continually transmit heading, C. So that loads imposed are
speed, and a rate of climb/descent transmitted to the aircraft
etc. information to ATC. structure.
B. Monitor aircraft speed, heading, 48. How much clearance from the seat
altitude, and altitude whenever the bottom is required when installing
autopilot system is engaged. radio equipment under a seat?
C. Receive an interrogation signal
from a ground station and A. 3 inches with the seat uncopied.
automatically send reply back.
 B. No set minimum as long as the A. Only after the gyros come up to
equipment receives adequate speed and the amplifier warms
cooling and damage protection. up.
C. 1 inch with the seat occupied B. Whenever the operator desires.
and subjected to maximum C. For only a few minutes at a time.
downward seat spring deflection 54. Static dischargers help eliminate radio
49. (Refer to Figure 16) Which of the interference by dissipating static
antennas shown is a typical DME electricity into the atmosphere at
antenna?
A. Low current levels
A. 1 B. High voltage level
B. 2 C. High Current levels
C. 4 55. (Refer to Figure 25) What kind of
50. When must the radio station license be antenna is this?
displayed in an aircraft equipped with a
two-ray radio? A. A dipole antenna
B. A canted antenna
A. When the aircraft is operated C. A Marconi antenna
outside the U.S 56. (Refer to figure 31) What kind of
B. When the aircraft is returned to antenna is this?
service
C. When the aircraft is certified for IFR A. A lightning detector system
Flight antenna
51. (Refer to figure 16) Which of the B. A marker beacon Receiver
antennas shown is a typical glideslope C. A satellite weather antenna
antenna? 57. How may the operation of an installed
emergency locator transmitter (ELT)
A. 2 be verified during aircraft inspection?
B. 3
C. 4 A. By moving the deactivating switch
from the DISARM position to the
ARM position while monitoring the
52. A DME antenna should be located in a civil emergency frequency with a
position on the aircraft that will communications receiver at five
minutes after the hour.
A. Not be blanked by the wing when B. By activating the 5G switch and
the aircraft is banked turning the unit on at five minutes
B. Permit interruptions in DME after the hour.
operation C. By turning a communications
C. Eliminate the possibility of the DME receiver to the civil emergency
locking on a station frequency and activating the ELT
53. When operationally checking an momentarily within five minutes
autopilot system on the ground, after after the Hour.
the aircraft’s main power has been 58. (Refer to figure 29) What kind of
switched on, the autopilot should be antenna is this?
engaged
A. A glide slope antenna
B. A VOR and Localizer antenna
 C. A radar beacon transponder a. A discoloring of the yellow
antenna plastic disk in the thermal
59. The elevator channel of an autopilot discharge line.
controls the aircraft about which axis of b. A rupture of the red plastic
rotation? disk in the thermal
discharge line.
c. The thermal plug missing from
A. Roll
the side of the bottle.
B. Longitudinal 2. Which fire-extinguishing agent is
C. Lateral considered to be the least toxic?
60. When installing a DME Antenna it a. Carbon dioxide.
should be aligned with the b. Bromotrifluoromethane
(Halon 1301).
A. Null position c. Bromochloromethane (Halon
B. Angle of Incidence 1011).
C. Centerline on the plane 3. What is the color code for fire-
61. What characteristic of the installation extinguisher lines?
of a rigid antenna on a vertical a. Brown.
b. Yellow.
stabilizer should be evaluated?
c. Red and green.
4. a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed
A. Polarization and Impedance from a discharge valve, it should be
B. Impedance and Interference a. pressure checked.
C. Flutter and Vibration b. used only on the original
62. How many the battery replacement discharge valve assembly.
date be verified for an emergency c. replaced with a new cartridge.
locator transmitter (ELT)? 5. A contaminated carbon monoxide
portable test unit would be returned to
A. By removing the batteries and service by
testing them under measured load a. heating the indicating element
to 300° F to reactivate the
to determine if 50 percent of the
chemical.
useful life remains. b. installing a new indicating
B. By observing the battery element.
replacement date marked on the c. evacuating the indicating
outside of the transmitter. element with CO(2).
C. By activating the transmitter and 6. On a periodic check of fire-
measuring the signal strength. extinguisher containers, the pressure
63. A gasket or sealant is used between was not between minimum and
the antenna mast and fuselage skin maximum limits. What procedure
should be followed?
A. To prevent the entry of moisture. a. Release pressure if above
limits.
B. For aircraft pressurization only
b. Replace the extinguisher
C. To prevent abrasion between the
container.
antenna mast and fuselage skin. c. Increase pressure if below
FIRE PROTECTION SYSTEMS limits.
7. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what
1. What method is used to detect the pressure is acceptable for a fire
thermal discharge of a built-in fire- extinguisher when the surrounding
extinguisher system? area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to
the nearest whole number.)
View Figure(s)
 a. temperature-sensing device.
b. device for causing the fire-
extinguishing agent to be
released.
c. probe used for installing
frangible disks in extinguisher
bottles.
14. Which of the following are fire
precautions which must be observed
when working on an oxygen system?
1. Display ‘No Smoking’ placards.
a. 215 to 302 PSIG. 2. Provide adequate fire-fighting
b.214 to 301 PSIG. equipment.
c.215 to 301 PSIG. 3. Keep all tools and oxygen servicing
8. When used in fire-detection systems equipment free from oil or grease.
having a single indicator light, thermal 4. Avoid checking aircraft radio or
switches are wired in electrical systems.
a. parallel with each other and a. 1,3and4.
in series with the light. b. 1,2and4.
b. series with each other and the c. 1,2,3,and4.
light. 15. Why does the Fenwal fire-detection
c. series with each other and system use spot detectors wired
parallel with the light. parallel between two separate circuits?
9. Smoke detection instruments are a. A control unit is used to
classified by their method of isolate the bad system in case
a. construction of malfunction.
b. maintenance. b. This installation is equal to
c. detection. two systems: a main system
10. Maintenance of fire-detection systems and a reserve system.
includes the c. A short may exist in either
a. repair of damaged sensing circuit without causing a
elements. false fire warning.
b. removal of excessive loop or 16. The proper fire-extinguishing agent to
element material. use on an aircraft brake fire is
c. Replacement of damaged a. water.
sensing elements. b. carbon dioxide.
11. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage c. dry powder chemical.
compartment of an aircraft is 17. Smoke detectors which use a
commonly detected by which measurement of light transmissibility in
instrument? the air are called
a. Chemical reactor. a. electromechanical devices.
b. Photoelectric cell. b. photoelectrical devices.
c. Sniffer. c. visual devices.
