CONTENTS

Chapter Page
Topic
CBSE COMPENDIUM
No. No.

PHYSICS
1. Optics : Reflection of Light 1
2. Optics : Refraction of Light 9
3. Human Eye and Colourful World 18
4. Electricity 25
5. Magnetic Effects of Electric Current 35
S CIENCE

CHEMISTRY
6. Chemical Reactions and Equations 43
7. Acids, Bases and Salts 49
8. Metals and Non-metals 53
9. Carbon and its Compounds 60

BIOLOGY
10. Life Processes : Nutrition 65
11. Respiration 70
12. Transportation 75

13. Excretion 80
14. Control and Coordination 84
15. How do Organisms Reproduce 90
16. Heredity 96
17. Our Environment 100
All rights including trademark and copyrights and rights of translation etc. reserved and vested exclusively with
Allen Career Institute Private Limited. (Allen)
No part of this work may be copied, reproduced, adapted, abridged or translated, transcribed, transmitted, stored
or distributed in any form retrieval system, computer system, photographic or other system or transmitted in any
form or by any means whether electronic, magnetic, chemical or manual, mechanical, digital, optical, photocopying,
recording or otherwise, or stood in any retrieval system of any nature without the written permission of the Allen
Career Institute Private Limited. Any breach will entail legal action and prosecution without further notice.
This work is sold/distributed by Allen Career Institute Private Limited subject to the condition and undertaking
given by the student that all proprietary rights (under the Trademark Act, 1999 and Copyright Act, 1957) of the
work shall be exclusively belong to Allen Career Institute Private Limited. Neither the Study Materials and/or
Test Series and/or the contents nor any part thereof i.e. work shall be reproduced, modify, re-publish, sub-license,
upload on website, broadcast, post, transmit, disseminate, distribute, sell in market, stored in a retrieval system
or transmitted in any form or by any means for reproducing or making multiple copies of it.
Any person who does any unauthorised act in relation to this work may be liable to criminal prosecution and
civil claims for damages. Any violation or infringement of the propriety rights of Allen shall be punishable under
Section- 29 & 52 of the Trademark Act, 1999 and under Section- 51, 58 & 63 of the Copyright Act, 1957 and any
other Act applicable in India. All disputes are subjected to the exclusive jurisdiction of courts, tribunals and forums
at Kota, Rajasthan only.
Note:- This publication is meant for educational and learning purposes. All reasonable care and diligence have
been taken while editing and printing this publication. Allen Career Institute Private Limited shall not hold any
responsibility for any error that may have inadvertently crept in. Allen Career Institute Private Limited is not responsible
for the consequences of any action taken on the basis of this publication.
PHYSICS
 ® Physics
ALLEN
PHYSICS OPTICS : REFLECTION OF LIGHT
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 4. Which of the following statements is not correct?
1. When a real object and its image, both are on the (1) Light wave is transverse in nature.
same side of a concave mirror, then : (2) Light cannot travel in vacuum.
(3) No particle can move at a speed greater than
(1) Nature of image may be virtual.
the speed of light in vacuum.
(2) Image must be smaller than object. (4) Light has dual nature.
(3) Image must be larger than object. Ans. Option (2)
(4) Nature of image must be real. Light can travel through vacuum as well as through
Ans. Option (4) a medium, so option (2) is incorrect.
A real (and invert) image is formed by a concave 5. Match the following with correct response for an
mirror on the same side of the object. object placed at some distance from a concave
2. A 4 cm high object is placed perpendicular to the mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm.
principal axis of a concave mirror. The distance of Column-I Column-II
the object from the mirror is 40 cm and its image
(i) When the object (A) Image formed is
is formed at 60 cm from the mirror on the same
is at 20 cm magnified and erect
side of the mirror as the object. The image is :
8 (ii) When the object (B) Image formed is at
(1) Virtual and its height is cm. is at 5 cm infinity
3
(iii) When the object (C) Image formed is
3
(2) Real and its height is cm. is at 30 cm diminished and
8
inverted
(3) Real and the focal length of mirror is 24 cm. (iv) When the object (D) Image formed is of
(4) Virtual and the focal length of mirror is 120 cm. is at 10 cm same size that of
Ans. Option (3) the object
Given : u = – 40 cm, v = – 60 cm, ho = 4 cm (1) i-A, ii-C, iii-B, iv-D (2) i-C, ii-B, iii-D, iv-A
Using mirror formula, (3) i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B (4) i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
1 1 1 1 æ 1 ö 5 Ans. Option (3)
= + =– + ç- ÷=– i-D, ii-A, iii-C, iv-B
f v u 60 è 40 ø 120
6. An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m in front
Þ f = – 24 cm
of a plane mirror. The distance between the object
hi v and image will be
Magnification, m = =–
ho u (1) 0.25 m (2) 1.0 m (3) 0.5 m (4) 0.125 m
(– 60) Ans. Option (3)
or m= - = – 1.5
(– 40) Distance of image from plane mirror = Distance
and hi = ho × (–1.5) = 4 × (– 1.5) = – 6 cm of object from plane mirror;
3. A concave mirror forms an image of an object with i.e., |u| = |v| = 0.25 m
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

magnification of +8. The object is placed in front So, the distance between image and object,
of the mirror : = |u| + |v| = 0.5 m
(1) At the principal focus 7. A concave mirror produces three times magnified
(2) Between focus & centre of curvature (enlarged) real image of an object placed at 10 cm
(3) Between focus and pole in front of the mirror. Where is the image located?
(4) Beyond the centre of curvature (1) –60 cm (2) –80 cm (3) –30 cm (4) –40 cm
Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (3)
-v
Magnification + 8 expresses that the image formed Magnification, m = – 3 =
u
by the concave mirror is virtual and magnified. It
or v = 3 u
happens when the object is placed between pole
or v = 3 × (– 10) = – 30 cm
and focus of the mirror.

1
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

8. The magnification of a spherical mirror is + 2. Ans. (i) When an object is placed between the pole and
Then the mirror must be focus of concave mirror, a magnified, erect and
(1) Plane (2) Concave virtual image is obtained.
(3) Convex (4) Any one of these (ii) Here, u = –12 cm, m = –4, v = ?
Ans. Option (2) -v
As m =
Magnification +2 expresses that the image is virtual u
and magnified, which can be obtained by using a -v
concave mirror. or – 4 = or v = – 48 cm
-12
12. (i) Where will the image be formed by a convex
Assertion & Reason type questions (1 mark)
mirror if object is placed between infinity and
Direction (Q.9 & 10) : In the following questions, a pole of the mirror?
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
(ii) Draw a ray diagram to show the path of the
statement of reason (R). Answer these questions
reflected ray corresponding to an incident ray
selecting the appropriate option given below:
which is directed parallel to the principal axis
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason
of a convex mirror. Mark on it, the angle of
(R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
incidence and the angle of reflection.
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
Ans. (i) The image will be formed between pole and
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
focus of the convex mirror and behind the
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
convex mirror.
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. (ii) Reflected ray
9. Assertion : Large concave mirrors are used to Normal
concentrate sunlight to produce heat in solar r
Incident ray i
cookers.
Reason : Concave mirror converges the light rays
coming from infinite (i.e. a parallel beam of light) P F C
and falling on it, to a point after reflection.
Ans. Option (1)
Convex mirror
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion Here, i = angle of incidence and r = angle of
(A). reflection.

10. Assertion : Plane mirror may form real image. 13. An object is placed at a distance of 20 cm in front
of a convex mirror of radius of curvature 30 cm.
Reason : Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object
Find the position and nature of the image.
is real.
(CBSE 2004)
Ans. Option (2)
Ans. Here, object distance, u = –20 cm
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason Radius of curvature = 30 cm, v = ?
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
1 1 1 2
Plane mirror forms a virtual image of a real object As + = =
v u f R
and a real image of a virtual object.
1 2 1
Very short answer type questions (2 marks) \ = -
v R u
11. (i) Which property of concave mirror is utilised for
using them as shaving mirrors? 1 2 1 4+3 7
= + = =
v 30 20 60 60
(ii) An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in
front of a concave mirror. It forms a real image 60
v= = 8.57 cm
four times larger than the object. Calculate the 7
distance of image from the mirror. As v is positive, image is at the back of the mirror.
(CBSE 2009) It must be virtual and erect.

2
 ® Physics
ALLEN
14. With the help of ray diagrams, show the formation 17. (i) What should be the position of the object when
of the image of an object by a concave mirror, when a concave mirror is to be used
it is placed (CBSE 2004) (a) as a shaving mirror and
(i) beyond the centre of curvature.
(b) in torches producing parallel beam of light?
(ii) at the centre of curvature.
(ii) A man standing in front of a mirror, finds his
M image having a very small head and legs of
A D normal size. What type of mirrors are used in
Image
Ans. (i) Object designing such a mirror? (CBSE 2011)
B'
B P
C F Ans. (i) (a) Object should be between pole and focus.
A'
(b) Object should be at the focus.
M' F
(ii) (a) Small head image - convex mirror.
(b) Normal size image of legs - plane mirror.
M
A D 18. An 4 cm high object is placed at a distance of 15
Object cm in front of a convex mirror having a radius of
B curvature of 10 cm. Find the position of image
(ii) P formed.
B' F
Image Ans. Given : u = – 15 cm, R = +10 cm,
A' M' E
R 10
focal length, f = = = +5 cm
2 2
15. (i) What is the minimum distance between an
object and its real image in case of a concave using mirror formula,
mirror?
(ii) List three characteristics of the image formed 1 1 1
+ =
by plane mirrors? v u f
Ans. (i) Zero (0). When the object is at centre of
curvature, its real image is also form at C. 1 1 1 1 æ 1 ö 3 +1 15
or = – = –ç ÷= =
(ii) Three characteristics of image formed by plane v f u 5 è –15 ø 15 4
mirror :
or v = + 3.75 cm
(a) Image formed by a plane mirror is always
The image is formed at 3.75 cm from the mirror
virtual and erect.
behind it.
(b) The size of the image is equal to the size of
19. A concave mirror forms a real image that is twice
the object.
the size of the object. If the object is at 20 cm from
(c) The image formed is as far behind the the mirror, find the radius of curvature of the mirror.
mirror as the object is in front of it.
Ans. Given : u = – 20 cm, m = – 2
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

16. How can you distinguish between a plane mirror, a

f
concave mirror and a convex mirror without Magnification, m =
f-u
touching them?
f f
Ans. By keeping the mirrors closer to us and observing or – 2 = =
f - (– 20) f + 20
the virtual image formed by the three mirrors, we
can distinguish between the mirrors as:
40
(i) Plane mirror will produce a virtual image of the or f = - cm
3
same size,
Therefore, radius of curvature,
(ii) Concave mirror will produce a magnified virtual
image, and 80
R = 2f = - cm » – 27 cm
(iii) Convex mirror will produce a diminished virtual 3
image.

3
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Short answer type questions (3 marks) Ans. (i) The mirror is concave mirror.
20. An object 2 cm high is placed at a distance of 16 (ii) Given, m = –1, u = –50 cm
cm from a concave mirror which produces a real -v
image 3 cm high. \ Magnification, m =
u
(i) Find the position of the image -v
Þ –1 =
(ii) What is the focal length of mirror? -50
Ans. Given : Þ v = –50 cm
Object height, h = +2 cm Therefore, the image is real and inverted and
Image height, h' = –3 cm (real image) of same size as that of the object.
Object distance, u = –16 cm
So distance of image from object is zero.
Image distance, v = ?
Focal length, f = ? (iii) Here, R = 2f = –50 cm

(i) Position of image : 50

Þf=– = –25 cm
From the expression of magnification 2
Focal length of the concave mirror will be
h' v
m= =- negative.
h u

h' A M
We have, v = –u (iv)
h Object
B
-3 C P
B' F
Putting values, we get v = –(–16) × Image
2
A' N
or v = –24 cm
The image is formed at distance of 24 cm in 22. You wish to obtain an erect image of an object, using
front of the mirror (negative sign means object
concave mirror of focal length 15 cm.
and image are on the same side).
What should be the range of the distance of the
(ii) Focal length of mirror
object from the mirror? What is the nature of image?
1 1 1 Is the image larger or smaller than the object ? Draw
Using mirror formula, = +
f u v a ray diagram to show the formation of image in
1 1 1 this case.
Putting values, we get = +
f -16 -24
Ans. (a) The object should lie between P and F. Thus the
-3 - 2 5
= =- range of object position from the pole of mirror
48 48
should be from 0 to 15 cm.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

48
or f = - = –9.6 cm (b) The image is virtual and erect.
5
21. A spherical mirror produces an image of (c) Image is larger than the size of the object.
magnification –1 on a screen placed at a distance (d) Image is formed behind the mirror.
of 50 cm from the mirror.
(i) Write the type of mirror. A1
E
(ii) Find the distance of the image from the object. A
D
(iii) What is the focal length of the mirror?
C F B P B1
(iv) Draw the ray diagram to show the image (Object) (Image)
formation in this case.

4
 ® Physics
ALLEN
23. An object 5.0 cm in length is placed at a distance 15 cm
30 cm
of 20 cm in front of a convex mirror of focal length
M
of 15 cm. Find the position of the image, its nature
and size. (Object) E
(Image) A D
Ans. f = +15 cm, u = –20 cm, ho = 5.0 cm
B' C
1 1 1 B F P
Q + = (mirror formula)
v u f
A'
1 1 1
\ + = 10 cm
v (-20) 15

1 1 1
= + Apply mirror formula,
v 15 20

1 7 60 1 1 1
= or v = cm = 8.57 cm + =
v 60 7 v u f
Image is virtual, erect and is formed behind the
mirror. 1 1 1
or = -
v f u
hi v
Also, h = - u
o 1 1 1
or = -
hi 8.57 v -10 -15
Þ =-
5 ( -20)
1 1 1 - 3 + 2 -1
Þ hi = 2.14 cm or =- + = =
v 10 15 30 30
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
24. (a) To construct a ray diagram we use two rays of or v = –30
light which are so chosen that it is easy to
A real and inverted image is formed at a distance
determine their directions after reflection from
the mirror. Choose these two rays and state the of 30 cm in front of the mirror (negative sign
path of these rays after reflection from a means object and image are on the same side).
concave mirror. Use these two rays to find the
nature and position of the image of an object
placed at a distance of 15 cm from a concave (Object)
A
mirror of focal length 10 cm.
C B
(b) Draw the ray diagram when (b) (i)
F P
(i) an object is placed at focus of the concave
mirror.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

(ii) an object is placed at some finite distance Object placed at focus

from a convex mirror.
Ans. (a) The rays that can be choosen are :
(i) A ray parallel to the principal axis which will
A
pass through the principal focus of a concave
mirror, after reflection. A'
(ii)
(ii) A ray passing through the centre of curvature
B P B' F C
of a concave mirror is reflected back along the
(Object) (Image)
same path, after reflection.
Object distance, u = –15 cm, focal length,
Object placed at some finite distance
f = –10 cm, image distance, v = ?

