JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref.

- PE Quiz Set 1

01. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended from the
centerline of the bridge at least a. 100 to 200 upstream only
b. 100 to 200 downstream only
c. 100 to 200 upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

02. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8 meters?
a. Reinforced concrete slab
b. Concrete plank deck
c. Girder and slab superstructure
d. Beam or Plank Bridge

03. Which of these is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a. Pneumatic foundation
b. Box caisson
c. Open caisson
d. Hydraulic caisson

04. Which of the following documents is not necessary at the project site? a.
Bill of quantities
b. Plans
c. General specification
d. Feasibility study

05. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item
a. 306
b. 308
c. 310
d. 311

06. The following reasons may cause the granting of contract time extension with the exception of
one:
a. Exceptionally adverse climate conditions
b. Excusable failure of contractor to provide equipment and man power
c. Causes beyond the control of contractor
d. Causes of which government is not directly responsible

07. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be entitled to
contract price escalation?
a. Less than 2 %
b. Less than 5 %
c. More than 5 %
d. Less than 3 %

08. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a. Delay in the payment of contractors claim for billing
b. Existing right-of-way problem
c. Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d. Adverse peace and order conditions

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09. From the time of project was hid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many calendar days is
required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a. 60
b. 90
c. 120
d. 150

10. Under which of the following conditions must a change order not to be issued?
a. Where there is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items
b. Where there is reclassification of item of works
c. Where the aggregate cost has increased and is limited to 25% of the original cost
d. Where there is increase in cost in construction materials

11. Which of the ff. is not considered a Variation Order?

a. Change order
b. Extra work order
c. Resume order
d. Supplemental agreement

12. A project with delays due to reasons beyond the control of the contractor may be granted a time
extension if the affected works, as shown in the PERT/CPM diagram, are:
a. Dummy activities
b. Critical activities
c. Non critical activities
d. Hammock activities

13. If after fifty (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on schedule no additional
retention should be made otherwise the progress payment should be imposed a retention rate of:
a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

14. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate base course?
a. ± 20 mm
b. ± 15 mm
c. ± 25 mm
d. ± 10 mm

15. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate subbase
course?
a. ± 20 mm
b. ± 10 mm
c. ± 30 mm
d. ± 15 mm

16. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the materials and
efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor will use? a. About 500 sq.m.
b. About 400 sq.m.
c. About 100 sq.m.
d. About 600 sq.m.

17. What is the accepted proportion mixture of cement to be added to the soil aggregate (dry soil) in
a Portland cement stabilized road mix base course (item 204)? a. 4 to 20 mass percent

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b. 6 to 10 mass percent
c. 5 to 12 mass percent
d. 3 to 12 mass percent

18. What is the accepted proportion mixture of lime to be added to the soil aggregate (dry soil), in a
Lime stabilized road mix base course (item 203)?
a. 2 to 10 mass percent
b. 4 to 15 mass percent
c. 3 to 18 mass percent
d. 3 to 12 mass percent

19. Sub- grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a. Over saturation with water
b. Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c. c. Dry soil
d. Cold weather

20. The rate of application of seal coat using cutback asphalt is _____.
a. 1.5-3.0 li./sq.m.
b. 2.0-3.0 li./sq.m.
c. 1-2 li/sq.m.
d. 1.5 - 2 li/sq.m

21. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by the Project
Inspector thru:
a. Logbook entry
b. Progress billing deduction
c. Inspection report
d. Site instruction

22. How much percentage is withheld on the general items until the final acceptance of the project?
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%

23. Which of the following is not a construction safety procedure?

a. The side of deep excavations must be properly shored
b. All openings above ground level must be guarded
c. Operators and mechanics must be required to log in when operating equipment
d. Workers engaged in clearing must be protected from hazardous plans

24. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a. Revision in plans
b. Inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c. Non-availability of construction materials
d. Rainy month pre-determined in the area

25. The bar chart is also called a:

a. Precedence diagram
b. Gantt chart
c. CPM diagram
d. PERT chart

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26. Who assists the Project engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field operations?
a. Contractor’s engineer
b. Resident engineer
c. Materials engineer
d. Project inspector

27. If after fifty (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on schedule no additional
retention should be made otherwise the progress payment should be imposed a retention rate of:
a. 5 %
b. 10%
c. 15%
d. 20%

28. A project with delays due to reasons beyond the control of the contractor may be granted a time
extension if the affected works, as shown in the PERT/CPM diagram, are:
a. Dummy activities
b. Critical activities
c. Non-critical activities
d. Hammock activities

29. Which of the following is not considered a Variation Order?

a. Change order
b. Extra work order
c. Resume order
d. Supplemental agreement

30. A variation order may be in the form of extra work order or change order. What is the maximum
allowable percentage of the change order?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 5%
d. 20%

31. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a project?
a. Project inspector
b. Resident engineer
c. Project engineer
d. Materials engineer

32. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects should be
referred to?
a. Mean sea level
b. 10.47 m below mean sea level
c. 10.00 below mean lower low water
d. Mean lower low water

33. Who supervises the work and test employed in project implementation?
a. Project inspector
b. Contractor’s engineer
c. Materials engineer
d. Project engineer

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34. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a. 85%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 100%

35. In the DPWH Standard specifications, what is the item no. embankment?
a. 100
b. 102
c. 104
d. 106

36. What is item 506 in the DPWH structural specifications?

a. Structural concrete
b. Prestressed concrete
c. Stone masonry
d. Riprap and grouted riprap

37. In laying stone components of item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone should be:
a. Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b. Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c. Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d. Reasonably uniform with no projection more than 150 mm

38. What is the minimum cement content (40 kg/bag) per cubic meter of class B concrete?
a. 8 bags
b. 9 bags
c. 9.5 bags
d. 11 bags

39. The minimum testing requirement of concrete for item 405 is the compressive strength test on
concrete cylinder samples consisting of a set of 3 concrete cylinder samples to represent not more
than:
a. 50 m^3 of concrete
b. 75 m^3 of concrete
c. 100 m^3 of concrete
d. 125 m^3 of concrete

40. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:

a. Sieve analysis test
b. Hydrometer test
c. Plastic limit test
d. Liquid limit test

41. The Atterberg limit tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.:
a. 4
b. 16
c. 40
d. 200

42. How often can progress payment be requested by a contractor?

a. Once a month
b. Twice a month
c. As soon as an item of work is completed

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d. As often as he desires

43. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favourable temperature in concrete is called:
a. Consolidation
b. Shrinkage
c. Curing
d. Evaporation

44. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular base, what
liquid asphalt is applied?
a. Seal coat
b. Tack coat
c. Prime coat
d. Epoxy coat

45. What formula is used in computing price escalation?

a. No loss-no gain formula
b. Economic formula
c. Parametric formula
d. Parabolic formula

46. In an inspection report, aside from the findings, which is the most important item to be
included?
a. Duration of inspection
b. Members of the inspectorate team
c. Copy of the memorandum to inspectorate team
d. Recommendation of the possible actions to be undertaken

47. After the final inspection of a reported 100 % accomplished project, before a certificate of final
inspection is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a. Emergency conference
b. Exit conference
c. Pre- construction conference
d. Turn- over ceremony

48. If a project is started more than 8 months after the bidding, the contractor is entitled to claim
for:
a. Bonus
b. Additional advance payment
c. Price adjustment
d. Extra work order

49. For reference in the preparation of catch-up plans the following are the prevailing weather
conditions in the Philippines with the exception of:
a. Two pronounced seasons, dry from November to April, wet during the rest of the year
b. No dry seasons, with a very pronounced maximum rainfall from Nov. to Jan.
c. Dry and rainy is equally distributed throughout the year
d. Rainfall more or less distributed throughout the year

50. The catch up schedule reflects:

a. Financial expenditures
b. Accomplishment-duration relationship
c. The advance accomplishment
d. Preliminary engineering activities

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51. If a contractor continues to disregard agreed project plans and specifications, what
recommendation should you prepare?
a. Contract suspension
b. Termination of contract
c. Rescission of contract
d. Blacklisting of contractor

52. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:

a. Pick and shovel
b. Ripper
c. Road grader
d. Bulldozer

53. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway project and you
found out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by one meter. What should you do?
a. Accept the project as is
b. Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c. Install corresponding ogee
d. Reprimand the former Project engineer

54. Which of the following structures is constructed parallel to the flow of the river and serve as
protection of riverbank?
a. Spur dike
b. Revetment
c. Mini dam
d. Groin

55. Dams are hydraulic structures constructed to:

a. Increase conveyance capacity of the river
b. Arrest scouring on meandering river sections
c. Protect river banks from heavy run0off
d. Retard flood run off and minimize effect of flash floods

56. Which of the following complements as regulating flood control structure:

a. Main canal
b. Weir or control gate
c. Drainage lateral
d. Groin and spur dike

57. In embankment works, which of the following is undertaken first?

a. Clearing and grubbing
b. Excavation of core trench
c. As-take survey works
d. Construction of the impervious fill

58. Before actual construction of a dam is started, which of the following should be secured first?
a. Maintenance of access road
b. Delivery of construction materials
c. Stripping of ground surface
d. Installation of safety requirements

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59. If the void ratio of a soil is 1, the porosity (n) is equal to:
a. 10 %
b. 20%
c. 30%
d. 50%

60. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the Project Engineer?
a. Resident engineer
b. Material engineer
c. Project engineer
d. Contractor engineer

61. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut to a depth
of:
a.100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm

62. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be composed of one
part Portland Cement and:
a. 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b. I inch part fine aggregates by volume
c. 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d. 2 inches parts fine aggregates by volume

63. The depth of weakened plane joints on a 23.0 cm thick pavement should not be less than:
a. 45 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 75 mm

64. The item no. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement (PCCP) in the DPWH Standard
Specification is:
a. 200
b. 201
c. 310
d. 311

65. Under item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry aggregate should
between:
a. 4% to 8%
b. 5% to 8%
c. 3% to 5 %
d. 5% to 7%

66. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a. 5,000 lb (22KN) wheel load
b. 10.000 lb (44KN) single axle load
c. 32,000 lb (142KN) tandem axle load
d. 18,000 lb (80KN) single axle load

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67. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in the
quantities provided for in the original contract?
a. Extra Work order
b. Change order
c. Resume order
d. Suspension order

68. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:

a. A deductive distance
b. An addictive distance
c. No increase in distance
d. The road length

69. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following criteria is
not appropriate to recommend?
a. Drainage facilities is well-maintained
b. Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c. Existing base course is stable
d. Flood-prone road section

70. If the type of soil in item 200 material is non-plastic, what Atterberg Limit Test can be
performed?
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Both a and b

71. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a. Volume
b. Weight
c. Quantity
d. Density

72. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design will
generally require:
a. Spread foundations
b. Raft foundations
c. Pile foundations
d. Caisson foundations

73. If the required thickness of item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and compacted in
________ layer (s).
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Uniform

74. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and history in the
implementation of a project from start to completion?
a. Blue book
b. History book
c. Log book
d. Statement of Work Accomplished SWA

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75. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment, etc., which
of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure reliever on the structure?
a. Cut-off wall
b. Berm
c. Weep hole
d. Gravel filter

76. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement by providing
additional adequate thickness over it?
a. Re-blocking
b. Sealing
c. Grouting
d. Overlaying

77. Concrete mix not in place within______ minutes from the time ingredients were charged into the
mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a. 90
b. 45
c. 30
d. 15

78. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by a truck
mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not exceed:
a. 15 mins.
b. 45 mins.
c. 30 mins.
d. 20 mins.

79. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition
and saturated with water for at least:
a. 6 hrs.
b. 1.5 hrs.
c. 2 hrs.
d. 3 hrs.

80. To protect Portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently hardened,
should be required to have at all times any of the following materials with the exception of:
a. Metal form or wood planks
b. Burlaps or cotton mats
c. Plastic sheeting material
d. Plastic water stops

81. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be less than
what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the AASHTO method?
a. 95%
b. 96%
c. 98%
d. 100%

82. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of:
a. 0.2-0.5 l/m^2
b. 0.2-0.7 l/m^2
c. 0.15-0.7 l/m^2
d. 0.15-0.5 l/m^2

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83. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:
a. Establish a smooth riding surface
b. Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway
c. Provide boundary line for the two lanes
d. Plant grass of sodding

84. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a. Over saturation with water
b. Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c. Dry soil
d. Old weather

85. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular base, what
liquid asphalt is applied?
a. Seal coat
b. Tack coat
c. Prime coat
d. Epoxy coat

86. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of the following is
not used to allow such movement?
a. Expansion joints
b. Rockers
c. Sliding plates
d. Rollers

87. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the term “BK”
and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say that:
a. BK means new survey stationing
b. AH means old survey stationing corrected
c. BK means old survey stationing corrected: AH, new survey stationing
d. d. Both a and b

88. In practice, K – Factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th highest annual
hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:
a. DHV/ADT
b. DDHV/(DXAADT)
c. V/PHF
d. L/A

89. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a. Critical length of grade for design
b. Exceptional gradient
c. Limiting gradient
d. Ruling gradient

90. To find the time flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can be done by
transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1, 5. The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of
the rectangle, which is the:
a. Square root of the square of width plus half of
b. Square root of the sum of the squares of longer side and W plus half of W

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c. Square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d. 3.0 W

91. Profile along the centreline of the river channel should be extended from the centreline of the
bridge by at least
a. 100 to 200 upstream only
b. 100 to 200 downstream
c. 100 to 200 upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

92. The depth of weekend plane joints should not be less than:
a. 45 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 75 mm

93. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be composed of one
part Portland Cement and:
a. 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b. 1 inch part fine aggregates by volume
c. 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d. 2 inch parts fine aggregates by volume

94. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut to a depth:
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm

95. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishments for review of the project engineer?
a. Resident engineer
b. Materials engineer
c. Project engineer
d. Contractors engineer

96. Who assists the Project engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field operation?
a. Contractors engineer
b. Resident engineer
c. Materials engineer
d. Project inspector

97. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a. Density test
b. Core boring test
c. California bearing ratio (CBR) test
d. Dynamic cone penetrometer test

98. Per program of work, the estimated volume of item 201 materials is 7,500 cubic meter. How
many grading and plasticity test are required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirement?
a. 3
b. 25
c. 7
d. 9

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99. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum requirements) can
still be used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the following are considered except
one:
a. Adequate compaction is applied during construction
b. Increase the thickness requirement of base course
c. The design is only intended for a barangay road project
d. The foundation contains unsuitable materials

100. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by an extra
work is equivalent to 75% BUT ONLY 65% is covered under the approved original contract. Up to
what level of progress billing would you allow?
a. Up to the total 75% accomplishment
b. Below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c. Up to the documented value not more than 50 %
d. Up to the documented value not more than 65%

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 2

101. When the grading test results of the three (3) Stockpile are not in accordance with Item 201
requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a. Replace the three (3) stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials.
b. Blend the three (3) stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the specified
grading.
c. Allow the use of the materials provide corresponding deduction in payment will be
affected. d. Increase the thickness of Item 201.

102. The Plasticity Index (PI) required for Item 201, Aggregate Base Course materials, should not be
greater than:
a. 8%
b. 12%
c. 6%
d. 9%

103. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non- plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be
performed?
a. Plastic limit
b. Liquid limit
c. Shrinkage limit
d. Both a and b

104. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and compacted in
__________ layer(s).
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Uniform

105. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall Test measure?

a. Cohesion Resistance
b. Resistance to Displacement
c. Diametric Distortions
d. Skid Resistance

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106. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all sets
of 3 consecutive strength of all sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the
specified strength and when no individual strength test result is deficient by more than:
a. 10% of 550 psi
b. 15% of 550 psi
c. 20% of 550 psi
d. 25% of 550 psi

107. The maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and shrubs
should be left uncut is:
a. 50mm
b. 100mm
c. 200mm
d. 400mm

108. Concrete class A mix used and deposited in water for footing constructing shall maintain a
slump between:
a. 5 and 10 cm
b. 10 and 20 cm
c. 20 and 30 cm
d. 30 and 40 cm

109. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of
how many days after it has been placed?
a. 28
b. 30
c. 14
d. 7

110. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to manual
dropping by not more than___________ and where no other special tools and means are used.
a. 3.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 2.0 m
d. 1.5 m

111. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a. 2000 kg
b. 1500 kg
c. 1800 kg
d. 1700 kg

112. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction from its
location shown in the approved plans?
a. 75 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 40 mm

113. What is the allowable minimum penetration of piles in firm material?

a. 4.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 3.0 m
d. 2.0 m

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114. What should the condition of the tack coat be before the next course is applied?
a. Wet
b. Sticky
c. Plastic
d. Dry

115. Concrete mix not place within ______________ minutes from the time ingredients were
charged into the mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a. 90
b. 45
c. 30
d. 15

116. What is the minimum allowable/required atmospheric temperature in the application of Item
305 bituminous material?
a. 5 ºC
b. 10 ºC
c. 12 ºC
d. 15 ºC

117. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching using
cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a. ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b. prevent pumping
c. minimizing spalling
d. prevent faulting

118. Repainting of steel bridge is an activity under:

a. special maintenance
b. preventive maintenance
c. routine maintenance
d. periodic maintenance

119. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make
them denser and make them denser and grow straight?
a. Pruning
b. Grafting
c. Felling
d. Budding

120. The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of maintenance of
our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:
a. Lane kilometre
b. Equivalent maintenance kilometre unit
c. Equivalent maintenance kilometre
d. Standard kilometre unit

121. Which of the following is not classified as a type of Caisson foundation?

a. Pneumatic foundation
b. Box caisson
c. Open caisson
d. Hydraulic caisson

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122. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meteres?
a. Reinforced concrete slab
b. Concrete plank deck
c. Girder and slab superstructure
d. Beam or plank bridge

123. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended from the
centreline of the bridge at least
a. 100 to 200 m upstream only
b. 100 to 200 m downstream only
c. 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

124. the most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a. AADT
b. 30th highest hourly volume
c. Service flow
d. Highest 15 minute volume

125. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movements of girders. Which of the following
is not used to allow such movement?
a. Expansion joints
b. Rockers
c. Sliding plates
d. Rollers

126. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a. 15.24/(L+38): Where L= portion of the span loaded for maximum
b. 50/(L+125) C
c. 30%
Dd. 50%

127. Gravity loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not included in
this classification?
a. Weight of all permanent components
b. Architectural components
c. Occupants, furnitures, etc.
d. Wind load

128. Lateral forces on building frames can be analysed by approximate analytical methods given
below with the exception of:
a. Moment- Distribution Method
b. Portal Method
c. Factor Method
d. Cantilever Method

129. If a project is started more than 8 months after the bidding, the contractor is entitled to claim
for:
a. Bonus
b. Additional advance payment
c. Price adjustment
d. Extra work order

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130. After the final inspection of a reported 100% accomplished project, before a certificate of final
inspection is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a. Emergency conference
b. Exit conference
c. Pre-construction conference
d. Turn over ceremony

131. In an inspection report, aside from the findings, which is the most important item to be
included?
a. Duration of inspection
b. Members of the inspectorate team
c. Copy of the memorandum to inspectorate team
d. Recommendation of possible actions to be undertaken

132. A logbook contains the following data with the exception of:
a. Activities done during the day
b. Materials delivered and used for the day
c. The days weather condition
d. Survey data

133. What formula is used in computing price escalation?

a. No loss- no gain formula
b. Economic formula
c. Parametric formula
d. Parabolic formula

134. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a project that is
awarded thru public bidding?
a. Notice to proceed
b. Effectivity of the contract
c. Date of Approval
d. Date of bidding

135. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a project
that is awarded thru simplified bidding?
a. Notice to proceed
b. Date of bidding
c. Approval of the contract
d. None of the above

136. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure?

a. Reduction of peck flow by reservoirs
b. Confinement of the flow by levees, floodwalls
c. Flood plain management
d. Highway drainage

137. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall height must
be at least 0.30 m above the super- elevated water surface for velocities of 10 meter/second or less.
This means that if the super- elevated water level is at elevation 44.30 m, the top of the channel wall
will be at least at elevation:
a. 44.0 m
b. 44.3 m
c. 44.6 m
d. 44.9 m

17
138. Since highways cross many natural drainage channels, provision of cross drainage as given
below is necessary. The one not falling under cross drainage is:
a. Culverts
b. Bridges
c. Dips
d. Ditches

139. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition
and saturated with water for at least:
a. 6 hrs.
b. 1.5 hrs.
c. 2 hrs.
d. 3 hrs.

140. What is the most appropriate filling material if you encounter unsuitable roadway foundation?
a. Fine aggregates
b. Coarse aggregates
c. Broken concrete
d. Granular materials

141. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by a truck
mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not exceed:
a. 60 mins.
b. 45 mins.
c. 30 mins.
d. 90 mins.

142. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement by
providing additional adequate thickness over it?
a. Re-blocking
b. Sealing
c. Grouting
d. Overlaying

143. Concrete mix not in place __________ minutes from the time ingredients were charged into the
mixing drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a. 90
b. 45
d. 30
c. 60

144. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a. Spread footing
b. Caisson
c. Piles
d. Bearing shelf

145. What is the minimum length requirement for the longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that
should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a. 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b. 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c. 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d. 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

18
146. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?
a. Embankment
b. Approach
c. Abutment
d. Apron

147. What can be done on corners of concrete hollow block walls where no reinforced concrete
column or wall stiffener is required/specified to join them?
a. Chipping
b. Interlocking
c. Epoxy binding
d. Bracing

148. The presence of excessive amount of sulphuric and alkali materials in water used in reinforced
concrete construction will result to:
a. Increase in volume of mix
b. Early hardening of concrete
c. Corrosion of steel reinforcement
d. Whitening of finished surface of concrete

149. In patching works using cold mix (Emulsified Asphalt SS-1 Aggregate Mix), what color of the mix
indicates that it is ready for application?
a. Dark brown
b. Grayish
c. Black
d. Blue- white

150. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make
them denser and grow straight?
a. Pruning
b. Grafting
c. Felling
d. Buddling

151. Which of the following is not categorized as a type of steel deck used on bridges?
a. Steel jack arches
b. Open panel
c. Stiffened steel
d. Close through panel

152. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction from its
location shown in the approved plans?
a. 75 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 40 mm

153. Driving heads of piles are provided to:

a. Ensure lateral support to the pile
b. Provide a driving surface normal to the pile
c. Avoid swaying
d. Splice piles

19
154. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?
a. Impervious fill
b. Random fill
c. Outlet protection works
d. Distribution canal

155. Which of the following is not a component of an economic evaluation of flood control projects?
a. Determination of flood discharges
b. Determination of estimated amount of damage
c. Subsurface investigation
d. Economic impact evaluation

156. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:

a. Sieve analysis
b. Hydrometer analysis
c. Shaking test
d. Stripping test

157. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a. 0.5 meter long
b. 1.0 meter long
c. 1.5 meter long
d. 2.0 meter long

158. Under Item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry aggregate
should be between:
a. 4% to 8%
b. 5% to 8%
c. 3% to 5%
d. 5% to 7%

159. To protect Portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently hardened,
the contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following materials with the
exception of:
a. Metal form or wood planks
b. Burlaps or cotton mats
c. Plastic sheeting material
d. Plastic water stops

160. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for item 311 (Portland Cement
Concrete Pavement) is:
a. 500 psi
b. 550 psi
c. 3000 psi
d. 3500 psi

161. The item no. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard Specifications is:
a. 200
b. 201
c. 310
d. 311

20
162. Soil classification is determined by:
a. Attenberg limits test
b. Sieve analysis test
c. Hydrometer test
d. A and b

163. After three weeks of completion, the asphalt overlay exhibited reflection cracking. What will
you recommend to correct the said defect?
a. Apply seal coat
b. Apply additional bituminous mix
c. Redo the construction of the asphalt overlay
d. Apply cover aggregates

164. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following criteria is
not appropriate to recommend?
a. Drainage facilities is well- maintained
b. Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c. Existing base course id stable
d. Flood- prone road section

165. When the grading test results of the three stockpiles are not in accordance with item 201
requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a. Replace the three stockpiles with quality item 201 materials
b. Blend the three stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the specified grading
c. Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment will be affected
d. Increase the thickness of item 201

166. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or
shortening of the proposed structure. What should the Project engineer do?
a. Issue notice to proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b. Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c. Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d. Recheck the as-staked plan

167. What do you call the additional support on steel piles to support embankment of the abutment
of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety factor against overturning?
a. Dead man
b. Pile
c. Bridge panel
d. Cross bracing

168. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limites span of 8
meters?
a. Reinforced concrete slab
b. Concrete plank deck
c. Girder and slab superstructure
d. Beam or plank bridge

169. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a. Pneumatic foundation
b. Box caisson
c. Open caisson
d. Hydraulic caisson

21
170. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work starts,
with exception of:
a. Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b. Water diversion on thru dikes of rock and earth
c. Use of steel sheet piles
d. Spurdiking

171. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments that have
an indication of scouring and erosion?
a. Shotcreting
b. Underpinning
c. Riveting
d. Plastering

172. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone, other
schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a. Water jets
b. Pilot holes
c. Both jet and holes
d. Square hole

173. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?

a. Channel improvement
b. Dikes
c. Spillways
d. Reclamation

174. Which of the following is not a function Of A groin?

a. It decreases the flow velocity
b. It regulates the flow direction
c. It stabilizes the mountain grade
d. It decreases the scouring effect

175. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5,0 m that is built across or spanning a river or
waterway?
a. Bridge (any type)
b. Culvert (pipe or box)
c. Viaduct
d. Chute

176. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?

a. Drainage ditch
b. Retaining wall
c. Lateral works
d. Pier resting on piles

177. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a. River protection works
b. Coastal protection works
c. Slope protection works
d. Erosion control works

22
178. In a CPM diagram, these are points in time representing the start or completion of particular
activities:
a. Activities
b. Connectors
c. Events
d. Dummies

179. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point in time that any event can occur, and
still be on scheduled completion of a project?
a. Early start
b. Early finish
c. Late start
d. Late finish

180. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and history in thee
implementation of a project from start to completion?
a. Blue book
b. History book
c. Log book
d. Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

181. If the required thickness of item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and compacted in
_______ layers.
a. One
b. Two
c. Three
d. Uniform

182. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a. Spread foundations
b. Raft foundations
c. Pile foundations
d. caisson foundations

183. The amount withheld by the agency equivalent to 10% of the amount due to a contractor is
referred to as:
a. seed money
b. withholding
c. retention money
d. contractor tax

184. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a. volume
b. weight
c. quantity
d. density

185. The catch-up schedule reflects:

a. financial expenditure
b. accomplishments-duration relationship
c. the advance accomplishment
d. preliminary engineering activities

23
186. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment of
95% or more, which of the following is assured?
a. Final inspection certificate
b. Acceptance certificate
c. Punch list
d. Turnover certificate

187. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will
pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed
alignment at an average interval of:
a. 150 m
b. 200 m
c. 250 m
d. 500 m

188. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended from the
centreline of the bridge at least
a. 100 to 200 m upstream only
b. 100 to 200 m downstream only
c. 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

189. Profile along the centreline of the river channel should be extended from the centreline of the
bridge by at least
a. 100 to 200 m upstream only
b. 100 to 200 m downstream only
c. 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

190. To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can be done by
transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1, 5. The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of
the rectangle, which is the:
a. Square root of the square of width (W) plus half of
b. Square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c. Square root of the square of L plus Half of W
d. 3.O W

191. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a. Critical length of grade for design
b. Exceptional gradient
c. Limiting gradient
d. Ruling gradient

192. Proper storage of cement especially for big quantities stored at the jobsite must satisfy the
following requirement with the exception of:
a. Flooring of warehouse should be well above the ground
b. Cement sucks should be stacked close together
c. Warehouse doors and windows should be closed except when cement is taken out for use
d. Warehouse should be located in an elevated place

24
193. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly set
concrete pavement should not be more than:
a. 6.0 mm
b. 1.5 mm
c. 3.0 mm
d. 2.5 mm

194. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for tie bars of a PCCP?
a. Plain square bars
b. Plain round bars
c. Deformed square bars
d. Deformed round bars

195. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:

a. Blacklisted by the agency
b. Required to pay liquidated damages
c. Allowed to submit bids
d. Disallowed to submit bids

196. What is the item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specifications?

a. Structural concrete
b. Prestressed concrete
c. Riprap, grouted riprap
d. Stone masonry

197. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, shoes for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm

198. How many core samples should be taken for thickness determination of a 2-kilometer, 2-lane
concrete road pavement?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

199. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will
pass thorugh losse or heterogenous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed
alignment at an average interval of.
a. 150 m
b. 200 m
c. 250 m
d. 500 m

200. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a. AADT
b. 30th highest hourly volume
c. Service flow
d. Highest 15 minutes volume

25
JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 3

201. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented),
which of the following is the most important consideration?
a. Right-of way acquisition
b. Local manpower capability
c. Climatic condition in the area
d. Availability of fund

202. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for sides of concrete
beams and girders, the minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days

203. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the cross-sectional
area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a. Velocity- area method
b. Float velocity method
c. Direct volumetric method
d. Indirect method

204. What is the apparatus used in determining the consistency of a liquid asphalt?
a. Penetrometer
b. Viscometer
c. Thermometer
d. Viscometric meter

205. Which of the following is not a quality test for cement?

a. Compressive strength
b. Loss of ignition
c. Soundness
d. California bearing ratio

206. What kind of joint is required to be constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30
minutes in the concreting operations of a road pavement?
a. Longitudinal Joint
b. Transverse expansion Joint
c. Transverse contraction Joint
d. Transverse construction Joint

207. Which of the following project documents attest that the materials incorporated into the
project works corresponds to the quantity accomplished and conform with specifications?
a. Certificate of quality control and assurance
b. Quality control program
c. Notice to proceed
d. Statement of work accomplished

208. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:

a. Establish a smooth riding surface
b. Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway
c. Provide boundary line for the two lanes
d. Plant grass of sodding

26
209. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 62 mm
d. 75 mm

210. Culvert flow under entrance control is synonymous with flow under:
a. Outlet control
b. Inlet control
c. Submerged outlet
d. Normal depth greater than barrel height

211. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the water
surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a. Freeboard
b. Headwater depth
c. Trail water depth
d. Scour depth

212. In the foundation design, the allowed load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing the
ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 1 to 2
d. 2 to 3

213. When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination with vertical
loads, al allowed stresses and soil-bearing value for working stress design may be increased by:
a. ¼
b. 1/3
c. ½
d. ¾

214. For service load design of bridges, the flexural stress in the extreme fiber stress in compression,
fc (in MPa), is:
a. 0.30 f’c
b. 0.40 f’c
c. 0.45 f’c
d. 0.50 f’c

215. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 62 mm
d. 75 mm

216. What test determined the crushing of strength of aggregates to ensure that coarse aggregates
will not degrade to smaller ones.
a. Abrasion
b. Grading

27
c. Density
d. Plasticity test

217. A one-lane road, with of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of 0.5 meter on each side of the
pavement was designed to have sub-base and base coarse with a combined thickness of 300mm. If
the thickness of the sub-base is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the sub-base and base
coarse shall be carried out in
a. 3 layers over the full width of 4.5 m
b. 2 layers over the full width of 4.5 m
c. 3 layers over the full width of 3.5 m
d. 2 layers over the full width of 3.5 m

218. Weakened joints on concrete pavement should be sawed

a. Immediately after the pavement surface has been brooms finished
b. Sawing of joints shall commerce as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently, usually within
24 hours
c. Before the pavements opened to traffic usually 14 days from the day of pouring

219. What depth of weakened joint should at all times not be less than
a. 50 mm
b. 60 mm
c. 70 mm
d. 75 mm

220. Cores are taken from a concrete pavement and tested for
a. Strength verification of concrete in place that is considered adequate
b. Flexural strength determination
c. Cement content determination
d. Thickness determination

221. In accepting completed concrete pavement poured by lane thickness

determination shall come out by obtaining one core from every
a. 100 meters
b. 200 meters
c. 500 meters
d. 1000 meters

222. If the strength of Item 311 control specimens does not meet the requirements by not more
than 25% and it is not feasible to obtain cores from the structure due to structural consideration:
a. The strength of in-place concrete will be determined by rebound hammer
b. Pavement of the concrete will be made at an adjusted price
c. No pavement will be made on the concrete represented by the failed specimen
d. The contractor will be required to remove and replace the concrete
represented by the failed specimens at his own expense.

223. The flexural strength requirements of item 311 is

a. 500 psi
b. 550 psi
c. 3000 psi
d. 3500 psi

28
224. The number of sets of beam test specimens that should be taken from 700 sq.m. of concrete
pavements, 0.23 cm thick poured on a single day should be:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9

225. Three cores taken from a pavement section poured on a single day were tested to have
strength as follows:
Core
1 3650
2 3000 86% of 3500 psi
3 2450 70% of 3500 psi
Average 3033 87% of 3500 psi
If the required strength is 3500 psi concrete are represented by the cores
a. Maybe accepted, subject to price adjustment
b. Is considered adequate
c. Is considered inadequate
d. May be recored at the initiative of the implementing office

226. Forms for concrete pavement shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than
a. 24 hours after concrete pouring
b. The curing period
c. The period required to attain the design strength
d. 72 hours after concrete pouring

227. The Ph value of water that is acceptable for use in concrete mix is
a. 2.0 to 3.1
b. 3.2 to 4.4
c. 4.5 to 8.5
d. 8.6 to 10.0

228. How many measurements are needed for thickness determination of concrete cores?
a. 4
b. 6
c. 8
d. 9

229. What is the single factor that determines the strength of concrete?
a. Slump
b. Water-cement ratio
c. Cement factor
d. Gradation of aggregates

230. What is the curve formed on a maximum dry density and optimum moisture content graph?
a. Parabola
b. Hyperbola
c. Straight line
d. None of the above

231. Which of the following is accepted for concrete with fc at 28 days of 3500 psi?
a. 4000 psi; 3050 psi; 3450 psi
b. 4000 psi; 3010 psi; 3489 psi
c. 4500 psi; 2969 psi; 5000 psi

29
d. 3500 psi; 34980psi; 3501 psi

232. In a design mix, the specific gravity of Portland cement must be

a. 3.05
b. 3.10
c. 3.15
d. 6.10

233. The role of application of prime coat before asphalt overlaying is

a. 0.2 to 0.7 l/sq.m.
b. 0.8 to 0.9 l/sq.m.
c. 1.0 to 2.0 l/sq.m.
d. 2.1 to 2.5 l/sq.m.

234. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes
a. Design mix
b. Marshall stability
c. Index of retained strength
d. Immersion / compression test

235. Which of the following penetration grade of asphalt is used in cold climate?
a. 120/50
b. 85/100
c. 60/70
d. 40/50

236. If sea water is used in a concrete mix, shat will be the effect on the hardened concrete
pavement?
a. Strength is affected
b. Scaling at surface
c. Cracks at the side
d. Steel bars will rust

237. The job mix formula contain the following provision except
a. Grading of aggregate
b. Temperature of aggregates and asphalt
c. Index of retained strength value
d. Type of asphalt and percentage

238. Scaling of newly constructed concrete pavement is an evidence of inadequate quality control
mainly due to high
a. Fineness modules
b. Slump
c. Fine aggregates content
d. Water cement ratio

239. The grade designation of a reinforcing steel bars is also its

a. Nominal area
b. Yield strength
c. Tensile strength
d. Unit mass

30
240. Which of the following is not an engineering property of granular soils?
a. Good load bearing qualities
b. Drain readily
c. Susceptible to strength or volume change due to change in water content
d. Comparatively incompressible due to static load

241. Which of the following is an engineering property of line grained soil?

a. hard to drain
b. Susceptible to volume change under vibratory load, if not adequately compacted
c. Stable when subjected to load
d. Settlement is high

242. The dividing size between coarse and fine aggregates used in asphalting is
a. no. 4
b. No. 8
c. No. 16
d. No. 30

243. The objective of designing the asphalt mixture is determination of

a. Index of retained strength
b. Penetration grade of asphalt
c. Temperature of mix
d. Production control

244. The sample of reinforcing steel bars for every 10,000 kgs shall be
a. 1 meter long
b. 2 meters long
c. 4 meters long
d. 6 meters long

245. Given: Specific gravity = 2.305

Wet compressive strength = 1000 kpa Dry
compressive strength = 1400 kpa What is the
index of retained strength value?
a. 70.1%
b. 71.4%
c. 40%
d. 140%

246. The variation on tolerance of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge in contact
with the surface of asphalt pavement is
a. +/- 2mm
b. +/- 4mm
c. +/- 6 mm
d. – 5 mm

247. The specific irregularity tolerance for item 201 is

a. 5 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 20 mm

31
248. The depth of the weakened plane joint with a width of 6 mm is
a. 40 mm
b.45 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 60 mm

249. Which of t he following is not the job for a materials engineer?

a. Submits samples for testing
b. Prepares design mix
c. Checks job mix formula
d. Surveys and measures line and grade at site

250. The proper way of sampling of aggregate base course in the laboratory if the the splitter is not
availavle is to
a. Scoop for samples in the middle of the sack
b. Spread the samples on the ground and take the samples in the middle
c. Spread the samples on the ground and divide the samples into four and take two opposite parts
from it.
d. Scoop for samples at the side of the sack

251. Given :Original weight of sample, g 5000,

Sample retained on No. 12 sieve, g 4178
What is the abrasion loss?
a. 16.42%
b. 16.44%
c. 19.67%
d. 19.76%

252. Which is true on conducting of a slump test?

a. Consistency of mixture is checked by the slump test
b. It is simple, but important, n indicator of water – cement ratio
c. Slump cone is used together with tamping rod and ruler
d. All of the above

253. Reinforced concrete puipe culvents are tested for compressive strength to produce _______
crack.
a. 0.20 mm
b. 0.25 mm
c. 0.30 mm
d. 0.35 mm

254. The bituminous materials commonly used in item 310 is

a. Asphalt emulsion
b. Asphalt cement
c. Liquid asphalt
d. Cutback asphalt

255. Item 310 mixture shall have an index of retained strength of not less than
a. 66
b. 70
c. 97
d. 107

32
256. Final compaction and smoothing of item 310 should be done by a
a. pneumatic – tired roller
b. Sheep foot roller
c. Vibratory roller
d. Tandem smooth wheel roller

257. Item 310 mixture shall be delivered to the paver at a temperature not less than
a. 66 ºC
b. 97 ºC
c. 107 ºC
d. 110 ºC
258. In the asphalting of a two lane, 500 meter road which lasted for three days, how many core
samples should be taken from the pavement if no sample was taken at the end of each days
operation?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 6
d. 10

259. Which of the following provisions is not included in the job – mix formula?
a. Mixing time
b. Grading of aggregates
c. Asphalt cement
d. Temperature at delivery

260. A bituminous mix subjected to immersion – compression test yielded a dry stability of 2.0 kg
and a wet stability of 1.5 kg. The index of retained strength of the mix is
a. 0.5
b. 1.33
c. 33
d. 75

261. In item 310, bitumen content, expressed in terms of percentage by mass of aggregate, shall be
a. 3 to 5 %
b. 4 to 7 %
c. 5 to 8 %
d. 6 to 8 %

262. In the asphalting of a 3 – meter wide, 200 meter long road lane, a core was obtained and tested
to have a thickness of 5 cm. And a density of 2.25 gm/ cm³. the quantity of bituminous mix to be
paid, in tonnes, is
a. 65.5
b. 67.5
c. 655
d. 675

263. After final rolling, the compacted asphalt pavement shall have a density equal top, or greater
than % of the laboratory compacted density.
a. 90
b. 95
c. 97
d. 98

33
264. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within % throughout the range of
use. Scales shall be inspected and sealed as often as the Engineer may deem necessary to assure
their continued accuracy,
a. 1.0%
b. 1.5%
c. 0.5%
d. 2.0%

265. When cement is placed in contact with the aggregate, batches maybe rejected unless mixed
within ____ hours of such contact.
a. 1.5 hours
b. 2.0 hours
c. 0.5 hours
d. 2.0 hours

266. When mixed at the site or in a central mixing plant, the mixing time not be less than ____ nor
more than ____unless mixer performance test prove adequate mixing of concrete in a shorter time
period.
a. 30 seconds nor more than 90 seconds
b. 50 seconds nor more than 90 seconds
c. 60 seconds nor more than 120 seconds
d. 90 seconds nor more than 120 seconds

267. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water should be in the drum by the end of the first
____seconds of the mixing period.
a. 45 seconds
b. 30 seconds
c. 15 seconds
d. 20 seconds

268. Concrete not place within ____minutes from the time the ingredients were charged into the
mixing drum shall not be used.
a. 120 minutes
b. 150 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes

269. When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, additional water maybe added to the batch and
additional mixing performed to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement if permitted
by the Engineer, provided all these operation are performed within ____after the initial mixing
operation and water and cement ratio is not exceeded.
a. 30 minutes
b. 15 minutes
c. 45 minutes
d. 60 minutes

270. A sample from a bituminous mix weighs 1000 grams. At extraction, it was found out that the
dry aggregate weighed 950 grams, What is the % of asphalt by weight of mix?
a. 5.2%
b. 5.0%
c. 5.4%
d. 4.8%

34
271. The minimum penetration of the preservative with the surface of the timber piles shall be ____.
a. 150 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 250 mm
d. 10 mm

272. The contractor shall submit in writing a job-mix formula for the mixture supported by the
laboratory test data along with samples of resources of components and viscosity-temperature
relationship to the Engineer for testing and approval at least ____.
a. two weeks
b. three weeks
c. one week
d. four weeks

273. The concrete samples should be stored in a moist conditioned temperature within the range of
____until the time of test.
a. 16*C to 27*C
b. 15*C to 18*C
c. 14*C to 24*C
d. 18*C to 28*C

274. This is used in soil stabilized road surface due to its high____ property, tha is, it absorb and
retain water.
a. Potassium Chloride
b. Calcium Chloride
c. Magnesium Chloride
d. Sodium Chloride
275. The mass % wear of soil aggregate used in cement/lime proportions should not be more than
____.
a. 40%
b. 50%
c. 45%
d. 55%

276. The uniform rate at which the movable head of CBR machine tray is ____.
a. 0.07 in/min
b. 0.10 in/min
c. 0.08 in/min
d. 0.09 in/min

277. Cast in place concrete shall not be post-tensioned until at least ____ and until the compressive
strength has reached the strength specified
a. 7 days
b. 10 days
c. 14 days
d. 20 days

278. The penetration test is an indication of the ____of asphalt.

a. Consistency
b. Softness
c. Hardness
d. Flash Point

35
279. Specification requires one (1) Quality test for every ___of asphalt.
a. 20 tons
b. 200 tons
c. 50 tons
d. 40 tons

280. The ___is the most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous
concrete mixes.
a. Job Mix Formula
b. Design Mix
c. Marshall Stability
d. Extraction

281. Vibration shall operate a frequency of 8,300 to 9,600 impulses per minute under load at a
maximum spacing of ___cm.
a. 30 cm
b. 50 cm
c. 60 cm
d. 40 cm

282. The specific gravity of Sodium Sulfate used in soundness test for aggregate should be within
the range of ___.
a. 1.151 to 1.174
b. 1.250 to 1.178
c. 1.051 to 1.154
d. 1.058 to 1.184

283. The specific gravity magnesium sulfate solution used in soundness test for aggregate should be
within the range of ___.
a. 1.280 to 1.408
b. 1.180 to 1.308
c. 1.295 to 1.308
d. 1.195 to 1.318

284. Aggregate accounts for 92-95% of the weight of the bituminous mixture asphalt accounts for
58% of the weight of the mix. The exact percentage to be used is determined by the ___.
a. Trial Mix
b. Design Mix
c. Job Mix
d. Job Order

285. ___is an indication that the asphalt mix is overheated.

a. Blue smoke
b. Stiff appearance
c. Rising steam
d. Mix slumps in truck

286. In checking the temperature of the mix, the thermometer should be inserted into the mix at
least___.
a. 2 inches
b. 6 inches
c. 4 inches
d. 6.0 mm

36
287. ___is applied on existing bit, or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials.
a. Bituminous Prime Coat
b. Bituminous Tack Coat
c. Bituminous Seal Coat
d. Bituminous Surface Treatment

288. The solution used in the soundness test of aggregate shall be cooled to a temperature of 21+ of
-1*C and maintain at that temperature for at least ___.
a. 24 hours
b. 36 hours
c. 48 hours
d. 18 hours

289. Proper compaction of the fill materials is very important, as it will ____.
a. Increase in the shear strength
b. Decrease permeability
c. Minimize compressibility
d. All of the above

290. In which DPWH item is emulsified asphalt not suitable?

a. Item 301
b. Item 302
c. Item 304
d. Item 308

291. Unconfined compressive strength test is usually performed on ____.

a. Sandy soils
b. Silty soils
c. Organic soils
d. Clayey soils

292. Consolidation test is usually performed on___samples.

a. Disturbed
b. Undisturbed
c. Consolidated
d. Both a & b

293. A concrete core sample having a maximum height of less than ___ of its diameter before
capping or height less than its diameter after capping shall not be tested.
a. 93 %
b. 94 %
c. 95%
d. 96%

294. The cohesion and internal friction of soil is tested by

a. Triaxial shear test
b. Direct shear test
c. Bearing test
d. All of the above

295. In concrete acceptance, core will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is
equal to what?
a. 80%of specified strength &if no single core is less than 75% of specified strenght
b. 90%of specified strength & if no single core is less than 80%of specified strength

37
c. 85%of the specified strength & if no single core is less than 75% of specified strength.

296. Before the cement is to be used, sampling must be done at least ___before use.
a. one week
b. 14 days
c. two weeks
d. 12 days

297. Asphalt cement shall not be used while it is foaming nor shall be heated at ___anytime after
delivery.
a. 107*
b. 120*
c. 159*
d. 110*

298. Moisture content of aggregates in bit.mix shall not exceed ___of the time it is introduce into
the mixing unit.
a. 1.5 mass %
b. 2.0 mass %
c. 1 mass %
d. 2.5 mass %

299. Batching tolerance for Sand and Aggregates is ___.

a. 1 %
b. 2%
c. 3%
d. 4%

300. Between stage of curing, concrete shall not be exposed for more than how many hours?
a. 24 hours
b. 3 hours
c. ½ hours
d. 72 hours

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 4

301. If the strength of control specimen does not meet the requirement and not feasible to obtain
cores due to structural consideration, as Materials Engineer what will be your decision?
a. Remove and Replaced
b. Area will not be paid
c. Payment will be made at an adjusted price

302. After concrete has been placed, it is advisable to maintain fully wetted and in position for how
many hours?
a. 14 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 72 hours
d. 15-18 hours

303. Rock shall be excavated to a depth ___below sub grade within the limit of the roadbed
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c . 200mm

38
304. Minimum penetration of all piles shall be ___.
a. 3 meters
b. 6 meters
c. 7 meters
d. 4.5 meters

305. Piles shall not be driven within 7 meters of concrete less than ___
a. 7 days
b. 14 days
c. 28 days
d. 21 days

306. Paint contains ___ of pigment and ___ vehicle.

a. 20% & 80%
b. 21% & 79%
c. 79% & 21%
d. 80% & 20%

307. Minimum thickness of bedding materials beneath the pipe is ___.

a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 300 mm

308. Tolerance of gabion dimension is ____.

a. +/- 3%
b. +/- 2%
c. +/- 5%
d. +/- 4%

309. Minimum density of gabions is ____.

a. 1,000kg/cum.
b. 1,200kg/cum.
c. 1,400kg/cum.
d. 1,500kg/cum.

310. Soundness loss of field gabions is ___.

a. 9%after 5 cycles
b. 10%after 5 cycles
c. 11%after 5 cycles
d. 12%after 5 cycles

311. The heating temperature of reflectorized thermoplastic material during application is __

a. 130+/-7*C
b. 150+/-7*C
c. 200+/-7*C
d. 211+/-7*C

312. Submission of sample minimum quantity of material for asphalt cement is ___
a. 5 kg.
b. 10kg
c. 20kg
d. 100kg

39
313. For how many years does the small Contractor given to procure necessary testing equipment?
a. 2 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 6 years

314. The depth of the weakened joints must be less than ___ and a width of ____.
a. 40mm & 6mm
b. 50mm & 5mm
c. 40mm & 5mm
d. 50mm & 6mm

315. In soil boring shall be carried to a depth of at least ___below the proposed grade line.
a. 0.5m
b. 1.0m
c. 1.5m
d. 1.8m

316. The test that determine the pile bearing capacity by loading one or more pile and measuring
settlement under load is ___
a. Vane shear test
b. Plate bearing test
c. Pile load test
d. Bored Pile Test

317. The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger or split spoon shall be at least__.
a. 1 kg
b. 20kg
c. 10kg
d. 100kg

318. The length of Shelby Tube of an undisturbed sample is ____.

a. 10”long
b. 18”long
c. 20”long
d. 15” long

319. For small project where quantity of steel bars is 10,000kg.or less, what is the basis of
acceptance of material?
a. No testing
b. P.E.Certificate
c. Mill Certificate
d. Site Inspection

320. ___determine the best combination of the material that will produce potentially stable &
durable mixture.
a. Job mix formula
b. Marshall formula
c. Design of bit.mix
d. Design Mix

40
321. ___is the rate of loading for concrete cylinder sample subject to compression test
a. 20-40psi/sec
b. 20-50psi/sec
c. 15-40psi/sec
d. 15-50psi/sec

322. In soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is questionable, the minimum depth of boring
into the bedrock should be ____.
a. 1.5m
b. 2.0m
c. 2.5m
d. 3.0m

323. Determine the soil bearing capacity by loading a steel plate usually 30”diameter.
a. Vane shear test
b. Plate bearing test
c.Pile load test
d.None of the above

324. What is the rate of loading of concrete beam tested for flexural stress?
a.125-175psi/sec.
b. 115-150psi/sec
c. 110-150 psi/sec
d. 130-175 psi/sec.

325. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to monitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a. Normal water level
b. Maximum experienced flood level
c. Existing bank level
d. Headwall level

326. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a. seed money
b. progress payment
c. mobilization costs
d. representation costs

327. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment of
95% or more, which of the following is issued?
a. Final Inspection Certificate
b. AcceptanceCertificate
c. Punch List
d. Turnover Certificate

328. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a. Bar Charts
b. Executive Summary
c. Weather Charts
d. Photographs

329. What is the minimum width of widening on curve?

a. 1000 mm
b. 500 mm

41
c. 750 mm
d. 600 mm

330. Maximum Time for the change order to be approved?

a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days

331. What is the relative strength of mortar at 7 & 28 days of fine aggregates, when tested for the
effect of organic impurities, which is higher than the standards?
a. not less than 90%
b. not less than 80%
c. not less than 95%
d. not less than 98 %

332.In concrete sampling paste shall be of normal consistency of ______ when the rod settles to a
point below the original suface in 30 seconds.
a. 10+/- 1 mm
b. 11+/- 1 mm
c. 15 +/- 1 mm
d. 20 +/- 1 mm

333. What is the curing temperature of a concrete sample?

a. 10-15 *C
b. 18-24*C
c. 15-18*C
d. 16-27*C

334.What is the wash loss of fine aggregates in the no.200 sieve?

a. 1 %
b. 2 %
c. 3 %
d. 4 %

335. Retarder can delay the setting time of concrete up to how many hours?
a. 1 hour
b. 2 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 8 hours

336.Super plasticizer can increase the strength of concrete up to how many percent ?
a. 40-60 %
b. 50-60 %
c. 50-70 %
d. 60-70%

337._________ is the moisture in an air dried soil.

a. Moisuture Content
b. Natural Moisture Content
c. Hygroscopic Moisture Content
d. Hydrometer Moisture Content

42
338._________is the tolerance of mix in a bituminous temperature.
a. +/-10 *C
b. +/-12 *C
c. +/- 15 *C
d. +/- 18 *C

339._________number of measurement taken in a core sample for thickness determination of the

finish asphalt pavement.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 8

340. In the absence of beam mold in site, cylinder mold is allowed by specification. What is the
required strength?
a. 2500 psi
b. 3000 psi
c. 3500 psi
d. 4000 psi

341. Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least ______.

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 16 hours

342.The first phase of rolling the spread bituminous mix is called breakdown rolling which is carried
out by tandem-smooth-wheeled roller, temperature requirement must be ________.
a. 200 – 225 *F
b. 190-199 8F
c. 160-180 *F
d. 150-185 *F

343.How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
a. 5
b. 6
c. 7
d. 8

344. If no core had been taken at the end of each day of operation and the project has already been
completed, a core shall be taken ________
a. for every 75 l.m./lane
b. for every 150 l.m./lane
c. for every 100 l.m./lane
d. for every 1,000 l.m./lane

345.__________ is the slump of workable concrete if vibrated.

a. 10-20 mm
b. 10-40 mm
c. 40-50 mm
d. 40-75 mm

346.________Burnt product which is used by Gypsum and pulverized to form Portland Cement.
a. Hydraulic Cement
b. Clinker
43
c. Fly Ash
d. Volcanic Ash

347.________ a classification of soil which 35% or less the particles pass through no. 200 sieve .
a. Grain size soil
b. Granular Materials
c. Silty Clay Materials
d. Clayey Materials

348.________ a classification of soil which 35% more of the particles pass through 200 sieve. a.
Course Sand Soil
b. Granular Materials
c. Silty-Clay Materials
d. Clayey Materials

349.It evaluate the quality of soil as highway sub-grade material.

a. Attenberg Limit
b. Plasticity Index
c. Group Index
d. Liquid Limit

350.It indicates good subbase materials when G.I. Is equal to ________.

a. 0
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

351.It indicates very poor subbase materials when G.I. is equal to _____.
a. 0
b. 5
c. 10
d. 20

352.It indicates the composition of soil.

a. Attenberg Limit
b. Plasticity Index
c. Group Index
d. Liquid Limit

353. The higher value of PI of the soil, the weaker will be the soil performance as a _________.
a. True
b. False
c. Depend
d. None of the above

354._______ is the minimum percent of A-6 group classification of soil.

a. 0
b. 6
c. 20
d. 35

44
355.When the value of G.I. Is negative, what will be the soil performance?
a. Poor Subgrade
b. Very good Subgrade
c. Good Subgrade
d. None of the above

356.The weight of Sandy soil for Hydrometer Analysis is _______.

a. 10 grams
b. 25 grams
c. 50 grams
d. 100 grams

357.________ is a type of soil in which most of the soil grains are of the same size.
a. Poorly graded
b. Well graded
c. Cap graded
d. None of the above

358.Percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested for clay lump is _______.
a. 1.0 percent
b. 0.25 mass percent
c. 0.8 percent
d. 1.0 mass percent

359.The mass percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested soft fragment is _______.
a. 0.10
b. 0.25
c. 3.5
d. 1.0

360.If slag is used, the density of coarse aggregate is ________.

a. 30-100 kg/cu.m. .
b. 150 kg./cu.m.
c. 1,120 kg/cu.m
d. 1,400 kg/cu.m.