12. (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, 18. What occurs when a visual smoke
determine the temperature range for a detector is activated?
fire-extinguishing agent storage a. A warning bell within the
container with a pressure of 330 PSIG. indicator alarms automatically.
(Consider 330 PSIG for both minimum b. A lamp within the indicator
and maximum pressure.) illuminates automatically.
a. 47 to 73°F. c. The test lamp illuminates and
b. 47 to 71°F. an alarm is provided
c. 45 to 73°F automatically.
13. A squib, as used in a fire-protection
system, is a
19. The thermal switches of a bimetallic 24. The types of fire-extinguishing agents
thermal-switch type fire-detection for aircraft interior fires are
(single-loop) system are heat-sensitive a. water, carbon dioxide, dry
units that complete circuits at a chemical, and halogenated
certain temperature. They are hydrocarbons.
connected in b. water, dry chemical, methyl
a. parallel with each other, and bromide, and
in parallel with the indicator chlorobromomethane.
lights. c. water, carbon tetrachloride,
b. parallel with each other, but carbon dioxide, and dry
in series with the indicator chemical.
lights. 25. In what area of an aircraft would you
c. series with each other, but in find a carbon monoxide detector?
parallel with the indicator a. Surface combustion heater
lights. compartment.
20. In some fire-extinguishing systems, b. Cockpit and/or cabin.
evidence that the system has been c. Engine and/or nacelle.
intentionally discharged is indicated by 26. A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held
the absence of a fire extinguisher may be used on an
a. red disk on the side of the electrical fire if the
fuselage. a. horn ¡s nonmetallic.
b. green disk on the side of the b. handle is insulated.
fuselage. c. horn is nonmagnetic.
c. yellow disk on the side of 27. When air samples contain carbon
the fuselage. monoxide, portable carbon monoxide
21. A fire-extinguisher container can be detectors containing yellow silica gel
checked to determine its charge by will turn which color?
a. attaching a remote pressure a. Blue.
gauge. b. Green.
b. weighing the container and c. Red.
its contents. 28. A thermocouple in a fire-detection
c. a hydrostatic test. system causes the warning system to
22. Which fire-detection system measures operate because
temperature rise compared to a a. it generates a small current when
reference temperature? heated.
a. Fenwal continuous loop. b. heat decreases its electrical
b. Lindberg continuous element. resistance.
c. Thermocouple. c. it expands when heated and forms a
23. In reference to aircraft fire- ground for the warning system.
extinguishing systems, 29. Light refraction smoke detectors are
(1) during removal or installation, the activated when the detector
terminals of discharge cartridges a. measures a reduction in the
should be grounded or shorted. amount of visible or infrared
(2) before connecting cartridge light in the surrounding area.
terminals to the electrical system, the b. senses light reflected from
system should be checked with a smoke particles passing
voltmeter to see that no voltage exists through a chamber.
at the terminal connections. c. uses radiation induced
Regarding the above statements, ionization to detect the
a. Only No. 2 is true. presence of smoke.
b. Both No. 1 and No. 2 is true. 30. The thermocouple fire-warning system
c. Neither No. 1 nor No. 3 is true is activated by a
a. Certain temperature
 b. Core resistance drop. developed, the pressure on the air side of
c. Rate-of-temperature rise. the accumulator will be
31. Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing a. 1000psi
systems are ordinarily charged with
b. 3000psi
a. carbon dioxide and nitrogen.
b. halogenated hydrocarbons c. 4000psi
and nitrogen 5. Which seals are with petroleum base
c. sodium bicarbonate and hydraulic fluids?
nitrogen. a. Polyester
32. The most common cause of false fire b. Butyl rubber
warnings in continuous-loop fire c. Buna-N
detection systems is
6. What is one advantage of piston type
a. improper routing or clamping
of loops. hydraulic motors over electric motors?
b. moisture. a. They are considerably quieter in
c. dents, kinks, or crushed operation.
sensor sections. b. There is no fire hazard if the
motor s is stalled.
HYDRAULIC &PNEUMATIC POWER c. They are satisfactory over a wider
SYSTEM temperature range.
1. A loud hammering noise in a hydraulic 7. An emergency supply of fluid is often
system having an accumulator usually retained in the main hydraulic system
indicates reservoir by the use of a standpipe. The
a. Air in the fluid. supply line is connected to the
b. Too much preload in the a. Inlet the main hydraulic system.
accumulator. b. Inlet of the emergency pump.
c. To low or no preload in the c. Outlet of the main system pump.
accumulator. 8. In a hydraulic system that has a reservoir
2. (1) Relief valves are used in pneumatic pressurized with turbine-engine
system as damage-preventing units. compressor bleed air, which unit reduces
(2) Check valves are used in both the air pressure between the engine and
hydraulic and pneumatic systems. reservoir.
Regarding the above statements a. Relief valve.
a. both no.1 and no.2 are true. b. Air bleed relief valve.
b. neither no.1 and nor no.2 is true. c. Air pressure regulator.
c. only no.1 is true. 9. Quick – disconnect couplings in hydraulic
3. The main system pressure relief valve in systems provide a means of
a simple hydraulic system equipped with a a. Easily replacing hydraulic lines in
power control valve should be adjusted. areas where leaks are common.
a. With the power control valve b. Quickly connecting and
held in the Closed position. disconnecting hydraulic lines and
b. While one or more actuating units eliminate the possibility of
are in operation. contaminates entering the system.
c. With the power control valve in the c. Quickly connecting and
OPEN position disconnecting hydraulic lines
4. Hydraulic accumulator is charge with an without loss of fluid or entrance
air preload of 1000 PSI. when a hydraulic of air into the system.
system pressure of 3000 PSI is 10. Components containing phosphate ester-
base hydraulic fluid may be cleaned with
 a. Stoddard solvent. a. Different amounts of force but will
b. Naphtha move at the same rate of speed.
c. Carbon tetrachloride b. Equal amounts of force will move at
different rate speed
11. Characteristic of MIL-H-5606 hydraulic c. Equal amounts of force and will
fluid are move at the same rate of speed.
a. Light purple color, phosphate ester 16. The internal resistance of fluid which tend
base, fire resistant uses butyl to prevent it from flowing is called
rubber seals. a. Volatility
b. Blue color, will burl, uses natural b. Viscosity
rubber seals. c. Acidity
c. Red color, petroleum base will 17. When hydraulic system pressure control
burn uses synthetic rubber seals and relief units fail to function properly.