5
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

25. A student wants to project the image of a candle 1 1 1 1 1

\ = - = -
flame on a screen 80 cm in front of a mirror by v f u ( -12) (-18)
keeping the candle flame at a distance of 20 cm
-1 1 -3 + 2 -1
from its pole. = + = =
12 18 36 36
(i) Which type of mirror should the student use?
v = –36 cm
(ii) Find the magnification of the image produced.
(iii) Find the distance between the object and its v æ -36 cm ö
(b) h' = - ´ h = - ç ÷ ´ 1.5 cm
image. u è -18 cm ø
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the image = –3 cm (Magnified, inverted image)
formation. In this case, mark the distance If u = –10 cm, no image would be formed on
between the object and its image. the screen. In this case the image formed will
be virtual, erect and magnified and its location
Ans. (i) Concave mirror should be used.
will be behind the mirror.
(ii) Object distance, u = –20 cm; image distance,
A'
v = –80 cm; magnification, m = ? M
A
v ( -80 cm)
m= - =- = –4
u ( -20 cm)
C F B P B'
(iii) Distance between object and its image
= |v| – |u| = 60 cm N
27. Size of image of an object formed by a mirror having
(iv) 60 cm
a focal length of 20 cm, is observed to be reduced
A 1
B' P to rd of its size. At what distance the object has
3
C F
been placed from the mirror? What is the nature
(Image) (Object)
of the image and the mirror?
A' Ans. An image smaller in size can be formed both by
20 cm a concave mirror as well as a convex mirror.
26. A student has focused the image of a candle flame Case I : When mirror is concave, the
on a white screen using a concave mirror. The diminished image is real.
situation is as given below : 1
Hence, m = - , f = –20 cm
3
Length of the flame = 1.5 cm
v
Focal length of the mirror = 12 cm As m = -
u
Distance of flame from the mirror = 18 cm 1 v
\ - =-
If the flame is perpendicular to the principal axis of 3 u
the mirror, then calculate the following : u
v=
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Þ
(a) Distance of the image from the mirror. 3
1 1 1
(b) Length of the image. Using, + =
v u f
If the distance between the mirror and the flame is
3 1 1
reduced to 10 cm, then what would be observed or + =
u u -20
on the screen? Draw ray diagram to justify your 4 1
or =-
answer for this situation. u 20
Ans. Given : height of object, h = +1.5 cm; focal length, or u = –80 cm
f = –12 cm; object distance, u = –18 cm; image u -80
Now, v = = cm = –26.66 cm
distance, v = ?; height of image, h' = ? 3 3
\ Image is real and inverted and mirror is
1 1 1
(a) Applying mirror formula, = + converging.
f v u
6
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Case II : When mirror is convex, the M
diminished image is virtual. A

1
m = , f = +20 cm
3
B C B' F P
v 1 Object
As, m = - = A'
u 3 Image
N
u
Þ v = - 20 cm
3
30 cm
1 1 1 Find the distance between the object and the
Using, + =
v u f image for the arrangement shown in figure
above.
3 1 1
or - + = OR
u u 20
For the arrangement shown in figure above,
Þ u = –40 cm
if the object is moved closer to mirror by 25
( -40) 40 cm, find the distance between the object and
and v = – = cm = 13.33 cm
3 3 the image.
Ans. (a) For various positions of an object in front of a
\ Image is virtual and erect and mirror is diverging.
concave mirror, it can form a real and invert
Case based question (4 marks) image or a virtual and erect image of an object.
Direction : Q.28 is a case based question with short The real image formed by the concave mirror
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these can be bigger, smaller or same size as that of
sub-parts. the object. The virtual image formed by the
concave mirror is always bigger than the object.
28. A group of four students performed an experiment
(b) Two uses of concave mirror :
to find the relation among the distance of an object
(i) As reflectors in car head lights, search lights,
and image from a mirror and the focal length of the hand torches, table lamps, etc. to get
mirror, by using a concave mirror. They did the powerful parallel beams of light.
experiment with a proper set up of a concave (ii) Dentists use it to see large images of the
mirror, a screen and an object placed on a table teeth of patients.
where they can change and measure the distances (c) Given : Concave mirror,
among the mirror, object and screen. During the R
u = – 30 cm, R = – 20 cm, f = = – 10 cm,
experiment, the students observed that a bigger, 2
v=?
smaller or a same size of image (as compared to Using mirror formula,
the size of the object) can be obtained on the screen
1 1 1
when using the concave mirror. = +
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

f v u
(a) State about the nature and size of images of an
1 1 é 1 ù
object which can be formed by a Concave Þ – = + -
10 v êë 30 úû
mirror.
1 1 1 -3 + 1 -2
(b) Write any two uses of a concave mirror. Þ =- + = =
v 10 30 30 30
(c) Following figure illustrates the ray diagram for
Þ v = – 15 cm
the formation of image of an object by a concave
Since the image and object both are at the same
mirror, in one of the cases experimentally
side of mirror, the distance between them
studied by the students. The radius of curvature
d = |u| – |v| = |–30| – |15|
of mirror is 20 cm and the object's distance from
mirror is 30 cm, as shown in figure below. = 30 – 15 = 15 cm

7
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

OR (b) Mirror B is convex. When the object is at a

When the object in moved closer to mirror by finite distance from the mirror the image formed
25 cm, the distance of object from the mirror by the convex mirror is diminished, virtual and
will be, u = – 5 cm erect.
Using mirror formula, (c) Mirror C is plane. Image formed by a plane
1 1 1 mirror is always virtual and erect. The size of
= +
f v u
the image is equal to that of the object.
1 1 æ 1ö
Þ – = + ç- ÷ 30. In the set-up shown below, the focal length of the
10 v è 5 ø
1 1 1 2 -1 1 concave mirror is 4.0 cm. Where should the screen
Þ = - = =
v 5 10 10 10 be placed on the scale to obtain a sharp image?
Þ v = + 10 cm
Light from
The image is formed behind the mirror; a distant
therefore, distance between object and image, object Concave
mirror
d = |u| + |v| = |–5| + |10|
= 5 + 10 = 15 cm

Practical based questions (2 marks)

0 centimetres 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
29. A student wanted to pick up a concave mirror from 0 inches 1 2 3 4

three mirrors A, B, C lying on a table to find its

focal length. He looks into mirror A, he finds his
Ans. When the object is kept at infinity in front of a
image enlarged and erect. When he looks in mirror
B, his image is diminished and erect. When he concave mirror, then its image is formed at focus

looks in mirror C, his image is erect and of same and the focal length of the concave mirror is 4.0
size. Find the correct identification of A, B, C in cm, here. Mirror stand is placed at 5.0 cm mark
respective order.
of the metre scale. Hence the screen should be
Ans. (a) Mirror A is concave. When the face is placed
placed at 1 cm mark on the scale to obtain a sharp
close to the concave mirror, it produces enlarged
image.
and erect image.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

8
 ® Physics
ALLEN
PHYSICS OPTICS : REFRACTION OF LIGHT
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 4. Find the magnification of an image formed by a
1. Which of the following statements are correct? convex lens, if an object is placed at 30 cm from a
According to new Cartesian sign convention for convex lens which has a focal length of 15 cm.
convex lens, (1) +1 (2) +0.5 (3) –0.5 (4) –1
A. distance of the object from lens is taken Ans. Option (4)
negative. Given : Convex lens, f = +15 cm, u = – 30 cm
B. distance of the real image from lens is taken The object is placed at 30 cm i.e., at position '2F 1';
negative. In this case, a real and inverted image is formed at
C. distance of the virtual image from lens is taken position '2F2' which is at 30 cm from the lens.
positive.
So, v = +30
D. focal length of the lens is taken positive.
v +30
(1) A and B (2) A and C Magnification, m = = =–1
u –30
(3) A and D (4) A, B, C and D 5. The power of a convex lens of focal length 10 cm
Ans. Option (3) is:
Only statements A and D are correct. (1) 1 D (2) 10 D
2. The combination of a convex lens and a concave (3) 100 D (4) 0.01 D
lens, each of focal length 10 cm, behave as: Ans. Option (2)
(1) Convex lens (2) Concave lens 100 100
P= = = + 10 D
f(cm) 10
(3) Plane glass slab (4) None of the above
6. When an object moves closer to a concave lens, the
Ans. Option (3)
Image formed by the lens shifts :
f1 = + 10 cm, f2 = – 10 cm (1) Away from the lens
Power of lens combination, (2) Towards the lens
P = P1 + P2 (3) First away and then towards the lens
(4) First towards and then away from the lens
1 1 1 1 Ans. Option (2)
or P = + = – =0
f1 f2 10 10 When an object moves closer to a concave lens, the
Image formed by the lens shifts towards the lens.
Here, P = 0 indicates that the combination of lenses
7. A student obtained a sharp image of an illuminated
will be have as a transparent plane glass slab. distant tower on a screen by using a convex lens.
3. The refractive index of crown glass is close to 3/2. In order to obtain a sharp image of a nearby placed
If the speed of light in air is c, then the speed of object on the screen, he must shift the screen :
(1) Towards the lens.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

light in the crown glass will be close to

(2) Away from the lens.
3c 4c 2c 9c
(1) (2) (3) (4) (3) Either towards or away the lens.
2 9 3 4
(4) Nothing can be said.
Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (2)
c The sharp image of distant tower is formed at the
ng = principal focus (or focal plane) of convex lens. To
v
obtained the sharp image of a nearby object on a
3 c
or = screen using a convex lens, the position of screen
2 v
from the lens should be at a distance more than its
2c
or v = focal length. So, the screen should be moved away
3
from the lens.

9
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

8. When light travels from one medium to the other 12. (i) What is meant by power of a lens?
medium, both having different refractive indices, (ii) Two lenses of power +12 D and –2 D are placed
then which of the following quantities (relevant to in contact. What will be the focal length of the
light) do change? combination?
(1) Frequency, wavelength and velocity Ans. (i) Power of a lens is the degree of convergence
(2) Frequency and wavelength or divergence of light rays received by a lens,
(3) Frequency and velocity 1
(4) Wavelength and velocity P= (where f = focal length in m).
f
Ans. Option (4) (ii) Power of the lens-combination,
When the light changes its medium for its travelling, P = P1 + P2 = 12 – 2 = + 10 D
its frequency remains unchanged but the wavelength So, the focal length of the combination,
and velocity change.
1 1
f= = = 0.1 m = 10 cm
Assertion & Reason type questions (1 mark) P 10
Direction (Q.9 & 10) : In the following questions, a
13. (i) Why is refractive index of atmosphere different
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
at different altitudes?
statement of reason (R). Answer these questions
(ii) The refractive index of diamond is 2.42. What
selecting the appropriate option given below:
is the meaning of this statement?
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason Ans. (i) Refractive index of atmosphere is different at
(R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A). different altitudes because the air density
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason changes with altitudes.
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). (ii) Absolute refractive index (n) of a medium is
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. given by,
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. c c 1
n= or v= or v µ
9. Assertion : Refractive index has no unit. v n n
Reason : The refractive index is a ratio of two similar Since, the refractive index of diamond is 2.42,
quantities. this suggests that the speed of light in diamond
Ans. Option (1) will reduce by a factor of 2.42 as compared to
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason its speed in vacuum.
(R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A). 14. Explain with the help of a diagram, why a pencil
10. Assertion : Light travels faster in glass than in air. partly immersed in water appears to be bent at the
water surface. (CBSE 2008)
Reason : Glass is denser than air.
Ans. Option (4)
C
Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. Image Air
Very short answer type questions (2 marks)
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

B
11. (i) Define 1 dioptre of power of a lens.
A' Water
(ii) What will be the focal length of a lens whose
power is given as + 2.0 D? (CBSE 2004)
Ans. (i) 1 dioptre is the power of a lens whose focal A
length is 1 metre. Pencil
1 D = 1 m–1
Ans. In fig., ABC is pencil immersed partially in water.
(ii) Here, f = ?, P = + 2.0 D
Rays of light starting from A suffer refraction at the
1
As, P = water surface. Rays bend away from normal and
f
appear to come from A'. Therefore, the pencil ABC
1 1 100
\f= = m= cm = 50 cm appears as A'BC, bent at the water surface.
P 2 2
10
 ® Physics
ALLEN
15. The absolute refractive indices of glass and water 18. Draw a labelled diagram to locate the image of an
are 4/3 and 3/2 respectively. If the speed of light object formed by a convex lens of focal length 20
in glass is 2 × 108 m/s, calculate the speed of light cm when the object is placed 30 cm away from the
in (i) vacuum, (ii) water. lens.
4 Ans. Here, v = ?, f = 20 cm, u = –30 cm,
Ans. Refractive index of glass, ng =
3
A
Speed of light in vacuum
\ ng = Object
Speed of light in glass B'
B F C F
4 Speed of light in vacuum Image
=
3 2 ´ 108 A'
30 cm 60 cm
4 ´ 2 ´ 108
Speed of light in vacuum =
3 1 1 1
= 2.67 × 108 m/s From – = we have,
v u f
3
Refractive index of water, nw =
2 1 1 1 1 1 3–2 1
= + = – = =
Speed of light in vacuum v f u 20 30 60 60
nw =
Speed of light in water or v = 60 cm.
3 2.67 ´ 108
= Short answer type questions (3 marks)
2 Speed of light in water
Speed of light in water = 1.78 × 108 m/s 19. (i) Draw a ray diagram to show the refraction of
light through a glass slab and mark an angle of
16. Refractive index of water with respect to air is 4/3
refraction and the lateral shift suffered by the
and glass is 3/2. What is the refractive index of glass
ray of light while passing through the slab.
with respect to water?
Ans. When there are three media air, water and glass, (ii) If the refractive index of glass for light going
We have anw × wng × gna = 1 from air to glass is 3/2, find the refractive index
a
ng 3 / 2 9 of air for light going from glass to air.
1
\ w
ng = = = =
a g
nw ´ na a
nw 4 / 3 8 (CBSE 2016)
\ Refractive index of glass with respect to water OR
is 9/8. “A ray of light incident on a rectangular glass slab
17. Two thin lenses of focal lengths + 10 cm and – 5 immersed in any medium emerges parallel to itself.”
cm are kept in contact. What is the focal length and Draw a diagram to justify the statement.
power of the combination? Ans. (i) N
A
Ans. Here, f1 = +10 cm, f2 = – 5 cm i
\ Focal length of the combination of lenses is given P Q
O
1 1 1 r
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

by = + N'
f f1 f2
1 1 1 1 1 M B
Þ = + = - r
f 10 -5 10 5 d
1 1-2 S O' R
Þ = e
f 10 D
M'
1 1 C
Þ =-
f 10
In above figure,
\ f = –10 cm
ÐN' OO' = Ðr = angle of refraction
100 -100 ÐMO' O = Ðr = angle of refraction
Power = P = = = – 10 D
f 10 Distance, O' B = Lateral displacement (d)

11
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

3 21. An object 3.0 cm high is placed perpendicular to

(ii) Given, refractive index from air to glass is .
2 the principal axis of a concave lens of focal length
7.5 cm. The image is formed at a distance of 5.0
ng 3
i.e. nga = = . cm from the lens. Calculate (i) distance at which
na 2
object is placed, and (ii) size and nature of image
Q It is known that, n21 × n12 = 1 formed. (CBSE 2006)
\ nga × nag = 1 Ans. Here, h1 = 3.0 cm, f = –7.5 cm, v = –5.0 cm

1 u = ?, h2 = ?
Þ nag =
n ga
1 1 1
From = -
1 2 f v u
Þ nag = =
(3 / 2) 3 1 1 1 1 1 -3 + 2
or = - = - =
i.e., Refractive index of air for light going from u v f -5 -7.5 15
2 or u = –15 cm
glass to air is given by n ag =
3
i.e., object is at 15 cm from the concave lens.
20. A concave lens of focal length 15 cm forms an image
h2 v
at 10 cm from the lens. How far is the object placed Also, =
h1 u
from the lens? Draw the relevant ray diagram for
image formation by the lens. v -5.0
or h2 = × h1 = ´ 3.0 = 1 cm
u -15.0
Ans. Given : f = – 15 cm, v = – 10 cm
The image is virtual and erect, and its size is 1 cm.
(The sign of image distance is taken negative
22. An object 50 cm tall is placed on the principal axis
because the position of image formed by a concave of a convex lens. Its 20 cm tall image is formed on
lens is always on the same side of the object.) the screen placed at a distance of 10 cm from the
lens. Calculate the focal length of the lens.
By lens equation,
(CBSE 2007)
1 1 1
- = Ans. Here, h1 = 50 cm, h2 = –20 cm
v u f
v = 10 cm, f = ?
1 1 1
or - =
( -10) u -15 As image is formed on the screen, it must be real
and inverted. (h2 is negative)
-1 1 1
or + =
10 15 u h2 v -20 10
From m= = , =
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

h1 u 50 u
1 -3 + 2 1
or = =-
u 30 30
-50 ´ 10
or u = = -25 cm
or u = – 30 cm 20

1 1 1
A AB = Object, Using lens formula = -
f v u
A'B' = Image
A'
1 1 1 5+2 7
2F1 B F1 B' O F2 2F2 or = - = =
f 10 -25 50 50
10 cm
30 cm 50
or f = cm = 7.14 cm
7

12
 ® Physics
ALLEN
23. State the laws of refraction of light. If the speed of 25. A concave lens made of a material of refractive
light in vacuum is 3 × 10 m/s, find the absolute
8 index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index n2.
refractive index of a medium in which light travels A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens.
Complete the path of rays of light emerging from
with a speed of 1.4 × 108 m/s.
the concave lens if
Ans. Laws of refraction of light :
(i) n1 > n2 (ii) n1 = n2 (CBSE 2003)
First law : The incident ray, the refracted ray, and
Ans. (i) When n1 > n2, light goes from rarer to denser
the normal at the point of incidence all lie in the medium. Therefore, in passing through a
same plane. concave lens, it diverges, fig.
Second law (Snell's law) : The ratio of sine of
n1
angle of incidence to the sine of angle of refraction n2
is a constant for a given pair of media.
sin i
i.e., = Constant
sin r
Speed of light in vacuum, c = 3 × 108 m/s
(ii) When n1 = n2, refractive index is same for both
Speed of light in medium, v = 1.4 × 108 m/s
mediums. Therefore, no bending or refraction
Absolute refractive index of medium occurs as shown in fig.
Speed of light in vacuum n1
= n2
Speed of light in medium
3 ´ 108 m / s
= = 2.14
1.4 ´ 108 m / s
24. Distinguish between a convex lens and a concave
lens. 26. (i)Water has a refractive index 1.33 and alcohol
Ans. Convex lens has refractive index 1.36. Which of the two
(1) It is thicker at the centre than at the edges. medium is optically denser? Give reason for
your answer. Draw a ray diagram to show the
(2) It has real focus. path of a ray of light passing obliquely from
(3) It converges a parallel beam of light on water to alcohol.
refraction through it. (ii) The absolute refractive index of diamond is 2.42
and the absolute refractive index of glass is 1.5.
What is the refractive index of diamond with
respect to glass?
Ans. (i) Refractive index of alcohol > refractive index
O F
of water.
So, alcohol is optically denser than water.
When a ray of light enters from water to alcohol,
Concave lens
it bends towards the normal :
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

(1) It is thinner at the centre than at the edges.

