Test ID : 140823

IX – Foundation (Biology) MINOR TEST - 4 Date : 14/08/2023

Time : 2:30 Hrs. M.M. 480

PLEASE READ THE FOLLOWING INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

1. Please fill up the particulars given on the OMR sheet as Test ID, Roll No., Name, Father’s
Name, Date, Class & Section, Subject & Address.
2. Duration of Test is 2:30 hrs. This Question Paper Contains 120 Questions.
3. Marking scheme : +4 for each correct answer and 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
4. Answers are to be given on a separate OMR sheet.
5. The question paper is divided into seven parts. [Physics (1-20)], [Chemistry (21-40)],
[Biology (41-60)], [Mathematics (61 to 80)], [Social Science (81 to 100)],
[Reasoning (101 to 110)] & [Biology Advance (111 to 120)].
6. Mark your answers for questions 1120 on the single OMR sheet by darkening the circles.
7. If you do not know the answer of any question, do not waste time on it and pass on to the next
one. Time permitting, you can come back to the questions which you have left in the first
attempt.
8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it
by not spending too much time on any one question.
9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the booklet but not on the OMR sheet/loose paper.
10 Please return the OMR sheet to the invigilator after the test.

Student 's Name :

Roll No. :
 Physics (1-20)
1. Slope of momentum-time graph gives.
(a) Velocity (b) Momentum (c) Force (d) None of these
2. Area under force-time graph gives values of
(a) Momentum (b) Change in momentum (c) force (d) Final momentum
3. Find the acceleration of system.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

4. Momentium of a system is conserved, when

(a) external force act on it (b) no external force act on it
(c) system is accelerated (d) small external force act on it
5. In the given figure determine T1 : T2 : T3
(a) 3 : 4 : 5
(b) 12 : 7 : 3
(c) 5 : 4 : 3
(d) 3 : 7 : 12
6. For the given figure. Find the acceleration of the block.

(a) a = g (b) a = (c) (d) a = 2g

7. A man standing in the elevator moving upward with constant velocity then apparent weight of
person will be
(a) N = mg (b) N = m(g–a) (c) N = m(g+a) (d) N = 0
8. The true formula for newtons 2nd law of motion is

(a) F = ma (b) F = (c) (d)

9. For the given force – time graph find impulse in 1st 3 second
(a) 20 Ns
(b) 35 Ns
(c) 50 Ns
(d) 60 Ns
10. A block of 5 kg is resting on a Frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a rate of
3 kg/s at a speed of 4 m/s. Caluclate the initial acceleration of the block
(a) 2.4 m/s2 (b) 6.8 m/s2 (c) 2 m/s2 (d) 3.2 m/s2
11. For the given figure find the acceleration

(a) 0.5 m/s2 (b) (c) √ (d) √

12. The linear momentum P of a body in one dimension P = f(t) is given as P = 3 + 2t. The net force
acting on the body
(a) Proportional to t (b) Constant
(c) Proportional to t2 (d) Inversly proportional to t
13. A force of 100 Dynes act on a mass of 5 gram for 10 sec. The velocity produced is
(a) 2000 cm/s (b) 200 cm/s (c) 20 cm/s (d) 2 cm/s
14. The S.I. Unit of impulse is

(a) N s (b) kg (c) (d) kg

15. Force involved in Newton’ third law act –

(a) on the same object (b) on different object
(c) on same direction (d) on five bodies
16. A man standing still. The force by the man on the earth is ⃗⃗⃗ . The force by the earth on the man
is ⃗⃗⃗ . Which of the following is true
(a) ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ (b) ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ (c) ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ (d) ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗
17. Newton’ II law of otion connect :
(a) Momentum and acceleration
(b) Change of momentum and velocity
(c) Rate of change of momentum and external force
(d) Rate of change of force and momentum