12. Some hydraulic system incorporate a How are most systems protected against
device which is designed to remain open over pressure
to allow a normal fluid flow in the line, but a. A shear section on the main
closed if the fluid flow increases above an hydraulic pump drive shaft
established rate. This device is generally b. One or more hydraulic fuses
referred to as a installed in the pressure and return
a. Hydraulic fuse lines
b. Flow regulator c. A shuttle valve interconnecting the
c. Metering check valve main and emergency systems
13. A worn hydraulic pump shaft seal can 18. One of the distinguishing characteristic of
normally be detected by an open-center selector valve use in a
a. Hydraulic fluid flowing from the hydraulic system is that.
pump drain line a. Fluid flow through the valve in
b. Evidence of hydraulic fluid the OFF position
combined in the engine oil. b. Fluid flows in three directions on
c. The presence of hydraulic fluid the ON position
around the pump mounting pad. c. A limited amount of flows on one
14. (1) When servicing aircraft hydraulic directions and no fluid flows in the
system, use the type fluid specified in the opposite directions.
aircraft manufacturer’s maintenance 19. Heat exchanger cooling units are required
manual or on the instructions plate affixed in some aircraft hydraulic system because
to the reservoir or unit. of
(2)Hydraulic fluids for aircraft are dyed a. Fluid flammability
as specific color for each type of fluid b. High pressure and high rates of
regarding the statement fluid flow
a. only No. 1 is true c. The high heat generate from
b.only No. 2 is true braking .
c.both No.1 and 2 are true 20. Using a hand pump, pressure of 100 psi
has been built up in a hydraulic system .
15. If two actuating cylinder which have the the hand pump piston is 1 inch in diameter
same cross-sectional area but different . A ½-inch line connects the hand pump to
lengths of stroke connected to the same an actuating cylinder 2 inches in diameter.
source of hydraulic pressure they will What is the pressure in the line between
exert the hand pump and the actuator?
 a. 100 psi. a. Sequence.
b. 150psi. b. Shuttle.
c. 200psi. c. Selector.
21. The air that is expended and no longer 27. Before removing the filler cap of a
needed when an actuating unit is pressurized hydraulic reservoir , in order
operated in a pneumatic system is to service the system, you must
a. Exhausted or dumped, usually a. Relieve the hydraulic system
overboard. pressure.
b. Returned to the compressor. b. Pressurized all hydraulic
c. Charged or pressurized for use components in the system.
during the next operating cycle. c. Relieve the air pressure.
22. Pressure is a term used to indicate the 28. If hydraulic fluid is released when the air
force per unit area. Pressure is usually valve core of the accumulator is
expressed in depressed , it is evidence
a. Pounds per square inch. a. Excessive accumulator air
b. Pounds per inch. pressure.
c. Pounds per cubic inch. b. A leaking check valve.
23. What function does the absolute pressure c. A ruptured diaphragm or leaking
regulator perform in the pneumatic power seals.
system? 29. What is the purpose of using backup rings
a. Regulates the compressor outlet air with o-rings in hydraulic systems above
pressure to stabilize the system 1500 psi?
pressure. a. Prevent and external leakage of all
b. Regulates the pneumatic system moving parts within a hydraulic
pressure to protect the moisture system.
separator from internal explosion. b. Provide a seal between two parts
c. Regulates the compressor inlet of a unit which move in relation to
air to provide a stabilized source each other.
of air for the compressor. c. Prevent high pressure from
24. Teflon hose that has developed a extruding the seal between the
permanent set from being exposed to high moving and stationary part.
pressure or temperature should 30. Although dents in the heel of a bend are
a. Not be straightened or bent not permissible, they are acceptable in the
further. remainder of a hydraulic tube providing
b. Not be reinstalled once removed. they are less than what percent of the
c. Be immediately replaced tube damenter
25. An aircraft pneumatic system which a. 5
incorporates an engine-driven multistage b. 10
reciprocating compressor, also requires c. 20
a. An oil separator. 31. What types of selector valve is one f he
b. A surge chamber. most commonly used in hydraulic system
c. A moisture separator. to providing for simultaneous flow of fluid
26. Select the valve used in a hydraulic into and out of a connected actuating
system that directs pressurized fluid to unit?
one end of an actuating cylinder and a. Four-port, closed-center valve
simultaneously directs return fluid to the b. Three-port, four-way valve
reservoir from the other end. c. Two-port, open-center valve
32. What is the main purpose of a pressurized a. Silicone rubber
reservoir in a hydraulic system? b. Butyl rubber
a. Prevent tank collapse a altitude c. Neoprene rubber
b. Prevent hydraulic pump 39. How is the air in a hydraulic accumulator
cavitation prevented from entering the fluid system?
c. Prevent hydraulic fluid foaming a. By forcing the oil/air ,mixture
33. A unit which transform hydraulic pressure through a centerfugal separating
which linear motions is called chamber that the accumulator
a. An actuating cylinder b. By physically separating the air
b. N accumulator chamber from the oil chamber
c. A hydraulic pump with a flexible movable
34. (1) materials which are skydrol compatible separation
or resistant include most common aircraft c. By including a valve hat
metals and polyurethane and epoxy automatically closes when the fluid
paints. level lower to a preset amount
(2) skydrol hydraulic fluid is compatible
with nylon and natural fivers regarding the 40. A hydraulic motor converts fluid pressure
above statements to
a. Both No.1 and No.2 are true a. Linear motion
b. Neither No.1 nor No.2 is true b. Rotary motion
c. Only No.1 is true c. Angular motion
35. Characteristic of MIL-H-7644 hydraulic 41. One of the main advance of skydrol is its
fluid are a. Wide operation temptation
a. Red, petroleum, will burn synthetics b. High operation pressure
rubber seals c. Inability to mix with water
b. Light purple color base phosphate 42. If an aircraft’s constant-pressure hydraulic
ester base fire resistant butyl system and no more frequently than
rubber seals detected the most probable cause is
c. Blue color, vegetable base, will a. A too high relief valve setting
burn, natural rubber seals b. Pump volume output too high
36. After installation of a rebuilt hydraulic c. Low accumulator airpreload
hand pump. It is found that the handle 43. Hydraulic fluid filtering elements
cannot be moved in the pumping constructed of pours paper are normally.
directions (pressure stroke). The most a. Cleaned and reused
likely cause is an incorrectly installed b. Discarded at regular intervals
a. Hand pump inport check valve and replaced with new filtering
b. Inport/outport orifice check valve elements
c. Hand pump outport check valve c. Not approve for use in certification
37. Two types of hydraulic fluids currently 44. Characteristic of MIL-H-8446 (skydrol 500
being used in civil aircraft are A & B hydraulic fluids are
a. Mineral base, and phosphate a. Blue color ,phosphate ester base,
ester base fire resistant, butyl rubber seals
b. Mixed mineral base phosphate b. Light purple color, phosphate
c. Petroleum base mixed mineral ester base, fire resistant, butyl
base rubber seals
38. Which seal/material is used with
phosphate ester base hydraulic fluids?
 c. Light green color, phosphate ester b. Pump, reservoir, selector valve,
base, fire resistant, butyl rubber and actuator.
seals. c. Pump, reservoir, relief valve, and
45. A hydraulic system operational check shuttle valve.
during ground runup the wing flaps cannot 51. Petroleum base hydraulic fluid is which
be allowed using the main hydraulic color?
system, but can be lowered by using the a. Purple
emergency likely cause b. Blue
a. The flaps selector valve has a c. Red
severe internal leak 52. What safety device is usually located
b. The pressure accumulator is not between the diving unit and hydraulic
suppling pressure to the system pump drive shaft?
c. The fluid level in the reservoir is a. Thermal relief valve.
low b. Pump motor safety switch.