361.Mass percent loose for fine aggregates when tested in Clay lumps is ____.
a. 0.10
b. 0.25
c. 0.80
d. 1.0

362. _______ is a type of cement which shall be transferred to an elevated, air tight and weather
proof bins storage.
a. Portland Cement
b. Pozzolan Cement
c. Bulk Cement
d. None of the above

363. What is the strength for load bearing hollow blocks?

a. 600 psi
b. 700 psi
c. 800 psi
d. 1000 psi

45
364. When mixed at the site or in a central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be less than
_____________ nor more than _____________unless mix performance test prove adequate of the
concrete in a shorter time period.
a. 50 second and 90 seconds
b. 30 seconds and 70 seconds
c. 20 seconds and 60 seconds
d. 40 seconds and 80 seconds

365. The batches shall be so charged into the drum that a portion of the mixing water shall enter in
advance of the cement and aggregate. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water should be in
the drum by the end of the _____________ of the mixing period.
a. 20 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 10 seconds
d. 5 seconds

366. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited at the
site shall not exceed ____________when concrete is hauled in the truck.
a. 60 minutes
b. 70 minutes
c. 90 minutes
d. 45 minutes

367. The minimum percent compaction for embankment is ______.

a. 92.0 %
b. 97.0 %
c. 95.0 %
d. 100 %

368. The minimum percent compaction for base and Sub-base of the road is _______.
a. 100 %
b. 105 %
c. 95 %
d. 98 %

369. The CBR value of aggregate base course is not less than _____.
a. 80 %
b. 85 %
c. 90 %
d. 90 %

370. The CBR value of aggregate subbase course is not less than ____.
a. 25.0 %
b. 30.0 %
c.35.0 %
d. 20 %

371. The minimum compressive strength for Class A concrete is 20.7 Mpa, How about Class C?
a. 3,000 psi (20.7 Mpa)
b. 2,400 psi (16.7 Mpa)
c. 5,000 psi (37.7 Mpa)
d. 3500 psi (24 Mpa)

46
372. What is the significance of determination of the tensile properties of reinforcing steel bars?
a. This method is intended to determine yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its
elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade
b. This method is intended to evaluate the ductile properties of the reinforcing steel bars c.
To get the Strength
d. None of the above

373. A tie bar should be ______.

a. Deformed bar
b. Round bar
c. Flat bar
d. Square Bar

374. A dowel bar should be _____.

a. Deformed bar
b. Round bar
c. Flat bar
d. Square Bar

375. The mortar for masonry shall consist of _______.

a. One part of Portland Cement and 2 parts of sand
b. One part of Cement and 3 parts of sand
c. One part of Portland Cement and 4 part of sand
d. One part of Portland Cement and 1 part of sand

376. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving
mixture.
a. Ruler
b. Vernier Califer
c. Steel Tape
d. Meter Stick

377. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture and the degree of compaction of the
asphalt pavement.
a. Bulk Specific Gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimen.
b. Dry unit weight of compacted bituminous mixtures
c. Both a and b.
d. None of the above.

378. The test which covers the quantitative determination of bitumen in hot mixed paving mixtures
and pavement samples for specification service evaluation, control and research.
a. Extraction
b. Spot Test
c. Flash Point
d. Melting Point

379. The solvent used in extraction of bitumen is ______.

a. Diesel Oil
b. Gasoline
c. Water
d. Salt Water

47
380. The percent of bitumen content is computed based on ______.
a. Mass of raw sample
b. Mass of dry aggregates
c. Mass of asphalt
d. Mass of wet aggregates

381. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture is
_______.
a. Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
b. Stability Test
c. Viscosity Test
d. Extraction

382. The drying temperature of sample is _______.

a. 110 +/- 5*C
b. 100 * C
c. 100 +/-5 *C
d. 115 +/- 5*C

383. _______ is a solid asphalt which is a basic constituent of all other asphalt called as hot asphalt
or penetration grade asphalt.
a. Asphalt Cement
b. Cutback Asphalt
c. Emulsified Asphalt
d. Bitumin

384. _______ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and kerosene.
a. Medium Curing Cutback
b. sphalt Cement
c. Rapid Curing Cutback
d. Low Curing Cutback

385. _______ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and gasoline.
a. Rapid Curing Cutback
b. Blown Asphalt
c. Joint Filler
d. Asphalt Cement

386. Asphalt is defined as ______.

a. A petroleum product
b. A dark brown to black cementitous materials whose consistency ranges from solid to semi-solid
and whose- main constituent is called bitumen is either found in nature or as a residue in
petroleum refining.
c. None of the above
d. Both a and b.

387. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and water with emulsified with
pungent odor.
a. Emulsified Asphalt
b. Asphalt Cement
c. Rapid Curing Asphalt
d. Medium Curing Cutback

48
388. Joint Filler in concrete pavement is a _______.
a. Blown Asphalt
b. Hot Asphalt
c. Liquid Asphalt
d. Emulsified Asphalt

389. A device used to measure the relative hardness of asphalt is ____.

a. Penetrometer
b. Spectometer
c. Vicat Apparatus
d. Armoured Thermometer

390. A property of asphalt cement to stretch without breaking is called ____.

a. Ductility
b. Durability
c. Tensile
d. Hardness

391. An apparatus used to determine the specific gravity of asphalt is called ______.
a. Metal Pycnometer
b. Glass Pycnometer
c. Any bottle
d. Graduated Cylinder

392. Consistency test for asphalt is called _______.

a. Viscosity
b. Slump Test
c. Washing
d. Extraction

393. A process of volatilization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil.
a. Distillation
b. Extraction
c. Float Test
d. Viscosity

394. _____ is a period wherein the asphalt begins to melt.

a. Softening Point
b. Fire Point
c. Boiling Point
d. Melting Point

395. The sampling requirement of asphalt is ______.

a. 1 sample for every 200 drums or 40 metric tons
b. 1 sample for every 100 drums
c. 1 sample for every shipment
d. 1 sample per 10 box

396. The component of bituminous mixes which range from 92 to 96 % is called ______.
a. Bituminous Blended Aggregates
b. Concrete Aggregates
c. Sand
d. Gravel

49
397. ______ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement to resist deformation or displacement
due to impose load or repeated loading.
a. Stability
b. Flexibility
c. Ductility
d. Durability

398. _______ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement to resist disintegration or deterioration

due to the action of water, traffic and changing climate.
a. Durability
b. Flexibility
c. Ductility
d. Stability

399. ______ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement adjust itself to settlement.

a. Flexibility
b. Rigidity
c. Hardness
d. Ductility

400. These are the factor affecting the workability of bituminous mixes
a. Gradation of aggregate quality of asphalt and temperature of mix.
b. Surface texture and temperature mix.
c. Quantity of aggregate and asphalt content.
d. None of the above.

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 5

401. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:

a. There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in the original
contract
b. The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract cost
c. There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
d. The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 100% of the original contract cost

402. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of
____ After it has been placed.
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 5 days
d. 7 days

403. Construction of joint is required to be constructed when there is an interruption of more than
_____ in the concreting operation of a road pavement?
a. 45 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 35 minutes
d. 40 minutes

404. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than ______?
a. 50mm
b. 75mm
c. 40 mm
d. 37.5 mm
50
405. In laying stone components of item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone should be
_______?
a. Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope.
b. Laid with its shortest axis perpendicular to the slope.
c. Laid with its longest axis parallel to the slope.
d. Laid with its longest axis parallel to the slope.

406. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented),
________ is the most important consideration.
a. Total project cost.
b. Environment
c. Climatic condition in the area.
d. Project Location.

407. If a contractor continues to disregard agreed project plans and specification, what
recommendation should you prepared?
a. Cancelation of the Contract
b. Suspended the contractor
c. Termination of the contract
d. Rescission of Contract

408. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be less than
what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the ASSHTO Method?
a. 100
b. 98
c. 105
d. 99

409. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment of
95% or more, which of the following is issued?
a. Site Inspection
b. Certification of accomplishment
c. Site Instruction
d. Punch List

410. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at______?

a. Middle of slope
b. Middle Third of slope
c. Top of the slope
d. Bottom of the slope

411. If the designed thickness of aggregate sub-base course is 200 mm, in how many layers may the
material be spread and compacted?
a. 2 layers
b. 1 layer
c. 3 layers
d. 4 layers

412. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 degree Celsius
lower than the required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident
engineer of the project, what decision should you take?
a. Accept and deduct payment of that delivered material.
b. Stopped the operation

51
c. Reject the delivered material
d. Issue Site Instruction.

413. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in any
one location longer than______?
a. 6 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 15 seconds
d. 5 seconds

414. A rehabilitation of asphalt pavement is undertaken by a district office. Per approved program of
work, item 201 was included in the pay items. However, during construction, the materials engineer
certified that the existing base course material is still of good quality. As project/resident engineer,
what is the best recommendation?
a. The contractor should find in other item to replace the item 201 bec. It was not incorporated into
the works.
b. The contractor is paid even it is not implemented.
c. Contractor submit variation order
d. Deduct from payment due to the contractor corresponding amount equivalent to the total
volume of item 201 that was not incorporated into the works.

415. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to minitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a. Bottom Wall Level
b. Top Wall Level
c. Head Wall Level
d. Shoulder Wall Level

416. What is the compressive strength of Class C in item 405?

a. 16.5 MPA (2400 psi.)
b. 24 MPA (3500 psi)
c. 20.7 MPA (3000 psi)
d. 27.5 MPA (4000 psi)

417. In Approved Budget Contract (ABC), which is not included?

a. RROW cost
b. Labor cost
c. Materials cost
d. Equipment cost

418. What is called that protects riverbanks?

a. River Side Wall
b. Sea Wall
c. Slope Protection
d. Revetment

419. What is the depth and width in cutting PCCP for weakened plane?
a. D=50 mm, w=6 mm
b. D=75 mm, w=6 mm
c. D=37.5 mm, w=10mm
d. 50 mm, w=5mm

52
420. Minimum Testing Requirement for Rebar’s?
a. 15,000kgs
b. 10,000kgs
c. 20,000kgs
d. 5,000kgs

421. Ratio of cement and sand in grouted riprap masonry?

a. 1 Part Cement:3 Part Sand
b. 1 Part Cement: 2 Part Sand
c. 1 Part Cement:1 Part Sand
d. 1 Part Cement:4 Part Sand

422. ______ is the depth of corrugation of PCCP after brooming?

a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 4 mm

423. ______ is the available distance on a roadway to enable a vehicle traveling at the design speed
to stop before reaching a stationary object?
a. Sight Distance
b. Stopping Sight Distance
c. Stop Distance
d. Visible Sight Distance

424. What is the recommended span limit of reinforced concrete girder?

a. 8 m to 24 m
b. 10 m to 16 m
c. 10 m to 24 m
d. 8 m to 20 m

425. How many conflict points does the 4 legged intersections?

a. 12
b. 10
c. 14
d. 16

426. What is the roof corrugation lapping?

a. 2 “
b. 2 ½”
c. 3”
d. 1”

427. How many percent of slippage so that the project is

subject for termination?
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 14%
d. 15%

428. ______ is to bond the existing pavement to new pavement?

a. Tack Coat
b. Seal Coat
c. Prime Coat

53
d. Aggregate Surface Course

429. Anong Tawag sa pweding mag-advance yung activities?

a. Ahead Time
b. Extra Time
c. Lead Time
d. Target Time

430. Anong Tawag sa pwding ma delay yung activities?

a. Delayed Time
b. Extra Time
c. Lag Time
d. Overtime

431. The mixture shall be placed at a temperature not less than _____ as measured in the truck just
prior to dumping into the spreader.
a. 107 °C
b. 105 °C
c. 108 °C
d. 110 °C

432. What is the true about wheephole Distance?

a. staggered 1.0 m horizontal
b. stageered 1.5 m horizontal
c. staggered 2.0 m horizontal
d. staggered 0.5 m horizontal

433. How many percent is the advanced repayment?

a. 20% of works completed
b. 10% of work completed
c. 15% of work completed
d. 5% of work completed

434. IRI of PCCP?

a. 3.5m/km
b. 3.0m/km
c. 4.0m/km
d. 2.5m/km

435. What is the minimum width of widening on curve?

a. 1000 mm
b. 500 mm
c. 750 mm
d. 600 mm

436. How many “turns” to determine roughness of 10km 4-lanes asphalt?

a. 12 turns
b. 14 turns
c. 10 turns
d. 8 turns

54
437. Maximum Time for the change order to be approved?
a. 60 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 15 days

438. Testing conducted for CHB, except?

a. Strength
b. Moisture Content
c. Absorption
d. Air content

439. Location of splicing for Top Bar of continuous reinforced concrete beam?
a. at ¼ span
b. at 1/3 span
c. at Midspan
d. Anywhere in the span

440. Splicing allowed for Column?

a. 1/4 H of Column
b. middle third
c. at intersection of beam and column
d. at the middle height of column

441. Methods of rolling/compacting asphalt?

a. from center of roadway to side of shoulder
b. from side of shoulder to center of roadway
c. from center of lane to side of shoulder
d. from center of lane to center of roadway

442. If the surface is sloping, where should the asphalt application start?
a. High
b. Middle
c. Low
d. anywhere

443. Where the STOPLINE should be placed at 4 legged intersection with pedestrian?
a. Entry
b. Exit
c. Both Exit and Entry
d. No Need

444. When is the next repaint of thermoplastic at low speed, low volume road?
a. after 1 year
b. after 2 years
c. after 3 years
d. after 4 years

445. Responsible for log books, s-curves, Material Test?

a. PE
b. PI
c. ME
d. Quantity Engineer

55
446. The higher the penetration, the asphalt is:
a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Fluid
d. All of the above

447. Consideration of road for sight distance?

a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Moist
d. Saturated

448. Kapag matubig and mixture, what should NOT be done?

a. Reduce Water
b. increase water retentivity
c. increase cement
d. limit use of vibrator

449. Responsible for rating of contractor?

a. QAU
b. CPES
c. PMS
d. ECPLC

450. What is the depth of tremie pipe on concrete?

a. 2.0 – 3.0
b. 2.5 – 3.0
c. 3.0 – 3.5
d. 1.0 – 2.0

451. What happened when critical path is delayed?

a. Project is advance
b. Project is delayed
c. Project have smooth accomplishment
d. Project is manage well

452. How many years of warranty period if the defects is structural?

a. 25 years
b. 15 years
c. 20 years
d. 30 years

453. Design for permanent bridges?

a. 100 years
b. 30 years
c. 50 years
b. 75 years

454. What failure in column reinforcement due to earthquake?

a. Flexural yielding
b. Buckling of Main
c. Axial
d. Shear

56
455. Construction joint of Beams and Slab?
a. L/3 from support
b. L/4 from support
c. Middle Third
d. 0.50m from support

456. Time after application of primecoat?

a. 12hrs.
b. 24hrs.
c. 48 hrs.
d. 18 hrs.

457. What document not included in as built plan?

a. As Stake Plans
b. Contract Aggreement
c. Variation Order
d. Original Plans

458. What do we called a survey required for the project crossing private lands?
a. RROW
b. Parcellary
c. Site Inspection Survey
d. Extra Survey

459. Minimum return period of pipe culverts?

a. 10 years
b. 5 years
c. 15 years
d. 12 years

460. Maximum size of pipe could embed in structural members?

a. 1/3
b. ½
c. ¾
d. ¼

461. _______ absorbs compressive stresses on pavement?

a. Embankment
b. subbase
c. subgrade
d. all of the above

462. Variation Order can be paid if _________________________.

a. approved by head of procuring entity
b. approved by QAU
c. approved by the DPWH PE
d. approved by contractor

463. In CHB Filling, horizontal bar are placed every ________ of CHB?
a. 2 layers
b. 1 layer
c. 3 layers
d. 4 layers

57
464. How many days for curing Stone Masonry?
a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

465. How many days for the contractor to rectify findings during inspection?
a. 15 days
b. 25 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

466. What mixture use in Footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding, and gravity walls,
unreinforced or with only a small amount of reinforcement?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class P

467. The ________________ refers to a set of detailed rules to cover process and practices that
should be utilized in a specific construction site including the personnel responsible and the
penalties for the violations thereof,
a. Occupational Safety and Health Standard
b. Construction Safety and Health Standard
c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. Construction Safety and Health Program

468. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will
pass through loose or heterogenous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed
alignment at an average interval of:
a. 150 m
b. 200 m
c. 250 m
d. 500 m

469. From or any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended the
centerline of the bridge at least
a. 100 to 200 m upstream only
b. 100 to 200 m downstream only
c. 100 to 200 m upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

470. To find the time of flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can be done by
transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1.5. The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of
the rectangle, which is the:
a. square root of the square of width (W) plus half of
b. square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c. square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d. 3.0 W

471. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a. critical length of grade for design

58
b. exceptional gradient
c. limiting gradient
d. ruling gradient

472. In practice, K – factor is used to convert average annual daily traffic to the 30th highest annual
hourly volume (DHV) and is defined as:
a. DHV/AADT
b. DDHV/(DxAADT)
c. V/PHF
d. L/A

473. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the terms “BK”
and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say that:
a. BK means new survey stationing
b. AH means old survey stationing corrected
c. BK means old survey stationing corrected; AH, new survey stationing
d. d. Both a and b

474. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movement of girders. Which of the following
is not used to allow such movement?
a. expansion joints
b. rockers
c. sliding plates
d. rollers

475. For service load design of bridges, the flexural stress in the extreme fiber stress in
ompression, fc (in MPa), is:
a. 0.30 f’c
b. 0.40 f’c
c. 0.45 f’c
d. 0.50 f’c

476. The maximum value of impact applied to the superstructure of a bridge should be:
a. 15.24/(L+38); where L=portion of the span loaded for maximum
b. 50/(L+125)
c. 30%
d. 50%

477. When considering wind or earthquake forces either acting alone or in combination with vertical
loads, all allowable stresses and soil-bearing value for working stress design may be increased by:
a. 1/4
b. 1/3
c. 1/2
d. ¾

478. In foundation design, the allowable load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing the
ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 1 to 2
d. 2 to 3

479. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the water
surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a. freeboard
59
b. headwater depth
c. trailwater depth
d. scour depth

480. Culvert flow under entrance control is synonymous with flow under:
a. outlet control
b. inlet control
c. submerged outlet
d. normal depth greater than barrel height

481. For creeks in urban and rural areas and not subject to overbank flows, a minimum easement to
be provided measured from the edge of the existing bank or the improved bank should be:
a. 3.0 m
b. 4.0 m
c. 4.5 m
d. 20.0 m

482. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of:
a. 0.2 – 0.5 l/m2
b. 0.2 – 0.7 l/m2
c. 0.15 – 0.7 l/m2
d. 0.15 – 0.5 l/m2

483. Sub-grade soil is well compacted under the controlled condition of:
a. Over saturation with water
b. Optimum moisture content and maximum dry density
c. Dry soil
d. Cold weather

484. What is the accepted proportion mixture of lime to be added to the soil aggregate (dry soil), in
a Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)?
a. 2 to 10 mass percent
b. 4 to 15 mass percent
c. 3 to 18 mass percent
d. 3 to 12 mass percent

485. What is the accepted proportion mixture of cement to be added to the soil aggregate (dry soil)
in a Portland Cement Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 204)?
a. 4 to 20 mass percent
b. 6 to 10 mass percent
c. 5 to 12 mass percent
d. 3 to 12 mass percent

486. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the materials
and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor will use?
a. about 500 sq.m.
b. about 400 sq.m.
c. about 100 sq.m.
d. about 600 sq.m.

487. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate subbase
course?
a. ± 20 mm
b. ± 10 mm

60
c. ± 30 mm
d. ± 15 mm

488. What is the permitted variation from the design thickness of a layer of aggregate base course?
a. ± 20 mm
b. ± 15 mm
c. ± 25 mm
d. ± 10 mm

489. What should the condition of the tack coat be before the next course is applied?
a. wet
b. sticky
c. plastic
d. dry

490. Concrete mix not place within minutes from the time ingredients were charged into the mixing
drum or has developed initial set, should not be used.
a. 90
b. 45
c. 30
d. 15

491. What is the minimum allowable/required atmospheric temperature in the application of Item
305 bituminous material?
a. 5 °C
b. 10 °C
c. 12 °C
d. 15 °C

492. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching using
cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a. ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b. prevent pumping
c. minimize spalling
d. prevent faulting

493. Repainting of steel bridges is an activity under:

a. special maintenance
b. preventive maintenance
c. routine maintenance
d. periodic maintenance

494. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make
them denser and grow straight?
a. pruning
b. grafting
c. felling
d. budding

495. The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of maintenance of
our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:
a. lane kilometer
b. equivalent kilometer unit
c. equivalent maintenance kilometer

61
d. standard kilometer unit

496. The maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and shrubs
should be left uncut is:
a. 50 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 400 mm

497. Concrete class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall maintain a
slump between:
a. 5 and 10 cm
b. 10 and 20 cm
c. 20 and 30 cm
d. 30 and 40 cm

498. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period of
how many days after it has been placed?
a. 28
b. 30
c. 14
d. 7

499. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to manual
dropping by not more than _ and where no other special tools and means are used.
a. 3.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 2.0 m
d. 1.5 m

500. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a. 2000 kg
b. 1500 kg
c. 1800 kg
d. 1700 kg

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 6

501. What is the allowable minimum penetration of piles in firm material?

a) 4.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 3.0 m
d) 2.0 m

502. What is the maximum allowable variation at the butt end of a pile in any direction from its
location shown in the approved plans?
a) 75 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 25 mm
d) 40 mm

503. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone, other
schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?

62
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole

504. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments that have
an indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) Plastering

505. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work starts,
with exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion on thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) Spurdiking

506. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson

507. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

508. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment of the
abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety factor against
overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing

509. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or
shortening of the proposed structure. What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Issue Notice to Proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b) Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c) Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d) Recheck the as-staked plan

510. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:

a) Pick and shovel
b) Ripper
c) Road grader
d) Bulldozer

63
511. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway project and you
found out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by one meter. What should you do?
a) Accept the project as is
b) Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c) Install corresponding ogee
d) Reprimand the former Project Engineer

512. Which of the following structures is constructed parallel to the flow of the river?
a) Spurdike
b) Revetment
c) Mini dam
d) Groin

513. Dams are hydraulic structures constructed to:

a) Increase conveyance capacity of the river
b) Arrest scouring on meandering river sections
c) Protect river banks from heavy run-off
d) Retard flood runoff and minimize effect of flash floods

514. Which of the following complements as a regulating flood control structure:

a) main canal
b) weir or control gate
c) drainage lateral
d) groin and spurdike

515. In embankment works, which of the following is undertaken first?

a) Clearing and grubbing
b) Excavation of core trench
c) As-stake survey works
d) Construction of the impervious fill

516. Before actual construction of a dam is started, which of the following should be secured first?
a) Maintenance of access road
b) Delivery of construction materials
c) Stripping of ground surface
d) Installation of safety requirements

517. If the void ratio (e) of a soil is 1, the porosity (n) is equal to:
a) 10 %
b) 20 %
c) 30 %
d) 50 %

518. What is the apparatus used in determining the consistency of a liquid asphalt?
a) penetrometer
b) Viscometer
c) Thermometer
d) viscometric meter

519. Which of the following is not a quality test for cement?

a) Compressive strength
b) Loss of ignition
c) Soundness
d) California Bearing Ratio

64
520. What Kind of joint is required to be constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30
minutes in the concreting operations of a road pavement?
a) longitudinal
b) transverse expansion
c) transverse contraction
d) transverse construction

521. Which of the following project documents attests that the materials incorporated into the
project works corresponds to the quantity accomplished and conform with specifications?
a) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
b) QualityControl Program
c) Notice to Proceed
d) Statement of Work Accomplished

522. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if their average
strength is equal to:
a) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
b) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
c) at least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
d) at least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c

523. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm (2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm (3 inches)

524. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all sets
of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no individual
strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi

525. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall test measure?
a) cohesion resistance
b) resistance to displacement
c) diametric distortion
d) skid resistance

526. If the required thickness of Item 200 is 300 mm, the material may be spread and compacted in
layer (s).
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Uniform

527. If the type of soil in Item 200 material is non-plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be
performed.
a) Plastic limit
b) Liquid limit

65
c) Shrinkage limit
d) Both a and b

528. The plasticity Index (PI) required for Item 201, Aggregate Base Course materials, should not be
greater than:
a) 8 %
b) 12 %
c) 6 %
d) 9 %

529. When the grading test results of the three (3) stockpiles are not in accordance with Item 201
requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a) Replace the three (3) stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials
b) Blend the three (3) stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the specified
grading
c) Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment will be
affected
d) Increase the thickness of Item 201

530. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the
following criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) Drainage facilities is well - maintained
b) Location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) Existing base course is stable
d) Flood-prone road section

531. After three weeks of completion, the asphalt overlay exhibited reflection cracking. What will
you recommend to correct the said defect?
a) apply seal coat
b) apply additional bituminous mix
c) redo the construction of the asphalt overlay
d) apply cover aggregates

532. Soil classification is determined by:

a) Atterberg limits tests
b) Sieve analysis test
c) Hydrometer test
d) a and b

533. The Item No. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement in the DPWH Standard
Specification is:
a) 200
b) 201
c) 310
d) 311

534. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for Item 311 (Portland
Cement Concrete Pavement) is:
a) 500 psi
b) 550 psi
c) 3000 psi
d) 3,500 psi

66
535. To protect portland cement concrete pavement against rain before it has sufficiently hardened,
the contractor should be required to have at all times any of the following materials with the
exception of:
a) metal form or wood planks
b) burlaps or cotton mats
c) plastic sheeting material
d) plastic water stops

536. The minimum testing requirement of concrete for Item 405 is the compressive strength test on
concrete cylinder samples consisting of a set of 3 concrete cylinder samples to represent not more
than:
a) 50 m3 of concrete
b) 75 m3 of concrete
c) 100 m3 of concrete
d) 125 m3 of concrete

537. What is the minimum cement content (40 kg/bag) per cubic meter of class B concrete?
a) 8 bags
b) 9 bags
c) 9.5 bags
d) 11 bags

538. In laying stone components of Item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone should be:
a) Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b) Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c) Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm

539. What is Item 506 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Stone masonry
d) Riprap and grouted riprap

540. In the DPWH Standard Specifications, what is the Item no. of Embankment?
a) 100
b) 102
c) 104
d) 106

541. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a) 85 %
b) 90 %
c) 95 %
d) 100 %

542. Who supervises the work and tests employed in project implementation?
a) Project Inspector
b) Contractor’s Engineer
c) Materials Engineer
d) Project Engineer

67
543. Who recommends actions to resolve problems during field implementation of a project?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Resident Engineer

544. Who gives orders to equipment operators, labor foremen and supply controllers in the work
operations at the project site?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

545. In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction

546. Which of the following need not be resorted to when compressing the duration of a project? a)
Use of two-shift work force
b) Use of advanced construction technology
c) Use of additional equipment
d) Use of additional materials

547. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented),
which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-Way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

548. In a PERT/CPM network, this is the sequence of activities in the project that comprises the
longest time duration from start to finish:
a) Early Finish
b) Late Finish
c) Critical Path
d) Zero Slack

549. In project monitoring of a river channel, which of the following is the origin station (Sta. 0+000)
of a river?
a) at the river bank
b) at the uppermost station
c) at the confluence station
d) at the mouth of the river

550. If a contractor continues to disregard agreed project plans and specifications, what
recommendation should you prepare?
a) Contract suspension
b) Termination of contract
c) Rescission of contract
d) Blacklisting of contractor

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551. The catch-up schedule reflects:
a) Financial expenditures
b) Accomplishment-duration relationship
c) The advance accomplishment
d) Preliminary engineering activities

552. For reference in the preparation of catch-up plans the following are the prevailing weather
conditions in the Philippines with the exception of:
a) Two pronounced seasons, dry from November to April, wet during the rest of the year
b) No dry season, with a very pronounced maximum rainfall from November to January
c) Dry and rainy season is equally distributed throughout the year
d) Rainfall more or less distributed throughout the year

553. If a project is started more than 8 months after the bidding, the contractor is entitled to claim
for:
a) Bonus
b) Additional advance payment
c) Price adjustment
d) Extra work order

554. After the final inspection of a reported 100% accomplished project, before a certificate of final
inspection is issued, which of the following should be conducted in the field:
a) EmergencyConference
b) Exit Conference
c) Pre-constructionConference
d) Turn-overCeremony

555. In an inspection report, aside from the findings, which is the most important item to be
included?
a) duration of inspection
b) members of the inspectorate team
c) copy of the memorandum to inspectorate team
d) recommendation of possible actions to be undertaken

556. A logbook contains the following data with the exception of:
a) activities done during the day
b) materials delivered and used for the day
c) the day’s weather condition
d) survey data

557. What formula is used in computing price escalation?

a) No loss – no gain formula
b) Economic Formula
c) Parametric Formula
d) Parabolic Formula

558. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a project that is
awarded thru public bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Effectivity of the contract
c) Date of approval of the contract
d) Date of bidding

69
559. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a project
that is awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above

560. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be entitled to
contract price escalation?
a) Less than 2 %
b) Less than 5 %
c) More than 5 %
d) Less than 3 %

561. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a) Delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for billing
b) Existing right-of-way problem
c) Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d) Adverse peace and order conditions

562. From the time of project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many calendar days
is required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150

563. Under which of the following conditions must a change order not be issued?
a) Where there is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items
b) Where there is reclassification of item of works
c) Where the aggregate cost has increased and is limited to 25 % of the original cost
d) Where there is increase in cost in construction materials

564. Which of the following is not considered a Variation Order?

a) Change Order
b) Extra Work Order
c) Resume Order
d) Supplemental Agreement

565. A project with delays due to reasons beyond the control of the contractor may be granted a
time extension if the affected works, as shown in the PERT/CPM diagram, are:
a) dummy activities
b) critical activities
c) non-critical activities
d) hammock activities

566. If after fifty (50%) completion, the work is satisfactorily undertaken and on schedule no additional
retention should be made otherwise the progress payment should be imposed a retention rate of:
a) 5 %
b) 10 %
c) 15 %
d) 20 %

70
567. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be
less than what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the
AASHTO method?
a) 95%
b) 96%
c) 98%
d) 100%

568. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:

a) Establish a smooth riding surface.
b) Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway.
c) Provide boundary line for the two lanes.
d) Plant grass for sodding.

569. Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular

base, what liquid asphalt is applied?
a) seal coat
b) tack coat
c) prime coat
d) epoxy coat

570. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favorable temperature in concrete is
called:
a) consolidation
b) shrinkage
c) curing
d) evaporation

571. A supplemental agreement may be entered into when the aggregate amount of the variation
order:
a) exceeds 25 % but less than 100 % of the escalated original contract price
b) does not exceed 25 % of the escalated original contract price
c) exceeds 100 % of the escalated original contract price
d) is limited to 25 % of the escalated original contract price

572. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

573. How often can progress payment be requested by a contractor?

a) once a month
b) twice a month
c) as soon as an item of work is completed
d) as often as he desires

574. The Atterberg Limit Tests are performed on the soil fraction passing sieve no.
a) 4 (4.75 mm)
b) 16 (1.18 mm)
c) 40 (0.425 mm)
d) 200 (0.075 mm)

71
575. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:
a) Sieve Analysis Test
b) Hydrometer Test
c) Plastic Limit Test
d) Liquid Limit Test

576. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects
should be referred to?
a) Mean Sea Level
b) 10.47 m below mean Sea Level
c) 10.00 below mean Lower Low Water
d) Mean Lower Low Water

577. How many core samples should be taken for thickness determination of a 2-
kilometer, 2-lane concrete road pavement?
a) 10
b) 20
c) 30
d) 40

578. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a
minimum thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

579. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural Concrete
b) Prestressed Concrete
c) Riprap and Grouted Riprap
d) Stone Masonry

580. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:

a) blacklisted by the agency
b) required to pay liquidated damages
c) allowed to submit bids
d) disallowed to submit bids

581. What kind of reinforcing steel is used for tie bars of a PCCP?
a) plain square bars
b) plain round bars
c) deformed square bars
d) deformed round bars

582. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly
set concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

72
583. Proper storage of cement especially for big quantities stored at the jobsite must satisfy
the following requirement with the exception of:
a) flooring of warehouse should be well above the ground
b) cement sacks should be stacked close together
c) warehouse doors and windows should be closed except when cement is taken out for use
d) warehouse should be located in an elevated place

584. After a typhoon, a dam measuring 250 meters suffered a 40-meter breach equivalent
to P4.8 million. You found out that it is impossible to close the gap before the onset of
rainy months, which may result in total collapse of the dam. If you are the new Project
Engineer, what will you do?
a) risk 3-shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b) suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c) armor the breached section with gabion-mattress and spurdike, to utilize gap as diversion channel
d) introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

585. What is the method of measurement for determining the depth of a river channel?
a) pacing
b) sounding
c) leveling
d) traversing

586. Which of the following is not a flood prevention/mitigation measure?

a) channel improvement
b) dikes
c) spillways
d) reclamation

587. Which of the following is not a function of a groin?

a) it decreases the flow velocity
b) it regulates the flow direction
c) it stabilizes the mountain grade
d) it decreases the scouring effect

588. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m., that is built across or spanning a river
or waterway?
a) bridge (any type)
b) culvert (pipe or box)
c) viaduct
d) chute

589. Which of the following is a bank protection structure?

a) drainage ditch
b) retaining wall
c) lateral Works
d) pier resting on piles

590. The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:
a) river protection works
b) coastal protection works
c) slope protection works
d) erosion control works

73
591. In a CPM diagram, these are points in time representing the start or completion of
particular activities:
a) activities
b) connectors
c) events
d) dummies

592. In a PERT/CPM network, what is the latest allowable point in time that any event can
occur, and still be on schedule for the scheduled completion of a project?
a) early start
b) early finish
c) late start
d) late finish

593. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an

accomplishment of 95 % or more, which of the following is issued?
a) final inspection certificate
b) acceptance certificate
c) punch list
d) turnover certificate

594. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a) volume
b) weight
c) quantity
d) density

595 The amount withheld by the agency equivalent to 10 % of the amount due to a
contractor is referred to as:
a) seed money
b) withholding tax
c) retention money
d) contractor tax

596. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a) spread foundations
b) raft foundations
c) pile foundations
d) caisson foundations

597. What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and
history in the implementation of a project from start to completion?
a) Blue Book
b) History Book
c) Log Book
d) Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

598. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following
criteria is not appropriate to recommend?
a) drainage facilities is well-maintained
b) location is not in a typhoon belt area
c) existing base course is stable
d) flood-prone road section

74
599. An equation where BK (Back) is greater than AH (Ahead) means:
a) a deductive distance
b) an additive (plus) distance
c) no increase in distance
d) the road length

600. Which of the following modifies specific work items relative to increases/decreases in
the quantities provided for in the original contract?
a) extra work order
b) change order
c) resume order
d) suspension order

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 7

601. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a) 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b) 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c) 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d) 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

602. The following reasons may cause the granting of contract time extension with the exception
of one:
a) exceptionally adverse climate conditions
b) excusable failure of contractor to provide equipment and manpower
c) causes beyond the control of contractor
d) causes of which government is not directly responsible

603. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for item:
a) 306
b) 308
c) 310
d) 311

604. Which of the following documents is not necessary at the project site?
a) Bill of Quantities
b) Plans
c) General Specifications
d) Feasibility Study

605. The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a) AADT
b) 30th highest hourly volume
c) service flow
d) highest 15 minute volume

606. Gravity loads usually refer to dead load and live load. Which of the following is not included
in this classification?
a) weight of all permanent components
b) architectural components
c) occupants, furnitures, etc.
d) wind load

75
607. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods given
below with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method

608. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure?

a) reduction of peak flow by reservoirs
b) confinement of the flow by levees, floodwalls
c) flood plain management
d) highway drainage

609. For curve alignment of an internal open waterways (rectangular channel), the wall height must
be at least 0.30 m above the super-elevated water surface for velocities of 10 meter/second or less.
This means that if the super-elevated water level is at elevation 44.30 m., the top of the channel wall
will be at least at elevation:
a) 44.0 m
b) 44.3 m
c) 44.6 m
d) 44.9 m

610. Since highways cross many natural drainage channels, provision of cross drainage as given
below is necessary. The one not falling under cross drainage is:
a) culverts
b) bridges
c) dips
d) ditches

611. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition
and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

612. What is the most appropriate filling material if you encounter unsuitable roadway foundation?
a) fine aggregates
b) coarse aggregates
c) broken concrete
d) granular materials

613. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the concrete mix and transported by a truck
mixer up to the time said mix is deposited in place at the site should not exceed:
a) 15 minutes
b) 45 minutes
c) 30 minutes
d) 20 minutes
614. What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement by
providing additional and adequate thickness over it?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying
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615. In riprapping, masonry works and concrete slope protection on side slope, revetment, etc.
Which of the following are provided to serve as water outlet and lateral pressure reliever on the
structure?
a) cut-off wall
b) berm
c) weephole
d) gravel filter

616. In patching works using cold mix (Emulsified Asphalt SS-1 Aggregate Mix), what color of the mix
indicates that it is ready for application?
a) dark brown
b) grayish
c) black
d) blue-white

617. The presence of excessive amount of sulfuric and alkalic materials in water used in reinforced
concrete construction will result to?
a) increase in volume of mix
b) early hardening of concrete
c) corrosion of steel reinforcement
d) whitening of finished surface of concrete

618. What can be done on corners of concrete hollow block walls where no reinforced concrete
column or wall stiffener is required/specified to join them?
a) chipping
b) interlocking
c) epoxy binding
d) bracing

619. What do you call the road near or abutting a bridge?

a) embankment
b) approach
c) abutment
d) apron

620. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that
should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

621. Which of the following is not included in the types of bridge foundations?
a) spread footing
b) caisson
c) piles
d) bearing shelf

622. Which of the following is not categorized as a type of steel deck used on bridges?
a) steel jack arches
b) open panel
c) stiffened steel
d) close through panel

77
623. Driving heads of piles are provided to:
a) ensure lateral support to the pile
b) provide a driving surface normal to the pile
c) avoid swaying
d) splice piles

624. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?

a) impervious fill
b) random fill
c) outlet protection works
d) distribution canal

625. Which of the following is not a component of an economic evaluation of flood control projects?
a) determination of flood discharges
b) determination of estimated amount of damage
c) subsurface investigation
d) economic impact evaluation

626. The particle size distribution of coarse-grained soil is determined by:

a) sieve analysis
b) hydrometer analysis
c) shaking test
d) stripping test

627. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a) 0.5 meter long
b) 1.0 meter long
c) 1.5 meter long
d) 2.0 meter long

628. Under Item 310, the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry
aggregate should be between:
a) 4% to 8%
b) 5% to 8%
c) 3% to 5%
d) 5% to 7%

629. The depth of weakened plane joints should not be less than:
a) 45 mm
b) 50 mm
c) 60 mm
d) 75 mm

630. Unless otherwise indicated in the plans, mortar for masonry walls should be
composed of one part Portland Cement and:
a) 1 part fine aggregates by volume
b) 1” part fine aggregates by volume
c) 2 parts fine aggregates by volume
d) 2” parts fine aggregates by volume

78
631. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut
to a depth of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

632. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the resident engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

633. Who assists the Project Engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field operations?
a) Contractor’s Engineer
b) Project Inspector
c) Materials Engineer
d) Resident Engineer

634. The bar chart is also called a:

a) Precedence diagram
b) Gantt chart
c) CPM diagram
d) PERT chart

635. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

636. Which of the following is not a construction safety procedure?

a) The sides of deep excavations must be properly shored
b) All openings above ground level must be guarded
c) Operators and mechanics must be required to log-in when operating equipment
d) Workers engaged in clearing must be protected from hazardous plants

637. How much percentage is withheld on the general items until the final acceptance of
the project?
a) 15%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 50%

638. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by
the resident engineer thru:
a) logbook entry
b) progress billing deduction
c) inspection report
d) site instruction

79
639. The following are basic documents needed as reference in an assessment of a
project with the exception of:
a) Program of Works
b) Statement of Work Accomplished
c) Certificate of Availability of Funds
d) Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

640. Settlement of right-of-way problems should be done

a) during the construction work
b) after the construction work
c) before the construction work
d) before equipment and manpower mobilization

641. When will the Certificate of Final Inspection be issued?

a) after the supervision team has conducted final inspection
b) after the inter-bureau committee has conducted inspection
c) after the contractor has submitted the final completion request
d) after the one-year warranty period

642. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a) Density test
b) Core Boring test
c) California Bearing Ratio (CBR) test
d) Dynamic Cone Penetromenter test

643. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.m.
How many Grading and Plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum
testing requirement?
a) 3
b) 5 or 25
c) 7
d) 9

644. Item 201 materials with CBR value of 75% (which is 5% less than the minimum
requirement) can still be used in the design of a concrete pavement provided that the following
are considered except one:
a) adequate compaction is applied during construction
b) increase the thickness requirement of base course
c) the design is only intended for a barangay road project
d) the foundation contains unsuitable materials

645. Your total approved accomplishment on a project including those to be covered by

an extra work is equivalent to 75% but only 65% is covered under the approved original
contract. Up to what level of progress billing would you allow?
a) up to the total 75% accomplishment
b) below 75% but more than 65% accomplishment
c) up to the documented value not more than 50%
d) up to the documented value not more than 65%

646. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for sides of
concrete beams and girders, the minimum time before forms and supports are
removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days

80
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

647. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the
cross-sectional area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a) Velocity-Area Method
b) Float Velocity Method
c) Direct Volumetric Method
d) Indirect Method

648. A set of revised drawings shows a grade separation structure at railroad crossing with cross
sections of the railroad taken at 20 m interval and extended at least 50m from both sides of the
centerline. Does the 50m extension conform with survey/design requirements?
a) Yes, 50 m is in order
b) No, it should be 100 m both sides
c) No, it should be 200 m both sides
d) No, 100 m left side and 200 m right side

649. Depth of exploration for a highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special
problems should extend to a maximum depth of:
a) 1.0 m below bottom of subbase
b) 1.5 m below the proposed subgrade
c) 2.0 m below the proposed subgrade
d) 3.0 m below the proposed subgrade

650. For a bridge project, spacing of borings should be made at a minimum of:
a) One deep boring per abutment and pier
b) Two deep borings per abutment and per pier
c) Two deep borings per abutment and an additional one per pier
d) Three deep borings per abutment and pier

651. The general principles of design of bridges depend on many factors. These may be broadly
unified under the following with the exception of:
a) Selection of site
b) Water discharge
c) Design of bridge
d) Bank protection

652. Per bridge design procedures, the design method to be used for columns should preferably be:
a) Service load design
b) Working stress design
c) Load factor (ultimate strength) design
d) Both a and b

653. Every building will be designed for lateral seismic forces. As a minimum, the design base shear
(V=ZICW/Rw) will be applied to the structure as a whole and be distributed to the various levels of
the structure. The factor Z (seismicity of the site) as used in the Philippines is:
a) less than 0.2 for Zone 1
b) 0.2 for Zone 2
c) 0.3 for Zone 3
d) 0.4 for Zone 4

81
654. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge of
the designed width should be:
a) 2.00 m
b) 3.00 m
c) 0.50 m
d) 1.00

655. Normally within how many hours can sawing of joints commence given that concrete has
hardened sufficiently?
a) 36
b) 72
c) 12
d) 24

656. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:

a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

657. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

658. What will you do if there is evidence of discrepancies on the actual elevation from those shown
in the Plans?
a) Conduct Pre-construction Survey
b) Conduct Parcellary Survey
c) Conduct Geotechnical Survey
d) Conduct Boring Test

659. What is the difference between the Net Volume Suitable Materials Embankment and Net
Volume of Suitable Materials from Excavation?
a) Free haul volume
b) Overhaul volume
c) Unsuitable materials
d) Surplus materials

660. What do you call the collapse of earth and side slope due to slope failure and natural calamity
like earthquake?
a) Denudation
b) Gully erosion
c) Landslide
d) Scouring

661. What do you call the portion of earth or base course the portion of earth or base course
materials left unleveled by a road grader during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

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662. Resurfacing of unpaved shoulder that has settled or been eroded by traffic and water is an
activity under:
a) preventive maintenance
b) routing maintenance
c) periodic maintenance
d) special maintenance

663. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period
of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

664. Which of the following is not a measure against mudflow?

a) Sabo dams
b) Retarding basins
c) Cut-off channels
d) Groundsills

665. You are to recommend measures to minimize inundation on the landside of an overflowing
river. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Reduce the flood inflow to the area by constructing spillways and retarding basins
b) Regulate the land use in the area
c) Install drainage facilities like pumping stations
d) Introduce dredging works

666. During construction of a flood control dam, the proposed spillway was overcut by one meter.
What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Cover the section with excavated materials
b) Continue work and disregard the overcut
c) Suspend work and request for design analysis
d) Blame and blacklist the contractor

667. What kind of cut-off channel is being constructed to carry 10% of a river discharge, and
which subsequently develops capacity of up to 40%?
a) Diversion channel
b) Pilot channel
c) River channel
d) Open channel

668. A proposed flood control project has a mini-hydro electric power component. However, the
area is already being serviced by the National Power Corporation. Which of the following
will be the best action to take?
a) implement all work components
b) locate to other service areas needing power
c) delete the mini-hydro power component
d) abort the implementation of the flood control project

669. The flow curve obtained when the liquid test results are plotted on a semi-log scale is in the
form of a/an:
a) Parabola
b) Straight line
c) Hyperbola

83
d) Arc

670. A series of almost parallel cracks running longitudinally along bituminous pavement surfaces is
caused by:
a) Volume change of expansive clay subgrade
b) Cyclical weakening of pavement edge
c) Differential settlement between cut and fill
d) All of the above

671. During the curing period, the exposed surfaces of normal cement concrete should be kept
continuously moist for at least:
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

672. How many set/s of in-situ density tests is required in a 1500 square meter compacted
aggregate subbase course?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5

673. If the designed thickness of aggregate subbase course is 200 mm, in how many layers may
the material be spread and compacted?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

674. Verification of in-placed Items 200 and 201 materials were conducted thru test pitting. As
Project Inspector, what would you do to best determine whether Item 201 was incorporated in the
project?
a) Determine its soil texture
b) Scrutinize project reports/logbooks
c) Determine the maximum size of aggregates in-place
d) Verify delivery receipts

675. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 oC lower than
the required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident engineer of
the project, what decision should you take?
a) allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered
b) advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c) reject the delivered material
d) adjust the job-mix formula

676. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will
have a high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression StabilityTest
d) Plant-Mix Design

84
677. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the
following with the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too much coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

678. If permitted by the Engineer, additional water may be added to the batch concrete materials in
truck mixers for portland cement concrete pavements. Additional mixing may be performed to
increase the slump to meet the specified requirement provided that the water-cement ratio is not
exceeded and that the said operations are performed within minutes after the initial mixing
operation.
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90

679. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than:
a) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 30 seconds

680. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for floor slabs, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 3 days
b) 7 days
c) 14 days
d) 28 days

681. In order to attain the minimum percentage design strength of concrete for concrete walls, the
minimum time before forms and supports are removed should be:
a) 1 day
b) 2 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

682. Which Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is not preferable for bituminous mixture in
accordance with the Immersion-Compression Stability Test?
a) 50 %
b) 70 %
c) 75 %
d) 80 %

683. Lumber is considered well-seasoned when its moisture content is between:

a) 5 to 11 %
b) 12 to 18 %
c) 19 to 25 %
d) 26 to 32 %

684. In case of emergency, e.g. earthquake, typhoons, or volcanic eruption, what report should a
Project Engineer submit?
a) Executive Report
b) Periodic Report
85
c) Exception Report
d) AccomplishmentReport

685. Who decides on all the questions which arise as to the interpretation of plans and
specifications in the field execution of the project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Materials Engineer
c) Resident Engineer
d) Project Engineer

686. Who prepares daily reports on work accomplishment for review of the Project Engineer?
a) Project Engineer
b) Materials Engineer
c) Project Inspector
d) Contractor’s Engineer

687. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a) Dummy Activities
b) Float
c) Critical Path
d) End event

688. In terms of percentage, how much higher in strength is a well-consolidated concrete

compared to a concrete not thoroughly consolidated?
a) 5 to 10 percent
b) 10 to 15 percent
c) 15 to 20 percent
d) 20 to 25 percent

689. During the test run, a mini dam was observed to have a high probability of overtopping due to
increase in river discharge capacity brought about by massive deforestation. Which of the
following is the most logical recommendation?
a) acceptance and keep information to yourself
b) increase in height of dam
c) armoring of the upstream pacing
d) redesign/reconstruction of the spillway structure

690. Concerning delayed project implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the
contractor?
a) delayed preparation of contract documents
b) faulty construction method
c) defective construction equipment
d) undersized construction materials delivered

691. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

692. In embankment works involving a 300-meter hauling distance, what is the most efficient
equipment mix?
a) one bulldozer, one payloader, one compactor and one dump truck
b) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, and two dump trucks

86
c) One bulldozer, one payloader, one grader, one compactor and three dump trucks
d) One bulldozer, one payloader and five dump trucks

693. If a project is abandoned by the contractor due to peace and order problems, what
recommendation should immediately be submitted?
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Termination of Contract
c) Contract Suspension
d) Blacklisting of Contractor

694. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:

a) There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in the original
contract
b) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract cost
c) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
d) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 100% of the original contract cost

695. Which does not fall under the condition when a change order can be issued?
a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original contract
d) There is reclassification of an existing item due to latent conditions which were not known at
the time of bidding

696. A change order may be issued when:

a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) The aggregate cost exceeds 25% of the original contract cost
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original contract
d) The quantity overruns or underruns in a unit price contract is not more than 15% of the estimates
per major pay item and 25% per minor pay item

697. Select one not covered by conditions where an extra work order may be issued:
a) Where there are additional works needed for the completion of the project which were not
included as items of work in the original contract
b) Where there are subsurface or latent physical conditions at the site differing materially from
those indicated in the contract beyond the limit of the change order
c) Where there are unknown physical conditions at the site of an unusual nature beyond the
limits of change order inherent in the work
d) Where the additional works necessary for the completion of the project is beyond the limits
and the general scope of the project

698. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time
duration imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a) one month
b) two months
c) three months
d) four months

699. Adjustment of contract price of a project may be authorized if:

a) the awarded contract price is below the government estimate
b) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased artificially in the locality
c) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to acts of the government
d) the cost of labor, equipment, materials and supplies increased, due to multiple handling

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700. Advance payment shall be repaid by deducting from a contractor’s periodic progress
payments an amount equivalent to:
a) 10 %
b) 15 %
c) 20 %
d) 25 %

701. The contract time may be suspended once the project reaches an accomplishment of:
a) 80 %
b) 85 %
c) 90 %
d) 95 %

702. Rivers, esteros and navigating canals, not subject to overbank flows should have a minimum
easement measured from the edge of the existing bank or the improved bank of:
a) 4.5 m
b) 5.5 m
c) 20.0 m
d) 40.0 m

703. What does scoured depth refer to?

a) Total change in elevation of works
b) Total depth of water from surface to a scoured bed level
c) Depth of scour
d) Backwater depth

704. Gradients are categorized into four as listed below. Which of the following is also known as
design gradient?
a) minimum gradient
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient

705. In general, the minimum concrete cover for primary reinforcement of concrete not exposed to
weather or in contact with the ground should be:
a) 25 mm
b) 38 mm
c) 51 mm
d) 76 mm

706. A given reinforced concrete girder may be subject at one time to positive span moments and at
another to negative span moments. To withstand both types of moments, the girder must be
designed such that tensile steel must be furnished at:
a) the top only
b) the bottom only
c) both the top and bottom
d) the support only

707. For drainage mains and outfalls, the discharge should be computed by the use of:
a) Rational Formula
b) Talbot’s Formula
c) Manning Equation for Discharge
d) Synthetic Unit Hydrographs

88
708. The maximum spacing of manholes for circular conduits should be:
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 150 m

709. The water from the pavement surface is removed by providing which of the following to the
pavement?
a) weep hole
b) drain hole
c) cross drain
d) camber or cross slope

710. What is the method used in constructing an embankment over a low swampy ground that
cannot support the mass of truck loads and other hauling equipment?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

711. What do you call the portion of earth or base course materials left unleveled by a road grader
during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

712. Vegetation control along highways should be undertaken from the outer edge of the shoulder
to:
a) Outer edge of side ditch lined canal
b) Center of side ditch
c) Outer edge of shoulder only
d) Road-right-of-waylimit

713. Which of the following is not included in the exploration of foundation strata?
a) Driving test rods
b) Boring with auger
c) Drilling test hole
d) Nuclear density test

714. What is the usual measure undertaken to stop a river from changing its path?
a) shore protection works
b) river training works
c) bank seat
d) wing wall

715. What is the allowable minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe?
a) 50 mm
b) 60 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 100 mm

89
716. Which of the following is not a result of river mouth improvement works?
a) Easier navigation
b) Ensuring easy maintenance in the future
c) Giving natural balance to the river
d) Fast river bed deposition

717. What do you call the limit of drainage of a river system?

a) Service area
b) Project area
c) Drainage area
d) Confluence area

718. What do you call the total covering area of a river system?
a) River basin
b) Drainage area
c) Service area
d) Flooded area

719. Which of the following factors does not affect the stability of an embankment?
a) Active earth pressure
b) Translatory slide
c) Lateral forces
d) Wind load

720. When the average thickness of the concrete pavement per lot is deficient by 5 mm, payment
for the lot should be:
a) 100 %
b) Adjusted to 95%
c) Adjusted to 90%
d) Adjusted to 85%

721. Soil will have greater strength if its particles are:

a) Uniformly graded
b) Well-graded
c) One-sized
d) Gap-graded

722. Clay can be made plastic by: a)

air-drying
b) adjusting its water content
c) Continuousrolling
d) pulverizing

723. Ordinarily, what is the absolute volume of cement in a concrete mix?

a) 7 to 14 percent
b) 15 to 20 percent
c) 21 to 25 percent
d) 26 to 32 percent

724. If 95% of a soil passes the No. 200 mm sieve, its particle size distribution is best determined by:
a) Hydrometer Analysis
b) Sieve Analysis
c) Combination of a and b
d) Atterberg Limit Test

90
725. In Item 200 – Aggregate Subbase Course, the fraction passing the 0.425 mm (No. 40) sieve
should have a liquid limit not greater than:
a) 25 %
b) 35 %
c) 40 %
d) 50 %

726. A rehabilitation of asphalt pavement is undertaken by a District Office. Per approved program
of work, Item 201 was included in the pay items. However, during construction, the Materials
Engineer certified that the existing base course material is still of good quality. As project/resident
engineer, what is the best recommendation?
a) Remove and replace the existing base course material as required in the approved
program of work
b) Provide additional Item 201 materials for correction purposes and prepare
corresponding change order
c) Deduct from payment due to the contractor the corresponding amount equivalent to
the total volume of Item 201 that was not incorporated into the works
d) d) b and c

727. The depth and width of weakened plane joints should not be more and of
corrugations during brooming operation of a concrete pavement should not be
more than:
a) 2.5 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively
b) 2.0 mm and 1.0 mm, respectively
c) 1.0 mm and 3.0 mm, respectively
d) 3.0 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively

728. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts,
pipe bedding, and gravity walls?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

729. What class of structural concrete is generally used for reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast
piles, cribbing and for filler in steel grid floors?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

730. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Riprap and grouted riprap
d) Stone masonry

731. Rock used in gabions shall consists of hard, durable rock pieces that will not deteriorate when
submerged in water or exposed to severe weather condition, and should be uniformly graded in
sizes ranging from:
a) 50 mm to 100 mm
b) 101 mm to 200 mm
c) 201 mm to 300 mm
d) 301 mm to 400 mm
91
732. In laying the stone components of Item 506 (Stone Masonry), the exposed faces of the
individual stones should be:
a) Perpendicular to the faces of the walls
b) Parallel to the faces of the walls
c) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 100 mm

733. Who has the full power and authority to supply to the contractor, during the progress of
works, additional plans and instructions?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

734. Who has the authority to reject questionable materials or suspend the work until it is refereed
and decided upon by the project engineer?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

735. Which of the following scheduling features does not describe the bar chart?
a) Shows start and end dates of activities
b) Indicates estimated duration of each activity
c) Allows comparison of actual and planned progress
d) Identifies activity relationship

736. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to monitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a) Normal water level
b) Maximum experienced flood level
c) Existing bank level
d) Headwall level

737. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a) seed money
b) progress payment
c) mobilization costs
d) representation costs

738. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment
of 95% or more, which of the following is issued?
a) Final Inspection Certificate
b) AcceptanceCertificate
c) Punch List
d) Turnover Certificate

739. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a) Bar Charts
b) Executive Summary
c) Weather Charts
d) Photographs

92
740. The procurement process for the opening of bids up to the award of contract shall not exceed:
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

741. A variation orders may be in the form of the following except:

a) Extra Work Order
b) Change Order
c) Supplemental Agreement
d) None of the above

742. The water content at which the soil passes from a plastic state to a liquid state is called:
a) 40 mm (1 1/2 inches)
b) 50 mm (2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2 1/2 inches)
d) 75 mm (3 inches)

743. The Plasticity Index requirement for Aggregate Base Course should not be greater
than:
a) 4
b) 5
c) 6
d) 10

744. Minimum width of paved sidewalk?

a. 1.5 Meter
b. 1.0 Meter
c. 2.0 Meter
d. 1.80 Meter

745. Guardrails spacing?

a. 3.81 meters
B. 3.83 meters
c. 3.8 meters
d. 3.85 meters

746. The specimen for thickness determination shall have a diameter of:
a. 4”
b. 6”
c. 3”
d. 5”

747. Minimum shoulder width?

a. 1.5 Meter
b. 1.2 Meter
c. 1.0 Meter
d. 0.90 Meter

93
748. The main objective of this design is to determine the proportion of the
ingredients that will produce concrete of the proper workability when fresh
and the desired stability and strength after it has hardened.
a. Job Mix Formula
b. Design of Bit. Mix
c. Design of Concrete Mix
d. Proportioning of MIx

749. When the outside diameter of unfilled tubular pile is less than 355 mm, what
is the required minimum thickness of the wall
a. 6 mm
b. 6.5 mm
c. 7.5 mm
d. 5 mm

750. Part of the bridge which support the load of the extreme spans and retain the approach
fill
a. Abutment
b. Revetment
c. Slab Approach
d. Girder

751. The minimum interval of concrete pouring to avoid cold joint

a. 45 minutes
b. 60 minutes
c. 30 minutes
d. 15 minutes

752. Required revolution of concrete mixer

a. 3 - 5 RPM
b. 4 - 6 RPM
c. 2 - 5 RPM
d. 2 - 6 RPM

753. The minimum spacing of steel bars on bored piles to ensure that concrete
would still flow outwards to the walls of the bored piles
a. 150 mm
b. 100 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 50 mm

754. Must be within the limit of water cement ratio for concrete
a. 0.60 - 0.70
b. 0.50 – 0.70
c. 0.40 - 0.50
d. 0.50 - 0.60

755. What is the density of Bentonite to 1 cu.m. of water?

a. 30 - 100 kilos/cu.m.
b. 50 - 100 kilos/cu.m.
c. 40 - 100 kilos/cu.m.
d. 60 - 100 kilos/cu.m.