(2) It has virtual focus.
(3) It diverges a parallel beam of light on refraction Water
through it.
i

F O
Alcohol

n da 2.42
(ii) ndg = = = 1.61
n ga 1.5

13
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Long answer type questions (5 marks) 28. Why does a light ray, incident on a rectangular glass
27. A student focussed the image of a candle flame on slab immersed in any medium, emerges parallel to
a white screen using a convex lens. He noted down itself? Explain using a diagram. Prove it using
the position of the candle, screen and the lens as Snell's law.
provided below: Ans. Let us consider a glass slab bounded by parallel
Position of candle = 12.0 cm faces XY and X'Y' (see fig.).
Position of convex lens = 50.0 cm (Incident ray) A N
Position of the screen = 88.0 cm Air i1
X n1 O Y
(i) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
(ii) Where will be the image formed if he shifts the r1
Glass M
candle towards the lens at a position of 31.0 n2 N' i2
cm? d
(iii) What will be the nature of the image formed if X' Air Q Y'
n1
he further shifts the candle towards the lens? r2
M' B (Emergent ray)
(iv) Draw a ray diagram to show the formation of
the image in case (iii) as said above. A ray of light travelling in air along the path AO
Ans. (i) Here, |u|= Distance of candle from the lens gets incident on the face XY. On refraction into
= (50 – 12) cm = 38 cm glass, it bends towards the normal NN’ and travels
Now, |v|= Distance of screen from the lens along the path OQ. The refracted ray OQ strikes
= (88 – 50) cm = 38 cm the surface X'Y'. At X'Y', again refraction takes
As per sign convention, place, the ray of light bends away from normal MM'.
v = +38 cm, u = –38 cm This ray is called ‘emergent ray’ and it is parallel
to the incident ray. But, there is a shift from initial
1 1 1
Using the lens formula, - = path (AO), as the light ray emerges out (QB) and it
v u f
1 1 1 is called ‘lateral shift’ (d).
We have, + =
38 38 f Here, the incident ray is parallel to the emergent
38 ray but the emergent ray is laterally displaced from
or f = = 19 cm
2 incident ray.
(ii) If the student shifts the candle towards the lens Proof of ‘emergent ray is parallel to incident
at a position of 31.0 cm, object distance from ray’ :
lens, |u|= (50 – 31) = 19 cm. Thus, candle At surface XY (see fig.), according to Snell’s Law,
lies at the focus. Hence, image will be formed sin i1 sin i1 v1
= n21 or = ---- (1)
at infinity. sin r1 sin r1 v 2
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Where, v1 and v2 are speeds of light in medium 1

(iii) If the candle is further shifted towards the lens,
(air) and medium 2 (glass) respectively.
the candle lies between the optical centre and
At surface X'Y', according to Snell’s law,
focus of the lens. Thus a virtual, erect and
sin i2 v
magnified image is formed on the same side as = n12 = 2 ... (2)
sin r2 v1
the object. From (2) and (1) we get,
(iv) A'
sin i2 sin r1 v 2
= = ... (3)
A sin r2 sin i1 v1
but i2 = r1 ... (4)
B' F B O F
Image Object [Pair of alternate interior angles between parallel
lines.]

14
 ® Physics
ALLEN
So, from (3) and (4) we get, 30. At what distance from a concave lens of focal length
sin i2 sin i2 20 cm, a 6 cm tall object be placed so as to obtain its
=
sin r2 sin i1 image at 15 cm from the lens? Also calculate the size
or sin i1 = sin r2 of the image formed. Draw a ray diagram to justify
your answer for the above situation and label it.
or i1 = r2
Ans. Given, f = –20 cm; h1 = 6 cm; v = –15 cm; u = ?
Thus, ‘emergent ray is parallel to the incident
ray’. 1 1 1
Lens formula : = -
29. Draw ray diagrams showing the image formation f v u
by a convex lens when an object is placed
1 1 1
(a) between optical centre and focus of the lens. or - =- -
(b) between focus and twice the focal length of the lens. 20 15 u
(c) at twice the focal length of the lens. 1 3-4
(d) at infinity. or =
u 60
(e) at the focus of the lens.
or u = –60 cm (object at 60 cm from the lens)
A'
v -15 cm
Now, h2 = ´ h1 = × 6 cm
A u -60cm
Ans. (a)
2F1 B' F1 B O F2 2F2 = +1.5 cm (diminished and erect image)
M
Object placed between optical centre and focus A

A B B'
2F1 F1 O
F2 B'
(b) 2F B F1
1 O 2F2

N
A'
Object placed between F1 and 2F 1 31. Playing with an old lens one morning, Ravi discovers
that if he holds the lens 10 cm away from a wall
opposite to a window, he can see a sharp but upside-
A
F2
down picture of outside world on the wall. That
B B'
(c) 2F F1 2F2 evening, he covers a lighted lamp with a piece of
1 O
A' card having a hole of diameter 1 mm in it and a
lens is placed between the illuminated card and the
Object placed at 2F1 wall, he manages to produce a sharp image of
diameter 5 mm on the wall.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Answer the following questions based on the above

F2 2F2
(d) information :
2F 1 F1 O (i) What is the power of the lens?
(ii) In the evening experiment, how far away from
Object placed at infinity the opaque card did he place the lens?
(iii) How far apart were the card and the wall?
A Ans. (i) Since the rays from far away object get focussed
(e) B at the principal focus, distance between lens and
2F 1 F1 F2 2F2
O wall is equal to focal length 10 cm.
1 1
\ Power of the lens = = = +10D.
Object placed at focus F 1 f(in m) 0.1

15
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

(ii) In the evening experiment, Ans. (a) When u = – 30 cm (given), the image obtained
di -5 on screen is real and of the same size as that of
m= d = 1 Þ m = -5 object. It means that object's position is at '2F1'
o
in front of the lens. So, the focal length of the
v
Q m= , \ v = –5u lens,
u
30
1 1 1 f= = + 15 cm
2
Using - = , we get
v u f
(b) To obtain a virtual and magnified image of an
object, the object can be placed within the range
1 1 1
- = of focal length of convex lens i.e., between 0
-5u u 10
to 15 cm.
Þ u = –12 cm (c) Given : u = – 60 cm, f = + 15 cm, v = ?
(iii) v = 60 cm (Q v = –5u) Using lens formula

Thus, the distance between the card and the wall 1 1 1

= -
= |u| + |v| = 12 + 60 = 72 cm. f v u

Case based question (4 marks) 1 1 é 1 ù

Þ = - -
15 v êë 60 úû
Direction : Q.32 is a case based question with short
1 1 1 4 -1 3
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these Þ = - = =
v 15 60 60 60
sub-parts.
Þ v = + 20 cm
32. A student focused the image of a candle flame on a
So, the screen should be placed at 20 cm from
white screen by placing the flame at various
the lens.
distances from a equi-convex lens and by adjusting
hi v
the screen to obtain a sharp and bright image of Magnification, m = =
h0 u
candle flame on the screen. He noted all of his +20 1
or m = =–
observations. When he kept the candle flame at 30 – 60 3
cm distance from the lens, he obtained an image 1
Also, hi = – h
on the screen which was of the same size as that of 3 o
Thus, the image formed is real, inverted and its
the object (i.e. candle flame).
size will be one-third of that of the object.
(a) What is the focal length of the convex lens?
OR
(b) In which range, the positions of candle flame can
Given : v = +40 cm, f = +15 cm
be varied to obtain its virtual and magnified Using lens formula,
image by using the convex lens?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

1 1 1 1 1 1
= - Þ = -
(c) If the distance of candle flame is kept at 60 cm f v u 15 40 u
from the lens; at what distance from the lens, the 1 1 1 3-8 -5
Þ = - = =
screen should be placed to obtain a sharp bright u 40 15 120 120
image on it? What will be the size of image? Þ u = – 24 cm
OR So, the candle flame should be at 24 cm
If the screen is kept at 40 cm from the lens; at distance from the lens, if a focused sharp image
what distance from the lens, the candle flame is to be obtained on screen at 40 cm from the
should be placed to obtain a sharp bright image lens.

on screen? What will be the magnification of v +40 5

Magnification, m = = = – = – 1.67
image formed? u -24 3

16
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Practical based questions (2 marks) Ans. After measuring the distance between produced
33. What is the nature of an image formed by a thin incident ray and emergent ray, he will observe that
convex lens for a distant object? What change do distance d keep on increasing with increase in angle
you expect, if the lenses were rather thick? of incidence.
Ans. Nature of an image formed by a thin convex lens for Since, d µ sin (i – r), where r is angle of refraction.
a distant object is real, inverted and highly diminished Therefore, d increases with increase in Ði.
and it is formed at the focus of a convex lens. Thick 35. A student focuses the image of a well illuminated
convex lens has shorter focal length, so image distant object on a screen using a convex lens. After
that he gradually moves the object towards the lens
distance will be reduced as compared to thin lens.
and each times focuses its image on the screen by
34. A student traces the path of a ray of light passing
adjusting the lens.
through a rectangular glass slab for three different
(i) In which direction towards the screen or away
values of angle of incidence (Ði) namely 30°, 45°
from the screen, does he move the lens?
and 60°. He produces the incidence ray and
(ii) What happens to the size of the image does it
measures the perpendicular distance d between
decrease or increase?
produced incident and emergent ray. What will he
(iii) What happen to the image on the screen when
observe? Explain.
he moves the object very close to the lens?
Incident ray Ans. (i) In order to focus the image of a well illuminated
object on the screen, the students will move the
A B
lens towards the screen.
(ii) The size of the image decreases as the convex
lens move towards the screen.
(iii) By bringing the object very closer to lens, a
D C
d highly enlarged image which is virtual and erect
Emergent ray in a nature will be formed.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

17
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

PHYSICS HUMAN EYE AND COLOURFUL WORLD

Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 4. When ciliary muscles are relaxed, focal length of
1. Match the following with correct response. eye lens is
(1) maximum
Column-I Column-II
(2) minimum
(i) Power of (A) A farthest point to
(3) Neither maximum nor minimum
accomodation which the eye see
(4) Cannot say
clearly
Ans. Option (1)
(ii) Near point (B) The ability of eye When we are looking at distant objects, the ciliary
lens to focus near
muscles are relaxed and the eye lens becomes thin.
and far object
Consequently, the focal length of the eye lens
(iii) Far point (C) Nearest point to becomes maximum.
which the eye can 5. The size of the pupil of the eye is adjusted by:
see clearly
(1) Cornea (2) Retina
(1) i - A, ii - C, iii - B (2) i - B, ii - C, iii - A (3) Iris (4) Blind spot
(3) i - B, ii - A, iii - C (4) i - C, ii - B, iii - A Ans. Option (3)
Iris is a dark muscular diaphragm that controls the
Ans. Option (2)
size of the pupil.
i - B, ii - C, iii - A
6. Which phenomenon is responsible for increasing the
2. Read the following statements and select which of apparent length of the day by 4 minutes?
them is mismatched? (1) Reflection of sunlight
A. Iris regulates the amount of light entering the (2) Scattering of sunlight
eye through it. (3) Dispersion of sunlight
B. Ciliary muscles increases or decreases the (4) Atmospheric refraction of sunlight
thickness of lens. Ans. Option (4)
Atmospheric refraction of sunlight is responsible for
C. Optic nerves forms an image of an object.
increasing the apparent length of the day by 4
D. Light sensitive cells, rods and cones, are
minutes.
present on retina.
7. Rainbow is observed when it is raining and the Sun
(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D is shining at a position
Ans. Option (3) (1) vertically above the observer
The light-sensitive cells present on retina get (2) behind the observer
activated upon illumination (image formation) and (3) in front of the observer
generate electrical signals. These signals are sent (4) in any of the above
to the brain via the optic nerves. Ans. Option (2)
Rainbow is observed when it is raining and the Sun
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

3. The defect of eye, in which the eye lens becomes

is shining at a position behind the observer.
hazy and opaque, is named as :
8. Which phenomenon does not play a role in the
(1) Myopia
formation of rainbow?
(2) Hypermetropia (1) Absorption of light
(3) Cataract (2) Internal reflection of light
(4) Colour blindness (3) Refraction of light
(4) Dispersion of light
Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (1)
The crystalline lens of some people in old age
The phenomena of refraction, dispersion and
becomes hazy or even opaque due to development
internal reflection of light are included in formation
of membrane over it. This defect is called ‘cataract’
of a rainbow. Absorbtion of light is not responsible
which leads to decrease or loss of vision of the eye.
for the formation of rainbow.
18
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Assertion & Reason type questions (1 mark) 12. (i)When a monochromatic light having only one
Direction (Q.9 & 10) : In the following questions, a wavelength, passes through a prism, will it show
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a dispersion?
statement of reason (R). Answer these questions (ii) Name the component of white light which deviates
selecting the appropriate option given below:
the least and the component that deviates the
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
most while passing through a glass prism.
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A). Ans. (i) No, it will not show dispersion. It will only show
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason deviation.
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). (ii) Least deviated component : Red
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. Most deviated component : Violet
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
13. The image formed on retina is inverted but we see
9. Assertion : Hypermetropia is the defect of the eye
the object erect. Why?
in which only farther objects are seen clearly by an
observer. Ans. The image formed on retina is inverted and this
Reason : Hypermetropia is corrected by using image is formed on the light sensitive cells called
converging lens. rods and cones of the retina which generates
Ans. Option (2) electrical signals. These signals reach brain via optic
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason nerves. It is the brain that interprets this image and
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A) while processing the image, it helps in perceiving
10. Assertion : The stars twinkle while the planets do objects as they are.
not.
14. What is night blindness and colour blindness?
Reason : The stars are much bigger in size than
the planets. Ans. When a person lacks rod cells in retina, he is not
Ans. Option (2) able to see the objects clearly in less/dim light, such
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason a defect is called night blindness.
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). When a person lacks of cone cells in retina, he is
As planets are much closer to the earth as
not able to see/distinguish between different colours,
compared to stars, planets can be considered as a
such a defect of eye is called as colour blindness.
collection of large number of point sized sources of
light. The total variation in the amount of light 15. (i) Why danger signals are red?
entering our eye from all these individual point sized (ii) What is the angle of emergence of a prism, if
sources will average out to zero which nullify the
the emergent ray makes an angles of 45° with
twinkling effect of each other. Therefore, planets
the second refracting surface of the prism?
do not twinkle.
Ans. (i) Danger signals are of red colour, as it scatters
Very short answer type questions (2 marks)
the least and can be seen from a greater
11. (i) Name the part of the human eye
distance.
(a) that helps in changing the focal length of
the eye lens. (ii) The angle between emergent ray and the
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

(b) that controls the amount of light entering normal at the second refracting surface of prism
into the eye. is called angle of emergence.
(c) that sustains real and inverted image of the Ðe = 90° – 45° = 45°
object formed on it.
16. Explain the phenomenon which causes twinkling of
(ii) What is the range of vision of a normal human
eye? Define the power of accommodation of stars.
human eye. Ans. The phenomenon is atmospheric refraction. In this
Ans. (i) (a) Ciliary muscles (b) Iris (c) Retina case, the stars are point sources of light which are
(ii) The range of vision of a normal human eye is very far from us. When light from stars travels
25 cm to infinity.
through atmosphere, it bends and due to this, the
The ability of eye to change the shape of the
amount of light entering the eye is different each
lens to see nearby as well as distant objects
clearly, is called power of accommodation. time which gives the twinkling effect.