18. The relation states that –

(a) ⃗ (b) (c) ⃗ (d) a = constant

19. Recoiling of a gun is based on –

(a) Newton’ st law (b) Law of Inertia
(c) 2nd Law of motion (d) Law of conservation of momentum
20. Change in momentum is given by
(a) F × m (b) F × t (c) F × v (d) F × d
 Chemistry (21-40)
21. What will be the molarity of a solution, which contains 5.85 g of NaCl(s) per 500 mL ?
(Na = 23, Cl = 35.5)
(a) 4 mol (b) 20 mol (c) 0.2 mol (d) 2 mol
22. Which of the following concentration factors affected by change in temperature?
(a) Molarity (b) Molality (c) Mole fraction (d) Weight fraction
23. 2.5 g of a solute is dissolved in 25 g of water to form a saturated solution at 298 K. The solubility
of solute at this temperature is
(a) 15 g (b) 12.5 g (c) 10 g (d) 20 g
24. The pair of solutions which show Tyndall effect is
(a) starch, milk (b) starch and sodium chloride solutions
(c) milk and sugar solution (d) sodium chloride and copper sulphate solutions
25. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Whenever a saturated solution at room temperature is heated, it becomes unsaturated.
(b) Whenever a saturated solution is allowed to cool, some of the dissolved substance gets
separated.
(c) Solubility of gases in liquids decreases when the temperature is increased.
(d) Solubility of gases in liquids decreases on increasing the pressure.
26. Colloidal particles carry charge. This can be shown by:
(a) Tyndall effect (b) Electrophoresis (c) Brownian movement (d) Dialysis
27. What type of colloidal system is fog?
(a) Gas in liquid (b) Liquid in gas (c) Liquid in liquid (d) Solid in gas
28. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) When a saturated solution at a particular temperature is heated, it becomes unsaturated.
(b) The solubility of Na2CO3.H2O which dissolves with evolution of heat decreases with
temperature.
(c) The solubility of gases in liquids decreases on decreasing the pressure.
(d) A sample of water which boils at 102°C will freeze at 0°C.
29. The Brownian motion in colloidal solution is due to:
(a) temperature fluctuation
(b) attraction or repulsion between charged colloidal particles
(c) Bombardment of molecules of dispersion medium on the colloidal particle
(d) None of these
30. Some of the following are true solutions:
I: Urea solution II: Gelatin III: Glucose solution
IV: NaCl solution V: Butter VI : Blood
Select true solutions :
(a) I, III, IV (b) II, III, IV, V (c) I, IV, V (d) II, IV, VI
31. What is the molality of a solution containing 200 mg of urea (molar mass 60 g ol ) dissolved
in 40 g of water?
(a) 0.0833 (b) 0.825 (c) 0.498 (d) 0.0013
32. Which of the following is associated colloid :-
(a) Soaps (b) Detergent (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) KCI
33. 100 gm of an aq. solution of sugar contains 40% sugar by mass. How much water should
be evaporated to get 50% sugar solution by mass?
(a) 10 g. (b) 20 g. (c) 0.10 g. (d) 40 g.
34. What are (i), (ii), (iii), (iv), (v) and (vi) ?
Dispersed phase Dispersing medium Type
(i) Gas Aerosol
Solid Gas (ii)
Gas Liquid Foam
Liquid (iii) Emulsion
(iv) Liquid Sol
Gas Solid (v)
Liquid Solid (vi)
Solid Solid Solid Sol
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
(a) Liquid Aerosol Gas Solid Emulsion Gel
(b) Gas Sol Liquid Solid Emulsion Foam
(c) Solid Foam Gas Liquid Gel Emulsion
(d) Liquid Aerosol Liquid Solid Foam Gel
35. Which of the following statements is not true about suspension
(a) The particles of suspension can be separated from solvent by the process of filtration
(b) When the suspension is kept undisturbed the particles of suspension settle down
(c) A suspension is homogenous in nature
(d) Scattering of light takes place in suspension
36. Which of the following is a non-aqueous solution?
(a) Iodine in alcohol (b) Common salt in water
(c) Sugar in water (d) Alcohol in water
37. A 10% mass/mass solution of sugar is prepared by dissolving
(a) 10 g of sugar in 90 g of H2O
(b) 10 g of sugar in 100 g of H2O
(c) 10 g of sugar in some water and making the total volume to 100 ml
(d) 10 g of sugar in 100 ml of water
38. Medicines are more effective if they are used in:
(a) Colloidal state (b) Solid state (c) Solution state (d) None
39. Which one of the following substances is not used for preparing lyophilic sols :
(a) Strach (b) Gum (c) Gelatin (d) Metal sulphide
40. Brownian motion shown by colloidal particle is its ____________ property :-
(a) Optical (b) Electrical (c) Kinetic (d) Chemical