94
756. A type of drilling without the use of steel casing or stabilizing mud
a. Uncasing Drilling
b. Unprotected Drilling
c. Direct Drilling
d. None Guide Drilling

757. A kind of drilling using a combination of steel casing and stabilizing mud. A temporary
casing is penetrated up to an extractable length of not more than 3.0 meters
a. Casing Drilling
b. Protected Drilling
c. Standard Drilling
d. With Guide Drilling

758. When concrete pipe cast in-place formed by first removing the soil by drilling and
filling the void by concrete
a. Sheet Pile
b. Concrete Pile
c. Drill Pile
d. Bored Pile

759. New type of water reducing admixtures that are used to produce flowing concrete
a. Accelerator
b. Super Plasticizers
c. Retarder
d. Water Reducer

760. Admixtures used to speed up the initial set of concrete

a. Retarder
b. Water Reducer
c. Super Plasticizers
d. Accelerator

761. A 3 dimensional view of the road

a. Safe Distance
b. Sight Distance
c. 3D Distance
d. 3D Road View

762. Maximum value of e: (Super elevation) in Rural Highway?

a. 10%
b. 8%
c. 6%
d. 5%

763. Maximum value of e: (Super elevation) in Urban?

a. 10%
b. 8%
c. 6%
d. 5%

764. Maximum value of e: (Super elevation) in Downtown Arterial?

a. 10%
b. 8%
c. 6%

95
d. 5%

765. Drainage is an extremely important element of good highway development

a. Slope Protection Design
b. Drainage Design
c. Sidewalk Design
d. Curve & Gutter Design

766. Minimum Diameter of storm pipes?

a. 18”
b. 16”
c. 12”
d. 24”

767. Drainage structures which collect run-off from curb and gutter and convey it to the
underground corners or culvert
a. Manhole
b. Catch Basin
c. Inlets
d. Outlets

768. Only undertaken when routine and periodic maintenance have been satisfied and there are
still balance on the appropriation. Activities are slope protection, installation of guardrail
a. Deferred Maintenance
b. Yearly Maintenance
c. Exclusive Maintenance
d. Special Maintenance

769. Undertaken on the highway with a cycle span of 1-5 years such as re-scaling bituminous
pavement, bridge re-decking, re-gravelling, etc
a. Periodic Maintenance
b. Yearly Maintenance
c. Special Maintenance
d. Exclusive Maintenance

770. Minimum time needed on the removal of forms for beams, girders, frames or arches
a. 14 days or 80% of design Strength
b. 7 days or 71% of design Strength
c. 28 days or 100% of design Strength
d. 21 days or 97% of design Strength

771. Minimum separation of splices when staggered?

a. 40 bar dia.
b. 45 bar dia.
c. 50 bar dia.
d. 60 bar dia.

772. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures accept pavements
conforming to the lines, grade and dimension?
a. Concrete Structures
b. Structural Concrete
c. Concrete
d. PCCP

96
773. Project Engineer shall require the contractor to provide competent QC personnel and fully
equipped laboratory building
a. M.C. No. 32 Series of 1981
b. M.C. No. 33 Series of 1981
c. M.C. No. 33 Series of 1991
d. M.C. No. 32 Series of 1991

774. Widely used as a control test in embankment construction to ensure

Adequate compaction
a. Field Density Test
b. Consolidation Test
c. Grading Test
d. CBR Test

775. For bridge project boring should be what?

a. 1 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter min.) 1 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.0 m into bed rocks)
b. 2 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter max.) 2 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)
c. 2 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter min.) 2 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)
d. 1 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter max.) 1 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)

776. Is a day work by one person?

a. Man-day
b. Man-hour
c. Labor Force
d. Accomplishment Day

777. Designed to spread the load from the bearing evenly over an area of ground
a. Metal Plate
b. Base Plate
c. Girder Plate
d. Support Plate

778. Applied network flow techniques to develop a solution to the problems of planning,
scheduling and control of construction project
a. PERT
b. CPM
c. PDM
d. S-Curve

779. An event oriented network analysis?

a. PERT
b. CPM
c. PDM
d. S-Curve

780. An activity oriented network analysis?

a. PERT
b. CPM
c. PDM
d. S-Curve

97
781. Occur through time and represent the things that must happen in order to complete
the project
a. Activities (represented by Arrow)
b. Dummy Activities
c. Network
d. Events (represented by Circles)

782. Are points in time representing the start or completion of particular activities
a. Activities (represented by Arrow)
b. Dummy Activities
c. Network
d. Events (represented by Circles)

783. This represent periodic payment made by the owner to the contractor to commensurate
the work accomplishment
a. Previous Payment
b. Statement of Work Accomplish
c. Progress Payment
d. Billing

784. This is the increase/decrease in quantities due to verification survey/as staked

plans against the construction plans, not more than 25% of the original contract
price
a. Variation Order
b. Change Order
c. Extra Work Order
d. All of the above

785. When reasons for project delays are clearly and solely attributed to the contractor
a. Rescind the Contract
b. Terminate the Contract
c. Suspension of the Contract
d. Stoppage of the Project

786. When project is delayed due to contractor’s fault compounded by the failure, too
a. Rescind the Contract
b. Terminate the Contract
c. Suspension of the Contract
d. Stoppage of the Project

787. Road sign which indicates hazardous conditions to drive

a. Regulatory Sign
b. Safety Road Sign
c. Warning Sign
d. Guide Sign

788. Road sign which indicates the required method of traffic movement
a. Regulatory Sign
b. Safety Road Sign
c. Warning Sign
d. Guide Sign

98
789. A road sign used to direct traffic along the road or towards a destination
a. Regulatory Sign
b. Safety Road Sign
c. Warning Sign
d. Guide Sign

790. What is the minimum sized of conduit in any system?

a. 12.5 mm dia
b. 10 mm dia.
c. 16mm dia.
d. 14 mm dia.

791. Minimum overlapping of insulation materials

a. 50 mm
b. 75 mm
c. 100 mm
d 60 mm

792. Consist of the excavation of river, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of Water.
a. Excavation
b. Dredging
c. Trenching
d. Mud Removing

793. This was placed on the edges of landing for the purpose of preventing the vessels or ship from
getting direct contact with the pier.
a. Timber Walling
b. Concrete Walling
c. Sheet Piles Walling
d. Bump Walling

794. Profile along the centerline of the bridges shall be extended beyond both ends of the bridge.
a. 100 m
b. 50 m
c. 75 m
d. 30 m

795. One of the controlling factors in the design of vertical alignment of road
a. Sidewalk
b. Drainage System
c. Curb & Gutter
d. Roadway

796. Are wood sticks nailed horizontally to the stake which serve as the
horizontal plane where the reference point of the building and technical
measurements are established
a. Reference Board
b. Batter Board
c. Bench Mark
d. Building Layout

797. This test shall be conducted or buildings three (3) stories and above
a. Shell Tube Test Boring Test
b. FDT

99
c. Boring Test
d. Bearing Test

798. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing or other minor structures on the ground
a. 600 mm
b. 1000 mm
c. 500 mm
d. 700 mm

799. This shall be made of steel wire triple to form a uniform hexagonal mesh pattern
a. Riprap
b. Gabions
c. Stone Masonry
d. Gravity Retaining Wall

800. Length of tremie pipe that must submerged into concrete without Bentonite.
a. 3.5 m
b. 3 m
c. 2 m
d. 2.5 m

801. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape & gradation
a. Compaction
b. CBR
c. Abrasion
d. Gradation

802. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix Asphalt Overlay depending on the expected
traffic and the modulus of the Cracked and Sealed pavement section .
a. 2” - 4”
b. 3” to 5”
c. 4” to 6”
d. 4” - 5”

803. The maximum jacking force of the specified minimum ultimate strength of the steel tendon
must not exceed.
a. 75%
b. 85%
c. 80%
d. 70%

804. Steel tendons should be grouted with an approved grout mixture after the completion of the
stressing operation within ___________ .
a. 24hrs.
b. 48hrs.
c. 72 hrs.
d. 12 hrs.

805. The minimum grouting pressure is ___or 0.6894Mpa (100psi). (refer to #804)
a. 500 kpa / 20 seconds
b. 600 kpa / 15 seconds
c. 700 kpa / 15 seconds
d. 800 kpa / 20 seconds

100
A float for smoothing or for producing texture surfaces on cement or plaster.
a. Common Float
b. Trowel
c. Bull Float
d. Angle Float

807. Test sample for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts & Storm Drains)
a. 1 pipe for every 50 pcs. (test for absorption, strength &
dimension) or 3 cylinder samples for not more than 50 pcs cast in the
field
b. 1 pipe for every 75 pcs. (test for absorption, strength &
dimension) or 3 cylinder samples for not more than 75 pcs cast in the
field
c. 1 pipe for every 25 pcs. (test for absorption, strength &
dimension) or 3 cylinder samples for not more than 50 pcs cast in the
field
d. 1 pipe for every 50 pcs. (test for absorption, strength &
dimension) or 3 cylinder samples for not more than 25 pcs cast in the
field

808. A float used to smooth freshly placed concrete.

a. Common Float
b. Trowel
c. Bull Float
d. Angle Float

809. Tension induce the steel tendons by means of pulling, by hydraulic jack. The amount of tension
is measured by the elongation of the steel tendons from a pre-determine point and is checked by a
pressure gauge.
a. Compressioning of Tendons
b. Tensioning of Tendons
c. Stressing of Tendons
d. Pre-Stressing of Tendons

810. An important operation having the dual purpose of protecting the post tension; steel tendon
and relieving the anchorage of stress fluctuation.
a. Concrete Pouring
b. Mixing of Concrete
c. Strength of Concrete
d. Grouting

811. Installed base on the post tension system being used.

a. Main Support
b. Foundation
c. Anchorage
d. Tendons

812. National Building Code of the Philippines

a. P. D. 1096
b. P. D. 1094
c. P. D. 1097
d. P. D. 1095

101
813. Volume of mortar rip-rap is
a. 40 %
b. 35 %
c. 50 %
d. 45 %

814. Minimum number of days to remove forms in column

a. 1 days
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

815. Minimum thickness and covering for rubble concrete is

a. 25 cm (10”) and 12.5 cm (5”) respectively
b. 30 cm (12”) and 10 cm (4”) respectively
c. 30 cm (12”) and 5 cm (2”) respectively
d. 25 cm (10”) and 7.5 cm (3”) respectively

816. Paint used for concrete pavement.

a. Reflectorized Paint
b. Cement base Paint
c. Non Harzardous Paint
d. Thermoplastic Paint

817. Paint used for asphalt pavement.

a. Reflectorized Paint
b. Cement base Paint
c. Non Harzardous Paint
d. Thermoplastic Paint

818. When can we eliminate sub-base during construction?

a. When CBR test is greater than 35%
b. When CBR test is equal to 35%
c. When CBR test is lower than 35%
d. When CBR test is greater than 25%

819. Required bored holes in large buildings

a. 1 bore hole at each foundation of the structure and at least one at the interior
b. 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and at least one at the interior
c. 1 bore hole at each area of the column and at least one at the interior
d. 1 bore hole at each side of the structure and at least one at the interior

820. Flat hand tools used for applying, spreading and shaping of mortar to produce relatively smooth
finish on concrete surface in the final stages of plastering.
a. Common Float
b. Trowel
c. Bull Float
d. Angle Float

821. Used for finishing corners or other plastering works

a. Common Float
b. Trowel
c. Bull Float
d. Angle Float

102
822. The system of pre-stressing wherein the steel tendons are tensioned after the concrete has
been placed and has attained a specific strength.
a. Tensioning of Tendons
b. Pre Tensioning
c. Post Tensioning
d. Pre-Stressing of Tendons

823. The system of pre-stressing wherein the steel tendons are tensioned before placing concrete.
a. Tensioning of Tendons
b. Pre Tensioning
c. Post Tensioning
d. Pre-Stressing of Tendons

824. A concrete wherein compression is induce before application of working loads so that tension
under these working loads is reduced or entirely estimate.
a. Pre-Cast Concrete
b. Post Tensioning
c. Pre Tensioning
d. Pre-stressed Concrete

825. What is the rolling distance extended outside the base course and surface course on
pavements.
a. 30 cm
b. 50 cm
c. 60 cm
d. 45 cm

826. On Item 100 (excavation) rock shall be excavated below sub-grade within the limit of the
roadbed to a depth of:
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 1.5 m

827. Flexural Strength requirement of concrete.

a. 550 psi.
b. 500 psi.
c. 555 psi.
d. 600 psi.

828. Compressive Strength requirement of concrete.

a. 3000 psi.
b. 5000 psi.
c. 4000 psi.
d. 3500 psi.

829. Minimum thickness for asphalt overlay is:

a. 1 inch
a. 2 inch
a. 3 inch
a. 4 inch

103
830. Maximum spacing weep holes and their diameter
a. 2 meters on center @ 2 inches dia
b. 1 meters on center @ 3 inches dia
c. 2.5 meters on center @ 2 inches dia
d. 1.5 meters on center @ 2 inches dia

831. The item no. for Portland Cement Concrete Pavement (PCCP) in the DPWH Standard
Specification is:
a. 200
b. 201
c. 310
d. 311

832. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of:
a. 0.2 – 0.5 1/m^2
b. 0.2- 0.7 1/m^2
c. 0.15 – 0.7 1/m^2
d. 0.15 – 0.5 1/m^2

833. Who assists the Project engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field operations?
a. Contractor’s engineer
b. Resident engineer
c. Materials engineer
d. Project inspector

834. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movements of girders. Which of the following
is not used to allow such movement?
a. Expansion joints
b. Rockers
c. Sliding plates
d. Rollers

835. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist condition
and saturated with water for at least:
a. 6 hrs.
b. 1.5 hrs.
c. 2 hrs.
d. 3 hrs.

836. Concrete deposited in water.

a. Waterproof Concrete
b. Tack Concrete
c. Water Base Concrete
d. Seal Concrete

837. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks or areas that have previously been
patched with asphalt by _______ with nominal ________ air pressure
a. Power sweeping and air blowing; 220 psi air pressure.
b. Power sweeping and air blowing; 250 psi air pressure.
c. Power sweeping and air blowing; 100 psi air pressure.
d. Power sweeping and air blowing; 200 psi air pressure.

104
838. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by ____%?
a. 25 to 35%
b. 50 to 70%
c. 30 to 45%
d. 55 to 75%

839. Super plasticizers can increase the 24 hour strength by _____%?

a. 25 to 35%
b. 50 to 70%
c. 30 to 45%
d. 55 to 75%

840. Admixtures which help incorporate a controlled amount of air in the form of minute
bubbles in concrete during mixing, without significantly altering the setting or rate of
hardening characteristic of concrete
a. Air Entraining Admixtures
b. Air Entrap Admixtures
c. Air Enter Admixtures
d. Air Entrance Admixtures

841. Materials other than the basic ingredients of concrete added to the concrete mix
immediately before or during mixing to modify one or more of the specific properties of
concrete in the fresh or hardened states.
a. Superplasticizer
b. Cement
c. Fly Ash
d. Admixtures

842. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speeding up the task to
make-up for the past or future loss of time.
a. Finance Control
b. Warehouse Management
c. Delivery Control
d. Cost Control

843. A purposeful control of all cost in every possible way, incurred on project arises from
manpower, equipment, materials, contract cost overhead.
a. Finance Control
b. Warehouse Management
c. Delivery Control
d. Cost Control

844. Spacing of inlets shall not exceed ____ for cleaning and maintenance purposes
a. 30 meter
b. 40 meter
c. 20 meter
d. 25 meter

845. An important consideration in sewer design.

a. Velocity of Flow
b. Head Loss
c. Capacity
d. Discharge

105
846. The separation or regulation of conflicting traffic movements into definite paths
and by means of traffic islands or pavement markings to facilitate the safe and
orderly arrangement of both vehicles and pedestrians.
a. Road Traffic Sign
b. Channelization
c. Well Planned Roadway
d. Modernize Roadway

847. The day to day activities undertaken on the highway such as potholes patching, grading
shoulders and cleaning drainage
a. Preventive Maintenance
b. Special Maintenance
c. Routine Maintenance
d. Daily Maintenance

848. Bowl shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface.

a. Potholes
b. Ravelling
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

849. The wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the dislodging of aggregate particles
a. Potholes
b. Ravelling
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

850. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement surface.
a. Corrugation
b. Ravelling
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

851. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement.

a. Corrugation
b. Ravelling
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

852. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths

a. Alligator Cracking
b. Rutting
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

853. Interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken
wire.
a. Alligator Cracking
b. Rutting
c. Scalling
d. Shoving

106
854. The upward movements in an asphalt pavement resulting in the formation of a film of asphalt
on the surface.
a. Alligator Cracking
b. Rutting
c. Scalling
d. Bleeding

855. Cracks in asphalt concrete overlay surface that occur over joints in PCCP
a. Reflection Cracking
b. Rutting
c. Scalling
d. Bleeding

856. Minimum penetration of preservative into the surface of the timber pile
a. 25 mm
b. 10 mm
c. 20 mm
d. 30 mm

857. Thickness determination for concrete and asphalt pavement.

a. D.O. No.55 Series of 1990
b. D.O. No.55 Series of 1991
c. D.O. No.55 Series of 1992
d. D.O. No.55 Series of 1993

858. Testing and Acceptance of Construction Materials

a. D.O. 135 Series of 1990
b. D.O. 135 Series of 1991
c. D.O. 135 Series of 1992
d. D.O. 135 Series of 1993

859. Concreting projects with noted defects/deficiencies prior to partial full payment
a. D.O. No. 139 Series of 1991
b. D.O. No. 139 Series of 1992
c. D.O. No. 139 Series of 1994
d. D.O. No. 139 Series of 1995

860. New standard worksheet and test procedure in conducting F.D.T.

a. D.M.C. No. 46 Series of 1996
b. D.M.C. No. 46 Series of 1997
c. D.M.C. No. 46 Series of 1998
d. D.M.C. No. 46 Series of 1999

861. The minimum index of retained strength of asphalt

a. 70
b. 60
c. 50
d. 80

862. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mix.
a. Extraction
b. Penetration Test
c. CBR
d. Marshall Stability Method

107
863. For the installation of sheet pile the joint between the piles shall be practically ________w/n
the piles are in place.
a. Welded
b. Watertight
c. Galvanized
d. Dirt Free

864. Soil and Drainage pipes shall have a pitch of ______ per 300mm or case flatter than 3mm per
300mm.
a. 2mm
b. 5mm
c. 6mm
d. 8mm

865. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding traffic controllers on a road construction
work area?
l. The traffic controller for a road site should stand approximately 50meters in advance of work area.
ll. Traffic controller may control traffic while seated
lll. The traffic controller should be visible on the curb side of shoulder clear of the travelled path
view both the worksite and oncoming traffic?
a. l only
b. lll only
c. ll only
d. l and ll only

866. What is the minimum width of PWD ramp

a. 0.8m
b. 1.10m
c. 0.9m
d. 1.20m

867. Pile integrity test shall be conducted on at least______

a. 35% of total # of bored pile
b. 40% of total # of bored pile
c. 45% of total # of bored pile
d. 50% of total # of bored pile

868. The _________ refers to a set of detailed rules to cover processes and practices that should be
utilized in a specific construction site including the personnel responsible and the penalties for the
violation thereof,
a. Occupational Safety and Health Standard
b. Construction Safety and Health Standard
c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. Construction Safety and Health Program

869. How many pieces of standard size of concrete hollow block ( CHB ) for one square meter area of
CHB wall.
a. 12
b. 12.5
c. 13
d. 13.5

108
870. The vertical clearance of flyover above the roadway shall not be less than.
a. 4.88
b. 5.03
c. 5.35
d. 6.03

871. For the Mid-point loading method FS requirement is equal?

a. 3.8MPA
b. 4.5MPA
c. 3500PSI
d. 4500PSI

872. Conduits and Pipes, with their fittings, embedded within a column shall not displaced more
than ____percent of the area of cross section.
a. 3
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1

873. Construction joints in floors shall be located within the _______of spans of slabs, beams and
Girders.
a. L/4 from the face of the Support
b. L/3 from the face of the Support
c. MIddle Third
d. L/2 from the face of the Support

874. What is the minimum concrete cover for cast against and permanently exposed to earth?
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 75 mm
d. 25 mm

875. The overall thickness with protective coats of a prepainted metal sheet of Gauge 26 with 0.50
mm base metal thickness is.
a. 0.422 - 0.451
b. 0.432 - 0.551
c. 0.532 - 0.551
d. 0.532 - 0. 451

876. All doors for PWD shall have a minimum clear width of _____ meter.
a. 0.80 meter
b. 0.90 meter
c. 1.00 meter
d. 1.10 meter

877. Soil Poisoning shall be applied ____ laying the beddings or lean concrete.
a. Prior to placement of concrete
b. Before
c. After
d. All of the Above

878. Splice Location of Top Bars for Beam/Girder shall be at _____?

a. At Intersection of Girder/Beam Column.
b. L/4 from face of the Support

109
c. L/3 from face of the Support
d. Midspan

879. Splice Location of Bottom Bars for Beam/Girder shall be at _____?

a. At Intersection of Girder/Beam Column.
b. L/4 from face of the Support
c. L/3 from face of the Support
d. Midspan

880. Variation Order to be submitted and Approved at least?

a. 15 days
b. 45 days
c. 30 days
d. 60 days

881. When is your Billing Start to proceed the project?

a. 10% Mobilization
b. 15% Mobilization
c. When Already Mobilized
d. When Already Demobilized

882. Bridge Span for Pre-cast?

a. 15-30 m
b. 13-30 m
c. 16-30 m
d. 12-25 m

883. 4005 bags of cement supplied to your project, how many samples will you make?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

884. ASTM Means?

a. American Society for Testing and Materials
b. American Society for Testing Materials
c. American Society and Testing Materials
d. American Society of Testing and Materials

885. How many seconds the Vibrator operate in one location?

a. 5
b. 10
c. 6
d. 15

886. In CHB Filling horizontal rebars is every ____ layers?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

887. What will be check to construct road at private land?

a. ROW
b. Roadway

110
c. Property line
d. Sidewalk

888. Where do you start to pour concrete in bridge? a.

1st Deck
b. Middle Deck
c. Last Deck
d. It depends to the situation of site.