19
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

17. Give reason for early sunrise and delayed sunset. (ii) A = Cornea
Apparent B = Ciliary muscles
Ans.
position of sun C = Retina
.......
.............
.....
..... .... ..... Horizon D = Optic nerve
..... ..........
.....
.....
..... .....
..... .....
.....
..... ..... Function of B and D are:
.....
..... .....
..... Earth ..... ..... B : Ciliary muscles : It helps in holding the
.....
..... .....
..... Sun
..... .....
.....
......
......... ......
......... eye lens and changing or adjusting the focal
....................
................
.......... length of the lens.
Earth's atmosphere D : Optic nerve : It sends the electrical signal
from retina to the brain.
Sun being far off, the light rays entering our eye
gets refracted several times due to the atmosphere 20. Why does it take sometime to see objects in a dim
and the sunrise and sunset are seen to us for slight room when you enter the room from bright sunlight
longer duration of time due to the bending of light, outside?
when the position of sun is below horizon. Ans. In the bright sunlight, iris causes the pupil to become
18. Why does the clear sky appear blue? How would smaller so that only a small portion of light enters
th e sky appear in the absence of earth 's the eye and rods of the retina are also adjusted in
atmosphere? the same way. But, when a person enters into a dimly
lighted room, each iris takes some time to increase
Ans. Blue colour of light has smaller wavelength, so it
the diameter of the pupil, so that more amount of
scatters more in upper layer of atmosphere, in
comparison to the other colours. Thus sky appears light can enter the eyes to see the object clearly and
blue. The sky will appear dark in the absence of rod cells of the retina also take some time to adjust
earth's atmosphere. themselves to get the picture of the object in the
dim light.
19. (i) Briefly describe the formation of rainbow in the
sky with the help of a diagram. Short answer type questions (3 marks)
21. Give th e difference bet ween myopia and
(ii) In the given diagram, label A, B, C and D and
write down the function of B and D. hypermetropia.
Ans. S.No. Myopia Hyperm etropia
1 Short-sighted person Long-sighted person
can see nearby can see far off
A C object but cannot see objects but cannot
far off objects see nearby objects
D clearly. clearly .
B 2 Image is formed in Image is formed
Ans. (i) The rainbow is produced due to the refraction, front of retina. beyond retina.
dispersion and internal reflection of sunlight by 3 The size of eyeball The size of eyeball
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

tiny droplets of water suspended in air, just after increases. decreases.

rain. 4 Focal length of eye Focal length of eye
lens decreases. lens increases.
Sunlight
A 5 Corrected by using Corrected by using
concave lens. convex lens.
R

V 22. A person cannot see objects farther than 12 m from

the eye clearly. Name the, defect of vision he is
42°
suffering from and the lens that should be used for
V correction of this defect. Illustrate with the help of
Raindrop
a diagram, how this lens will correct the defective

R vision.

20
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Ans. Name of the defect of vision — Myopia (short \ Focal length of the lens
sightedness).
200 200 1 2
= cm = ´ m= m
Lens used for correction of this defect – Concave 3 3 100 3
lens. So, the power of the lens,

1 1 3
P= = D = D = +1.5 D
Image f(in m) 2 / 3 2
N F2
Image of far off Image of the object
object is formed at situated at D
Concave
point N where the Lens
eye can see clearly
Clear
To enable such a person to see the objects situated N D F2 Image
at infinity, a concave lens is used, so that the image
of the object is formed at the far-off point of clear Convex
Lens
vision. The required focal length of concave lens Correction of the defect using the lens
depends upon the degree of abnormality in the eye.
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
23. A person wears spectacles of power – 2.5 D. Name 25. Explain the functioning of a human eye.
the defect of vision he is suffering from. Ans. Functioning of human eye
Draw the ray diagram for (i) the defective eye (ii) its (i) When the light enters the eye from air, most of
correction. the bending of light occurs at cornea. Some
additional bending is done by the lens so as to
Ans. Name of the defect of vision – Myopia (short
form an inverted, real image of the object on
sightedness) retina.
(ii) When the eye is focused on a distant object, the
(i) Parallel rays from distant object
ciliary muscle relaxes allowing ligaments to
Blurred
Image
increase tension on the lens and cause it to
F2 flatten i.e., the lens becomes thin or less curved.
The defective eye In this case, the focal length of the eye lens has
its maximum value which is equal to its distance
from the retina. The parallel rays coming into
(ii) the eye from the distant object are focused on
Image

N F2 the retina and we see the object clearly.

Image of far off
object is formed at Concave (iii) When the eye is focused on a closer object, the
point N where the Lens ciliary muscle contracts, allowing the lens, by
eye can see clearly
virtue of its elasticity, to become more curved
Correction of defective eye
i.e., the lens becomes thick. In this case, the
24. A person cannot see objects less than 40 cm from focal length of the eye lens decreases. The
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

his eyes clearly. Name the defect of vision he is ciliary muscles adjust the focal length in such a
suffering from. Calculate the power of the lens he way that image is formed on the retina and we
should use to read a book at 25 cm distance from see the object clearly.

his eyes. Draw a ray diagram for correction of the (iv) The light-sensitive cells get activated upon
illumination and generate electrical signals.
defect using the lens
These signals are sent to the brain via the optic
Ans. Name of the defect of vision – Hypermetropia nerves. The brain interprets these signals, and
u = –25 cm (For normal eye) finally, processes the information so that we
perceive objects as they are i.e., the brain
v = – 40 cm
makes an inverted image of the image formed
1 1 1 1 1 -5 + 8 3 on the retina to make the vision of the object
Now, = - =- - = =
f v u 40 -25 200 200 again erect (or upright).

21
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

26. (a) What is Myopia? State two causes of Myopia. (iv) Dissolve about 200 g of sodium thiosulphate
With the help of a labelled ray diagram show (hypo) in water taken in the beaker B. Add about
the correction of Myopia using appropriate lens. 1 to 2 mL of concentrated sulphuric acid with
(b) The near point of a hypermetropic eye is 1 m. the help of an injection syringe dropwise in the
Find the power of the lens required to correct beaker containing hypo solution.
this defect. Assume that near point of the
(v) What do you observe?
normal eye is 25 cm.
Ans. (a) Myopia : A person suffering from this defect can You will notice fine microscopic sulphur particles
see nearer objects clearly, but cannot see the precipitating in about 2 to 3 seconds. As the
far-off objects clearly. sulphur particles begin to form, you can observe
Two causes of myopia : the blue light from the sides of the beaker. This
(i) Excessive curvature of the cornea. is due to scattering of short wavelengths by
(ii) The eye ball gets elongated. minute colloidal sulphur particles. Observe the
colour of the light patch on the screen. It is
interesting to observe the change in colour of
Image the patch-from orange red colour in the
N F2
Image of far off beginning to bright crimson red colour later, on
object is formed at
Concave the screen.
point N where the
Lens
eye can see clearly
Correction of myopic eye M
L1 L2
(b) Given : u = –25 cm, v = –1 m = – 100 cm, f = ?
For the correction of hypermetropic eye, S
1 1 1 1 1 -1 + 4 3
= - =- - = =
f v u 100 -25 100 100 B
C N
100 100 1
Þ f= cm = m= m This activity demonstrates the scattering
3 3 ´ 100 3
phenomena of light helps us to understand the
1 1
\ Power of the lens, P = = = +3D bluish colour of the sky in general and the
f(in m) 1 / 3
reddish appearance of the sun at the sunrise or
Thus, convex lens having power of 3D is used for
the sunset.
the correction of hypermetropic eye.
27. With the help of an activity show the blue colour of Case based question (4 marks)
the sky and the reddish appearance of the sun at Direction : Q.28 is a case based question with short
the sunrise or sunset. sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
Ans. Activity sub-parts.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

28. Eye is a natural optical device by which human could

(i) Place a source of light S such as an electric bulb
at the focus of a converging lens L1. This lens see objects around him. It forms an inverted, real
image on a light sensitive surface. It works on the
provides a parallel beam of light.
phenomenon of refraction of light through a natural
(ii) Allow the parallel light beam from lens L1 to pass convex lens. However, Meena was unable to see
through a transparent glass beaker B of clearly the words written on the black board placed
capacity 500 mL. at a distance of 3 m or beyond from her but reading
(iii) After passing through the beaker, allow the light a book was not a problem for her eye-sight. Her
beam to pass through a circular hole made in mother discussed the same with the doctor. Doctor
cardboard C. Obtain a sharp image of the hole explained her about this defect of vision and its
on a screen MN using another convex lens L2. correction.

22
 ® Physics
ALLEN
(a) From which defect of eye Meena was suffering? OR

Which type of lenses the doctor prescribed her Given: Prescribed concave lens,
f = – 300 cm, v = – 25 cm, u = ?
to use in specs to correct her vision?
Using lens formula,
(b) Draw the ray diagram for showing how the
doctor's prescribed lens helped Meena to 1 1 1
= -
f v u
correct of defect of her vision.
(c) Calculate the focal length and power of the lens 1 æ 1 ö 1
Þ =ç ÷–
which Meena used in her specs for correction -300 è -25 ø u

of her vision. 1 1 1 1 - 12
Þ = - =
OR u 300 25 300

While wearing the specs of the doctor's -300

Þ u=
prescribed lens on, calculate the distance where 11
a book should be kept so that Meena can read = – 27.27 cm
the printed matter of the book clearly? Thus, while wearing on the concave lens for
Ans. (a) Meena is suf ferin g fro m myop ia (or correction of myopia, Meena should keep the

shortsightedness or nearsightedness). The book at 27.27 cm from her, to read the printed

doctor prescribed her concave lenses to use matter of book clearly.

in specs to correct her vision. Practical based questions (2 marks)

(b) 29. (i) Does a beam of white light give a spectrum on

passing through a hollow prism?
(ii) A beam of white light falling on a glass prism
gets split up into seven colours marked 1 to 7
as shown in the diagram. A student makes the
x
Correction for myopia following statements about the spectrum

(c) Given : u = – ¥, v = – 3 m = – 300 cm observed on the screen.

Using lens formula,

1
2
1 1 1 3
= - 4
f v u
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

5
6
1 æ 1 ö 1 7
= -ç ÷=-
-300 è – ¥ ø 300
(a) The colours at positions marked 3 and 5 are
Þ f = – 300 cm = – 3 m similar to the colour of the sky and the colour
of gold metal respectively.
[focal length of concave lens]
Is the above statement made by the student
1 1
Power of lens, P = = = – 0.33 D correct or incorrect? Justify.
f (in m) -3
(b) Which two positions correspond closely to the
Thus, focal length of prescribed concave lens is colour of (i) brinjal, (ii) ‘danger’ or stop signal
'– 300 cm' and its power is '– 0.33 D'. lights?

23
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. (i) No, this is because dispersion of light cannot

occur through a hollow prism containing air.

(ii) (a) The statement made by the student is Y

incorrect. X
Positions marked 3 (yellow) and 5 (blue) are
similar to the colour of gold metal and the
(a) State the colour seen at X and Y.
colour of the sky respectively. The student
is stating the nature of colour in reverse (b) Why do different colours of white light bend

order. through different angles with respect to the

incident beam of light?
(b) (i) The position marked 7 corresponds
closely to the colour of a brinjal. Ans. (a) X ¾® violet

(ii) Th e po sition marked 1 (red) Y ¾® Red

corresponds closely to the colour of (b) It is due to difference in speed of different colour
‘danger’ or stop signal lights. rays through prism.

30. In the given figure, a narrow beam of white light is

shown to pass through a triangular glass prism. After
passing through the prism it produces a spectrum
XY on a screen.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

24
 ® Physics
ALLEN
PHYSICS ELECTRICITY
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 4. In an electrical circuit, two resistors of 2 W and 4 W
1. Match the following with correct response are connected in series to a 6V battery. The heat
dissipated by the 4 W resistor in 5 s will be :
Column - I Column - II
(1) 5 J (2) 10 J (3) 20 J (4) 30 J
(i) Electric current (A) Ampere
Ans. Option (3)
(ii) Resistance (B) Volt
Equivalent resistance of series combination,
(iii) Potential difference (C) Ohm
RS = 2 + 4 = 6 W
(iv) Resistivity (D) Ohm-m
Current flowing through series combination,
(1) i - A, ii - C, iii - B, iv - D
V 6
(2) i - C, ii - B, iii - D, iv - A I= = =1A
RS 6
(3) i - B, ii - D, iii - A, iv - C
Heat dissipated by 4 W resistor,
(4) i - D, ii - A, iii - C, iv - B
H = I2Rt = 12 × 4 × 5 = 20 J.
Ans. Option (1)
5. Two bulbs are rated 40 W, 220 V and 60 W, 220
i - A, ii - C, iii - B, iv - D
V. The ratio of their respective resistances will be:
2. Read the following statements and select the correct
(1) 4 : 3 (2) 3 : 4 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 3 : 2
option about resistance.
Ans. Option (4)
A. Resi st an ce o f a con du ct or is di rect ly
Resistance of a bulb is given by,
proportional to length of conductor.
2
B. Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional VRated
R=
to area of cross section of conductor. PRated
C. Resistance of a conductor depends on the Resistance of 40 W bulb,
nature of the material of conductor. (220)2
D. Resistance of conductor is inversely proportional R40 = ...(1)
40
to the length of conductor. Resistance of 60 W bulb,
(1) A, B and D (2) A and C
(220)2
(3) A and D (4) A and D R60 = ...(2)
60
Ans. Option (2) Therefore,
Resistance of a conductor is directly proportional
R 40 60 3
to length and inversely proportional to the cross = = [using equation (1) and (2)]
R 60 40 2
section of conductor. Also, resistance of conductor
6. The image shows a combination of four resistors.
depends on the nature of the material of conductor.
3. Find the resistance of an ohmic conductor, whose 2W
V – I graph is given below. A B
3W
9
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

4W 2W
V(volt)

What is the equivalent resistance between the two

3
points A and B, in the circuit?
(1) 0.5 W (2) 1.0 W (3) 1.5 W (4) 2.0 W
0 5 10 15 20 Ans. Option (2)
I (ampere)
Here, equivalent resistance between points A and
5 3 5 2
(1) W (2) W (3) W (4) W B is given by,
3 5 2 5
1 1 1 1 1
Ans. Option (2) = + + =
R e q 2 3 (4 + 2) 1
9 3
R = slope of V - I graph = = W or Req = 1 W
15 5

25
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

7. An electric toaster h as a power rating of Very short answer type questions (2 marks)
200 W. It operates for 1 hour in the morning and 11. (i) What is the conventional direction of (a) Electric
1 hour in the evening. How much does it cost to current (b) Flow of electrons?
operate the toaster for 10 days at Rs 5 per kWh?
(ii) A charge of 150 coulomb flows through a wire
(1) Rs 20 (2) Rs 40
in one minute. Find the electric current flowing
(3) Rs 500 (4) Rs 100
through it.
Ans. Option (1)
Electrical energy consumed by the electric toaster Ans. (i) (a) Electric current flows from positive terminal
in 1 day, E = P × t = 200 W × 2 h = 400 Wh to negative terminal of supply source.
Electrical energy consumed by the electric toaster (b) Flow of electron is opposite to the flow of
in 10 days, E10 = 10 × 400 Wh = 4 kWh electric current from supply source.
Cost of electrical energy consumed by the electric (ii) Given : Charge (Q) = 150 coulomb
toaster in 10 days
Time (t) = 1 minute = 60 sec.
= cost per kWh × Consumed kWh
= Rs. 5 × 4 = Rs. 20 Current (I) = ?
8. Symbol used in electric circuits for rheostat, is : Q 150
I= = = 2.5 Amp.
t 60
(1) (2) 12. (i) Draw a schematic diagram of a circuit consisting
of battery of two cells (each of 1.5 V), 5 W resistor,
(3) R (4) V 10 W resistor and 15 W resistor and a plug key,
Ans. Option (2) all connected in series. (CBSE 2009)
Assertion & Reason type questions (1 mark) (ii) Why is a series arrangement not used for
Direction (Q.9 & 10) : In the following questions, a connecting domestic electrical appliances in a
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a circuit? (CBSE 2008)
statement of reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below: 5W 10W 15W
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason Ans. (i)
(R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
I
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
Battery K
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
+ –
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. 3V
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. (ii) If one device gets damaged (or open), the circuit
9. Assertion : Longer wires have greater resistance will break and all devices will stop working.
and the smaller wires have lesser resistance, if both 13. (i) Keeping the resistance of a circuit constant, the
types of wires are made of same material.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

potential difference across it is doubled, how will

Reason : Resistance is inversely proportional to the current change?
the length of the wire. (ii) A wire of resistivity ‘r’ is pulled to double its
Ans. Option (3) length. What will be its new resistivity?
Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Ans. (i) Ohm’s Law says that resistance is a constant and
10. Assertion : A cell is a device which converts potential difference and current are directly
chemical energy into electrical energy. proportional to each other. This means that
Reason : Cell maintains a constant potential current will also be doubled.
difference between its terminals for a long time.
(ii) Resistivity does not depend upon the length of
Ans. Option (2)
the wire; it is the property of the material.
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
Resistivity will not change, so the resistivity will
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
be r.