46. A pilot reports that when the hydraulic c. Pump drive coupling shear
ump is running, the pressure is normal. section.
However when pump is stopped no 53. A crossflow valve which is designed to
hydraulic pressure is available. This is an bypass fluid from one side of an actuating
indication of a cylinder to the side, under certain
a. Leaking selector conditions, may be found in some aircraft
b. Low accumulator fluid preload installed in the
c. Leaking accumulator air valve a. Flap overload system.
47. If a rigid tube is too short for the flare to b. Engine cowl flap system.
reach its seat before tightening, pulling it c. Landing gear system.
into place by tightening 54. If a hydraulic brake system uses neoprene
a. Is acceptable. rubber packing materials, the correct
b. May distort the flare. hydraulic fluid to service the system is
c. May distort the cone. a. Mineral base oil.
48. Which of the following is adversely b. Synthetic base oil.
affected by atmospheric humidity if left c. Phosphate ester base oil.
unprotected? 1. MILH-H-5606 hydraulic 55. The primary purpose of a hydraulic
fluid. 2. Skydrol hydraulic fluid. 3. None of actuating unit is to transform
the above. a. Fluid motion into mechanical
a. 1 and 2 pressure and back again.
b. 3 b. Fluid pressure into useful work.
c. 2 c. Energy form one form to another
49. How many of these seals are used with 56. Hydraulic fluid reservoirs are sometimes
petroleum base hydraulic fluids? designed with a standpipe in one of the
a. Natural rubber, ethylene-propylene. outlet ports in order to assure emergency
b. Neoprene, Buna-N. supply of fluid. The outlet port with the
c. Natural rubber , butyl rubber. standpipe in it furnishes fluid to the
50. Excluding lines, which components are a. Emergency pump when the fluid
required to make up a simple hydraulic supply to the normal system has
system? been depleted.
a. Actuator, pressure reservoir, b. Emergency pump at any time it is
accumulator, and selector valve. required.
c. Normal system power pump.
57. Unloading valves are used with many b. 1,2,3,4
engine-driven hydraulic pumps to c. 1,2,3
a. Dampen out pressure surges. 64. If it is necessary to adjust several
b. Relieve the pump pressure. pressure regulating valves in a hydraulic
c. Relieve system pressure. system , what particular sequence , if any,
58. Where can information be obtained about should be followed ?
the compatibility of fire resistant hydraulic a. Units most distant from the
fluid with aircraft materials? hydraulic pump should be adjusted
a. Fluid manufactures technical first.
bulletins. b. Units with the highest pressure
b. Aircraft manufacturers settings and adjusted first.
specifications. c. Units are independent of each
c. AC 43.13-1A other , and therefore , no particular
59. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is sequence is necessary.
very susceptible to contamination from 65. Most variable displacement aircraft
a. Teflon seal material. hydraulic pumps in use.
b. Water in the atmosphere. a. Must be driven at a nearly constant
c. Ethylene-propylene elastomers. speed in order to be practical for
60. A common cause of slow actuation of use.
hydraulic components is b. Are not practical for use with a
a. Cold fluid. closed-center hydraulic system.
b. Restricted orifices. c. Contain a built- in means of
c. Internal leakage in the actuating system pressure regulation.
unit. 66. Which must be done before adjusting the
61. Which allows free fluid flow in one relief valve of a main hydraulic system
direction and no fluid flow in the other incorporating a pressure regulator?
direction? a. Eliminate the action of the
a. Check valve. unloading valve.
b. Metering piston. b. Adjust all other system relief valves
c. Shutoff valve. which have lower pressure setting.
62. What type of packings should be used in c. Manually unseat all system check
hydraulic components to be installed in a valves to allow unrestricted flow in
system containing skydrol? both directions.
a. An packing made of natural 67. In a gear-type hydraulic pump, a
rubber. mechanical safety device incorporated to
b. Packing materials made for ester protect the pump from overload is the
base fluids. a. Bypass valve.
c. An packing made of neoprene. b. Check valve.
63. Hydraulic system accumulating serve c. Shear pin.
which of the following functions?1. 68. To prevent external and internal leakage
dampen pressure surges. 2. Supplement in aircraft hydraulic units, the most
the system pump when demand is beyond commonly used type of seal is the
the pump’s capacity.3. store power for a. O-ring seal.
limited operation of components if the b. Gasket seal.
pump is not operating. 4. Ensure a c. Chevron seal.
continuous supply of fluid to the pump . 69. Generally the first step in removing an
a. 2,3 accumulator from an aircraft is to
 a. Relieve system pressure. c. Enough bends to allow the tube
b. Discharge the preload. to expand and contract with
c. Drain the reservoir. temperature changes and to
70. Pneumatic systems utilize absorb vibration.
a. Return lines. 76. The purpose of the pressure regular in a
b. Relief valves. hydraulic system
c. Diluter valves. a. Maintain system operating
71. The primary function of the flap over load pressure within a pressure a
valve is to predetermined range and to
a. Prevent the flaps from being unload the pump
lowered at airspeeds which b. Regulate the amount of fluid flow to
would impose excessive the actuating cylinders within the
structural loads. system
b. Cause the flap segments located c. Prevent failure of components of
on opposite side of the aircraft hydraulic lines under excessive
centerline to extend and retract . pressure.
c. Boost normal system pressure to 77. Which is true regarding the ground check
the flaps in order to overcome the of a flap operating mechanism which has
air loads acting on the relatively just been installed?
large flap are. a. If the time required to operate the
72. The hydraulic component that mechanism increase with
automatically directs fluid from either the successive operations, it indicates
normal source or an emergency source to the air is being worked out of the
an actuating cylinder is called a system.
a. Bypass valve. b. If the time required tp operate
b. Shuttle valve. the mechanism decrease with
c. Crossflow valve. successive operations, it
73. Chattering of the hydraulic pump during indicates the air is being worked
operation is an indication out of the system
a. Of low accumulator preload. c. All hydraulic lines and components
b. That the main system relief valve is should be checked for leaks by
sticking open. applying soapy water to all
c. That air is entering the pump. connections.