889. When you install formworks, what is the important to check, except?
a. Installed RSB
b. Electrical wiring
c. Installed formworks
d. Utility Conduit Pipe

890. For Road User Warning, except?

a. Warning Sign
b. Dangerous Sign
c. Hazardous Sign
d. Chevron Sign

891. S-Curve ahead of Schedule?

a. January 28
b. February 28
c. March 28
d. March 25

892. For Road User Warning, except?

a. Warning Sign
b. Dangerous Sign
c. Hazardous Sign
d. Chevron Sign

893. In absence of Beam Sample, what is the compressive strength if cylinder sample is used?
a. 3000 psi
b. 3500 psi
c. 550 psi
d. 500 psi

894. What class of concrete for footing, pedestal, massive pier, shafts and small amount of
reinforced?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class P

895. What DPWH Team evaluates the contractors rating?

a. CFES
b. CPES
c. QAU
d. QAHD

111
896. Maximum allowed to national primary road?
a. 3.35 m
b. 3.5 m
c. 4.0 m
d. 3.0 m

897. How many Girder in Bridge in one lane?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 4

898. How many meters is the Free Haul Distance?

a. 500 m
b. 400 m
c. 750 m
d. 600 m

899. What is PCCP?

a. Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
b. Pozzolan Cement Concrete Pavement
c. Philippines Committee for Concrete Pavement
d. Philippines Cement Concrete Pavement

899. What is PCCP?

a. Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
b. Pozzolan Cement Concrete Pavement
c. Philippines Committee for Concrete Pavement
d. Philippines Cement Concrete Pavement

900. Test for RSB, except?

a. Elongation
b. Tensile Strength
c. Yield Strength
d. Axial Stress

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 10

901. Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should be taken on the _____ batch discharge of the
transit mixer?
a. First
b. Middle
c. Last
d. Second

902. Repainting of steel bridge is an activity under:

a. Special Maintenance
b. Preventive Maintenance
c. Routine Maintenance
d. Periodic Maintenance

903. Where do we base and reckon the computation of contract price escalation of a project that is
awarded thru public bidding?
a. Notice to proceed
b. Effectivity of the contract
112
c. Date of approval of the contract
d. Date of bidding

904. Which of the following items is not a structure of a dam?

a. Impervious fill
b. Random fill
c. Outlet protection works
d. Distribution canal

905. What is the least dimension of a parking slot for the disabled?
a. 3.70 m
b. 3.80 m
c. 2.70 m
d. 3.0 m

906. What is the minimum dimension of a PWD Toilet?

a.1.50 m
b. 1.80 m
c. 1.70 m
d. 1.20 m

907. What is the best way to provide for the convenience of both people in wheelchair and blind
persons?
a. Brightly painted zebra crossing
b.Tactile surface/blocks in the immediate vicinity of crossing.
c. Light controlled crossings with pedestrians phases and audible signals.
d. Railings

908. What is the minimum width for a hallway?

a. 1.20 m
b.1.50 m
c. 1.80 m
d. 2.0 m

909. What is the maximum distance of the building main entrance to the elevator?
a. 20 m
b. 30 m
c. 50 m
d. 45 m

910. What is the minimum dimension of an elevator door width?

a. 0.80 m
b. 0.90 m
c. 1.0 m
d. 1.1 m

911. What is the minimum size of an elevator car?

a. 1.10 m x 1.40 m
b. 1.20 m x 1.40 m
c. 1.40 m x 1.70 m
d. 1.50 m x 1.80 m

912. What is the minimum size of an elevator shaft?

a. 1.50 m x 1.80 m
b. 1.30 m x 1.60 m
113
c. 1.40 m x 1.70 m
d. 1.50 m x 2.0 m

913. Minimum door opening for elevators for a single door?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

914. What is the minimum size of Elevator Doors for the handicapped?
a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

915. What is the minimum Doorway width under BP 344?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

916. Under BP 344, walks should have _____ turn/groove in order to guide the blind?
a. 30 m
b. 40 m
c. 60 m
d. 90 m

917. Distance of parking for the disabled from building entrance?

a. 30 m
b. 40 m
c. 50 m
d. 60 m

918. What is the minimum width for parking slots of PWD?

a. 3.70 m
b. 3.80 m
c. 3.50 m
d. 3.0 m

919. For parking areas of PWD, a walkway between the front ends of parked cars shall have a
minimum clear width of ______?
a. 1.40 m
b. 1.10 m
c. 1.50 m
d. 1.20 m

920. Minimum entrance door opening?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

921. Minimum bedroom door opening?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
114
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

922. A circle of _______ in diameter is a suitable guide in the planning of wheelchair turning spaces?
a. 1.50 m
b. 1.80 m
c. 1.20 m
d. 1.60 m

923. Under the Accessibility Code, what is the maximum height of handrail?
a. 0.70 m
b. 0.75 m
c. 0.80 m
d. 0.90 m

924. What is the minimum width of a stair under BP 344?

a. 0.70 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 0.75 m

925. In PWD Toilet, the Lavatories vertical clearance?

a. 0.60 m - 0.70 m
b. 0.70 m - 0.80 m
c. 0.65 m - 0.75 m
d. 0.75 m - 0.85 m

926. From BP 344, what is the maximum width of a carriageway where a central refuge is no longer
required?
a. 4 m
b. 6 m
c. 8 m
d. 3 m

927.Handrails “attached to walls” should have a clearance from the wall 0f not less than?
a. 30 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 60 mm

928. School building construction beside of the cliff, has minimum distance of _______?
a. 3 m
b. 6 m
c. 5 m
d. 8 m

929. School building construction beside of the power lines, has minimum distance of _______?
a. 15 m
b. 20 m
c. 25 m
d. 30 m

930. School building construction beside of the tall trees, has minimum distance of _______?
a. Equal to the Length of the School Building
b. Equal to height of school building
115
c. Equal to the width of school building
d. Equal to the height of the tall trees

931. Roofing Installation in using Corrugated GI Sheets, J-Bolts is drilled @ every other?
a. 2 Corrugation
b. 2 1/2 Corrugation
c. 3 Corrugation
d. 3 1/2 Corrugation

932. What is the Cement/Sand ratio to achieve 1000 psi of a concrete spacer use in foundation?
a. 1:1
b. 1:4
c. 1:3
d. 1:2

933. Splicing for bottom bar of continuously reinforced concrete beam?

a. Within L/4 of span
b. At Midspan
c. At the Support or Near at Support
d. 0.50 m from the face of the support

934. What are the proper splicing both top bar and bottom bars in Cantilever Beam?
a. Top Bar and bottom bar are splice at support
b. Top bars and bottom bars are splice not at support
c. Avoid top bars splice at the support, only bottom bars
d. Both L/3 from the face of the support

935. What is the maximum height of placing concrete mixtures on the form shall be?
a. 2.5 m
b. 2.0 m
c. 1.5 m
d. 1.2 m

936. Cement/Sand ratio to achieve 500 psi strength of CHB, 25 pcs. For 15x20x40 and 30 pcs. For
10x20x40?
a. 1:3
b. 1:4
c. 1:5
d. 1:6

937. How many span of years for the history of river in designing of a bridge?
a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. 30 years
d. 50 years

938. What is the minimum RROW and Width of travel way (2 Lane) in National Highway?
a. 30 m & 6.70 m
b. 15 m & 6.10 m
c. 25 m & 6.70 m
d. 20 m & 6.70 m

939. What is the minimum RROW and Width of travel way (2 Lane) in Provincial Road?
a. 30 m & 6.70 m
b. 15 m & 6.10 m
116
c. 10 m & 3.35 m
d. 20 m & 6.70 m

940. What is the minimum RROW and Width of travel way (2 Lane) in Municipality/CIty Road?
a. 30 m & 6.70 m
b. 15 m & 6.10 m
c. 10 m & 3.35 m
d. 20 m & 6.70 m

941. Refer to roads linking the agriculture and fisheries production sites, coastal landing points and
post-harvest facilities to the market and arterial roads and highways.
a. Market to Farm Road
b. Road to my Farm
c. Farm to Market Road
d. Agricultural Road

942. Simplest form of road? a.

PCCP
b. Plain Road
c. Asphalt Concrete Pavement
d. Earth and Gravel Road

943. It is constructed along the side of the roadway to stabilize the slopes either above or below the
elevation of the roadway.
a. Gabion & Mattress
b. Gravity Structures
c. Slope Protection Structures
d. Drainage Structures

944. Discussion on specifications, unusual conditions, contractor’s plans and schedule of operation
and other pertinent items to be better familiarized with the project.
a. Pre-Construction Conference
b. Turn - Over Ceremony
c. Exit Conference
d. Preliminary Conference

945. Determines the actual position of the road structure based on the plans.
a. Preliminary Survey
b. As-Stake Survey
c. Road Survey
d. As-Built Survey

946. Plans that govern an infrastructure project, except?

a. Original Plans
b. As-Staked Plans
c. As-Built Plans
d. Revised Plans

947. It is a road by which a job is connected to the highway system and is generally used in
connection with borrow pits.
a. National Road
b. Temporary Road
c. Access Road
d. Detour Road

117
948. It diverts traffic from any existing roadway whenever the construction operations block the flow
of traffic.
a. National Road
b. Temporary Road
c. Access Road
d. Detour Road

949. Trees that are selected for preservation must be protected, while trees that are needed to be
cut/ball shall be identified by the _____.
a. Materials Engineer
b. Project Inspector
c. Resident Engineer
d. Project Engineer

950. In Removal of Structures and Obstructions - Pavement, Sidewalks, Curbs, etc. Shall be broken into
pieces, the size of which shall not exceed _____ in any dimension.
a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 300 mm
d. 400 mm

951. In Clearing and Grubbing, Clearing shall extend ____ beyond the toe of the fill slopes or beyond
rounding of cut slopes for the entire length and provided it is within the right of way limits of the
project.
a. 0.50 m
b. 0.80 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

952. During the progress of rolling, a minimum overlapped width of ________. Shall be observed for
each succeeding parallel pass to ensure level compacted surface.
a. 200 mm
b. 300 mm
b. 500 mm
b. 600 mm

953. Effective July 1, 2013, the use of slip-form paver with built-in or separate mechanical surface
texture finisher (broom finisher) shall b required for projects whose cost of Item 311-Portland Cement
Concrete Pavement is _________?
a. 30 M and Above
b. 50 M and Above
c. 75 M and Above
d. 60 M and Above

954. In Item 500, Mortar proportion for collaring is _____ with enough water to obtain the desired
consistency. The collar shall form a continuous bead around the outside of the pipe and finished
smooth on the inside (flushed).
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4
d. 1:1

118
955. The length of the weep-hole shall not be less than the thickness of the walls of the grouted riprap
structure and shall be at least _____ diameter PVC.
a. 32 mm
b. 40 mm
c. 50 mm
d. 75 mm

956. Traffic paint shall be applied to the pavement at the rate of ____ per square meter.
a. 0.63 liter
b. 0.53 liter
c. 0.33 liter
d. 0.43 liter

957. Posts shall be set vertically and where embedded in a concrete foundation block, shall remain
undisturbed for a minimum of _______.
a. 24 hrs.
b. 48 hrs.
c. 72 hrs.
d. 12 hrs.

958. The precast curb and gutter shall be ____ in length and shall be put side by side consecutively
with joint in between.
a. 2.0 m
b. 1.50 m
c. 0.90 m
d. 1.0 m

959. _________ prior to production, the contractor shall submit in writing a “job-mix formula”.
a. 3 weeks
b. 2 weeks
c. 28 days
d. 45 days

960. Serves to estimate the annual work quantities, resource requirements and standard costs
needed to meet Department’s objectives for roadway maintenance.
a. Scheduling
b. Reporting
c. Planning
d. Directing

961. Tiles shall have been laid in place for at least______ before grouting of the joints is started.
a. 4 hrs.
b. 12hrs.
c. 24 hrs.
d. 6 hrs.

962. What are the types of pier, except?

a. Solid Shaft
b. Mat Column
c. Pile Column
d. Spread Column

963. The set of logic requirements which are intended to assure public safety?
a. National Building Code
b. Office of the Building Official
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c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. National Structural Code of the Philippines

964. A type of pier used to avoid skewed piers or where there are space limitations as in highway.
a. Solid Shaft
b. Math Column
c. Pile Column
d. Single Column or T- Belt

965. What is the advisable maximum drop height of concrete?

a. 1.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 2.5 m
d. 3 m

966. Time allocation for Mobilization and Demobilization for up to 5M estimated direct cost of
project.
a. 5 C.D
b. 10 C.D
c. 20 C.D
d. 30 C.D

967. For DPWH projects Mobilization and Demobilization shall not exceed _____ of the Estimated
Direct Cost (EDC) of civil works items (as per D.O. 197, S. of 2016) with time duration as prescribed in
D.O. 44, Series of 2012.
a. 4 %
b.3 %
c. 2%
d. 1 %

968. Time allocation for Mobilization and Demobilization for 100 M to 150M estimated direct cost
of project.
a. 5 C.D
b. 10 C.D
c. 20 C.D
d. 30 C.D

969. Is best described as the deployment of resources at the project site. This also involves any work
that is necessary to provide access to the site including, but not limited to,grading, clearing and
grubbing.
a. Notice to Proceed
b. Preliminary Construction
c. Mobilization
d. Start of Construction

970. In CHB Filing, Lintel Beam to be provided at every _______.

a. 3 m
b. 4 m
c. 2.5 m
d. 3.5 m

971. Is a method of making a part of a structure impervious to water to protect the structure’s
integrity.
a. Plastering of CHB Walls
b. Waterproofing
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c. Retrofitting
d. Epoxy Ejection

972. For a construction of 50 workers, how many part-time/full-time safety man?

a. None
b. Only Project Engineer
c. 1 Part-time safety man
d. 1 Full-time safety man

973. The services of a certified first-aider when total number of workers is ____ or less.
a. 100
b. 75
c. 50
d. 30

974. As work progresses, at least one(1) set consisting of three(3) concrete beam test specimens,
150mm. x 150mm. x 525mm. Shall be taken every _____, or fraction thereof placed each day.
a. 30 cu.m
b. 50 cu.m
c. 75 cu.m
d. 150 cu.m

975. The services of a certified first-aider when total number of workers is ____ or less.
a. 100
b. 75
c. 50
d. 30

976. In PCCP tie bar use in longitudinal joint is ______?

a. Plain Round Bar
b. Deformed Bar
c. Square Bar
d. Shafting

977.What are true about Contraction Joint/Weakened Plane Joint, except?

a. Relieve tensile stresses
b. Prevents random cracking
c. No reinforcement required
d. Relieve Compression Stresses

978. What are true about Construction Joint/Cold Joint, except?

a. Interruption of 30 minutes on concreting operation
b. Placed at the contraction joint or with in the middle third of the concrete block
c. Use dowel bars (Plain round bars)
d. Use dowel bars (Deformed Bars)

979. It is a kind of bridge was adopted as standard Military Bridge in 1941?

a. Modular Bridge
b. Steel Bridge
c. Wooden Bridge
d. Bailey Bridge

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980. Progress payments are subjected to retention of ________ referred to as “retention money”.
a. 10 %
b. 15 %
c. 20 %
d. 5 %

981. How much is the maximum Advance Payment?

a. 10 %
b. 15 %
c. 20 %
d. 5 %

982. Also known as the shortest time possible to complete the project.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Critical Path
d. S-Curve

983. This will show work activities in accomplishing a project or a project component.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Critical Path
d. S-Curve

984. Use time lines and other symbols to illustrate scheduled completion of a project.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Critical Path
d. S-Curve

985. It is established by jointing the cumulative monthly accomplishment derived from the Bar Chart.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Cash Flow
d. S-Curve

986. It is predicted/projected/correlated from cumulative monthly target accomplishment in percent

along the duration of the project.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Cash Flow
d. S-Curve
987. It is predicted/projected/correlated from cumulative monthly target accomplishment in percent
along the duration of the project.
a. Pert/CPM and PDM Network
b. Bar Chart
c. Cash Flow
d. S-Curve

988. Tool also used to plan the timing of projects involving sequential activities but unlike
PERT/CPM, it can depict more than one interdependencies of each activity providing lag times and
lead times in between them.
a. PDM Network Diagram
b. Bar Chart

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c. PERT
d. CPM

989. Advantage of having Construction Schedule, except?

a. Evaluate/Review
b. Predict
c. Basis of Payment
d. Detect problems sufficiently in advance

990. It is the arrangement of construction work activities required by construction logic and
sequence.
a. Schedule
b. Construction Schedule
c. Construction Logic
d. Milestone/Event

991. In Item 310, the minimum IRS of mixture is _____?

a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80

992. In Item 310, the minimum dry compressive strength of mixture is _____?
a. 100 psi
b.150 psi
c. 200 psi
d. 250 psi

993. Is the most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous mixture.
a. Extraction and Grading Test
b. Job Mix Formula
c. Design of Bituminous Mixture
d. Marshall Stability Method

994. In Item 310, after final rolling, the degree of compaction should be checked. The compacted
pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater than _______ of the laboratory composed density.
a. 95
b. 96
c. 97
d. 98

995. It is used as to check the pavement surface at sites selected by the Engineer.
a. Steel Tape
b. Ruler
c. Metre
d. 3-m Straight Edge

996. The following are Common Field Test, except?

a. FDT
b. Slump Test
c. Core Specimen
d. CBR

123
997. In conducting Slump Test, how many stroke per layer?
a. 27
b. 25
c. 26
d. 24

998. The sand use in field density test in determining the hole using sand cone method must be clean,
dry and passing sieve number:
a. 10
b. 4
c. 30
d. 40

999. In Item 311, the diving line between coarse and fine aggregates is _______ mm sieve.
a. 9.5 mm sieve
b. 2.36 mm sieve
c. 4.75 mm sieve
d. 12.5 mm sieve

1000. Shotcrete shall be applied within ________ of adding cement to the mixtures.
a. 45 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 50 minutes

JGElano Materials & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 11 (May
4, 2019 Exam)

1001. Soil and Drainage pipes shall have a pitch of ______ per 300mm or case flatter than 3mm per
300mm.
a. 2mm
b. 5mm
c. 6mm
d. 8mm

1002. Which of the following measures is not part of a catch plan to put the back on the schedule?
a. Deployment of additional equipment
b. Assignment of an additional project manager
c. Adoption of 24/7 work schedule
d. Employment of higher technology

1003. A road section with a length of 30km was schedule to paint thermoplastic pavement marking
on October 2015, this section is located on in a low speed, low volume road. When shall be the next
schedule of application of thermoplastic marking?
a. October 2016
b. October 2017
c. October 2018
d. October 2019

1004. What is the appropriate splice location of reinforcing bars in reinforced of columns?
a. Within the middle third of the height of the column
b. 30 cm from the beam soffit
c. At the joint between beams and columns
d. Within 1.5m from the floor level

124
1005. The minimum amount of pavement widening on a curve shoulder
a. 300m
b. 400mm
c. 500mm
d. 600mm

1006. In the design guidelines, criteria and standard of ( DGCS) Recommended limits of span length
of different super structures for an span bridges for reinforced concrete girder ( DGCS) bridges,
recommended range of span in meters is __________.
a. 6 to 20
b. 8 to 21
c. 10 to 20
d. 15 to 24

1007. Which of the following requirement is NOT required as support document to “ as built plans”
a. Approved original plans
b. Approved “as stated plans”
c. Copy of approved contract
d. Copy of approved variation orders

1008. A requirement submitted by the contractors to the project engineer to a ascertain that the
procedure have been taken in accordance within the specific from the concreting works.
a. Quality control program
b. Certificate of quality control assurance
c. Pouring permit
d. Design mix

1009. When shall the repayment of advance project commence?

a. After 20% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
b. After 25% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
c. After 30% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
d. After 15% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed

1010. The minimum width of PWD Ramp?

a. 1200mm
b. 110Omm
c. 10OOmm
d. 900mm

1011. What is the minimum comprehensive strength of the concrete before tensioning and the
prestressing reinforcement?
a. 22 mpa
b. 25 mpa
c. 28 mpa
d. 30 mpa

1012. Forms for paving concrete shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than the ______hrs
after concrete pouring.
a. 12
b. 16
c.24
d. 30

125
1013. In constructing pre cast railings, moist tampered mortar precast member shall be removed
from the molds as soon as practicable and shall be kept damp for a period of _____ days.
a. 10
b. 14
c. 7
d. 5

1014. Which of the following refers to the termination of the contract for (DGCS) in infrastructure
project when the contactor has incurred a negative of 15% or more, or when the contract has
expired and has negative slippage of 10% or more?
a. Liquidated damages
b. Termination insolvency
c. Termination of default
d. Termination of convenience

1015. Which type of survey is undertaken when a proposed project land?

a. Bridge site survey
b. Highway location survey
c. Parcellary survey
d. Right of way survey

1016. What represents the over all structural requirement of a flexural needed to sustain the design
traffic loading?
a. CBR
b. Reliability
c. Serviceability
d. Structural numbers

1017. What is the minimum design life span of bridge years?

a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

1018. The traverse reinforcement in yielding, performance of reinforced concrete columns of

bridges, which mode of failure does this sieve?
a. Buckling of main reinforcement
b. Axial failure
c. Flexural yielding failure
d. Share failure

1019. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average
Strength is equal to
a. at least 85% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
b. at least 75% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
c. at least 85% of and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
d. at least 75% of and no single core is less than 85% of f’c

1020. In portal cement stabilized road mixed base coarse preparation the contractors shall not be
permitted to drive heavy equipment over completed portions prior to the end _____days during
period except pneumatic-tired equipment required for constructing adjoining sections.
a. 5
b. 10

126
c. 12
d. 21

1021. Strength for reinforcement concrete culvert pipes (RCCP) shall not calculated in terms of KN
per linear meter to produce ______mm crack ultimate road.
a. 0.2mm
b. 0.3mm
c. 0.4mm
d. 0.5mm

1022. It refers to the amount of time where by a successor activity can be delayed with respect to
the predecessor activity under a precedence diagram method ( PDM ).
a. Lag time
b. Lead time
c. Earliest time finish
d. NOTA

1023. A fixed time constraint between two events it is represented by hairpin curve arrows
a. Lead time
b. Lag time
c. Critical path
d. measuring

1024. A layer stone components of item 505 ( rip rap and grouted stone ) should be:
a. Laid with its largest axis perpendicular to the slope
b. Pitched to line along heads and joints
c. Laid with its face parallel of the walls
d. Measurably uniform with no projections more than 150m.

1025. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a. Liquidated damages
b. Termination for convenience
c. Termination for insolvency
d. Termination for unlawful act

1026. Max size of pipe for structural member?

a. 1/3
b. 1/2
c. 2/3
d. 1/4

1027. Absorb compressive stress on pavement?

a. Base course
b. embankment
c. Subbase
d. Aggregate base course

1028. Time allowed for the contractor to rectify finding during inspection
a. 10 days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days

127
1029. Which of the following statement is/are true in temporary pavement marking road works?
I. In some situation, temporary pavement marking may need by the used to guide users
through a worksite.
II. In a situation where existing pavement marking is not appropriate or misleading, lane
marking may be modified, but previous marking should be removed
III. Reflective pavement marking studs may also be used at long term worksite with conjunction
with changed pavement markings.
a. I only
b. III Only
c. II Only
d. I & II Only

1030. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding traffic controllers on a road
construction work area?
l. The traffic controller for a road site should stand approximately 50meters in advance of work area.
ll. Traffic controller may control traffic while seated lll. The traffic controller should be visible on
the curb side of shoulder clear of the travelled path view both the worksite and oncoming
traffic?
a. l only
b. lll only
c. ll only
d. l and ll only

1031. The Approach Clearance Area is a longitudinal safety buffer immediately in advance of the
work area that increases the protection and safety for workers. Generally, this clearance area should
have distance of:
a. 20-30 meters
b. 30-40 meters
c. 40-50 meters
d. 50-60 meters

1032. The _____ lateral safety buffer beside the work area that increase protection and safety for
workers.
a. Adjacent Clearance Area
b. Work Area
c. Approach Clearance Area
d. Termination Area

1033. Termination area is the area where traffic resumes normal operations after the worksite. The
following are the signs that would be located in this area, as applicable, except:
a. End roadwork (T2-19)
b. Prepare to stop (T1-18 )
c. End detour (T2-23 )
d. End speed restriction (R4-12)

1034. In dredging works, what is the preferred side slope ( vertical to horizontal ) between original
bottom and the indicated dredging level of a clay materials.
a. 1 to 4
b. 1 to 6
c. 1 to 5
d. 1 to 3

128
1035. The repeated operation of fine grading and compacting the full width of the roadway prior to
undertaking any overlying structural layer is_______
a. embankment
b. subgrade preparation
c. structure excavation
d. base preparation

1036. What is the required side lapping for corrugated G.I. sheets?
a. 1 corrugation
b. 2 corrugation
c. 1 ½ corrugation
d. 2 ½ corrugation

1037. If the project reaches of an accomplishment of ninety five ( 95% ) of the total contract amount,
what does the Inspectorate Team submit to the contractor in preparation for the final turnover of
the project?
a. Progress Billing
b. Punch list
c. Certificate of Completion
d. As-built Plan

1038. How many pieces of standard size Concrete Hollow Blocks ( CHB ) for one square meter area
of CHB wall?
a. 12
b. 13
c. 12.5
d. 13.5

1039. The maintenance work for a newly completely concrete road project shall commence on the:
a. project completion date
b. end of the warranty period
c. date of project acceptance
d. date of project turnover

1040. Preventive maintenance works shall include all following activities, except:
a. concrete reblocking
b. path hole patching
c. asphalt overlay
d. slope protection works

1041. Methods of rolling / compacting asphalt?

a. From the center of the roadway
b. from side of shoulder to center of the roadway
c. From center of lane to side of shoulder
d. From center of lane to center of the roadway

1042. If the surface is sloping, where should the asphalt application start?
a. High
b. Middle
c. Low
d. NOTA

129
1043. Responsible for logbooks, S –Curves’
a. Project Engineer
b. Project Inspector
c. Materials Engineer
d. Resident Engineer

1044.The higher the penetration , the asphalt is

a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Fluid
d. NOTA

1045. Consideration of road for sight distance?

a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Moist
d. Saturated

1046. What happen when the critical activities is delayed?

a. The critical activities is delayed
b. No effect to the project
c. Project is delayed
d. NOTA

1047. Testing conducted for CHB, except

a. Compressive
b. Moisture content
c. Air content
d. Absorption

1048. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge
of the designed width should be?
a. 1m
b. 2m
c. 3m
d. 4m

1049. Normally sawing of concrete of joints commence given that the concrete has hardened
sufficiently?
a. 2/24
b. 1/24
c. 4/24
d. 3/24

1050. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period
________after it has been placed?
a. 7 Days
b. 14 Days
c. 21 Days
d. 28 Days

130
1051.To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than ______?
a. 30mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 75mm

1052. What do you call the process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make
then denser and grow straight?
a. Pruning
b. Grafting
c. Felling
d. Budding

1053. Immediately after removal of forms on concrete pavement the side are saturated with water
then rubbed and finished with mortar primarily to:
a. Seal water cracks
b. Fill all voids and eliminate honeycombs
c. Remove protruding aggregates
d. Eliminate joints

1054. What is the technical term for the slight convexity required in the construction of bridges and
is provide to compensate for dead load deflection?
a. Arc
b. Cantilever
c. Camber
d. Caisson

1055. Which of the following is not included in the exploration of foundation strata?
a. Driving Test Rod
b. Drilling Test Hole
c. Boring with auger
d. Nuclear Density Test

1056. What is the technical term for a bridge abutment that sits high up on the river bank?
a. Bank Seat
b. Caisson
c. Ballast Wall
d. Wing wall

1057. What is the usual measure undertaken to stop a river for charging its path?
a. Shore protection works
b. Bank seat
c. River training works
d. wing wall

1058. Splicing for top bar of continuously reinforced concrete beam?

a. L/3
b. L/4
c. Midspan
d. NOTA

131
1059.130 Tones bituminous material, how many kilograms is needed for the testing?
a. 10kg
b. 20kg
c. 15kg
d. 25kg

1060. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is?
a. Prime Coat
b. Seal coat
c. Tack coat
d. NOTA

1062. The application of liquid asphaltic material to an existing surface of base.

a .Prime Coat
b. Seal coat
c. Tack coat
d. NOTA

1063. Which of the following is not considered as slope protection work?

a. Piled walls
b. Stone pitching
c. Gabions
d. Cofferdams

1064. When concrete piles are lifted or moved , they should be supported at what point?
point
a. Quarter point
b. Mid-point
c. Third point
d. both ends

1065. Which of the following items is not a structured of dam?

a. Impervious fill
b. Outlet protection works
c. Random fill
d. Distribution canal

1066. The moisture density relation test determines the.

a. Natural water content
b. Degree of compaction
c. Maximum dry density
d. Organic content

1067. In the Memorandum Circular No. 38 dated 12 November 1981,. a certificate of Quality Control
Assurance ( CQCA ) should be accomplished.
a. Daily
b. Weekly
c. Monthly
d. Yearly

1068. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a. 0.5 meter long
b. 1.5 meter
c. 1.0 meter

132
d. 2.0 meter long

1069. For a compacted pavement, what does the stability value in the Marshall test measure.
a. Cohesion resistance
b. Diametric distortion
c. Resistance to displacement
d. Skid resistance

1070. What should the Resident Engineer do when an asphalt pavement under construction attains
a density of 85% at the time of compaction?
a. Require the contractor to spread additional bituminous mixture and compact it to the required
density
b. Require the Materials Engineer to redesign the Job-Mix Formula
c. Require additional rolling until the minimum density requirement is attained
d. Require the contractor to replace the roller

The Plasticity Index ( PI ) required for item 201, Aggregate Base Course materials, should not be
greater than:
a. 8%
b. 12%
c. 6%
d. 9%

1072. Adequate compaction of item 201 will result to which of the following:
a. greater stability
b. greater resistance to water absorption
c. decrease in the thickness of base course
d. A and B.