Biology (41-60)
41. Find the incorrect sentence
(a) Protista includes unicellular eukaryotic organisms
(b) Whittaker considered cell structure, mode and source of nutrition for classifying the
organisms in five kingdoms
(c) Both Monera and protista may be autotrophic or heterotrophic
(d) Monerans have well-defined nucleus.
42. Organisms without nucleus and cell organelles belong to
(i) Fungi (ii) Protista (iii) Cyanobacteria (iv) Archaebacteria
(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (iii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iii).
43. Which of the following is not a criterion for classification of living organisms?
(a) Body design of the organism (b) Ability to produce one's own food
(c) Membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles (d) Height of the plant.
44. Who introduced the system of scientific nomenclature of organisms?
(a) Robert Whittaker (b) Carolus Linnaeus (c) Robert Hooke (d) Ernst Haeckel
45. The book Systema Naturae was written by
(a) Linnaeus (b) Haeckel (c) Whittaker (d) Robert Browmn
46. In taxonomic hierarchy, family comes between
(a) Class and order (b) Order and genus (c) Genus and species (d) Division and class
47. Five kingdom classification has been given by
(a) Morgan (b) R.Whittaker (c) Linnaeus (d) Haeckel
48. Chrysophytes are
(a) planktons (b) nektons (c) benthic organisms (d) rooted submerged
49. A characteristic is
(a) A particular external feature (b) A particular anatomical feature
(c) A particular function (d) All the above
50. Levels of organisation of the body are based on the occurrence of
(a) Unicellular and multicellular nature (b) Formation of tissues
(c) Formation of organs (d) All the above
51. Regions of megadiversity lie between
(a) Equator and tropic of Cancer (b) Equator and tropic of Capricorn
(c) Tropic of Cancer and tropic of Capricorn (d) Arctic and Antarctic circles
52. Woese (1977) has divided Monera into
(a) Bacteria and Eubacteria (b) Archaebacteria and Eubacteria
(c) Archaebacteria and Archaea (d) Monera and Archaebacteria
53. Members of Monera do not have
(a) Well-defined nucleus (b) Well-defined organelles
(c) Multicellular nature (d) All the above
54. Anabaena belongs to
(a) Monera (b) Protista (c) Fungi (d) Mosses
55. Which one is a member of Protozoa?
(a) Amoeba (b) Paramecium (c) Euglena (d) All the above
56. The ter pecie wa coin by ……………
(a) Arstotle (b) Linnaeus (c) John Ray (d) Prantle
57. Arrange the following in the ascending order of hierarchy
(a) Kingdom – Phylum – Class – Order – Family – Genus – Species
(b) Kingdom – Genus – Species – Class – Phylum – Order – Family
(c) Kingdom – Order – Species – Genus – Class – Family – Phylum
(d) Species – Genus – Family– Order – Class – Phylum – Kingdom
58. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Statement I: Classification gives an idea of the whole range of diversity found in living organisms.
Statement II: The study of two or more members of a group provides information about the
whole group.
(a) Only I (b) Only II (c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
59. Which of the following is not a part of the seven hierarchical categories?
(a) Order (b) Division (c) Genus (d)Degree
60. Which of the following is not a kingdom?
(a) Animalia (b) Prokaryotes (c) Monera (d) Protista

Mathematics (61-80)
61. In the figure, DEF is a triangle whose side DF is produced to G. HF and HD are the bisectors of
EFG and EDG respectively. If DEF  23½0 , then DHF in degrees is equal to
(a) 11½ o
o
2
(b) 11
5
(c) 11 3 4 o

(d) 11 1 3 o
62. In the figure, ABD  20o , BDC  110o and DCA  30o . What is the value BAC ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
63. In the figure (not to scale). AB produced to E, ABC  3BAC, ACB  6BAC and AC is
parallel to then find DBE and CBD .