74. Which valve installed in a hydraulic 78. Relief valves are used in pneumatic
system will have the highest pressure system
setting? a. For one direction flow control
a. Pressure regulator valve. b. To reduce rate of airflow
b. Main relief valve. c. As damage-preventing units.
c. Thermal relief valve. 79. What type of valve in an aircraft hydraulic
75. The installation of a new metal hydraulic system permits fluid to flow freely in one
line should be made with direction, but restricts the rate at which
a. A straight tube to withstand the fluid is allowed to flow in the other
shocks and vibration to which it will direction?
be subjected. a. Check valve
b. A straight tube to permit proper b. Orifice restrictor
alignment of the fitting and thereby c. Orifice check valve
reduce fluid loss through leakage.
80. If an engine-drive hydraulic pump of the 85. Which is a characteristics of petroleum
correct capacity fails to maintain normal base hydraulic fluid?
system pressure during the operation of a a. Flammable under normal
cowl flap actuating unit, the probable conditions
cause is b. Compatible to natural rubber seals
a. Mechanical interference to the and packings
movement of the cowl flap c. Nonflammable under all conditions
b. A partial restriction in the inport of 86. A flexible sealing element subject to
the selector valve motion is a
c. Restriction in the pimp outlet. a. Compound
81. What happens to the output of a constant- b. Packing
displacement hydraulic pump when the c. Gasket
hydraulic system pressure regulator 87. Which of the following list only desirable
diverts the fluid from the system to the properties of a good hydraulic fluid that
reservoir? has chemical stability?
a. The output pressure remains the a. High viscosity, low flash point, high
same, but the volume reduces fire point
b. The output pressure reduces, b. High flash point, low viscosity, low
but the volume remains the fire point
same c. Low viscosity, high flash point,
c. The output pressure and volume high fire point
remain the same 88. How would the air pressure charge in the
82. What is used to flush a system normally accumulator be determined if the engine
serviced with MIL-H-5606 hydraulic fluid? is inoperative, but the system still has
a. Methyl ethyl ketone or kerosene hydraulic pressure?
b. Naphtha or varsol a. Read it directly from the main
c. Lacquer thinner or trichloroethylene system pressure gauge with all
83. If the hydraulic system pressure is normal actuators inoperative
while the engine driven pump is running, b. Build up system pressure with the
but there is no pressure after the engine emergency pump and then read
has been shut off, it indicates the pressure on a gauge attached
a. The system relief valve setting is to the air side of the accumulator
too high c. Operate a hydraulic unit slowly
b. No air pressure in the and note the pressure at which a
accumulator rapid pressure drop begins as it
c. The pressure regulator is set too goes toward zero
high 89. What is the viscosity of hydraulic fluid?
84. The purpose of a hydraulic pressure a. The increase in volume of a fluid
regulator is to due to temperature change
a. Prevent the system pressure from b. The fluids ability to resist oxidation
rising above a predetermined and deterioration for long periods
amount due to thermal expansion c. The internal resistance of a fluid
b. Boost the pressure in portions of which tends to prevent it from
the system flowing
c. Relieve the pump of its load 90. Extrusion of an O-ring seal is prevented in
when no actuating units are a high-pressure system by the use of a
being operated
 a. Backup ring in the side of the O- used, what will be the effect on the
ring next to the pressure system?
b. U-ring on the side of the O-ring a. No effect.
away from the pressure b. System will be contaminated,
c. Backup ring on the side of the O- fluids will not blend, and the
ring away from the pressure seals will fail.
91. Many hydraulic reservoir contain a small c. System will be contaminated, fluids
quantity of fluid which is not available to will not blend, but there will be no
the main system pump. This fluid is seal problem.
retained to 96. Which statement about fluids is correct?
a. Prime the main system. a. Any fluid will completely fill its
b. Supply fluid the auxiliary pump. container.
c. Supply fluid to the pressure b. All fluids are considered to be
accumulator. highly compressible.
92. The component in the hydraulic system c. All fluids readily transmit
that is used to direct the flow of fluid is pressure.
the 97. To check the air charge in a hydraulic
a. Check valve. accumulator,
b. Orifice check valve. a. Reduce all hydraulic pressure,
c. Selector valve. then observe the reading on the
93. The removal of air from an aircraft accumulator air gauge.
hydraulic system is generally b. Observe the first reading on the
accomplished hydraulic system gauge while
a. Through automatic bleed valves on operating a component in the
individual components during system.
system operation. c. Read it directly from the auxiliary
b. By operating the various pressure gauge.
hydraulic components through 98. Hydraulic system thermal relief valves are
several cycles. set to open at a
c. By allowing the system to remain a. Lower pressure than the system
inoperative for several hours. relief valve.
94. After a hydraulic accumulator has been b. Higher pressure than the system
installed and air chamber charged, the relief valve.
main system hydraulic pressure gauge will c. Lower pressure than the system
not show a hydraulic pressure reading pressure regulator.
until 99. Seals used with a mineral base hydraulic
a. At least one selector valve has fluid are identified by which color code?
been actuated to allow fluid to flow a. Green dash.
into the fluid side of the b. Blue dot or stripe.
accumulator. c. Yellow dot or stripe.
b. The air pressure has become equal 100. Chatter in a hydraulic system is
to the fluid pressure. caused by
c. The fluid side of the accumulator a. Excessive system pressure.
has been charged. b. Insufficient system pressure.