26
 ® Physics
ALLEN
14. (i) Define electric power. Write down the
T2
expression for electrical power.

(ii) Calculate the energy consumed by 1200 W T1

V
toaster in 200 minutes. (CBSE 2008)
Ans. (i) Electric power is rate of doing work or rate of
consumption of energy. I
Expression for electrical power P = VI Ans. The slope of V-I graph gives the resistance of
V2 metallic conductor.
or P = I2 R = (Using relation, V = IR)
R
Since, slope of V-I graph at temperature T2 is
1200
(ii) Given, P = 1200 W = kW,, greater than the slope of V-I graph at temperature
1000
T1 , therefore, resistance at T2 is greater than
200
t = 200 min = hr resistance at T1. Since, resistance of a metallic
60
conductor increases with increase in temperature,
Energy consumed, E = P × t
therefore, T2 > T1.
1200 200
= ´ kWh = 4 kWh
1000 60 17. (a) What is meant by ‘Electric Resistance’ of

15. (i) A lamp rated 100 W and 220 V is connected conductor? (CBSE 2013)
to mains electric supply. What current is drawn (b) A wire of length L and resistance R is stretched
from the supply line, if the voltage is 220 V? so that its length is doubled and the area of cross
(ii) Which one is having lesser resistance : A 60 W section is halved. How will its (i) resistance
bulb or a 40 W bulb? (CBSE 2010, 2011) change? (ii) resistivity change?

Ans. (i) Given : P = 100 W, V = 220 V (CBSE 2007, 2011, 2012, 2013)

Q P = VI Ans. (a) Electric resistance : It is a property of conductor

P 100 by which it oppose the flow of electric current.
\I= = = 0.45 A
V 220 V
R= .
I
V2
(ii) Power (P) = rL
R (b) (i) We know, R = ......(1)
A
1
\ Rµ , if V is constant. When L'(new length) = 2L and A' (new area
P
of cross-section) = A/2
Hence, bulb of higher wattage will have less
resistance. In other words, resistance of 60 W rL' r ×2L (rL)
R' = = =4 ......(2)
bulb is less than the resistance of 40 W bulb.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

A' A/2 A
16. The voltage - current (V-I) graph of a metallic circuit R'
at two different temperature T1 and T2 is shown. Dividing (2) by (1), we get =4
R
Which of the two temperatures is higher and why?
or R' = 4R
(CBSE 2010)
Thus, the resistance of the wire becomes 4
OR times its original resistance.
The voltage - current (V-I) graph of a metallic
(ii) Since, resistivity of a wire does not depend
conductor at two different temperatures T1 and T2
on its length and area of cross-section, so
is shown in figure. At which temperature is the
the resistivity of the wire remains the same.
resistance higher? (CBSE 2011, 2012)

27
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

18. List in a tabular form two differences between a Ans. The current in the circuit is high if the resistance of
voltmeter and an ammeter. the circuit is low. Since wire A is longer than B, so
the resistance of wire B is less than the resistance
Ans. S.No. Voltmeter Ammeter of wire A. Hence, current flowing through wire B is
(i) Used to measure Used to measure greater than the current flowing through wire A.
the potential the current. Therefore, ammeter A2 will indicate higher reading
difference.
of current.
(ii) Connected in Connected in
parallel in the series in the 22. Two wires, one of copper and other of manganin,
electric circuit. electric circuit. have equal lengths and equal resistances. Which
(iii) Has high Has low wire is thicker? Given that resistivity of copper is
resistance. resistance. lower than that of manganin. (CBSE 2011)

19. (i) Calculate the electrical energy consumed by a rl rl

Ans. We know, R = or A =
1200 W toaster in 30 minute. A R
Since l and R of both the wires same, so A µ r.
(ii) What will be the cost of using the same for 1
Since, resistivity (r) of manganin is higher than that
month if one unit of electricity costs ` 4?
of copper, so manganin wire is thicker than that of
Ans. (i) Given, P = 1200 W, copper wire.
t = 30 min = 0.5 hour 23. Graphs between electric current and potential
difference across two conductors A and B are
Electrical energy (E) = P × t
plotted as shown in figure. Which of the two
= 1200 × 0.5 conductors has more resistance?
= 600 WH = 0.6 kWH.
B
(ii) Energy consumed is 30 days
= 0.6 × 30 = 18 kWH = 18 units A

Cost of using 18 units = `4 ×18 = `72 I

20. State the factors on which the heat produced in a O

V
current carrying conductor depends. Give one
practical application of the heating effect of current. Ans. In this case, resistance of a conductor
1
Ans. Factors : Square of current, resistance of the given = .
Slope of graph between V and I
conductor, time in which the current flows.
Since, slope of graph between V and I for the
Application : Electric heating devices, like electric conductor A is less than the slope for the conductor
iron /electric heater/electric bulb/electric fuse. B. So, the conductor A has more resistance than
21. In the circuit diagram shown, the two resistance the conductor B.
wires A and B are of same area of cross-section and 24. The resistance of a wire of length 80 cm and of
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

same material, but A is longer than B. Which uniform area of cross-section 0.025 cm2, is found
ammeter A1 and A2 will indicate higher reading of to be 1.50 ohm. Calculate specific resistance of wire
current? Give reason. (CBSE 2010, 2011) in SI units.
Ans. Given, R = 1.50 W,
A A = 0.025 cm2 = 0.025 × 10–4 m2,
A1
l = 80 cm = 80 × 10–2 m
B l RA
A2 R= r or r =
A l

1.50 ´ 0.025 ´ 10-4

+ – = = 4.6 × 10–6 W m
80 ´ 10-2

28
 ® Physics
ALLEN
25. Calculate the total current flowing through the 27. One lamp is rated 40 W at 220 V and the other
resistors. 60 W at 220 V. These two lamps are connected in
parallel to a 220 V supply. Calculate the current
2W
drawn from the supply line.
Ans. Given, P1 = 40 W, P2 = 60 W, V = 220 V
4W
40W

60W
4V
Ans. Given, R1 = 2 W, R2 = 4 W, V = 4 V
220V
V
V = IR, or I=
R PT = P1 + P2 = 40 + 60 = 100 W
In the given circuit, equivalent resistance is Q PT = VI,
R1 R 2 2´4 8
R = R +R = = = 1.33 W PT 100
1 2 2+4 6 \ I= = = 0.45 A
V 220
4
\I= =3A 28. Fuses of 3A, 5A and 10A are available. Calculate
1.33
and select the fuse for operating an electric iron of
26. How would the reading of voltmeter change if it is
1 kW power at 220 V.
connected between B and C?
Ans. Given, P = 1 kW = 1000 W, V = 220 volt
– +
V
Q P = VI
A
A 1W B 3W C 2W D
P 1000
\ I= = = 4.54A
V 220
3V Thus 5 ampere fuse must be used.

Ans. Here, supply voltage, Short answer type questions (3 marks)

Vs = 3 V, R1 = 1 W, 29. Two identical resistors each of resistance 12 W are
connected (i) in series (ii) in parallel, in turn to a
R2 = 3 W, R3 = 2 W
battery of 6 V. Calculate the ratio of power
All the resistors are connected in series, thus equal consumed in the combination of resistors in the two
current flows through all resistors cases.
Req = R1 + R2 + R3 = 6 W Ans. Here V = 6 Volt.
(i) When resistors are connected in series, net
Vs = IR,
resistance, R = R1 + R2 = 12 + 12 = 24 W.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Vs 3
or I = = = 0.5 A V 2 36
R 6 Power consumed, Ps = = = 1.5 W
R 24
When voltmeter is connected between A and B,
(ii) When resistors are connected in parallel, net
the reading of voltmeter is
resistance,
V = IR1 = 0.5 × 1 = 0.5 V
R1 R2 12 ´ 12
R= = =6W
When voltmeter is connected between B and C, R1 + R 2 24
the reading of voltmeter is
V 2 36
Power consumed, Pp = = =6W
V = IR3 = 0.5 × 3 = 1.5 V R 6

Thus the reading of voltmeter increases. Pp 6

\ = =4
Ps 1.5

29
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

30. Should the heating element of an electric iron be 32. In the circuit shown in fig. calculate :
made of iron, silver or nichrome wire?
2W D 4W
(CBSE (Foreign) 2005) C E
I1
OR
Why are conductors of electric heating devices, such 6W
A B
as toasters and electric iron made of an alloy, like I2
nichrome, rather than pure metals?
+ –
Ans. It should be made of nichrome wire because
(i) resistivity of nichrome is greater than that of iron 3V
and silver, so more heat is produced in the (a) total resistance in arm CE,
nichrome wire due to the flow of current.
(b) current in each arm, i.e., AB and CE of the circuit.
(ii) melting point of nichrome wire is greater than
that of iron and silver and hence it does not melt (c) total current drawn from the battery
easily on heating.
Ans. (a) RCE = 2 W + 4 W = 6 W
(iii) nichrome wire does not oxidise (or burn) easily
even at higher temperature. V 3
(b) IAB = = = 0.5 A and
31. For the circuit shown in fig., calculate R AB 6

5W
I1 V 3
ICE = = = 0.5 A (Q RCE = 6 W)
10W R CE 6
I2
30W (c) Total current, I = I1 + I2 = 0.5 A + 0.5 A = 1A
I I3 I
– 33. A 4 kW heater is connected to a 220 V source of
A + power. Calculate
6V
(i) the electric current passing through the heater.
(a) the value of current through each resistor
(b) the total current in the circuit (ii) the resistance of the heater.
(c) the total effective resistance of the circuit. (iii) the electric energy consumed in a 2 hours use
Ans. (a) R1 = 5 W, R2 = 10 W, R3 = 30 W; of the heater.
potential difference across each resistor,
Ans. Given : Power of heater, P = 4 kW = 4000 W
V = 6 volt
V 6 Voltage of source of power, V = 220 V
Clearly, I1 = = = 1.2 A
R1 5 (i) Since, P = VI (I is the current)
V 6
I2 = = = 0.6 A P 4000
R 2 10 or I = = = 18.18 A
V 220
V 6
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

and I3 = = = 0.2 A
R 3 30 (ii) Power, P is also given by

(b) Total current, I = I1 + I2 + I3 P = I2 R

= 1.2 A + 0.6 A + 0.2 A = 2 A
P 4000
(c) Since R 1 , R 2 and R 3 are in parallel, total or R = = = 12 W (approx)
I2 (18.18)2
effective resistance of the circuit, i.e., RP is given
by (iii) Electric energy consumed is given by,
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
= + + = + + E = P ×t
R p R1 R 2 R 3 5 10 30
\ E = 4 kW × 2h = 8 kWh
6 + 3+1 1
= = or Rp = 3 W
30 3 or E = 8 unit

30
 ® Physics
ALLEN
34. The overall resistance of the circuit below is 0.5 W. Rµl
Calculate the value of resistance r3. As the length doubles, the resistance also doubles.
According to Ohm's law, the current is inversely
r1 = 2W
proportional to the resistance (Keeping V constant).
r2 = 2W V
V = IR, or I =
r3 = ? R
As the resistance doubles, the current gets reduced
Ans. Given, Req = 0.5 W, r1 = 2 W, r2 = 2 W, r3 = ? to half.
37. Express Joule's law of heating mathematically.
1 1 1 1
= + + What is the resistance of 12 m wire having radius
R eq r1 r2 r3
2 ×10–4 m and specific resistivity 3.14 ×10–8 W m?
1 rr 1 4 1
or = 12 + = + Ans. The energy supplied to the circuit by a source (like
0.5 r1 + r2 r3 4 r3
a battery) in time t is given by,
10 1
or =1+ E = P ×t = V ×I ×t [Q P = V × I ]
5 r3
This energy (E) gets dissipated in the resistor as heat.
1
or 2 – 1 = Thus, for a steady current I, the amount of heat H
r3
or r3 = 1 W produced in time t is
35. In the given circuit diagram, calculate: H = V ´ I ×t
A 3W B 1W C Applying Ohm’s law, i.e., V = I × R, we get,

H = I2 R t
3W 2W
This is known as Joule’s law of heating.
l 12
R= r = 3.14 ´ 10-8 ´
A
( )
2
F 3W E 3W D 3.14 ´ 2 ´ 10-4
(i) Total resistance between the points B and E.
or R = 3 W [Q A = pr2 = 3.14 × (2 × 10–4)2 m2]
(ii) Total resistance between the points A and F.
Ans. (i) Between the points B and E, the resistors Long answer type questions (5 marks)
between the point BC, CD and DE are in series. 38. (a) A student performs an experiment with 4 cells
Thus their equivalent resistance is and a resistance wire and an ammeter in series
R1 = 1 W + 2 W + 3 W = 6 W and observes that when the number of cells in
This resistance is in parallel with R 2 = 3 W the circuit is decreased, the value of current
(across BE) through the wire also decreases. Name and state
R1 R 2 6 ´ 3 18 the law that is involved in the experiment and
\ RBE = = = =2W
R1 + R 2 6 + 3 9 write its mathematical form.
(ii) The effective resistance between the points A (b) V-I graph for two resistors R1, R2 and their
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

and F is series combination is given as below. Which

RAF = RAB + RBE + REF graph represents the series combination of the
=3W+2W+3W=8W other two? Give reason.
36. What is electrical resistivity? In a series electrical
circuit comprising a resistor made up of a metallic A
wire, the ammeter reads 5 A. The reading of the B
ammeter decreases to half when the length of the V
wire is doubled. Why?
C
Ans. Resistivity of a conductor is ‘the resistance offered
by a uniform conducting wire having unit length I
and unit area of cross-section’.
(c) Name a component used to regulate current
Resistance is directly proportional to the length (l)
without changing the voltage source.
of a conductor.

31
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. (a) Ohm's law is involved in this experiment. 40. A geyser is rated 1500 W, 250 V. It is connected to
According to Ohm’s law, ‘the current through 250 V mains. Calculate (i) the current drawn, (ii) the
certain conductors is directly proportional to
energy consumed in 50 hours, and (iii) the cost of
the potential difference between its ends at
energy consumed at ` 2.20 per kWh.
a constant temperature’.
I µ V or V µ I or V = I R Ans. Given, V = 250 V, P = 1500 W,

V t = 50 h = 50 × 60 × 60s
or R=
I
P 1500
Where, R is a constant called resistance of the (i) I= = = 6A
V 250
conductor.
(b) The graph A represents the series combination (ii) Energy consumed = V × I × t joule
of the other two as in the series combination = 250 × 6 × (50 × 60 × 60)
where the value of individual resistors add up
and give a higher value of effective resistance. 27 ´ 107
= 27 × 107 J = kWh = 75 kWh
The slope of graph A is greatest thus it 3.6 ´ 106
represents the series combination of R1 and R2.
(c) Variable resistor or rheostat. (iii) Q 1 kWh costs = ` 2.20
39. Figure shows a 240 V ac mains circuit to which a \ 75 kWh cost = 2.20 × 75 = ` 165
number of appliances are connected and switched on. Case based question (4 marks)
Direction : Q.41 is a case based question with short
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
240 ac Fan Refrigerator sub-parts.
1.2 kW 200 W 60 W 60 W
41. B1, B2 and B3 are three bulbs of rated voltage each
and rated power of 40 W, 60 W and 100 W
(a) Calculate the power supplied to the circuit. respectively. All these three bulbs are connected in
(b) Calculate parallel to a 220 V supply source with an ammeter
(i) the current in the refrigerator, in series with each bulb, as shown in the electric
(ii) the energy used by the fan in 3 hours, circuit below. An additional ammeter A is also
(iii) the resistance of the filament of one lamp. connected in series with 220 V supply source.
Ans. (a) Power supplied to the circuit
B1
= 1.2 × 1000 W + 200 W + 60 W + 60 W A1
= 1200 W + 200 W + 60 W + 60 W B2
A2
= 1520 W = 1.52 kW
(b) (i) Current in the refrigerator A3 B3

Power 200 W Switch

= = = 0.83 A
Voltage 240 V A
220 V
(ii) Energy used by the fan = Power × Time Power supply
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

= 1.2 kW × 3h
Based on the above circuit, answer the following
J questions:
= 1.2 × 1000 × 3 × 60 × 60s
s (a) Calculate the total power consumed in the circuit.
= 1200 × 3 × 3600 J (b) What will be the reading shown by ammeter A?
= 12960000 J = 1.3 × 107 J (c) What will be the ratio of total power consumed
(iii) Current through a lamp, in the circuit to the power consumed by bulb B2,
P 60 if bulb B3 gets fused?
I= = = 0.25 A
V 240 OR
Resistance of lamp filament What will be the ratio of the reading of ammeter
V 240 A to the reading of ammeter A1, if bulb B2 gets
= = = 960 W
I 0.25 fused?