(a) (b) (c) (d)

64. ABC is right angled at A. AB = 60 units, AC = 80 units, and BC = 100 units. D is a point between
B anc C such that triangles ADB and ADC have equal perimeters. What is the length of BD ?
(a) 10 units (b) 20 units (c) 40 units (d) 60 units
65. In a rectangle ABCD, as shown in figure, a point P is taken on the side CD such that PC = 9,
BP = 15 and AB = 14 then the correct relation between angle of APB is :
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

66. In the given figure, AB  AC , BAC  40o , BE and CD are angle bisector of B and C
respectively. If DOE  x, the value of x is
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
67. In an Isosceles triangle, if the vertex angle is twice the sum of base angles, then measure of
vertex angle of the triangle is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
68. In the figure, if D is mid point of the hypotenuse AC of right  ABC then BD is equal to

(a) 5 cm (b) 2.5 cm (c) 2 cm (d) 3 cm

69. In the given figure if E  A, C  D then

(a) AD < EC (b) AD > EC (c) AB < EB (d) BD < BC

70. A vertical stick 10 m long casts a shadow 8 m long on the ground. At the same time, a tower casts
the shadow 30 m long, then the height of the tower is
(a) 26 m (b) 37.5 m (c) 24.3 m (d) 35.5 m
71. In PQR, PQ  PR and Q is twice that P . Then Q =
(a) (b) (c) (d)
72. In the given figure, PQ  QS , QR  RS and angle SRQ  100o. How many degrees in angle QPS .
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
73. A, B, C are the three angles of a triangle. If then A, B, C are :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
74. If the bisector of angle ABC and ACB of a triangle ABC meet at a point O, then BOC 
(a) 90o  12 A (b) 90o  12 A (c) 90o  A (d) 90o  A

75. In a PQR, QS is bisector of Q and Q  80o , R  40o then :

(a) PS > QS > PQ (b) QR > QS = SR (c) PQ > QS < PS (d) PQ < QS < SR
76. The ratio of the length of a side of an equilateral triangle and its height is :
(a) 1: 3 (b) 3:2 (c) 2 : 3 (d) 3 :1
77. If the sides of a ABC are 6, 4, 8 then the length of smallest altitude is :

15 3 3
(a) (b) 15 (c) 15 (d) 15
2 2 4
78. If ’ ABC and DEF we have A  D, B  E and AB = DE then which one is not correct in the
following :
(a) (b) (c) (d) All are correct
79. In the three altitudes of a are equal then triangle is :
(a) isosceles (b) equilateral (c) right angled (d) none
80. If PQRS is a square and SRT is an equilateral triangle then TQR 
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

Social Science (81-100)

81. At its most basic, what was Operation Barbarossa?
(a) The German invasion of Russia (b) The Russian invasion of Germany
(c) The US/British invasion of Germany (d) The German invasion of France/Britain
82. How did Stalin react upon gaining intelligence that Hitler was planning to invade?
(a) He attacked Germany.
(b) He pulled his troops back to defend the major cities.
(c) He invaded Germany allies in Albania, Romania, and Finland.
(d) He did very little, and assumed that Hitler would not attack.
83. What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in
1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)
84. What was 'Dawes Plan'?
(a) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany
(b) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans
(d) None of the above
85. Why have the river banks attracted settlers from ancient times?
(a) Water is a basic natural resource
(b) Rivers provide water for irrigation
(c) Rivers provide facilities for inland navigation
(d) All the above
86. Which of the following is the result of concern over rising pollution in our rivers?
(a) Banning hydroelectric projects (b) Various river action plans
(c) Rainwater harvesting (d) None of the above
87. Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at
the end of World War II?
(a) International Military Tribunal (b) British Military Tribunal
(c) Allied Military Tribunal (d) Allied Judicial Court
88. Lakes are of great value to human beings. Which of the following statements about lakes
given below is incorrect?
(a) Helps to regulate the flow of rivers (b) It results in flooding
(c) Can be used for developing hydel power (d) Enhances natural beauty
89. Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive genocide?
(a) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after World War I
(c) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(d) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings
90. Which of the following types of lakes is formed due to river action?
(a) Saltwater lakes (b) Glacial lakes (c) Oxbow lakes (d) Lagoons
91. Which of the following was a special surveillance and security force created by Hitler?
(a) Regular police force in green uniform and stormtroopers
(b) Gestapo (secret state police), the SS (the protection squads)
(c) Criminal police (SD), the security service
(d) Both (b) and (c)
92. Which of the following lake is a lagoon in the coastal region of Orissa?
(a) Bhimtal (b) Barapani (c) Chilika (d) Hirakud
93. Hitler's world view, which was also the Nazi ideology, was
(a) There was no equality between people, only a racial hierarchy
(b) The blond, blue-eyed, Nordic German Aryans were at the top and Jews at the bottom. The
coloured people were placed in between
(c) Jews were the anti-race, the arch enemies of the Aryans
(d) All of the above
94. Which of the following waterfalls is made by the river Kaveri and is the second biggest waterfall
in India?
(a) Jog (b) Sivasamudram (c) Dhuadhar (d) Hundru
95. Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copras
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country's honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war
96. The Amravati, Bhavani, Hemavati and Kabini are the tributaries of which of the following rivers?
(a) Wainganga (b) Bhima (c) Krishna (d) Kaveri
97. The Treaty of Versailles (1920) signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for
Germany, because
(a) Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 percent of its territories
(b) It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania, was
forced to pay compensation of 6 billion pounds
(c) The western powers demilitarised Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the 1920s
(d) All of the above
98. Which of the following rivers rises from a spring near Mahabaleshwar?
(a) Krishna (b) Narmada (c) Tungabhadra (d) Purna
99. Which one of the following lakes differs from the rest in the group?
(a) The Dal lake (b) The Nainital Lake (c) The Guru Gobinda Sagar (d) The Bhimtal Lake
100. Which one of the following is a southern tributary of the Ganga?
(a) Ghaggar (b) Son (c) Gomti (d) Gandak