95. If an aircraft hydraulic system requires c. Air in the system.
mineral base hydraulic fluid, but 101. If fluid is added to a reservoir in a
phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid is constant pressure hydraulic system while
 the system is pressurized, what will normal intake stroke will indicate which of
result? the following?
a. Fluid will spray violently out of the a. The hand pump inlet check valve is
reservoir when the filler neck cap is sticking open.
removed. b. The main system relief valve is set
b. The fluid level will increase when too high.
system pressure is reduced. c. The hand pump outlet check
c. Air will be drawn into the system , valve is sticking open.
when the filler neck cap is 107. A hydraulic pump is a constant-
removed. displacement type if it
102. What is commonly used to connect an a. Produces an unregulated constant
emergency source of power, and at the pressure.
same time disconnect the normal b. Produces a continuous positive
hydraulic source from critical parts of a pressure.
landing gear or wheel braking system for c. Delivers a uniform rate of fluid
operation (usually when the normal flow.
source system fails)? 108. How can the proper hydraulic fluid to
a. Selector valve. be used in an airplane be determined?
b. Shuttle valve. a. Refer to the aircraft parts manual.
c. Sequence valve. b. Consult the aircraft type certificate
103. The purpose of restrictors in the data sheet.
hydraulic system is to c. Consult the aircraft
a. Control the rate of movement of manufacture’s service manual.
hydraulically operated
mechanism.
b. Allow the flow of fluid in one ICE & RAIN CONTROL SYSTEMS
direction only.
c. Lower the operating pressure of 1. Which of the following regulates the
selected components. vacuum of the air pump to hold the
104. In a typical high-pressure pneumatic deicing boots deflated when the
system, if the moisture separator does not pneumatic deicing system is off?
vent accumulated water when the a. Distributor valve
compressor shuts down, a likely cause is b. Pressure regulator
a c. Suction relief valve
a. Saturated chemical dryer, 2. Why should a chemical rain repellant
b. Malfunctioning pressure not be used on a dry windshield?
transmitter. a. It will etch the glass
c. Malfunctioning solenoid dump b. It will restrict visibility
valve. c. It will cause glass crazing
105. Which is a characteristics of synthetic 3. Which of the following connects
base hydraulic fluid? vacuum to the deicer boots when the
a. Low moisture retention. system is not in operation, to hold the
b. High flash point. boots tightly against the leading edges
c. Low flash point. in flight?
106. Severe kickback of the emergency a. Vacuum relief valve
hydraulic hand pump handle during the b. Ejector
c. Distributor valve
4. Prior to installation of a pneumatic 8. What is the source of pressure for
surface-bonded type deicer boots, on inflating deicer boots on
the leading edge of the wing, you reciprocating engine aircraft?
should a. Vane-type pump
a. Remove all paint from the area to b. Gear-type pump
be covered by the deicer boot c. Piston-type pump
b. Apply adhesive to the back of the 9. What controls the inflation
deicer boot and leading edge of the sequence in a pneumatic deicer
wing boot system?
c. Apply a silastic compound between a. Shuttle valve
the boot and the wing skin b. Vacuum pump
5. How do deicer boots help remove ice c. Distributor valve
accumulations? 10. What icing condition may occur
a. By preventing the formation of ice when there is no visible moisture
b. By breaking up ice formations present?
c. By allowing only a thin layer of ice a. Injector ice
to build up b. Inlet ice
6. What are three methods of anti-icing c. Carburetor ice
aircraft windshields? 11. Carburetor icing may be eliminated
1. Blanket-type heating system by which of the following methods?
2. An electric heating element in the a. Alcohol spray and heated
windshield induction air
3. Heated air circulating system b. Ethylene glycol spray and
4. Hot water system heated induction air
5. Windshield wipers and anti-icing c. Electrically heating air intake,
fluid ethylene glycol spray, or alcohol
6. Ribbon-type heating system spray
a. 2,3,5 12. Which of the following are found in
b. 1,2,6 a laminated integral electrically
c. 2,3,4 heated windshield system?
7. What is the principle characteristic 1. Autotransformer
of a windshield pneumatic rain 2. Heat control relay
removal system? 3. Heat control toggle switch
a. An air blast spreads a liquid rain 4. 24V dc power supply
repellant evenly over the 5. Indicating light
windshield that prevents a. 1,2,4,5
raindrops from clinging to the b. 2,3,4,5
glass surface c. 1,2,3,5
b. An air blast forms a barrier 13. Two possible sources of heat for
that prevents raindrops from the operation of a wing thermal
striking the windshield anti-icing system are
surface a. First stage of the aircycle
c. A pneumatic rain removal turbine and turbo compressor
system is simply a mechanical b. Compressor bleed air and
windshield wiper system that is aircraft electrical system
powered by pneumatic system c. Combustion heater and exhaust
pressure gases
14. What mixture may be used as a b. Attached to the glass
deicing fluid to remove frost from c. Around the glass
an aircraft surface? 21. Which of the following indications
a. Ethylene glycol and isopropyl occur during a normal operational
alcohol check of a pneumatic deicer
b. Methyl ethyl ketone and system?
ethylene glycol a. Relatively steady readings on
c. Naphtha and isopropyl alcohol the pressure gauge and
15. What maintains normal windshield fluctuating readings on the
temperature control in an vacuum gauge
electrically heated windshield b. Fluctuating readings on the
system? pressure gauge and relatively
a. Thermal overheat switches steady readings on the
b. Thermistors vacuum gauge
c. Electronic amplifiers c. Pressure and vacuum gauges
16. Arcing in an electrically heated will fluctuate as the deicer boots
windshield panel usually indicates inflate and deflate
a breakdown in the 22. Some aircraft are protected against
a. Temperature-sensing elements airframe icing by heating the
b. Autotransformers leading edges of the airfoils and
c. Conductive coating intake ducts. When is this type of
17. What is used as a temperature- anti-ice system usually operated
sensing element in an electrically during flight?
heated windshield? a. Continuously while the aircraft
a. Thermocouple is in flight
b. Thermistor b. In symmetric cycles during icing
c. Thermometer conditions to remove ice as it
18. What is the purpose of the oil accumulates
separator in the pneumatic deicing c. Whenever icing conditions
system? are first encountered or
a. To protect the deicer boots expected to occur
from oil deterioration 23. Which of the following is the best
b. To remove oil from air means to use when removing wet
exhausted from the deicer boots snow from an aircraft?
c. To prevent an accumulation of a. A brush or a squeegee
oil in the vacuum system b. Hot air
19. What should be used to melt the c. Warm water
ice in a turbine engine if the 24. What may be used to clean deicer
compressor is immobile because of boots?
ice? a. Unleaded gasoline or Jet A fuel
a. Deicing fluid b. Naphtha
b. Anti-icing fluid c. Soap and water
c. Hot air 25. What method is usually employed
20. Where are the heat sensors to control the temperature of an
located on most aircraft with anti-icing system using surface
electrically heated windshields? combustion heaters?
a. Imbedded in the glass a. Thermo-cycling switches
 b. Thermostats in the cockpit d. Landing gear safety switch.
c. Heater fuel shutoff valves
e. Red warning light bulb.
26. What is the purpose of the
distributor valve in a deicing system f. Gear downlock microswitch.
utilizing deicer boots? 38. Which of the following conditions is
a. To equalize the air pressure to most likely to cause the landing gear
the left and right wings warning signal to sound?
b. To sequence the deicer boots d. Landing gear locked down and
inflations symmetrically throttle advanced.
c. To distribute anti-icing fluid to
the deicer boots e. Landing gear locked down and
throttle retarded.