32
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Ans. (a) Total power consumed in the circuit, Ans. Current, I = 180 mA = 180 × 10–3 A
P = 40 + 60 + 100 = 200 W
Potential difference, V = 1.8 V
(b) Reading of ammeter A,
V 1.8
Resistance = = = 10 W
P 200 I 180 ´ 10-3
I= = = 0.91 A
V 220 43. The following apparatus are available in a laboratory:

(c) If bulb B3 gets fused, the total power consumed, Cell : Adjustable from 0 to 4.5 Volt,
P' = P1 + P2 = 40 + 60 = 100 W .....(1)
Resistors : 3 W and 6 W,
Power consumed by bulb B2,

P2 = 60 W .....(2) Ammeters : A1 of Range 0 to 3 A;

Least count 0.1 A,

P ' 100 5
\ = =
P2 60 3 A2 of Range 0 to 1 A; Least count 0.05 A,

Þ P' : P2 = 5 : 3 Voltmetres : V1 of Range 0 to 10 V;

OR
Least count 0.5 V,
If bulb B2 gets fused, only bulbs B1 and B3 will
remain operating. Then total power consumed V2 of Range 0 to 5 V; Least count 0.1 V
in circuit,
Find the best combination of voltmeter and ammeter
P' = P1 + P3 = 40 + 100 = 140 W
for finding the equivalent resistance of the resistors
\ Reading of ammeter A will be, in series.

P ' 140 7 Ans. Equivalent resistance,

I' = = = A ......(1)
V 220 11
R=3W+6W=9W
and Reading of ammeter A1 will be, Maximum voltage to be measured, V = 4.5 volt

P1 40 2 Maximum current to be measured,

I1 = = = A ......(2)
V 220 11
V 4.5
I= = = 0.5 A
Therefore, from relation (1) & (2), R 9

These requirements of measuring this current and

I' 7
= Þ I' : I1 = 7 : 2
I1 2 voltage are fulfilled by ammeter A2 and voltmeter
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

Practical based questions (2 marks) V2. Also these two instruments are more accurate
42. The current flowing through a resistor connected in due to their smaller least counts 0.05 A and 0.1 V
an electrical circuit and the potential difference
developed across its ends are shown in the given respectively.
diagrams. 44. The values of current I flowing in a given resistor
200 2 for the corresponding value of potential difference
100 1
V across the resistor are as given below :
0 0
300

I (amperes) 0.5 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0

V (volts) 1.6 3.4 6.7 10.2 13.2
mA V
Plot a graph between V and I and also calculate the
Find the value of resistance of the resistor in ohms. resistance of that resistor.

33
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. Y 45. The rest position of the pointers of a milliammeter

and voltmeter not in use are as shown in Fig A. When
14 a student uses these in his experiment, then the
12 reading of pointers are in position shown in Fig B.
10 Calculate the corrected value of current and voltage
8 in this experiment.
6
V(volt)

4 mA
V
2 5
0 X 0 0.5
1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0
I (ampere) 0
Fig.A
Resistance = Slope of graph

40 mA 3 4 V
Y - intercept 30
=
X - intercept

(10.2 – 0) V Fig.B
=
(3.0 – 0) A
Ans. Current, I = 34 mA
= 3.4 W Voltage, V = 3.3 – 0.2 = 3.1 V
[Q There is a positive error of 0.2 V in voltmeter.]
Thus, the resistor of the resistor is 3.4 W.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

34
 ® Physics
ALLEN
PHYSICS MAGNETIC EFFECTS OF ELECTRIC CURRENT
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) Ans. Option (4)
1. A permanent magnet attracts piece of materials Magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying
like : straight conductor is directly proportional to current
(1) Iron, Cobalt, Aluminium flowin g th rough co nductor and inversely
(2) Iron, Cobalt, Nickel proportional to the distance from the conductor.
(3) Cobalt, Brass, Copper 5. When direction of current flowing through
(4) Graphite, Iron, Bronze electromagnet is changed, then :
Ans. Option (2) (1) Poles of electromagnet will get exchanged.

Iron, Cobalt, Nickel are magnetic materials and a (2) It will not behave as electromagnet.
permanent magnet attracts the pieces of these ma- (3) Its strength will decrease.
terials. (4) Nothing can be said.
2. Which of following statement is correct? Ans. Option (1)
(1) Magnetic field lines never intersect each other. Change in direction of current changes the polarity
(2) Magnetic field lines direct from south pole to of an electromagnet.
north pole within a magnet. 6. A magnetic field may
(3) Relative strength of magnetic field is shown by (1) change the velocity of a charged particle.
degree of closeness of field lines. (2) change the speed of a charged particle.
(4) All of these (3) change the K. E. of a charged particle.
Ans. Option (4) (4) stop a moving charged particle.
Magnetic field lines never intersect each other. Ans. Option (1)
Magnetic field lines direct from south pole to north A magnetic field may change the velocity of a
pole within a magnet. Relative strength of magnetic charged particle but cannot change its speed.
field is shown by degree of closeness of field lines.
7. What happens to a moving electron beam when a
3. Direction of force on a current carrying conductor uniform magnetic field is applied at right angles to
placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field it?
is given by :
(1) The beam is deflected along a circular path.
(1) Fleming's right hand rule (2) The beam is deflected along a parabolic path.
(2) Fleming's left hand rule (3) The beam starts oscillating.
(3) Right hand thumb rule (4) The beam remains unaffected.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

(4) Any of the above Ans. Option (1)

Ans. Option (2) When a charge particle moves perpendicular to a
Direction of force on a current carrying conductor magnetic field, the charge particle executes circular
placed perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field motion due to the magnetic force acting on it.
is given by Fleming's left hand rule. 8. If current in the coil decreases, the strength of the
4. Magnetic field at a point due to a current carrying magnetic field due to the coil :
straight conductor depends on : (1) Decreases
(1) Current flowing through conductor.
(2) Increases
(2) Distance from the conductor.
(3) First increases then decreases
(3) Cross-sectional area of conductor.
(4) Both (1) and (2) (4) Remains unchanged

35
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. Option (1)

With the decrease in current through the coil, the
magnetic field due to the coil also decreases.
Assertion & Reason type questions (1 mark)
Direction (Q.9 & 10) : In the following questions, a
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
S N
statement of reason (R). Answer these questions
selecting the appropriate option given below: figure 1
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A). A
Direction of magnetic field at A
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (a tangent at A)
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). figure 2
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. (ii) Magnetic field of the bar magnet applies force
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. on the compass needle (which is itself a small
9. Assertion : A compass needle is placed near a bar magnet) when brought near it. This force
on needle deflects the needle.
current carrying wire. The deflection of the
compass needle decreases when the magnitude of 12. (i) Draw the pattern of magnetic field lines around
an electric current in the wire is increased. a straight current carrying conductor.
Reason : Strength of a magnetic field at a point (ii) On what factors does the magnetic field due to
near the wire increases on increasing the current a current carrying straight conductor depends?
flowing through the wire. Ans. (i)
Ans. Option (4)
Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
10. Assertion : The strength of the magnetic field
produced at the centre of a current carrying circular N

coil increases on increasing the number of turns of S

the circular coil. I

Reason : Magnetic field strength is directly

proportional to the number of turns of the
circular coil. (ii) The magnetic field due to a current carrying
straight conductor depends on
Ans. Option (1) (a) magnitude of electric current (B µ I)
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and 1
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

(b) distance from the conductor (B µ )

reason (R) is the correct explanation of r
assertion (A). 13. What are the factors on which the magnetic field at
the centre of the current carrying circular coil
Very short answer type questions (2 marks) depends?
11. (i) How can we find out the direction of magnetic Ans. Magnetic field at the centre of the current carrying
field at a point on the magnetic field line? circular coil depends on the following factors
(ii) Why does a compass needle get deflected when (i) Inversely propotional to the radius of the coil.
brought near a bar magnet? (ii) Directly propotional to the strength of current
Ans. (i) We can find the direction of magnetic field at a flowing through the coil.
point on the magnetic field line by placing a
(iii) Directly propotional to the number of turns in
magnetic compass at that point or drawing a the coil.
tangent to the magnetic field line at that point.

36
 ® Physics
ALLEN
14. On what factors does the magnetic field produced 16. A horizontal power line carries current in east to
by a current carrying solenoid depend? west direction. What is the direction of the magnetic
(CBSE 2010) field due to the current in the power line at a point
Ans. (i) the strength of the current flowing through the above and at a point below the power line?
solenoid. Ans. Using right-hand thumb rule,
(ii) the number of turns per unit length of the wire
(i) the direction of magnetic field at a point above
of the solenoid.
the power line is from south to north,
(iii) the nature of the material inside the solenoid.
(ii) the direction of magnetic field at a point below
15. Current is flowing clockwise in a circular coil lying
in the plane of a table. State the direction of the the power line is from north to south.
Power line N
magnetic field inside and outside the coil.
State right hand thumb rule.
W E
OR
Consider a circular loop of wire lying in the plane S
of a table. Let the current pass through the loop 17. What is a solenoid? Draw the pattern of magnetic
clockwise. Apply the right hand rule to find the direction field lines of a solenoid through which a steady
of the magnetic field inside and outside the loop. currents flows. What does the pattern of field lines
Ans. Magnetic field inside the coil is perpendicular to the inside the solenoid indicate?
plane of the table and in the downward direction.
Ans. Solenoid : A coil of many circular turns of insulated
However, outside the coil, the magnetic field is
copper wire wrapped in the shape of cylinder is
perpendicular to the plane of the table and in the
called solenoid.
upward direction.

S N

+ –
K

The pattern of magnetic field lines inside the solenoid

indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all
Right hand thumb rule : ‘Imagine that you are points inside the solenoid. That is, the field is uniform
holding a current-carrying straight conductor in your inside the solenoid.
right hand and the thumb is stretched along the 18. (i) A stationary charge is placed in a magnetic
direction of current, then, your fingers will wrap field. Will it experience a force? Give reason to
around the conductor in the direction of the field justify your answer.
lines of the magnetic field’. (ii) Name and state the rule which gives the direction
of force experienced by a current carrying
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

conductor placed in a magnetic field.

Ans. (i) No, a magnetic field exerts a force only on
moving charges.
(ii) Fleming's Left Hand Rule :
N According to this rule, "Stretch the thumb
S forefinger and middle finger of your left hand
I such that they are mutually perpendicular to
each other.
If the first finger points in the direction of
magnetic field and the middle finger in the
direction of current, then the thumb will point
in the direction of motion or the force acting on
the conductor."
37
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

19. (i) On what factors does the direction of force Short answer type questions (3 marks)
experienced by a conductor when placed in a 22. An a-particle enters a uniform magnetic field at right
magnetic field depend? angles to it as shown in figure. Stating the relevant
principle, explain in which direction will this
(ii) Under what conditions is the force experienced
a-particle move? (CBSE 2014)
by a current carrying conductor placed in a
uniform magnetic field maximum?
a-particle
Ans. (i) The direction of force depends on the direction
of current and direction of magnetic field. Magnetic
field
(ii) The force is maximum when the direction of
current is at right angles to the direction of Ans. According to Fleming's left hand rule, the force
magnetic field.
acting on a charged partical projected perpendicular
20. (i) It is established that an electric current through to a magnetic field is perpendicular to the direction
a metallic conductor produces a magnetic field
of flow of positive charge and the magnetic field.
around it. Is there a similar magnetic field
produced around a thin beam of moving (a) Thumb : Force (or motion)
alpha particles, (b) neutrons? Justify your answer.

(ii) When will a current carrying conductor

Fore finger : Field
experience no force when placed in a magnetic
field?

Ans. (i) (a) Yes, alpha particles being positively Central finger :
charged constitute a current in the direction Flow of positive
charge
of motion.
Here, the direction of a-particle is the direction of
(b) No. The neutrons being electrically neutral
constitute no current. positive charge. Hence, according to Fleming's left
hand rule, the direction of force acting on a-particle
(ii) The force experienced by a current carrying
is perpendicular to both the direction of motion of
conductor placed in a magnetic field is zero
a-particle and the direction of magnetic field. Hence
when the conductor is placed such that the
direction of current in it is parallel or antiparallel a-particle will move perpendicular into the plane

to the direction of magnetic field. of the paper.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

23. Find the direction of magnetic field due to a current

21. An alternating current has frequency of 50 Hz. How
carrying circular coil held :
many times does it change its direction in one
(i) Vertically in North-South plane and an observer
second? (CBSE 2004)
looking it from East sees the current to flow in
OR
anti-clockwise direction.
How many time does AC used in India change
(ii) Vertically in East-West plane and an observer
direction in one second?
looking it from South sees the current to flow
Ans. Since frequency is 50 Hz, so a.c. completes 50 cycles in anti-clockwise direction.
in 1 second. Therefore, it reverses its direction 100
(iii) Horizontally and an observer looking at it from
times in one second.
below sees current to flow in clockwise direction.

38
 ® Physics
ALLEN
Ans. (i) When the coil is kept in the North-South plane This is called overloading. In this situation, wires of
and the current is flowing anti-clockwise through the supply get heated due to extremely large current
the loop while observed from east, then the flowing through them and the circuit may catch fire.
magnetic field is in the West to East direction. To avoid this fire, we use an electric fuse in the circuit.
(ii) When the coil is in vertically East-West plane and 26. A fuse wire is a safety device to protect the electric
current through the coil is in anti-clockwise circuit. Ashok used a fuse rated as 5 A in a circuit
direction, then the magnetic field is in the North in which an electric heater of 2 kW was connected
to South direction. with the main supply of 220 V. The heater was not
(iii) When a circular coil carrying current is placed operating as the fuse wire melted on switching.
horizontally and the direction of the current is Ashok was puzzled and he discussed the problem
clockwise as seen by observer below coil, then the with his friend Ram. Ram suggested him to use a
direction of the field for the observer, positioned fuse rated 10 A in the circuit. The problem of Ashok
below the coil, is in the upward direction. was solved as the heater was now working.
24. (a) Draw a schematic labelled diagram of a (i) How much current was flowing in the circuit with
domestic wiring circuit which includes the fuse rated 10 A?
(i) a main fuse (ii) What is the role of fuse used in series with any
(ii) a power meter electrical appliance? Why should a fuse with
(iii) one light point defined rating not be replaced by one with a
(iv) a power output socket larger rating?
(b) In this circuit, on which wire of the circuit is the
P 2000
mains on/off switch connected? Ans. (i) I= = = 9.09 A.
V 220
Ans. (a) Schematic labelled diagram of a domestic wiring (ii) Fuse is used for protecting appliances due to
Live Main Meter Consumer's short-circuiting or overloading. The fuse is rated
wire fuse fuse
F1 2748 S F2 for a certain maximum current and blows off
L kWh
To fan when a current more than the rated value flows
N
Neutral wire through it. If a fuse is replaced by one with larger
The live wire E ratings, the appliances may get damaged while
and neutral
wire are Earth
Earth Bulb S T the protecting fuse does not burn off. This
wire S1 2
coming from the connection practice of using fuse of improper rating should
electric pole Switch Switch
for bulb for socket Socket always be avoided.
Domestic electric wiring from electric pole to a room
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
(b) As shown in this circuits, mains on/off switch is 27. A student fixes a sheet of white paper on a drawing
connected with live wire and neutral wire.
board. He place a bar magnet in the centre of it.
25. Explain what is short circuiting and overloading in
He sprinkles some iron filings uniformly around the
an electric supply.
bar magnet. Then he taps the board gently and
Ans. Short circuiting : Whenever live and neutral wires
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

come in direct contact with each other, the incident observes that the iron filling arrange themselves in
is called short circuiting. In this case, resistance of a particular pattern.
circuit decreases to a very small value. The (a) Why do the iron fillings arrange in a pattern?
decreasing of resistance increases the current in the
(b) What does the crowding of iron fillings at the
electric circuit. Due to this increased current, the
end of the magnet indicate?
wires get heated. This extreme heat may cause fire
in the building. (c) What does the lines along which the iron filings
Overloading : Every supply has a capacity to bear align represent?
a maximum load, i.e., the power that can be (d) Draw a neat diagram to show the magnetic field
supplied has a limit. Sometimes, the number of lines around a bar magnet.
appliances which are switched on at the same time
(e) Write any two properties of magnetic field lines.
have power more than the capacity of the line.