Reasoning (101-110)
Directions (101 to 102) : Find the missing number(s):
101.

(a) 49 (b) 50 (c) 48 (d) 55

102.

(a) 47 (b) 45 (c) 37 (d) 35

103.

(a) 125 (b) 100 (c) 123 (d) 64

104.

(a) 262 (b) 622 (c) 631 (d) 662

105. If all the numbers from 7 to 59, which are divisible by 3 are arranged in descending order then
which number will be at 10th place from the bottom?
(a) 36 (b) 39 (c) 30 (d) 27
106. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately
followed by an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even number?
8 6 7 6 8 9 3 2 7 5 3 4 2 2 3 5 5 2 2 8 1 1 9
(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) None of these
107. In the following series, how many times the sum of two consecutive numbers results an even
number? 1 2 3 4 6 3 4 2 5 9 3 6 7 4 1 2 3 6 7 6 5 4 3
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) None of these
Directions (108 to 110) : Which of the Venn diagrams given in the alternatives best represents the
relation between the given items?
108. Doctors, Engineers, Lawyers

109. Books, Newspaper, Words

110. Boys, Students, Players

 Biology (111-120)
111. Type of Ribosomes Protista have
(a) 805 (b) 705 (c) 505 (d) 305
112. A covering __________ is present, it provides protection from desiccation and toxins to bacteria
(a) Mucilage (b) Slime layer (c) Capsule (d) None of these
113. Cell wall of bacteria is composed of
(a) Peptidoglycan (b) Pseudomurein (c) Non-cellutosic material (d) All the above
114. Meiosis and Sexual Reproduction are absent in
(a) Protista (b) Monera (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Fungi
115. Methanogen belongs to
(a) Dinoflagellates (b) Slime mould (c) Eubacteria (d) Archaebacteria
116. Which of the following is the correctly written scientific name of wheat according to binomial
nomenclature?
(a) Triticum Aestivum (b) Triticum aestivum
(c) Triticum sativum (d) Triticum Sativum
117. In nomenclature,
(a) The genus is written after the species.
(b) Genus and species may not be of the same name.
(c) Both genus and species are printed in italics.
(d) The first letter is capital in both genus and species.
118. As we go from species to kingdom in a taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common
characteristics
(a) Remain same (b) Will increase (c) Will decrease (d) May increase or decrease
119. Systematics refers to the study of
(a) Nomenclature and identification of plants and animals
(b) Different kinds of organisms and their classification
(c) Diversity of kinds of organisms and their relationships
(d) Identification and classification of plants and animals
120. Siliceous frustules of diatoms being indestructible, piled up at the bottom of ocean and formed a
thick bed over billions of years. Such a thick bed is known as
(a) red sea (b) diatomaceous earth (c) pseudorocks (d) red tides