1073. Under item 310 , the asphalt content of bituminous mix on the basis of total dry aggregate
should be between:
a. 4% to 8%
b. 5% to 8%
c. 3% to 5%
d. 5% to 7%

1074. Which of the following statements is/ are not true regarding traffic controllers on a
construction work area?
I. The traffic controller for a roadwork site should stand approximately 50 meters advance of work
area
II. Traffic controller may control traffic while seated
III. The traffic controller should be visible on the curb side of shoulder clear of the travel path to
view both the worksite and oncoming traffic.
a. I only
b. III only
c. II only
d. I and II

1075. The _______ shall monitor all ongoing projects being unimplemented by the Department and
reported that contractor/s and implementing offices who are not observing / implementing the
Road Works Safety and Traffic Management and Construction Survey and Health requirements.
a. Bureau of Construction
b. Bureau of Design
c. Bureau of Quality and Safety

133
d. Bureau of Maintenance

1076. When constructing along the road, there are possible choices of traffic control, one of which is
by the use of traffic controller/flagmen. Which of the following would not need flagmen to control
the movement of traffic at worksite?
I. Where one lane of a two-way road or bridge is closed.
II. Where distance to the work sites is limited.
III. Where traffic is directed through red traffic signals.
IV. Where construction machinery regularly closes or enters a road. V. Where there is a need to slow
the traffic down to an acceptable.
a. I and II only
b. III only
c. V only
d. I, II, III and IV

1077. For general construction work, the required basic PPEs for all workers shall be Safety Helmet,
Safety Gloves and Safety Shoes. Specialized PPEs shall be provide to workers in addition to or in lieu
of the corresponding basic PPE as the work or activity requires. Which of the following specialized
PPE should be given for workers involved of pouring of concrete, if workers hands may have contact
with fresh concrete?
a. Chemical Resistant Gloves
b. Heat Resistant Gloves
c. Occupational safety
d. High visibility gloves

1078. The _________ refers to a set of detailed rules to cover processes and practices that should be
utilized in a specific construction site including the personnel responsible and the penalties for the
violation thereof,
a. Occupational Safety and Health Standard
b. Construction Safety and Health Standard
c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. Construction Safety and Health Program

1079. This Department Order set the guidelines, rules and procedure to be followed by all concerned
in the implementation of DOLE D.O. No. 13 series of 1998 otherwise known as the Guidelines
Governing Occupational Safety and Health in the Construction Industry, with emphasis in the
methodology to be used in estimating the cost of construction safety and health program as
required in this section 17.
a. D.O. 56, series of 2003
b. D.O. 56 series of 2004
c. D. O. 56 series of 2005
d. D.O. 56 series of 2006

1080. Road work signs shall be installed before work starts in the following sequence.
a. Advance Warning, Driver Instruction Signs, Other Warning Signs
b. Advance Warning, Other Warning Signs, Driver Instruction Signs
c. Driver Instruction Signs, Advance Warning, Other Warning Signs
d. Other Warning Signs, , Advance Warning, Driver Instruction Signs

1081. A ________ shifts a line traffic sideways where the traffic must join with another line of traffic
travelling in the same direction.
a. Merge Taper
b. Lateral Merge Taper
c. Lateral Shift Taper
d. Merge Shift Taper
134
1082. Which of the following road classification is proposed for road corridor connecting several
highway urbanized centers with ribbon-type of development of commercial business and industrial
establishment?
a. national road
b. arterial road
c. expressway
d. Provincial road

1083. The following are important elements to consider for barangay roads except;
a. Vehicle flows to be kept minimum
b. All through traffic eliminated
c. Pedestrians and vehicles can share space
d. Parking and stopping within streets are prohibited

1084. An acacia tree was found protruding the carriageway of a newly widened national road.
Frequent night-time road crashes were noticed to be associated by the presence of this tree. What is
the best solution for this problem?
a. Install hazard markers on the tree to make it visible at night
b. Install bollards
c. Install light poles
d. Remove tree

1085. The following are the communication principles for a good signage and markings except;
a. Conspicuous
b. Clear
c. Concise
d. Comprehensible

1086. The _______ is an area where drivers are redirected out of their normal path of travel if a
roadway needs to be partially closed due to road works.
a. Transition area
b. Approach clearance area
c. Advanced road work area
d. Transitory area

1087. The depth of weakened plane joints should not less than:
a. 45mm
b. 50mm
c. 60mm
d. 75mm

1088. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut to a
depth of:
a. 100mm
b. 150mm
c. 200mm
d. 250mm

1089. In the DPWH Standard Specifications, What is the item no. of excavation?
a. 100
b. 102
c. 104
d. 105

135
1090. When a project is delayed, and the contractor desired to complete the project on time, he may
submit to approval;
a. Request for time extension
b. Catch –up schedule
c. Request for variation order
d. Revised S-curve

1091. Which of the following is not a result of poor materials control in a project?
a. Wastage and breakages
b. Inflation
c. Theft and loss
d. Short delivers

1092. What do you call the complementary drawings prepared by a contractor or supplier which
how specific structural elements or items of equipment are to be fabricated and installed?
a. Method specification
b. Supplemental plans
c. Shop drawing
d. Catalog drawing

1093. When will the certificate of Final Inspection be issued?

a. after the supervision team has conducted final inspection
b. after the inter-bureau committee has conducted inspection
c. after the contractor has submitted the final inspection
d. after the one-year warranty period

1094. Unbalanced bid items should be paid in full when subject major item has been completed and
the entire project is:
a. 20% completed
b. 70% completed
c. 50% completed
d. 80% completed

1095. If the minimum compressive strength for concrete class A concrete is 20.7 mpa, what is the
minimum compressive strength for concrete class C?
a. 16.5MPA
b. 28.5MPA
c. 20.7 MPA
d. 37.7 MPA

1096. Pile cap dimension from sheet pile

a. 100mm
b. 150mm
c. 250mm
d. 300mm

1097. 200mm thk. aggregate sub base course to compact each layer
a. 1 layer
b. 2 layer
c. 3 layer
d. 4 layer

136
1098.CHB rebar horizontal location at every?
a. 1 layer
b. 2 layer
c. 3 layer
d. 4layer

1099. When you poured at single lane of concrete pavement

a. 5OO Ln.m
b. 1000 ln.m
c. 400 ln.mp
d. 900 Ln.m

1100. Deficiency of asphalt a.

1%
b. 3%
c. 2%
d. 4%

1101.River trimming structure constructed along and perpendicular to the banks of river these
structures are called
a. Revetment
b. Spur dike
c. Guide banks
d. Embankment

1102. For the installation of sheet pile the joint between the piles shall be practically ________w/n
the piles are in place.
a. Welded
b. Watertight
c. Galvanized
d. Dirt Free

1103. How many bags of Portland cement (40kgs) is required for 1 cubic meter of class A (20.7)
concrete
a. 8
b. 9.1
c. 9.5
d. 11

1104. A project 2120 bags 0f Portland cement. How many quantity test is/are required.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1105. What is the allowable tolerance for dredging work?

a. 100mm
b. 200mm
c. 300mm
d. 400mm

137
1106. What is the simplest type of bridge super structure for a concrete bridge with a span of 12
meters?
a. Reinforced concrete deck girder
b. flat slab
c. Short Deck Slab
d. Pre- stressed Concrete Girder and slab

1107. The frequency for the quality control sampling and testing is established in the
a. DPWH standard specification
b. Approved quality control program
c. Approved Program of Work
d. Certificate of Quality Control Assurance

1108. What is the maximum road gradient of bridge approach?

a. 6%
b. 8%
c. 9%
d. 12%

1109 .Min earth cover of RC PIPES laid horizontally from the natural ground
a. 150MM
b. 200MM
c. 300MM
d. 400MM

1110. How often can progress payment be requested by the contractors

a. Once a month
b. Twice a month
c. For every 3 months
d. Once a year

1111. The warranty period of structural defect on permanent structure is equivalent to how many
years.
a. 1YR
b. 5YRS
c. 15 YRS
d. 20YRS

1112. Each pile after driving shall be with ___ mm from theoretical location underneath pile cap.
a. 100MM
b. 150MM
c. 250MM
d. 300MM

1113. The asphalt pavement represented by the core shall not be accepted if the deficiency in the
average thickness is more than ___mm?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 10

138
1114. If the minimum compressive strength for concrete class A is 20.7, what is the minimum
compressive strength for concrete class C.
a. 16.5MPA
b. 20.7MPA
c. 37.7MPA
d. 37.7MPA

1115. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate in their average
strength is equal to.
a. at least 85% and no single core is less than 85% of f’c
b. at least 75% and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
c. at least 85% and no single core is less than 75% of f’c
d. at least 75% and no single core is less than 85% of f’c

1116. The allowable temperature of asphalt mix prior to spreading

a. 105
b. 107
c. 135
d. 180

1117. What joint to be used when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes during
concreting operation?
a. Transverse expansion joint
b. Weakened plane joint
c. transverse construction joint
d. Tranversed contraction joint

1118. The vertical clearance above the roadway shall not be less than
a. 4.88
b. 5.03
c. 5.35
d. 6.03

1119. Under which of the following condition must a change order not be used?
a. Where there is decrease in work due to deletion of work items
b. Where there is re classification of item of works
c. Where the aggregate cost has increased and is limited to 25% of the original cost
d. Where there is increase in cost in construction material

1120. Pier, abutment what type of structure?

a. Super structure
b. Sub structure
c. Structure
d. Design structure

1121. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction

a. Density Test
b. Core boring test
c. CBR
d. Dynamic Cone Penetrometer

1122. 130 tons of bituminous material how many sample should be taken
a. 20KG
b. 30KG

139
c. 40KG
d. 50KG

1123. Which of the following is not a flood damage mitigation measure.

a. reduction of peak flow by reservoirs
b. confinement of the flow by levees
c. flood plain management
d. Highway drainage

1124. The area of slab for which no payment will be made shall be product of the paving width
multiplied by the distance along the centerline of the road between transverse section found not
deficient in thickness by more than.
a. 3MM
b. 5MM
c. 20MM
d. 25MM

1125. Immediately after the finishing operations have been completed and the concrete has
sufficiently set the entire surface of the newly placed concrete shall be cured in accordance with
other one of the methods except?
a. Cotton burlaps Mats
b. Straw curing
c. Rice hull
d. Curing Compound

1126. Burlaps mat shall be maintained fully wetted and in position for ____ hrs the concrete has
been placed.
a. 48HRS
b. 72HRS
c. 24HRS
d. 36HRS

1127. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is

a. Prime coating
b. Seal coating
c. Tack coating
d. NOTA

1128. The application of liquid asphaltic material to an existing surface of a base

a. Tack coating
b. Prime coating
c. Seal coating
d. NOTA

1129. The rate of application of tack coating using liquid or emulsified asphalt is
a. 0.2 -0.7 LITERS SQ. M
b. 0.1 -0.5 LITERS/ SQ.M
c. 1.5 -3.0 LITERS/ SQ.M
d. 2.0 -3.0 LITERS/ SQ.M

1130. The minimum percent compaction for base of the road

a. 100%
b. 105%
c. 95%

140
d. 80%

1131. Soil and Drainage pipes shall have a pitch of ______ per 3mm per 300mm.
a. 2mm
b. 5mm
c. 6mm
d. 8mm

1132. Which of the following measures is not part of a catch plan to put the back on the schedule?
a. Deployment of additional equipment
b. Assignment of an additional project manager
c. Adoption of 24/7 work schedule
d. Employment of higher technology

1133. A road section with a length of 30km was schedule to paint thermoplastic pavement marking
on October 2015, this section is located on in a low speed, low volume road. When shall be the next
schedule of application of thermoplastic marking?
a. October 2016
b. October 2017
c. October 2018
d. October 2019

1134. The CBR value of aggregate sub-base is not less than______.

a. 25
b. 30
c. 80
d. 100

1135. Vibrators shall operate at a frequency of 8300 to 9600 impulse per a minute under load at a
maximum spacing of ________ cm.
a. 30 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 50 cm
d. 60 cm

1136. The minimum compaction for embankment .

a. 92%
b. 95%
c. 97%
d. 100%

1137. What is the appropriate splice location of reinforcing bars in reinforced of columns?
a. Within the middle third of the height of the column
b. 30 cm from the beam soffit
c. At the joint between beams and columns
d. Within 1.5m from the floor level

1138. The minimum amount of pavement widening on a curve shoulder

a. 300m
b. 400mm
c. 500mm
d. 600mm

141
1139. In the design guidelines, criteria and standard of ( DGCS) Recommended limits of span length
of different super structures for an span bridges for reinforced concrete girder ( DGCS) bridges,
recommended range of span in meters is __________.
a. 6 to 20
b. 8 to 21
c. 10 to 20
d. 15 to 24

1140. In asphalting works, there are ________ phases of rolling.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1141. What is the minimum end laps for corrugated G.I. sheet.
a. 100mm
b. 150mm
c. 250mm
d. 300mm

1142. The depth of weakened plane joints should not be less than.
a. 45mm
b. 50mm
c. 60mm
d. 75mm

1143. Which of the following requirement is NOT required as support document to “ as built plans”
a. Approved original plans
b. Approved “as stated plans”
c. Copy of approved contract
d. Copy of approved variation orders

1144. A requirement submitted by the contractors to the project engineer to a ascertain that the
procedure have been taken in accordance within the specific from the concreting works.
a. Quality control program
b. Certificate of quality control assurance
c. Pouring permit
d. Design mix

1145. When shall the repayment of advance project commence?

a. After 20% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
b. After 25% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
c. After 30% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed
d. After 15% of contract works, excluding the provisional sum is completed

1146. The repeated operation of fine grading and compacting the full width of the roadway to
undertaking any overlying structural layer is__________.
a. subgrade preparation
b. embankment
c. structural excavation
d. base preparation

142
1147. What is the required side lapping for corrugated G.I. sheet.
a. 1 corrugation
b. 1 ½ corrugation
c. 2 corrugation
d. 2 ½ corrugation

1148. How many pieces of standard size of concrete hollow block ( CHB ) for one square meter area
of CHB wall.
a. 12
b. 12.5
c. 13
d. 13.5

1149. Bearing capacity test shall be conducted at locations as specified in the plans or as designated
by the project engineer to determine_____?
a. Check pile length
b. Check the actual bearing capacity
c .Check the actual volume
d. NOTA

1150. What is the minimum comprehensive strength of the concrete before tensioning and the
prestressing reinforcement?
a. 22 mpa
b. 25 mpa
c. 28 mpa
d. 30 mpa

1151. Forms for paving concrete shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than the ______hrs
after concrete pouring.
a. 12
b. 16
c. 24
d. 30

1152. Which of the following statement is/are true in temporary pavement marking road works?
I. In some situation, temporary pavement marking may need by the used to guide users
through a worksite.
II. In a situation where existing pavement marking is not appropriate or misleading, lane
marking may be modified, but previous marking should be removed
III. Reflective pavement marking studs may also be used at long term worksite with conjunction
with changed pavement markings.
a. I ONLY
b. II ONLY
c. III ONLY
d. I & II ONLY

1153. Which of the following statement is/are true regarding traffic controllers on a road
construction work area?
l. The traffic controller for a road site should stand approximately 50meters in advance of work area.
ll. Traffic controller may control traffic while seated
lll. The traffic controller should be visible on the curb side of shoulder clear of the travelled path view
both the worksite and oncoming traffic?
a. l only
b. ll only
c. III only
143
d. l and ll only

1154. When constructing along the road, there are possible choices of traffic control, one of which is
by the use of traffic controller/flagmen. Which of the following would not need flagmen to control
the movement of traffic at worksite?
I. Where one lane of a two-way road or bridge is closed.
II. Where distance to the work sites is limited.
III. Where traffic is directed through red traffic signals.
IV. Where construction machinery regularly closes or enters a road.
V. Where there is a need to slow the traffic down to an acceptable.
a. I and II only
b. V only
c. III only
d. I, II, III and IV

1155. The _________ refers to a set of detailed rules to cover processes and practices that should be
utilized in a specific construction site including the personnel responsible and the penalties for the
violation thereof,
a. Occupational Safety and Health Standard
b. Construction Safety and Health Standard
c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. Construction Safety and Health Program

1156. Sawing of the joint shall commence as soon as the concrete hardened sufficiently to permit
sawing without excessive raveling.
a. 1/ 24
b. 2/24
c. 3/24
d. 4/24

1157. Transverse construction joint shall be constructed when there is an interruption of more than
______ minutes in concreting operation.
a. 30 minutes
b. 45 minutes
c. 60 minutes
d. 90 minutes

1158. The transverse joint shall be constructed within _________.

a. 1 m
b. 1.5 m
c. 2 m
d. 2.5 m

1159. In constructing pre cast railings, moist tampered mortar precast member shall be removed
from the molds as soon as practicable and shall be kept damp for a period of _____ days.
a. 10
b. 14
c. 7
d. 6

1160. Which of the following refers to the termination of the contract for (DGCS) in infrastructure
project when the contactor has incurred a negative of 15% or more, or when the contract has
expired and has negative slippage of 10% or more?
a. Liquidated damages
b. Termination insolvency
144
c. Termination of default
d. Termination of convenience

1161. Which type of survey is undertaken when a proposed project land?

a. Bridge site survey
b. Highway location survey
c. Parcellary survey
d. Right of way survey

1162. What represents the over all structural requirement of a flexural needed to sustain the design
traffic loading?
a. CBR
b. Reliability
c. Serviceability
d. Structural numbers

1163. The asphalt pavement represented by the core shall be accepted if deficiency in density is
more than ______?
a. 2%
b. 3%
c. 4%
d. 5%

1164. The length of a ramp should not exceed 6.0m if the gradient is____ longer ramps whose
gradient is _____ shall be provided with landing not less than_____.
a. 1.0m& 1:10
b. 1.10m & 1:10
c. 1.2m&1:12
d. 1.5m& 1:12

1165. If the design thickness of aggregate sub base course is 200mm. In how many layers may be the
material be spread and compacted?
a. 1 layer
b. 2 layer
c. 3 layer
d. 4 layer

1166. 17. What is the minimum design life span of bridge years?
a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

1167. The traverse reinforcement in yielding, performance of reinforced concrete columns of

bridges, which mode of failure does this sieve?
a. Buckling of main reinforcement
b. Axial failure
c. Flexural yielding failure
d. Share failure

1168. A fixed time constraint between two events it is represented by hairpin curve arrows
a. Lead time
b. Lag time
c. Critical path

145
d. Measuring

1169. Being a project inspector you are asked to monitor the ongoing construction of a revetment
.Which of the following should have the highest elevation.
a. Head Wall
b. Maximum experience flood level
c. Existing bank level
d.Flood Wall

1170. What is the minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe
a. 75mm
b. 100mm
c. 125mm
d. 150mm

1171. Most common pile hammer used in the Philippines

a. Jack hammer
b. Drop Hammer
c. Diesel hammer
d. NOTA

1172. Pile integrity test shall be conducted on at least______

a. 35% of total # of bored pile
b. 40% of total # of bored pile
c. 45% of total # of bored pile
d. 50% of total # of bored pile

1173. Standard size of CHB

a. 15X30cm
b. 20X30cm
c. 20X40cm
d. 15X40cm

1174. In flood design structure pccp, box culvert, roads, rcpc

a. 1O YRS
b. 15 YRS
c. 20 YRS
d. 25 YRS

1175. Mortar for grouted rip rap shall be consist of sand,gravel,cement and water
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4
d. 1:5

1176. Where should stop line be placed at 4 legged road

a. Exit
b. Entry
c. Exit and Entry
d. NOTA

1177. What is the minimum width of PWD ramp

a. 0.8m
b. 1.10m

146
c. 0.9m
d. 1.20m

1178. In Portland cement stabilized road mixed base coarse preparation the contractors shall not be
permitted to drive heavy equipment over completed portions prior to the end _____days during
period except pneumatic-tired equipment required for constructing adjoining sections.
a. 5
b. 10
c. 12
d. 21

1179. Strength for reinforcement concrete culvert pipes (RCCP) shall not calculated in terms of KN
per linear meter to produce ______mm crack ultimate road.
a. 0.2mm
b. 0.3mm
c. 0.4mm
d. 0.5mm

1180. It refers to the amount of time where by a successor activity can be delayed with respect to
the predecessor activity under a precedence diagram method ( PDM ).
a. Lag time
b. Lead time
c. Earliest time finish
d. NOTA

1181. What is the standard weight of 6m long, 12mm diameter RSB graded 40?
a. 3.69
b. 3.77
c. 4.37
d. 5.34

1182. After a typhoon , a dam measuring 250meters suffered a 40 meters breach equivalent to 4.8
billion. You found out that is impossible to close the gap before the onset of rainy months . Which
may result in total collapse of dam if you are the new project engineer what will you do.
a. Risk 3 shift operation to attain maximum accomplishment
b. Suspend the project and resume after the rainy months
c. Armor the breached section with gabions mattress and spur dike to utilize gap as diversion
channel
d. Introduce a crash program sacrificing quality

1183. How many core sample should be taken for thickness determination of a 2 kilometer concrete
road pavement?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 30
d. 40

1184. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the materials
and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor will use?
a. About 500 sq.m.
b. About 400 sq.m.
c. About 100 sq.m.
d. About 600 sq.m.

147
1185. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a. Liquidated damages
b. Termination for convenience
c. Termination for insolvency
d. Termination for unlawful act

1186. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly set
concrete pavement should not be more than
a. 6.0mm
b. 1.5mm
c. 3.0mm
d. 2.5mm

1187. In laying stone components of item 505 (riprap & grouted rip rap) each stone should be
a. Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b. Pitch to line along the beds and joints
c. laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d. Reasonably uniform with no projection than 150mm

1188. DPWH Department Order No. 47 series of 2015 requires international roughness index (IRI)
values of not more than _____for both asphalt and pavement for National Primary Roads.
a. 2.00 m/Km
b. 2.50 m/Km
c. 3.00 m/ Km
d. 3.5 m/ Km

1189. Depth of exploration for highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special
problems should extend to maximum depth of _________.
a. 1.0 m below bottom slope
b. 1.5m below the proposed subgrade
c. 2.0m below the proposed subgrade ito answer mo bro
d. 3.0m below the proposed subgrade

1190. On slopping surface concrete should placed starting at _________.

a. top of slope
b. bottom of slope
c. middle of slope
d. any part of the slope

1191. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a. 300mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b. 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c. 15 times the diameter of the pipe
d. just enough to put the pipe

1192. Resurfacing of unpaved shoulder that has settled or been eroded by the traffic and water
activity under ______________.
a. preventive maintenance
b. routing maintenance
c. periodic maintenance
d. special maintenance

148
1193. The temperature of a 5.00 a.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 degrees
lowest than the required compaction temperature of the submitted job mix formula. As resident
engineer of the project, what decision should you take?
a. allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered,
b. advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only,
c. reject the delivered material
d. adjust the job mix formula

1194. In pile driving what is the minimum penetration of pile in firm material?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 5
d. NOTA

1195. For the third point loading method FS requirement is equal?

a. 3.8MPA
b. 4.5MPA
c. 3500PSI
d. 4500PSI

1196. Max size of pipe for structural member?

a. 1/3
b. 1/2
c. 2/3
d. 1/4

1197. Absorb compressive stress on pavement?

a. Base course
b. embankment
c. SUBBASE
d. Subgrade

1198. What happen when the critical activities is delayed?

a. The critical activities is delayed
b. No effect to the project
c. Project is delayed
d. NOTA

1199. Splicing for top bar of continuously reinforced concrete beam?

a. L/3
b. L/4
c. MIDSPAN
d. NOTA

1200 .With in___ calendar days the contractor has commenced work or within ______calendar days
after the circumstances or reasons justifying a claim for extra cost shall be occurred.
a. 5/25
b. 7/28
c. 14/28
d. 15/30

JGElano Material & Project Engineer Reviewer in Quiz App and Ref. - PE Quiz Set 13
(February 22, 2020 Exam)

149
1201. For the installation of sheet pile the joint between the piles shall be practically ________w/n
the piles are in place.
a. Welded
b. Watertight
c. Galvanized
d. Dirt Free

1202. How many bags of Portland cement (40kgs) is required for 1 cubic meter of class A (20.7)
concrete
a. 8
b. 9.1
c. 9.5
d. 11

1203. The allowable temperature of asphalt mix prior to spreading

a. 105
b. 107
c. 135
d. 180

1204. Pier, abutment what type of structure?

a. Super structure
b. Sub structure
c. Structure
d. Design structure

1205. Burlaps mat shall be maintained fully wetted and in position for ____ hrs the concrete has
been placed.
a. 48 hrs.
b. 72 hrs.
c. 24 hrs.
d. 36 hrs.

1206. The minimum amount of pavement widening on a curve shoulder

a. 300m
b. 400mm
c. 500mm
d. 600mm

1207. What is the required side lapping for corrugated G.I. sheet.
a. 1 corrugation
b. 1 ½ corrugation
c. 2 corrugation
d. 2 ½ corrugation

1208. How many pieces of standard size of concrete hollow block ( CHB ) for one square meter area
of CHB wall.
a. 12
b. 12.5
c. 13
d. 13.5

150
1209. The _________ refers to a set of detailed rules to cover processes and practices that should be
utilized in a specific construction site including the personnel responsible and the penalties for the
violation thereof,
a. Occupational Safety and Health Standard
b. Construction Safety and Health Standard
c. Occupational Safety and Health Program
d. Construction Safety and Health Program

1210. Sawing of the joint shall commence as soon as the concrete hardened sufficiently to permit
sawing without excessive raveling.
a. 1/ 24
b. 2/24
c. 3/24
d. 4/24

1211. What is the minimum design life span of bridge years?

a. 20
b. 30
c. 40
d. 50

1212. Most common pile hammer used in the Philippines

a. Jack hammer
b. Drop Hammer
c. Diesel hammer
d. NOTA

1213. Standard size of CHB

a. 15X30cm
b. 20X30cm
c. 20X40cm
d. 15X40cm

1214. Mortar for grouted rip rap shall be consist of sand,gravel,cement and water
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 1:4
d. 1:5

1215. What is the required area of the trial section needed to check the suitability of the materials
and efficiency of the equipment and construction method the contractor will use?
a. About 500 sq.m.
b. About 400 sq.m.
c. About 100 sq.m.
d. About 600 sq.m.

1216. What happen when the critical activities is delayed?

a. The critical activities is delayed
b. No effect to the project
c. Project is delayed
d. NOTA

151
1217. With in___ calendar days the contractor has commenced work or within ______calendar days
after the circumstances or reasons justifying a claim for extra cost shall be occurred.
a. 5/25
b. 7/28
c. 14/28
d. 15/30

1218. What represents the over all structural requirement of a flexural needed to sustain the design
traffic loading?
a. CBR
b. Reliability
c. Serviceability
d. Structural numbers

1219. In dredging works, what is the preferred side slope ( vertical to horizontal ) between original
bottom and the indicated dredging level of a clay materials.
a. 1 to 4
b. 1 to 6
c. 1 to 5
d. 1 to 3

1220. If the project reaches of an accomplishment of ninety five ( 95% ) of the total contract amount,
what does the Inspectorate Team submit to the contractor in preparation for the final turnover of
the project?
a. Progress Billing
b. Punch list
c. Certificate of Completion
d. As-built Plan

1221. Methods of rolling / compacting asphalt?

a. From the center of the roadway
b. from side of shoulder to center of the roadway
c. From center of lane to side of shoulder
d. From center of lane to center of the roadway

1222.The higher the penetration , the asphalt is

a. Soft
b. Hard
c. Fluid
d. NOTA

1223. Consideration of road for sight distance?

a. Dry
b. Wet
c. Moist
d. Saturated

1224. Bearings for bridges are designed to provide free movements of girders. Which of the
following is not used to allow such movement?
a. Expansion joints
b. Rockers
c. Sliding plates
d. Rollers

152
1225. 5250 bags of cement supplied to your project, how many quality test will you make?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

1226. What class of concrete for footing, pedestal, massive pier, shafts and small amount of
reinforced?
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class P

1227. How many Girder in Bridge in one lane?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 4

1228. What is PCCP?

a. Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
b. Pozzolan Cement Concrete Pavement
c. Philippines Committee for Concrete Pavement
d. Philippines Cement Concrete Pavement

1229. What is the method used in constructing an embankment over a low swampy ground that
cannot support the mass of truck loads and other hauling equipment?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

1230. For bridge project boring should be what?

a. 1 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter min.) 1 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.0 m into bed rocks)
b. 2 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter max.) 2 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)
c. 2 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter min.)
2 boring for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)
d. 1 deep drill for each abutment (30 meter max.) 1 boring
for each pier for multi-span (3.5 m into bed rocks)

1231. The depth of the weakened joints must be less than ___ and a width of ____.
a. 40mm & 6mm
b. 50mm & 5mm
c. 40mm & 5mm
d. 50mm & 6mm

1232. A device used to measure the relative hardness of asphalt is ____.

a. Penetrometer
b. Spectometer
c. Vicat Apparatus
d. Armoured Thermometer

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1233. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the water
surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a. Freeboard
b. Headwater depth
c. Trail water depth
d. Scour depth

1234. In the foundation design, the allowed load or bearing capacity is obtained by reducing the
ultimate bearing capacity by a factor of safety of:
a. 1.5
b. 2.0
c. 1 to 2
d. 2 to 3

1235. The equivalent physical measurement used in the determination of the cost of maintenance
of our national roads and bridges and all its facilities is known as:
a. Lane kilometre
b. Equivalent maintenance kilometre unit
c. Equivalent maintenance kilometre
d. Standard kilometre unit.