39
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. (a) The arrangement of iron fillings in a pattern is Ans. (i) No, a magnetic field exerts a force only on
due to the magnetic field of the bar magnet. moving charges.
(b) Magnetic field is strongest at the poles.
(ii) The direction of force depends on the direction
(c) Magnetic field lines.
of current and direction of magnetic field.
(d) Magnetic field lines of a bar magnet:
(iii) The force is maximum when the direction of
current is at right angles to the direction of
magnetic field.
(iv) Fleming's Left Hand Rule :
S N
According to this rule, "Stretch the thumb,
forefinger and middle finger of your left hand
such that they are mutually perpendicular to
each other.
(e) Properties of magnetic lines of force (any two)
If the first finger points in the direction of
(1) In a magnet, magnetic field lines arise from
magnetic field and the middle finger in the
north pole in the surrounding space and enter
direction of current, then the thumb will point
the south pole.
in the direction of motion or the force acting on
(2) Magnetic field lines can never intersect each the conductor."
other because if they intersect at a point, 29. Current-time graph from two different sources are
magnetic field at that point will have two shown in the following diagram.
directions which is not possible. (If we put a
magnetic needle at such a point, it will point in
two directions, that is impossible !!)
Current
Current

(3) The relative strength of the magnetic field is

shown by the degree of closeness of the field
0.01 0.02
lines. The crowded lines represent strong Time
Time
magnetic field while distant lines represent weak (in second) (in second)
(A) (B)
magnetic field.
(4) The magnetic field lines are continuous or closed Now, answer the following questions.
curves, they are directed south to north within (i) Name the type of current shown by graph A and
the material of the magnet. graph B.
(ii) Name any one source of the current shown by
28. (i) A stationary charge is placed in a magnetic
graph A and graph B.
field. Will it experience a force? Give reason to
(iii) What is the frequency of current in case A and
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

justify your answer. B?

(ii) On what factors does the direction of force (iv) Write two difference between the current shown
experienced by a current carrying conductor, by graph A and B. (CBSE 2010)
when placed in a magnetic field, depend? OR
(iii) Under what conditions is the force experienced Write one difference between AC and DC
by a current carrying conductor placed in a Ans. (i) Graph A represents direct current (DC). Graph
uniform magnetic field maximum? B represents alternating current (AC).
(iv) Name and state the rule which gives the direction (ii) A dry cell is the source of current shown by
of force experienced by a current carrying graph A. An AC generator is the source of
conductor placed in a magnetic field. current shown by the graph B.

40
 ® Physics
ALLEN
(iii) The frequency of DC (graph A) is always zero. (c) What does a tangent drawn at a point on
From graph B, time period, T = 0.02 s. magnetic field lines show? If an electron beam
Therefore, frequency of AC, moving upwards passes parallel to the straight

1 1 current carrying conductor shown above, will it

f= = = 50 Hz.
T 0.02 deflect or not from its original path?

(iv) Differences between AC and DC are (any one): OR

In above arrangement, if the current flow
Direct current Alternating current
through the straight conductor is made vertically
The magnitude of The magnitude of AC
direct current is changes with time and upwards, will the magnetic field around the
constant and it flows direction of alternating conductor be seen clockwise or anticlockwise to
in one direction only. current reverses
Ranjan observing the top view of the drawing
periodically.
board? If a neutron moving upwards passes
Direct current cannot Alternating current is
be used for large used for large scale parallel to the straight current carrying
scale supply of supply of electricity conductor, will the neutron deviate from its
electricity for both for house hold original path or it will go undeviated?
household purpose. and industrial purposes.
Ans. (a) The pattern made by iron filings indicates for
The frequency of Frequency of
direct current is alternating current in magnetic field lines.
zero. India is 50 Hz.
(b) If the current through the conductor is
Case based question (4 marks) increased, the magnetic field lines surrounding
Direction : Q.30 is a case based question with short the conductor will become crowded i.e. the space
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
between magnetic field lines will get reduced
sub-parts.
due to increase in the strength of the magnetic
30. Ranjan fixed a sheet of paper on a horizontal
field.
drawing board and insert a straight conducting wire
through the center of the board. He sprinkles some (c) The tangent drawn at a point on magnetic field
iron filings on the board, in surroundings of the lines indicates the direction of magnetic field at
conductor and makes a current flow through the that point.
conductor by setting up an electric circuit as shown
The electron beam, moving upwards and
in the figure below. He taps the board gently and
passing parallel to the given straight current
observes that iron filings arrange themselves in a
particular pattern. carrying conductor, will experience a magnetic
force, therefore it will deflect from its original
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

– Compass Current
Ammeter A needle path. The direction of deflection of electron
+
+ beam can be found using fleming's left hand rule.
Battery
– Plastic OR
board
Rh The magnetic field lines around the conductor
Key
(a) What does the pattern made by iron filings will be seen anticlockwise by Ranjan. A neutron
indicate? doesn't have any charge on it, therefore it will
(b) What will happen to the magnetic field lines not experience any magnetic force on it and will
around the straight conductor, if the current go undeviated while passing parallel to the
through it is increased? straight current carrying conductor.

41
42
CBSE : Class X

Important Notes
ALLEN
®

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\1. Physics\2. Physics.p65

CHEMISTRY
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
CHEMISTRY CHEMICAL REACTIONS AND EQUATIONS
Objective Type questions (1 mark) 5. Which of the following is precipitation as well as
1. 2HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 ® Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O double displacement reaction?

is an example of (1) NaOH(aq) + HNO3(aq)

(i) displacement reaction ® NaNO3(aq) + H2O(l)

(ii) double displacement reaction (2) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq)

(iii) neutralisation reaction ® Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(iv) combination reaction.
Heat
(3) 2Hg(s) + O2(g) ¾¾¾® 2HgO(s)
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iv)
(4) FeCl3(aq) + 3NH4OH(aq)
Ans. (2) It is neutralisation as well as double displacement
reaction. ® Fe(OH)3(s) + 3NH4Cl(aq)

2. Which of the following products is incorrectly Ans. (4) It is double displacement and precipitation
matched when the reactant is burnt in air? reaction as reddish brown ppt. of iron hydroxide is
formed.
Reactant Product
(1) Magnesium ribbon Magnesium oxide 6. Which of the following reactions will not take place?

(2) Carbon Carbon dioxide (1) Zn + CuSO4 ® ZnSO4 + Cu

(3) Sulphur Hydrogen sulphide (2) 2KBr + Cl2 ® 2KCl + Br2
(4) Hydrogen Water
(3) Zn + MgSO4 ® ZnSO4 + Mg
Ans. (3) S + O2 ¾® SO2
(4) Mg + FeSO4 ® MgSO4 + Fe
3. What is observed when a solution of potassium
chloride is added to silver nitrate solution? Ans. (3) because Zn is less reactive than Mg.

(1) No reaction takes place. 7. Which of the following involves combination of two
elements?
(2) White precipitate of silver chloride is formed.
(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) ® 2NH3(g)
(3) Yellow precipitate of AgCl is formed.
(2) CaO(s) + CO2(g) ® CaCO3(s)
(4) A colourless gas is produced.
Ans. (2) KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) ® AgCl¯ + KNO3(aq) (3) 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ® 2SO3(g)

White ppt (4) NH3(g) + HCl(g) ® NH4Cl(g)

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

4. Identify 'x', 'y' and 'z' in the following balanced Ans. (1) N2 and H2 are elements.
reaction.
8. Sunlight
2AgI(s) ¾¾¾¾ ® 2Ag(s) + I2 ( g )
xPb(NO 3 )2 ( s ) ¾¾¾®
Heat
yPbO(s) + zNO2 ( g ) + O2 ( g )

(1) 2, 4, 2 The colour of iodine is

(2) 2, 2, 4 (1) green
(3) 2, 4, 4 (2) purple
(4) 4, 2, 2 (3) brown
Ans. (2)
(4) pink
D
2Pb(NO3 )2 ¾¾® 2PbO + 4NO2 + O2 Ans. (2) Iodine is purple in colour.

43
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
Short answer type questions (2 marks) 13. Give an example each of the following types of
9. (a) What is observed when a solution of potassium displacement reactions:
iodide is added to a solution of lead nitrate taken
in a test tube ? (a) metal displaces other metal from its salt solution.

(b) Which type of reaction is this? (b) non-metal displaces other non-metal from its salt
(c) Write a balanced chemical equation to solution.
represent the above reaction.
Ans. (a) The reaction in which a metal displaces another
Ans. (a) When a solution of potassium iodide is added
to a solution of lead nitrate, a yellow precipitate metal.
of lead iodide (PbI2) is formed along with
CuSO4 + Zn ® ZnSO4 + Cu
potassium nitrate in solution.
(b) It is a double displacement reaction. (b) The reaction in which a non-metal displaces

(c) Pb(NO3 )2 (aq)+ 2KI(aq) ® PbI2 (s) +2KNO3 (aq) another non-metal.
Lead nitrate Potassiumiodide Lead iodide Potassium nitrate
(Yellow ppt.)
2KBr + Cl2 ® 2KCl + Br2
10. Two reactions are given below :
(a) 2KI + Cl2 ¾® 2KCl + I2 14. In the following reaction :
(b) 2K + Cl2 ¾® 2KCl
Identify the type of reaction, giving justification in
each case.
Ans. (a) Displacement reaction because Cl2 is displacing
I2 from KI solution.
(b) Combination reaction because K reacts with Cl2
to form potassium chloride.
Identify (I) and (II) respectively
11. Identify the substance oxidised, substance reduced,
oxidising agent and reducing agent. Ans. (I) is reduction because SO2 is losing oxygen
MnO2 + 4HCl ® MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2
Ans. Substance oxidised : HCl (II) is oxidation because H2S is losing hydrogen
Substance reduced : MnO2
15. Can rancidity be retarded by storing foods away from
Oxidising agent : MnO2
light?
Reducing agent : HCl
12. Formation of hydrogen chloride is represented as Ans. Yes, in the absence of light, the oxidation of fats and
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

follows : oils present in food is slowed down and hence the

Hydrogen + Chlorine ® Hydrogen chloride development of rancidity is retarded.
Can we call this a chemical equation? Justify your
answer. 16. What are the characteristics of chemical reactions ?

Ans. A chemical equation is a representation of chemical Ans. (i) Evolution of a gas

change by using symbols and formulas of reactants
and products along with the number of atoms and (ii) Formation of a precipitate
molecules of the reactants and products. Since the
(iii) Change in colour
given representation does not involve symbols and
formulae of reactants and products along with the (iv) Change in temperature
number of atoms and molecules, it is not a chemical
equation. (v) Change in state

44
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
17. Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions. Ans. (1) CaCO3 ® CaO + CO2
(Decomposition)
(a) 4NH3 + 5O2 ¾® 4NO + 6H2O
(2) NH3 + HCl ® NH4Cl
(b) Fe2O3 + 3CO ¾® 2Fe + 3CO2 (Combination)
(c) 2H2 + O2 ¾® 2H2O (3) Zn + H2SO4 ® ZnSO4 + H2
Ans. (a) Ammonia (NH3) (Displacement)
(4) 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O
(b) Carbon monoxide (CO)
(Combination)
(c) Hydrogen (H2)
(5) AgNO3 + NaCl ® AgCl + NaNO3
18. Identify the type of reaction from the following (Double displacement)
equations : (6) 2HgO ® 2Hg + O2
(a) CH4 + 2O2 ¾® CO2 + 2H2O (Decomposition reaction)
21. Write chemical equation for the reaction taking
(b) Pb(NO3)2 + 2KI ¾® PbI2 + 2KNO3
place when
(c) CaO + H2O ¾® Ca(OH)2 (a) Iron reacts with steam
(d) CuSO4 + Zn ¾® ZnSO4 + Cu (b) Magnesium reacts with dil. HCl
(c) Copper is heated in air
Ans. (a) Oxidation reaction
Ans. (a) 3Fe + 4H2O(g) ¾® Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(b) Double displacement reaction
(b) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) ¾® MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
(c) Combination reaction (c) 2Cu(s) + O2(g) ¾® 2CuO(s)
22. How can nitrogen stop food items containing high
(d) Displacement reaction
fat and oil from turning rancid ?
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
Ans. Some high fat containing foods; such as potato chips
19. Can a displacement reaction be a redox reaction? are sealed in packets that are filled with nitrogen.
Explain with the help of an example. Nitrogen displaces oxygen gas in the packet and
prevents the deterioration of fats in fatty foods
Ans. Consider the following displacement reaction:
because of oxidation process, which is the main
Zn (s) + CuSO4 (aq) ¾® ZnSO4 (aq) + Cu (s) cause of rancidity.
Here, Zn has changed into ZnSO4 (i.e., Zn2+ ions) Long answer type questions (5 marks)
by loss of electrons. Hence, Zn has been oxidized. 23. Write balanced chemical equation for the following
CuSO4 i.e. Cu2+ ions has changed into Cu by gain statements -
of electrons hence it is reduced. Hence this reaction (a) NaOH solution is heated with zinc granules.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

is a displacement reaction as well as redox reaction.

(b) Excess of carbon dioxide is passed through lime
20. From the following list select combination reactions, water.
displacement reactions, decomposition and double (c) Dilute sulphuric acid is added to sodium
displacement reaction. carbonate.

(1) CaCO3 ® CaO + CO2 (d) Egg shell is dropped in hydrochloric acid.
(e) Copper (II) oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric
(2) NH3 + HCl ® NH4Cl
acid.
(3) Zn + H2SO4 ® ZnSO4 + H2 Ans. (a) Zn(s) + 2NaOH ¾® Na2ZnO2 + H2

(4) 2H2 + O2 ® 2H2O (b) Ca(OH)2 + 2CO2 ¾® Ca(HCO3)2

(c) Na2CO3 + H2SO4 ¾® Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2
(5) AgNO3 + NaCl ® AgCl + NaNO3
(d) CaCO3 + 2HCl ¾® CaCl2 + H2O + CO2
(6) 2HgO ® 2Hg + O2 (e) CuO(s) + 2HCl ¾® CuCl2 + H2O

45
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
24. Please tell what kind of chemical reactions are the Ans. (i) (a) The colour of copper sulphate crystals
following. before heating is blue and turns white after
(a) Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) ® Cu(NO3)2 (aq) + 2Ag(s) heating.