27. Why are the tubes in deicer boots
alternately inflated? f. Landing gear not locked
a. Alternate inflation of deicer down and throttle retarded.
boot tubes keeps disturbance 39. The basic difference between an
of the airflow to a minimum autosyn and a magnesyn indicating
b. Alternate inflation of deicer boot system is the
tubes does not disturb airflow d. rotor.
c. Alternate inflation of deicer boot
tubes relieves the load on the e. transmitter.
air pump f. receiver.
28. What is one check for proper
operation of a pilot/static tube 40. An antiskid system is
heater after replacement? a. A hydraulic system
a. Ammeter reading b. An electrohydraulic system
b. Voltmeter reading c. An electrical system
c. Continuity check system
41. Which of the following functions does
a skid control system perform?
1. Normal skid control.
POSITION AND WARNING SYSTEM 2. Normal braking.
3. Fail safe protection.
36. Which of the following are some uses 4. Locked wheel skid control.
for a DC-selsyn system? 5. Touchdown protection.
1. Indicates position of retractable 6. Takeoff protection.
landing gear. d. 1, 2, 3, 4
2. Indicates the angle of incidence of e. 1, 3, 4, 5
an aircraft. f. 1, 2, 5, 6
3. Indicates the altitude of an aircraft. 42. (Refer to Figure 20.) What will
4. Indicates cowl flaps or oil cooler illuminate the amber indicator light?
door position.
5. Indicates fuel quantity.
6. Indicates the rate of climb of an d. Closing the nosewheel gear
aircraft. full retract switch.
7. Indicates position of wing flaps. e. Retarding one throttle and
d. 1,4,5,7 closing the left wheel gear
e. 2,3,4,5 locked down switch.
f. 2,3,5,6 f. Closing the nose, left and
37. Which repair would require a landing right wheel gear full retract
gear retraction test? switches.
 d. is parallel to the longitudinal
axis of the aircraft.
e. is not parallel to the true
angle of attack of the aircraft.
f. is parallel to the angle of attack
of the aircraft.
48. In a brake antiskid system, when an
approaching skid is sensed, an
electrical signal is sent to the skid
control valve which
d. acts as a bypass for the
43. When a landing gear safety switch on debooster cylinders.
a main gear strut closes at liftoff, e. relieves the hydraulic
which system is deactivated? pressure on the brake.
f. equalizes the hydraulic
d. Landing gear position system. pressure in adjacent brakes.
e. Antiskid system. 49. Antiskid braking systems are
f. Aural warning system. generally armed by
44. Landing gear warning systems usually
provide which of the following d. a centrifugal switch.
indications? e. a switch in the cockpit.
f. the rotation of the wheels above
d. Red light for unsafe gear, no a certain speed.
light for gear down, green light 50. Microswitches are used primarily as
for gear up. limit switches to
e. Green light for gear up and
down, red light for unsafe gear. d. limit generator output.
f. Red light for unsafe gear, e. control electrical units
green light for gear down, no automatically.
light for gear up. f. prevent overcharging of a
45. an antiskid system, wheel skid is battery.
detected by 51. In most modern hydraulically actuated
landing gear systems, the order of
d. an electrical sensor. gear and fairing door operation is
e. a discriminator. controlled by
f. a sudden rise in brake pressure.
46. A typical takeoff warning indication d. sequence valves.
system, in addition to throttle setting,
e. shuttle valves.
monitors the position of which of the
following? f. microswitches.
d. Ailerons, elevators, speed 52. (Refer to Figure 19.) What is the
brake, and steerable fuselage indication of the red landing gear
landing gear. position light under the following
e. Elevators, speed brake, conditions?
flaps, and stabilizer trim. Aircraft on jacks.
f. Aerodynamically actuated Landing gear in transit.
slats, elevators, flaps, and Warning horn sounding.
speed brake.
47. The angle-of-attack detector operates VIEW FIGURE
from differential pressure when the
airstream
 off or if there is a system failure.
Regarding the above statements,
d. only No. 1 is true.
e. only No. 2 is true.

f. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.

d. Extinguished
e. Flashing 58. Stall warning systems are generally
f. Illuminated designed to begin warning the pilot
when a stall
53. Where is the landing gear safety d. is imminent.
switch usually located?
e. is starting to occur.
d. On the main gear shock strut.
e. On the landing gear drag brace. f. first affects the outboard
f. On the pilot’s control pedestal. portions of the wings.

59. At what point in the landing operation

does normal skid control perform its
54. The rotor in an autosyn remote function?
indicating system uses
d. When wheel rotation
d. an electromagnet. deceleration indicates an
e. a permanent magnet. impending skid.
f. neither an electromagnet nor a
permanent magnet. e. When wheel rotation indicates
55. The purpose of antiskid generators is hydroplaning condition.
to
f. Anytime the wheel is rotating.
d. monitor hydraulic pressure
applied to brakes. 60. The rotor in a magnesyn remote
e. indicate when a tire skid occurs. indicating system uses
f. measure wheel rotational
speed and any speed d. a permanent magnet.
changes. e. an electromagnet.
f. an electromagnet and a
56. (Refer to Figure 20.) What is the permanent magnet.
minimum circumstance that will cause 61. The pneumatic (reed) type stall
thelanding gear warning horn to warning system installed in some light
indicate an unsafe condition? aircraft is activated by
d. All gears up and one throttle
retarded. d. static air pressure.
e. Any gear up and both throttles e. positive air pressure.
retarded. f. negative air pressure.
62. (1) An airspeed indicator measures the
f. Any gear not down and differential between pitot and static air
locked, and one throttle pressures surrounding the aircraft at
retarded. any moment of flight.
57. (1) An antiskid system is designed to (2) An airspeed indicator measures the
apply enough force to operate just differential between pitot and cabin air
below the skid point. pressures at any moment of flight.
(2) A warning lamp lights in the cockpit Regarding the above statements,
when the antiskid system is turned
d. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
 e. only No. 2 is true. e. only No. 2 is true.
f. only No. 1 is true. f. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
63. The primary purpose of a takeoff 68. In the air with the antiskid armed,
warning system is to alert the crew that current cannot flow to the antiskid
a monitored flight control is not control box because the landing gear
properly set prior to takeoff. The
system is activated by d. squat switch is open.
d. an 80 knot airspeed sensor. e. down and lock switch is open.
e. an ignition system switch not f. antiskid valves are open.
set for takeoff. 69. (Refer to Figure 19). Which repair
f. a thrust lever. should be made if the gear switch was
64. What safety device is actuated by the placed in UP position and the gear
compression and extension of a does not retract?
landinggear strut?
d. Replace electrical wire No. 15
d. Uplock switch. e. Replace the down limit switch.
e. Downiock switch. f. Replace electrical wire No. 12.
f. Ground safety switch. 70. When an airplane’s primary flight
65. What landing gear warning device(s) control surfaces are set for a particular
is/are incorporated on retractable phase of flight, such as landing or
landing gear aircraft? takeoff, the corresponding control
surface indicating system will show
d. A visual indicator showing gear
position. d. flap/slat position.
e. A light which comes on when e. speed break position.
the gear is fully down and f. trim position.
locked.
f. A horn or other aural device
and a red warning light.