1236. After three weeks of completion, the asphalt overlay exhibited reflection cracking. What will
you recommend to correct the said defect?
a. Apply seal coat
b. Apply additional bituminous mix
c. Redo the construction of the asphalt overlay
d. Apply cover aggregates

1237. For purposes of pavement design, the varying axle loads are converted to a common
denominator which is in terms of:
a. 5,000 lb (22 KN) wheel load
b. 10,000 lb (44 KN) single axle load
c. 32,000 lb (142 KN) tandem axle load
d. 18,000 lb (80 KN) single axle load

1238. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut
to a depth of:
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250 mm

1239. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time
duration imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a. one month
b. two months
c. three months
d. four months

1240. Which of the following project documents attests that the materials incorporated into the
project works corresponds to the quantity accomplished and conform with specifications?
a. Certificate of Quality Control Assurance
b. QualityControl Program

154
c. Notice to Proceed
d. Statement of Work Accomplished

1241. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a. spread foundations
b. raft foundations
c. pile foundations
d. caisson foundations

1242. What is called that protects riverbanks?

a. River Side Wall
b. Sea Wall
c. Slope Protection
d. Revetment

1243. How many days for curing Stone Masonry?

a. 1 day
b. 2 days
c. 3 days
d. 4 days

1244. A one-lane road, with of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of 0.5 meter on each side of the
pavement was designed to have sub-base and base coarse with a combined thickness of 300mm. If
the thickness of the sub-base is 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the sub-base and base
coarse shall be carried out in
a. 3 layers over the full width of 4.5 m
b. 2 layers over the full width of 4.5 m
c. 3 layers over the full width of 3.5 m
d. 2 layers over the full width of 3.5 m

1245. The repeated operation of fine grading and compacting the full width of the roadway
undertaking any overlaying structural layers is ___________.
a. Subgrade Preparation
b. Embankment
c. Structural Excavation
d. Base Preparation

1246. Typically with diagonal black & yellow strips color used during road works and similar activities
to cordon off areas, close roads or direct traffic and workers continue to work.
a. Containment Tape
b. Mesh Tape
c. Bollards
d. Barrier Board

1247. What is to be provide to protect concrete covering.

a. Gravel Bedding
b. Lean Concrete
c. Concrete Spacers
d. Chair Bars

1248. What is the apparatus used in determining the penetration grade of asphalt?
a. Penetrometer
b. Viscometer
c. Thermometer
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d. Viscometric meter

1249. What is the true about wheephole Distance?

a. staggered 1.0 m horizontal
b. stageered 1.5 m horizontal
c. staggered 2.0 m horizontal
d. staggered 0.5 m horizontal

1250. Testing for physical properties of RSB, except?

a. Elongation
b. Yield Strenght
c. Load Bearing Capacity
d. Tensile Strength

1251. The contractor shall given a warning and required to submit a detailed “Catch Up Plan”
program on a fortnightly (two weeks) basis to eliminate the slippage.
a. 5%
b. 10 %
c. 15%
d. 20%

1252. ASTM Means?

a. American Society for Testing and Materials
b. American Society for Testing Materials
c. American Society and Testing Materials
d. American Society of Testing and Materials

1253. What to do to increase river flow capacity, except?

a. by dike/levee
b. by widening of the waterway/river
c. by dredging/excavation
d. Riprap

1254. Test used in conducting pile foundation bearing capacity?

a. Pile integrity Test
b. High-Strain Dynamic Test
c. Pile load test
d. Sonic Logging Test

1255. Chemical reaction of cement when added with water.

a. Hydration
b. Solidification
c. Sedimentation
d. Hardening

1256. A project of 212000 kgs. of RSB. How many quality tests is/are required?
a. 21
b. 22
c. 23
d. 24

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1257. Weight of 25mm diameter RSB in linear meter?
a. 3.85
b. 3.80
c. 3.88
d. 3.58

1258. Weight of 10mm diameter RSB in 6 meter?

a. 3.85
b. 3.70
c. 3.72
d. 3.75

1259. In the compaction of sub-base, the compacted dry density of each layer should not be less
than what value of the maximum dry density, determined according to the AASHTO method?
a. 95%
b. 96%
c. 98%
d. 100%

1260. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a. 85%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 100%

1261. What is the maximum road gradient of bridge approach?

a. 6%
b. 8%
c. 9%
d. 12%

1262. The vertical clearance of flyover above the roadway shall not be less than.
a. 4.88
b. 5.03
c. 5.35
d. 6.03

1263. The rate of application of tack coating using liquid or emulsified asphalt is
a. 0.2 - 0.7 Liter/sq.m
b. 0.1 - 0.5 Liter/sq.m
c. 1.5 - 3.0 Liter/sq.m
d. 2.0 - 3.0 Liter/sq.m

1264. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a. 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b. 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c. 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d. Just enough to put the pipe

1265. ______ is to bond the existing pavement to new pavement?

a. Tack Coat
b. Seal Coat
c. Prime Coat
d. Aggregate Surface Course

157
1266. Final compaction and smoothing of item 310 should be done by a
a. pneumatic – tired roller
b. Sheep foot roller
c. Vibratory roller
d. Tandem smooth wheel roller

1267. In asphalt construction, Compaction shall begin rolling at the sides and proceed longitudinally
parallel toward the road centerline, each strip overlapping __________the roller, gradually
progressing to the crown of the road.
a. 1 ½
b. 1/3
c. 0.30m
d. ½

1268. ______ is the depth of corrugation of PCCP after brooming?

a. 2 mm
b. 3 mm
c. 1.5 mm
d. 4 mm

1269. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than:
a. 10 seconds
b. 15 seconds
c. 20 seconds
d. 30 seconds

1270. The contractor shall keep records of all piles driven or installed.
a. Pile Records
b. Record of Driven Piles
c. Pile Driving Log
d. Pile Log

1271. For any proposed bridge site, the topographic and river surveys should be extended from the
centerline of the bridge at least
a. 100 to 200 upstream only
b. 100 to 200 downstream only
c. 100 to 200 upstream and downstream
d. 300 m upstream and downstream

1272. Embankment compacted thickness per layer?

a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 180 mm
d. 250 mm

1273. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is?
a. Prime Coat
b. Seal coat
c. Tack coat
d. NOTA

158
1274. Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least ______.
a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 16 hours

1275. Piles shall not be moved until the test indicate that the concrete has attained a compressive
strength of at least ____of the design 28 days compressive strength has been attained.
a. 75%
b. 80%
c. 85%
d. 100%

1276. When the average thickness of the pavement per lot is deficit by ____, the pavement is
removed and replace and no payment.
a. 20mm
b. 5 mm
c. 25 mm
d. 15 mm

1277. If Strength of concrete specimen deficit by ____, the pavement is removed & replace and no
payment.
a. 15%
b. 20%
c. 25%
d. 10%

1278. How Cassion Foundation done?

a. Driven
b. Pre-cast
c. Cast in Place
d. Drilled

1279. Who prepare the Quality Control Program?

a. DPWH ME
b. Contractor ME
c. DPWH PE
d. Contractor PE

1280. Which of the following refers to the termination of the contract for (DGCS) in infrastructure
project when the contactor has incurred a negative of 15% or more, or when the contract has
expired and has negative slippage of 10% or more?
a. Liquidated damages
b. Termination insolvency
c. Termination of default
d. Termination of convenience

1281. Test specimen used in compressive strength.

a. Beam
b. Cube
c. Cylinder
d. Both b&c

159
1282. As a Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start the sampling and testing of aggregates
base course materials?
a. Once the source is identified.
b. After the materials was incorporated into work.
c. One the material already delivered.
d. As construction work progress.

1283. It is the transverse slope provided to counteract the effect of centrifugal force and reduce the
tendency of vehicle to overturn and to skid laterally outwards by raising the pavement outer edge
with respect to inner edge.
a. curvature.
b. widening
c. elevated
d. superelevation

1284. Which of the following is the thinnest and most fluid grade of medium curing cutback asphalt?
a. MC-30
b. MC-70
c. MC-250
d. MC-800

1285. Minimum curing of structural concrete?

a. 21 days
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 14 days

1286. Field density test is conducted to determine the _____________ of item 104 & item 200.
a. Optimum Moisture Content
b. Max Dry Density
c. Degree of Compaction
d. Bearing Capacity

1287. What is the maximum road gradient of bridge approach?

a. 6%
b. 8%
c. 9%
d. 12%

1288. All piles shall be driven within an allowed variation of _____ per meter of pile length from the
vertical or butter.
a. 10mm
b. 20mm
c. 5 mm
d. 15 mm

1289. The strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all sets of 3
consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no individual
strength test result is deficient by more than:
a. 10 % of f’c
b. 15 % of f’c
c. 20 % of f’c
d. 25 % of f’c

160
1290. The composition and strength of concrete for use in structures is base on ____.
a. 50 kg/bag
b. 90 kg/bag
c. 45 kg/bag
d. 40 kg/bag

1291. What type of schedule is shown below?

Form
Footing
Poured Strip
Footing Footing
Reinforce
Footing

a. Gant Chart.
b. Critical Path Diagram Method.
c. Precedence Diagram Method.
d. Line of Balance (LOB) Schedule.

1292. Which of the following is not authorized to test materials for use in DPWH project? a.
Any DPWH accredited private testing laboratory.
b. Any testing laboratory of local government unit.
c. Any DPWH Implementing Office laboratory.
d. DOST Testing laboratory.

1293. This is driven in order to determine the casting length of piles.

a. Test pile
b. Bored pile
c. Sheet pile
d. Batter pile

1294. Which of the following is the responsibility of the project engineer?

a. Sampling of materials
b. Analysis of test results of materials
c. Scheduling of delivery of materials
d. Design of concrete and asphalt mixes

1295. Upon Sample has been taken it should keep at?

a. Contractor Warehouse.
b. Any DPWH accredited Private Testing Laboratory.
b. Any Testing Laboratory of Local Government Unit.
c. DOST Testing Laboratory.

1296. Which of the following measures is not part of a catch plan to put the back on the schedule?
a. Deployment of additional equipment
b. Assignment of an additional project manager
c. Adoption of 24/7 work schedule
d. Employment of higher technology

1297. What is the color of the strip at safety vest use in construction?
a. Orange
b. Silver
c. Yellow
d. Gray

161
1298. Warranty Period of PCCP for structural defects?
a. 50 years
b. 1 year
c. 15 years
d. 5 years

1299. Who is responsible in implementing safety of employees.

a. Contractor’s PE
b. DPWH PE
c. Contractor Safety Officer
d. DPWH Safety Officer

1300. What is the appropriate splice location of reinforcing bars in reinforced of columns?
a. Within the middle third of the height of the column
b. 30 cm from the beam soffit
c. At the joint between beams and columns
d. Within 1.5m from the floor level

1301.To check the suitability of the materials and the efficiency of the equipment and construction
method in the construction of embankments and base course, trial sections should be spread and
compacted, and corresponding field density test should be undertaken. Said trial section shall be
about?
a.300 sq. m.
b.400 sq. m.
c.500 sq. m.
d.600 sq. m.

1302. Defective works in a project should be brought to the attention of the contractor by the
Project Inspector thru:
a. Logbook entry
b. Progress billing deduction
c. Inspection report
d. Site instruction

1303. Which of the following is not considered a Variation Order?

a. Change order
b. Extra work order
c. Resume order
d. Supplemental agreement

1304. What is the single vertical datum to which elevation for all infrastructure projects should be
referred to?
a. Mean sea level
b. 10.47 m below mean sea level
c. 10.00 below mean lower low water
d. Mean lower low water

1305. What is the required minimum field density for embankment materials?
a. 85%
b. 90%
c. 95%
d. 100%

162
1306. In laying stone components of item 505 (Riprap and Grouted Riprap) each stone should be:
a. Laid with its longest axis perpendicular to the slope
b. Pitched to line along the beds and joints
c. Laid with its face parallel to the faces of the walls
d. Reasonably uniform with no projection more than 150 mm

1307. The process of maintaining sufficient moisture and favourable temperature in concrete is
called:
a. Consolidation
b. Shrinkage
c. Curing
d. Evaporation

1308. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:

a. Pick and shovel
b. Ripper
c. Road grader
d. Bulldozer

1309. The depth of weakened plane joints on a 23.0 cm thick pavement should not be less than:
a. 45 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 60 mm
d. 75 mm

1310. Measurement of concrete materials for concrete structures shall be by:

a. Volume
b. Weight
c. Quantity
d. Density

1311. Camber on gravel roads is provided to:

a. Establish a smooth riding surface
b. Prevent water from stagnating on the carriageway
c. Provide boundary line for the two lanes
d. Plant grass of sodding

1312. Which of the following is not a field test in road construction?

a. Density test
b. Core boring test
c. California bearing ratio (CBR) test
d. Dynamic cone penetrometer test

1313. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to manual
dropping by not more than___________ and where no other special tools and means are used.
a. 3.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 2.0 m
d. 1.5 m

1314. What is the allowable minimum penetration of piles in firm material?

a. 4.0 m
b. 2.5 m
c. 3.0 m

163
d. 2.0 m

1315. For testing reinforcing steel bars, the sample for every 10 tons should be:
a. 0.5 meter long
b. 1.0 meter long
c. 1.5 meter long
d. 2.0 meter long

1316. The minimum flexural strength requirement of concrete for item 311 (Portland Cement
Concrete Pavement) is:
a. 500 psi
b. 550 psi
c. 3000 psi
d. 3500 psi

1317. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a. 40 mm
b. 50 mm
c. 62 mm
d. 75 mm

1318. Weakened joints on concrete pavement should be sawed

a. Immediately after the pavement surface has been brooms finished
b. Sawing of joints shall commerce as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently, usually
within 24 hours
c. Before the pavements opened to traffic usually 14 days from the day of pouring

1319. Cores are taken from a concrete pavement and tested for
a. Strength verification of concrete in place that is considered adequate
b. Flexural strength determination
c. Cement content determination
d. Thickness determination

1320. The number of sets of beam test specimens that should be taken from 700 sq.m. of concrete
pavements, 0.23 cm thick poured on a single day should be:
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9

1321. Forms for concrete pavement shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than
a. 24 hours after concrete pouring
b. The curing period
c. The period required to attain the design strength
d. 72 hours after concrete pouring

1322. Item 310 mixture shall have an index of retained strength of not less than
a. 66
b. 70
c. 97
d. 107

164
1323. In soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is questionable, the minimum depth of boring
into the bedrock should be ____.
a. 1.5m
b. 2.0m
c. 2.5m
d. 3.0m

1324. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a. Bar Charts
b. Executive Summary
c. Weather Charts
d. Photographs

1325. Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least ______.

a. 6 hours
b. 12 hours
c. 24 hours
d. 16 hours

1326. The minimum percent compaction for embankment is ______.

a. 92.0 %
b. 97.0 %
c. 95.0 %
d. 100 %

1327. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at______?

a. Middle of slope
b. Middle Third of slope
c. Top of the slope
d. Bottom of the slope

1328. If the designed thickness of aggregate sub-base course is 200 mm, in how many layers may the
material be spread and compacted?
a. 2 layers
b. 1 layer
c. 3 layers
d. 4 layers

1329. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than______?
a. 6 seconds
b. 10 seconds
c. 15 seconds
d. 5 seconds

1330. How many percent of slippage so that the project is subject for termination?
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 14%
d. 15%

1331. ______ is to bond the existing pavement to new pavement?

a. Tack Coat
b. Seal Coat

165
c. Prime Coat
d. Aggregate Surface Course

1332. When is the next repaint of thermoplastic at low speed, low volume road?
a. after 1 year
b. after 2 years
c. after 3 years
d. after 4 years

1333. Construction joint of Beams and Slab?

a. L/3 from support
b. L/4 from support
c. Middle Third
d. 0.50m from support

1334. What is the minimum cement content (40 kg/bag) per cubic meter of class B concrete?
a. 8 bags
b. 9 bags
c. 9.5 bags
d. 11 bags

1335. When a contract is mutually terminated, the contractor is:

a) blacklisted by the agency
b) required to pay liquidated damages
c) allowed to submit bids
d) disallowed to submit bids

1336. Which of the following is not a measure against mudflow?

a) Sabo dams
b) Retarding basins
c) Cut-off channels
d) Groundsills

1337. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will have
a high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression StabilityTest
d) Plant-Mix Design

1338. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

1339. What is the allowable minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe?
a) 50 mm
b) 60 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 100 mm

166
1340. This test shall be conducted or buildings three (3) stories and above
a. Shell Tube Test Boring Test
b. FDT
c. Boring Test
d. Bearing Test

1341. The separation or regulation of conflicting traffic movements into definite paths
and by means of traffic islands or pavement markings to facilitate the safe and orderly
arrangement of both vehicles and pedestrians.
a. Road Traffic Sign
b. Channelization
c. Well Planned Roadway
d. Modernize Roadway

1342. Construction joints in floors shall be located within the _______of spans of slabs, beams and
Girders.
a. L/4 from the face of the Support
b. L/3 from the face of the Support
c. MIddle Third
d. L/2 from the face of the Support

1343. How many Girder in Bridge in one lane?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 4

1344. How many span of years for the history of river in designing of a bridge?
a. 15 years
b. 25 years
c. 30 years
d. 50 years

1345. As work progresses, at least one(1) set consisting of three(3) concrete beam test specimens,
150mm. x 150mm. x 525mm. Shall be taken every _____, or fraction thereof placed each day.
a. 30 cu.m
b. 50 cu.m
c. 75 cu.m
d. 150 cu.m

1346. What happen when the critical activities is delayed?

a. The critical activities is delayed
b. No effect to the project
c. Project is delayed
d. NOTA

1347. Normally sawing of concrete of joints commence given that the concrete has hardened
sufficiently?
a. 2/24
b. 1/24
c. 4/24
d. 3/24

167
1348. How many bags of Portland cement (40kgs) is required for 1 cubic meter of class A (20.7)
concrete
a. 8
b. 9.1
c. 9.5
d. 11

1349. Most common pile hammer used in the Philippines.

a. Jack hammer
b. Drop Hammer
c. Diesel hammer
d. NOTA

1350. Methods of rolling / compacting asphalt?

a. From the center of the roadway
b. from side of shoulder to center of the roadway
c. From center of lane to side of shoulder
d. From center of lane to center of the roadway

1351.Process of Rolling/Compaction of Bituminous pavement? (February 2023)

a. It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the road center
line, each trip overlapping one half of the roller’s width.
b. It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the road center
line, each trip overlapping one and a half of the roller’s width.
c. It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the road center
line, each trip overlapping Full width of the roller.
d. It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the road center
line, each trip overlapping one third of the roller’s width.

1352. Test specimen used in compressive strength.

a. Beam
b. Cube
c. Cylinder
d. Both b&c

1353.Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a project?
a. Project Inspector
b. Resident Engineer
c. Project Engineer
d. Materials Engineer

1354.The most common hourly volume count used for roadway design is:
a. AADT
b. 30th highest hourly volume
c. service flow
d. highest 15-minute volume

1355. Unless otherwise specified, all materials below subgrade level in earth should be cut to a
depth of:
a. 100 mm
b. 150 mm
c. 200 mm
d. 250mm

168
1356. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching using
cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a. ensure bond between the new mix and old surface.
b. prevents pumping.
c. minimizes spalling.
d. prevents faulting.

1357.Cores taken from a concrete pavement are tested for:

a. strength verification of concrete in-place that is considered adequate.
b. flexural strength determination
c. cement content determination
d. thickness determination

1358. The minimum testing requirement of concrete for Item 405 is the compressive strength test
on concrete cylinder samples consisting of a set of 3 concrete cylinder samples to represent not
more than:
a. 50 m3 of concrete
b. 75 m3 of concrete
c. 100 m3 of concrete
d. 125 m3 of concrete

1359. Who supervises the work and tests employed in project implementation?
a. Project Inspector
b. Contractor’s Engineer
c. Materials Engineer
d. Project Engineer

1360.Resurfacing of unpaved shoulder that has settled or been eroded by traffic and water is an
activity under:
a. preventive maintenance
b. routing maintenance
c. periodic maintenance
d. special maintenance

1361.The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of:
a. 0.2 – 0.5 L/m2
b. 0.2 – 0.7 L/m2
c. 0.15 – 0.7 L/m2
d. 0.15 – 0.5 L/m2

1362.In no case, however, shall the total sum of liquidated damage exceed__ of the contract price,
in which event the contract shall automatically be taken over by the procuring entity concerned or
can be awarded to same qualified contractor through negotiated contract.
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 15%
d. 10%

1363. Which of the ff. is not an agent for repairing concrete cracks?
a. Silica Injection
b. Polyester Injection
c. Sulfur Injection
d. Epoxy Injection

169
1364.What type of cement is allowed by the DPWH as a substitute in the absence of Portland
Cement Type I?
a. Portland Pozzolan Type IP
b. Pozzolan Cement type P
c. Hydraulic Cement
d. Portland Cement Type I

1365. What kind of joint is established by an interrupted or delayed placing of concrete on partially
placed concrete wherein initial setting had already taken place?
a. Expansion joint
b. Contraction joint
c. Cold joint
d. Longitudinal joint

1366. During pouring operations of concrete pavements, what kind of samples should be taken for
testing?
a. Mortar samples
b. Beam samples
c. Cylinder samples
d. Cement samples

1367.Who has the authority to reject questionable materials or suspend the work until it is referred
and decided upon by the Project Engineer?
a. Project Inspector
b. Resident Engineer
c. Materials Engineer
d. Contractor’s Engineer

1368.Who assists the Project Engineer in the overall direction and supervision of field operations?
a. Contractor’s Engineer
b. Resident Engineer
c. Materials Engineer
d. Project Inspector

1369.What do you call the strengthening of an old existing asphalt or concrete pavement by
providing additional adequate thickness over it?
a. re-blocking
b. sealing
c. grouting
d. overlaying

1370.What do you call a record or book compiled to contain the data information and history in the
implementation of a project from start to completion?
a. Blue Book
b. History Book
c. Logbook
d. Statement of Work Accomplished (SWA)

1371.Before an asphalt pavement or asphalt surface treatment is placed on a granular base, what
liquid asphalt is applied?
a. Seal Coat
b. Tack Coat
c. Prime Coat

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d. Epoxy Coat

1372.If the designed thickness of aggregate subbase course is 200 mm, in how many layers may the
material be spread and compacted?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1373.In field project monitoring using old approved plans of a river system, which of the following
would immediately identify the sheets if pages were already erased:
a. Matching lines
b. Stationing’s
c. Stationing’s and Matching lines
d. Location of riverbanks

1374. For Item 311 (Portland Cement Concrete Pavement) the minimum cement factor in bags of
cement per cubic meter of concrete based on a 40 kg per bag of cement is:
a. 7.5
b. 8.0
c. 9.1
d. 9.5

1375. How many years for periodic maintenance for Asphalt Pavement?
a. 3
b. 4
c. 5
d. 7

1376 It is the graphical representation of the cumulative monthly cash flow, monitoring of
Equipment and Manpower?
a. Catch up Schedule.
b. S Curve
c. Time Slippage
d. Gantt Chart

1377.For buildings, what is the maximum number of bore hole for every 200sq.m of structure?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

1378.In no case, shall the total liquidated damages exceed____ of the contract price, in which event
the contract shall automatically be taken over by the procuring entity concerned or can be awarded
to same qualified contractor through negotiated contract?
a. 30%
b. 20%
c. 15%
d. 10%

1379. For a 2-lane bridge 7.3 m in width, what is the minimum no. of girder required?
a. 3
b. 4 (rural)
c. 4 (Urban & Rural)

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d. 5

1380. Advance Payment of the contractor in an amount not to exceed___ of the total Original
Contract amount?
a. 10%
b. 15%
c. 20%
d. 5%

1381. At least (1) set consisting of ___ concrete beam test specimens shall be taken from each
330sq.m of pavement, 0.23cm thick or fraction thereof placed each day.
a. 2
b. 3
c. 6
d. 9

1382. Pursuant to the RA 9184, What is the applicable rate of liquidated damages?
a. 1/10 of 1 percent
b. 5/10 of 1 percent
c. 10/10 of 1 percent
d. 20/10 of 1 percent

1383. What do you call the method of determining stream discharge by measuring the
crosssectional area of the stream and its velocity with a current meter?
a. Velocity Area Method
b. Float Velocity Method
c. Direct Volumetric Method
d. Indirect Method

1384.Initial rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a___ roller?

a. Pneumatic Tire Roller
b. Single Drum Roller
c. Double Drum Roller
d. Steel Roller

1385.What is the Project Scheduling technique in DPWH Project?

a. PDM (Precedence Diagram Method)
b. S-Curve
c. Microsoft Excel
d. NOTA

1386. Which of the following is true regarding the rebound (Schmidt) hammer test for concrete?
a. The test is used to determine the uniformity of concrete
b. Can be used as a substitute to direct methods of compressive strength determination
such as tests on cored samples
c. Is a simple and versatile test method which can be used on rough concrete surfaces
d. All of the above

1387.The system of protecting land area from ocean waves is called:

a. river protection works.
b. coastal protection works.
c. slope protection works.
d. erosion control works.

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1388.When the concrete Pile are lifted or moved, they should be supported at what point?
a. Quarter Point
b. Mid-Point
c. Third Point
d. Both Ends

1389. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meters?
a. Reinforced Concrete Slab
b. Beam or Plank Bridge
c. Concrete Plank Deck
d. Girder and Slab Superstructure

1390. What is the required minimum weight of the gravity hammer used in pile driving?
a. 1800 kgs.
b. 1700 kgs.
c. 1600 kgs.
d. 1500 kgs.

1391. What do you call the support on steel sheet piles to support embankment of the abutment of
a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase load safety factor against overturning?
a. Cross Bracing
b. Vertical Bracing
c. Pile
d. Bridge Panel

1392. In concrete, rich mix means:

a. more water in the mix
b. more aggregates in the mix
c. more cement in the mix
d. higher water-cement ratio

1393.Which is NOT a type of PCCP distress:

a.Scaling
b. Crazing
c. Ravelling
d. Pockmarks

1394.The purpose of driving test piles?

a.To determine the required pile length
b.To determine the cross-sectional area of the pile
c.To determine the actual number of piles needed
d.None of the above

1395.Re-issuance of D.O No. 100 S of 2015, Issuance and Approval of Contract Work Suspension
Order, Work Resumption Order, and Contract Time Extension.

a.D.O No. 144 Series of 2013

b.D.O No. 144 Series of 2014
c.D.O No. 144 Series of 2015
d.D.O No. 144 Series of 2016

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1396.A Contractor shall be given working days to submit a written explanation as to why the
DPWH or its Implementing Office should not rescind his contract upon receipt of "Intent to Rescind".
a.14 working days
b.5 working days
c.7 working days
d.10 working days

1397.The contractor must file a written notice prior to the expiration of contract time and within
calendar days after additional work involved has been started or after the circumstances leading to
such claim have arisen.
a.15
b.30
c.45
d.60

1398.For locally funded projects, the DPWH Project Engineer concerned shall issue to the contractor
the Work Suspension Order, if the approving official is the Assistant Secretary for Operations the
Supension Period is:
a.Beyond 30 CD up to 60 CD
b.Beyond 60 CD up to 90 CD
c.Beyond 120 CD
d.Beyond 90 CD up to 120 CD

1399.The PM/RD/DE shall initiate termination/rescission of the contract and/or take-over of the
remaining work by administration or assignment to another contractor/appropriate agency.
a."Terminal" Stage beyond 15%
b."Make or Break" Stage 15%
c."ICU" Stage 10%
d."Early Warning" Stage 5%

1400.Is a written order issued by the DPWH Project Engineer/ Engineer's Representative and
approved by the concerned authorized DPWH officials to the contractor to suspend the contract
work wholly or partly for such period as may be deemed necessary.
a.Work Suspension Order
b.Contract Time Extension
c.Work Resumption Order
d.None of the above

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