66. (1) When an airplane is slowed below
approximately 20 MPH, the antiskid
system automatically deactivates to
give the pilot full control of the brakes
for maneuvering and parking. CABIN ATMOSPHERE CONTROL SYSTEM
(2) An antiskid system consists
basically of three components; wheel
speed sensors, control box, and
control valves. 1. What is ventilating air used for a combustion
Regarding the above statements, heater?
d. only No. 1 is true.
e. only No. 2 is true. A. Provides combustion air ground blower
B. Carries heat to the places where needed
f. both No. 1 and No. 2 are true.
C. Provides air required to support the flame
2. The main cause of contamination in gaseous
67. (1) A DC-selsyn system is a widely
oxygen system is
used electrical method of indicating a
remote mechanical movement or
position. A. Moisture
(2) A synchro-type indicating system is B. Dust and other airborne particulates
an electrical system used for C. Other atmospheric gases
transmitting information from one point 3. Which is considered a good practice
to another. concerning the inspection of heating and
Regarding the above statements, exhaust system of aircraft utilizing a jacket
d. only No. 1 is true. around the engine exhaust as a heat source?
 C. Receiver-dryer
A. Supplement physical inspections with 9. The altitude controller maintains cabin
periodic operational carbon monoxide altitude by modulation of the
detection tests
B. All exhaust system components should be A. Safety and outflow valves
removed periodically, and their condition B. Safety valve
determined be the magnetic-particle C. Outflow valve
inspection method 10. How can it be determined that a vapor-cycle
C. All exhaust system components should be cooling system is charged with the proper
removed and replaced at each 100-hour amount of freon?
inspection period
4. What may be used as a lubricant on oxygen A. Air bubbles in the sight glass disappear
system tapered pipe thread connections? B. The compressor loads up and RPM
decreases.
A. Silicone dielectric compound C. Air bubbles appear in the sight glass
B. Glycerin 11. When a vapor-cycle cooling system is not
C. Teflon tape operation, what is an indication that the
5. When purging a freon air-conditioning system is leaking freon?
system, it is important to release the charge
at a slow rate. What is the reason for the A. Oil seepage
slow-rate discharge? B. Bubbles in the sight glass
C. An ozone-like odor in the immediate area.
A. Prevent the large amount of freon from 12. To be eligible for recharging, a DOT 3HT
contaminating the surrounding oxygen cylinder must have been
atmosphere hydrostatically tested every three years and
B. Prevent excessive loss of refrigerant oil be retired from service after
C. Prevent condensation from forming and
contaminating the system A. 24 years or 4,380 filling cycles
6. The air-cycle cooling system produces cold air B. 15 years or 10,000 filling cycles
by C. 10 years or 5,000 filling cycles
13. Which best describes cabin differential
A. Extracting heat energy across a pressure?
compressor
B. Passing air through cooling coils that A. Difference between cabin flight altitude
contain a refrigerant pressure and Mean Sea Level pressure
C. Extracting heat energy across an B. Difference between the ambient and
expansion turbine internal air pressure
7. What is used in some oxygen system to C. Difference between cabin pressure
change high cylinder pressure to low system controller setting and actual cabin
pressure? pressure
14. In what position should the bottle be placed
A. Pressure reducer valve when adding liquid freon to a vapor-cycle
B. Calibrated fixed orifice cooling system?
C. Diluter demand regulator
8. What component in a vapor cycle cooling A. Vertical with the outlet at the top
system would most likely be at fault if a B. Horizontal with the outlet to the side
system would not take a freon charge? C. Vertical with the outlet at the bottom
15. An aircraft oxygen bottle may be considered
A. Expansion valve airworthy if it has been hydrostatically tested
B. Condenser and identified
 A. With the test date, DOT number and A. The other types are usually somewhat less
serial number stamped on the cylinder than 99.5 percent pure oxygen
near the neck B. Aviation breathing oxygen has had all the
B. With the DOT number, serial number and water vapor removed.
manufacturer stamped on the cylinder C. Aviation breathing oxygen has a higher
near the neck. percentage of water vapor to help
C. With the DOT number and manufacturer prevent drying of a person’s breathing
stamped on the cylinder near the neck passages and possible dehydration
16. The cabin pressurization modes of operation 22. A contaminated oxygen system is normally
are purged with

A. Isobaric, Differential, and maximum A. Oxygen

differential B. Compressed air
B. Differential, unpressurized, and isobaric C. Nitrogen
C. Ambient, unpressurized, and isobaric 23. If oxygen bottles pressure is allowed to drop
17. In the diluter demand oxygen regulator, when below a specified minimum, it may cause
does the demand valve operate?
A. The pressure reducer to fail
A. When the diluter control is set at normal B. The automatic altitude control valve to
B. When the user demands 100 percent open
oxygen C. Moisture to collect in the bottle
C. When the user breathes 24. Which prevents a sudden loss of
18. Hot compressor bleed air operates the pressurization in the event that there is a loss
conditioned air system on some turbine of the pressurization source?
aircraft, cold air supplied by the
A. Firewall shutoff valve
A. Hot air mixing valve B. Cabin pressure outflow valve
B. Sonic airflow control unit C. Delivery air duct check valve
C. Ram air cycle cooling unit 25. On some cabin pressurization system,
19. What type of oxygen system uses the pressurization on the ground is restricted by
rebreather bag-type mask? the

A. Diluter demand A. Main landing gear operated switch

B. Continuous flow B. Cabin pressure regulator
C. Demand C. Negative pressure-relief valve
20. High-pressure cylinders containing oxygen for 26.
aviation uses can be identified by their
A. Green color and the words “BREATHING
OXYGEN” stenciled in 1-inch white letters.
B. Yellow color and the words “AVIATOR’S
BREATHING OXYGEN” stenciled in 1-inch
white letters.
C. Green color and the words “AVIATORS’S
BREATHING OXYGEN” stenciled in 1-inch
white letters
21. The primary difference between aviation
breathing oxygen and other types
commercially available compressed oxygen is
that