(b) Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2NaOH (aq) ® Cu(OH)2(s) + (b) The liquid droplets are actually the water
2NaNO3(aq) droplets. The source of water droplets is the
water of crystallisation of hydrated copper
(c) HNO3(aq) + NaOH (aq) ® H2O(l) + NaNO3(aq)
sulphate crystals (CuSO4. 5H2O).
(d) Cu(OH)2(s) + Heat ® CuO(s) + H2O(l)
(ii) When metal 'X' is dipped in aqueous solution of
(e) CuO(s) + H2SO4(aq) ® CuSO4(aq) + H2O(l) aluminium sulphate no reaction is observed it
(f) CuSO4(aq) + Zn(s) ® Cu(s) + ZnSO4(aq) means it is less reactive than aluminium. But
Ans. (a) Single displacement reaction when it is dipped in ferrous sulphate solution,
(b) Double displacement reaction the solution turns from pale green to colourless,
so 'X' is more reactive than iron and thus
(c) Neutralisation reaction
displaces it from its solution.
(d) Decomposition reaction
Therefore, 'X' must be zinc. It reacts with ferrous
(e) Double Displacement reaction sulphate to form colourless zinc sulphate
(f) Single Displacement reaction solution by displacing iron.
25. A silvery–grey coloured rod is placed in a blue Zn(s) + FeSO4 (aq) ¾® ZnSO4 (aq) + Fe (s)
solution. The blue colour of the solution changes to 27. With the help of an activity explain that hydrogen
light green gradually and after a few days, the rod and oxygen are released when an electric current
appears reddish-brown. Answer the following : is passed through water.
(a) Name the silvery–grey material of the rod. Ans.
Plastic mug
(b) Name and write the formula of the substance
present in blue solution. Oxygen Hydrogen
Water Water
(c) Write the chemical equation for the reaction
involved. Graphite rod Water
(d) What is the type of reaction ?
Rubber Stopper
Ans. (a) Name of the silvery–grey material – Iron(Fe). Anode Cathode
(b) Blue solution is copper sulphate (CuSO4).
(c) CuSO4(aq) + Fe(s) ® Cu(s) + FeSO4(aq)
Switch Battery
(d) Single displacement reaction.
Electrolysis of water
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

26. (i) Crystals of copper sulphate are heated in a test (i) Take a plastic vessel. Drill two holes at its bottom
tube for some time.
and set rubber stoppers in these holes.
(a) What is the colour of copper sulphate (ii) Insert carbon electrodes in these rubber
crystals before heating and after heating?
stoppers and connect these electrodes to a 6
(b) What is the source of liquid droplets seen
volt battery and a switch.
on the inner upper side of the test tube
(iii) Fill the vessel with water such that the electrodes
during the heating process?
are immersed. Add a few drops of dilute
(ii) A metal 'X' when dipped in aqueous solution of
sulphuric acid to the water in the vessel.
aluminium sulphate, no reaction is observed
whereas when it is dipped in an aqueous solution (iv) Take two graduated test tubes filled with water
of ferrous sulphate, the pale green solution and invert them over the two carbon electrodes.
turns colourless. Identify metal 'X' with reason. (v) Switch on the current.

46
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
(vi) After sometime, you will osbserve the formation 30. A brown substance 'X' on heating in air forms a
of bubbles at both the electrodes. These bubbles substance 'Y'. When hydrogen gas is passed over
displace water in the graduated tubes. heated 'Y', it again changes back into 'X'.
(vii) Once the test tubes are filled with the respective
(i) Name the substance 'X' and 'Y'.
gases, remove them carefully.
(ii) Name the type of chemical reactions occurring
(viii) Test these gases one by one by bringing a
during both the changes.
burning splinter of wood close to the mouth of
(iii) Write the chemical equations of the reactions.
test tubes.
When the glowing splinter of wood is brought Ans. (i) X – Cu ; Y – CuO.
close to the mouth of one test tube, it relights (ii) When copper is heated in air, oxidation takes
and when it is brought close to the mouth of place. When hydrogen gas is passed over
other test tube, the gas burns with a pop sound. heated copper oxide, reduction takes place.
Oxygen is the only common gas that relights the (iii) 2Cu + O2 ¾¾
D
® 2CuO (Oxidation)
splinter and hydrogen gas burns with a pop CuO + H2 ¾¾D
® Cu + H2O (Reduction)
sound. 31. Compound 'A' when dissolved in water gives
Practical based questions
compound 'B' which is used in white washing.
28. Samuel had a silver coin which turned black. He
Compound 'B' reacts with CO2 to form a white
kept the coin in a bowl lined with aluminium foil.Then
precipitate of compound 'C'. Identify compounds 'A',
he filled the bowl with water and boiled it. After
'B' and 'C'. Also write the equations involved.
sometime, he found that the coin has become new.
Its blackness disappeared. How did it happen ? +H2 O
Ans. 'A' ¾¾¾¾® 'B' + CO2 ¾® 'C'
Exothermic Used for White ppt
Ans. The blackness of silver coin is due to the formation reaction white washing

of silver sulphide on its surface due to its exposure Slaked lime Ca(OH)2 is used for whitewashing.
to air. On boiling, the aluminium foil reacts with the It is obtained when quicklime, CaO reacts with water.
layer of silver sulphide and displaces silver from silver CaO + H2O ¾® Ca(OH)2 + Heat
Quick lime
sulphide to form aluminium sulphide and silver. This Calcium hydroxide
(Slaked lime)
makes the coin shiny.
So 'A' is CaO and 'B' is Ca(OH)2.
3Ag2S + 2Al ¾® 6 Ag + Al2S3
29. A reddish brown vessel developed a green coloured Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) ¾® CaCO3 (s) + H2O(l)
Calcium carbonate
solid X when left open in air for a long time. When (white ppt.)

reacted with dil H2SO4, it forms a blue coloured

'C' is CaCO3.
solution along with brisk effervescence due to
32. When CaO is added to water taken in a beaker, rise
colourless and odourless gas Z. X decomposes to
form black coloured oxide Y of a reddish brown in temperature is observed. However, when
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

metal along with gas Z. Identify X, Y and Z. Ba(OH)2 is mixed with NH4Cl, a fall in temperature
Ans. The green colour solid X = CuCO 3.Cu(OH) 2 is observed. Why?
(Basic Copper Carbonate) Ans. Reaction of CaO and water is an exothermic
Cu + O2 + H2O + CO2 ® CuCO3 .Cu(OH)2
Copper Basic Copper Carbonate
reaction. So rise in temperature is observed.
(green colour)
X
CaO(s) + H2O(l) ¾® Ca(OH)2 (aq) + Heat
CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 + H2SO4 ® CuSO4 + H2O + CO2 Calcium oxide Calcium hydroxide

X Blue colour (gas)

Reaction of Ba(OH2) and NH4Cl is an endothermic
solution Z
Decomposition
¾¾¾¾¾ ® reaction and hence fall in temperature is observed.
CuCO3.Cu(OH)2 CuO + CO2+ H2O
Black colour (gas)
Ba(OH)2 + 2NH4 Cl + Heat ® BaCl2 + 2NH 4 OH
(Cupric oxide) Barium Ammonium Barium Ammonium

'Y' hydroxide chloride Chloride hydroxide

47
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
Direction (Q.33 and Q.34) : In the following Questions, (b) In another set up the students coated iron nails
the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
with zinc metal and noted that, iron nails coated
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative
from the following : with zinc prevents rusting. They also observed

(1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct that zinc initially acts as a physical barrier, but
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the an extra advantage of using zinc is that it
Assertion.
continues to prevent rusting even if the layer
(2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
of zinc is damaged. Name this process of rust
and the Reason is not the correct explanation
of the Assertion. prevention and give any two other methods to
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. prevent rusting.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (c) In which of the following applications of Iron,
33. Assertion : Silver bromide is stored in dark bottles
rusting will occur most? Support your answer
in the labs.
with valid reason.
Reason : Silver bromide decomposes when
exposed to light.
Ans. (1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(A) (B)
34. Assertion : Vegetable matter changing into
compost is an endothermic reaction.
Reason : In a balanced chemical equation total
mass of reactants is not equal to total mass of
products.
Ans. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(C) (D)
Case based question (4 marks)
A - Iron Bucket electroplated with Zinc
Direction : Q.35 is a case based question with short
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these B - Electricity cables having iron wires covered with

sub-parts. aluminium
35. Two students decided to investigate the effect of C - Iron hinges on a gate
water and air on iron object under identical D - Painted iron fence
experimental conditions. They measured the mass Ans. (a) Rusting occurs in both A and B so there is an
of each object before placing it partially immersed
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

increase in mass.
in 10 ml of water. After a few days, the object were
As the surface area of B is more, extent of
removed, dried and their masses were measured.
The table shows their results. rusting is more.
(b) Galvanization.
Mass of Mass of
Student Object Object before the coated Some other methods to prevent rusting -
Rusting in g object in g Oiling/ greasin g/ paint ing/ alloyin g/
A Nail 3.0 3.15 chromium plating
B Thin plate 6.0 6.33 (c) C - Iron hinges on a gate -

(a) What might be the reason for the varied Iron is in contact with both atmospheric oxygen

observations of the two students? and moisture/ water vapour.

48
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
CHEMISTRY ACIDS, BASES AND SALTS
Objective Type questions (1 mark) Short answer type questions (2 marks)
1. Which of the following is not an acidic salt? 9. Explain, why an aqueous solution of ammonium
(1) CuSO4 (2) NH4Cl chloride is acidic in nature ?
(3) FeCl3 (4) CH3COONa Ans. When ammonium chloride is dissolved in water, it
Ans. (4) It is basic salt. gets hydrolysed to give ammonium hydroxide and
2. A solution of NaCl hydrochloric acid.
(i) will turn red litmus blue ˆˆˆˆˆˆ†
NH 4 Cl(s) + H2 O( l ) ‡ˆˆˆˆˆˆ
Hydrolysis
ˆ
ˆ NH 4 OH(aq) + HCl(aq)
( Weak base ) ( Strong acid )
(ii) will turn pH paper green
Hydrochloric acid formed in the reaction is a strong
(iii) will turn blue litmus red
acid. Therefore, it completely ionises in solution to
(iv) will not affect litmus
give large amount of H+ ions hence, the solution is
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
acidic.
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
10. Alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen, but are
Ans. (4) It is neutral salt.
not referred to as acid. Explain.
3. Many salts absorbs water from atmosphere. This
property is called Ans. Compounds like alcohols and glucose do not under
(1) deliquescence (2) efflorescence go dissociation in water to form H+ ions. Hence they
(3) hydration (4) addition do not exhibit the characteristic properties of acids.
Ans. (1) CaCl2 is deliquescent salt. The aqueous solution of alcohols and glucose do not
4. An aqueous solution with pH = 1 is conduct electricity which shows that their aqueous
(1) strongly acidic (2) strongly basic solution do not contain ions.
(3) neutral (4) weakly acidic 11. Metallic oxides are said to be basic oxides, whereas
Ans. (1) Lower the pH, stronger acid. non-metallic oxides are called acidic oxides. Explain
5. The colour of the pH strip turned red when it was with examples.
dipped in a sample. The sample coluld be - Ans. Metallic oxides react with acids to form salt and
(1) Dilute sodium bicarbonate solution water, therefore metallic oxides are called basic
(2) tap water oxides.
(3) dilute sodium hydroxide solution CaO + 2HCl ¾® CaCl2 + H2O
(4) dilute hydrochloric acid (basic oxide)
Ans. (4) dilute hydrochloric acid (metallic oxide)
6. pH of H2O is Non-metallic oxides react with bases to form salt and
(1) 7 (2) 8 water, therefore, non-metallic oxides are called
(3) 9 (4) 10 acidic oxides.
Ans. (1) pH of H2O is 7 because it is neutral. SO2 + Ca(OH)2 ¾® CaSO3 + H2O
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

7. NaOH is obtained by electrolysis of CO2 + Ca(OH)2 ¾® CaCO3 + H2O

(1) Aq. solution of NaCl (2) Aq. Na2CO3 (acidic oxide)
(3) Aq. NaHCO3 (4) Molten NaCl (non-metallic oxide)
electricity
Non-metallic oxides dissolve in water to form acids
Ans. (1) 2NaCl + 2H2O ¾¾¾¾¾
® 2NaOH + H2 + Cl2
and metallic oxides dissolve in water to form bases/
8. How will you protect yourself from the heat alkali.
generated while diluting a concentrated acid? 12. The pH of soil 'A' is 7.5, while that of soil 'B' is 4.5.
(1) By adding acid to water with constant stirring. Which of the two soils A and B should be treated
(2) By adding water to acid with constant stirring. with powdered chalk to adjust the pH and why?
(3) By adding water to acid followed by base. Ans. Soil 'B' is acidic therefore it needs to be treated with
(4) By adding base to acid with constant stirring. powdered chalk to adjust its pH because chalk is
Ans. (1) By adding acid to water with constant stirring. basic, which will make soil neutral.

49
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
13. 15 mL of water and 10 ml of sulphuric acid are to Ans. (a) An acid is a substance which gives H+ ions in its
be mixed in a beaker aqueous solution. A base is a substance which
(a) State the method that should be followed with gives OH– ions in its aqueous solution.
reason. (b) Strong acid = HCl
(b) What is this process called? Strong base = KOH

Ans. (a) Acid should be added to the water slowly with 17. Why does tooth decay start when the pH of the
constant cooling because the reaction is highly mouth is lower than 5.5 ? (CBSE 2009)
exothermic. Ans. The tooth enamel is made up of calcium phosphate
which is insoluble in water. When pH in the mouth
(b) This process is called dilution.
is lower than 5.5, i.e. it becomes moderately acidic,
14. The conditions preferred by some plants are shown
the dissolution of calcium phosphate starts i.e. tooth
in the table below :
decay begins.
Plant Apple Potato Black current Mint Onion Strawberry Lettuce
Short answer type questions (3 marks)
pH 5.0–6.5 4.5–6.0 6.0–8.0 7.0 – 8.0 6.0–7.0 5.0–7.0 6.0–7.0
18. Write the chemical formula of bleaching powder.
(a) Which plants grow well over the largest range How is it manufactured ? Give two important uses
of pH values? of bleaching powder. (CBSE 2001)
(b) Which plant can grow in the most acidic soil? Ans. The chemical formula of bleaching powder is
(c) Which plant can grow in the basic soil only? CaOCl2. It is manufactured by the action of chlorine
(d) What is the pH range for onion to grow well? on dry slaked lime.
Ans. (a) Black current and strawberry. Ca(OH)2 + Cl2 ¾® CaOCl2 + H2O
(b) Potato (4.5 – 6.0) Slaked lime Bleaching powder
(c) Mint (7.0 – 8.0) Two important uses of bleaching powder are:
(d) 6.0 – 7.0 (i) In bleaching cotton.
15. Write the chemical formula for washing soda. How (ii) In disinfecting drinking water to make it free
can it be obtained from baking soda? Name an from germs.
industrial use of washing soda other than washing 19. Name the raw materials that are required for the
clothes. (CBSE 2008) manufacture of washing soda by Solvay process.
Ans. Chemical formula of washing soda is Na2CO 3. Describe the chemical reactions involved in the
10 H2O. process. (CBSE 2007)
Preparation : It is obtained from baking soda through Ans. Raw materials used are : NaCl (sodium chloride),
the following two steps. CaCO3 (limestone for getting CO2) and NH3.
(i) Baking soda is heated. It decomposes to form Chemical reactions involved
anhydrous sodium carbonate. NaCl + H2O + CO2 + NH3 ® NH4Cl + NaHCO3
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

sodium Water Carbon Ammonia Ammonium Sodium hydrogen

Heat
2NaHCO 3 (s)¾¾¾® Na2 CO 3 (s) +CO2(g) + H2 O(g) chloride dioxide chloride carbonate
Sodium hydrogen Sodium carbonate Water vapour
carbonate ( anhyd.)
2 NaHCO3 ¾¾¾
Heat
® Na2CO3 + H2O + CO2
(ii) Anhydrous Na2CO3 obtained above is dissolved
Sodium carbonate
in water and subjected to recrystallisation.
Na2CO3 + 10 H2O ¾® Na2CO3. 10H2O
Na 2 CO 3 (s) + 10H2O(l) ® Na2 CO3 × 10H2 O(s) Sodium carbonate Washing soda
Anhyd.sod. carbonate Hydrated sod. carbonate
20. How is washing soda used in the softening of hard
Use : Washing soda is used for softening hard water. water ?
16. (a) Give Arrhenius definition of an acid and a base. Ans. Hardness gets removed because the soluble calcium
(b) Choose strong acid and strong base from the and magnesium salt present in hard water reacts
following: (CBSE 2007) with Na 2CO 3 to form insoluble calcium and
CH3COOH, NH4OH, KOH, HCl magnesium carbonates which can be filtered off.

50
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
21. Answer the following questions : (d) Adding water to acid is highly exothermic.
(a) State the colour of phenolphthalein in soap Therefore, acid is added to water very slowly
solution. with constant stirring.
(b) Name the by - product of chlor-alkali process
(e) Ammonia dissolves in water and form OH–.
which is used for the manufacture of bleaching
Therefore, it is basic in nature.
powder.
(c) Name one indicator which specifies the various +
NH3 + H2O ¾® NH 4 + OH
-

levels of H+ ion concentration.

Ans. (a) Pink 24. A compound 'A' is used in fire extinguisher and as
(b) Chlorine an antacid and its small amount is also used in
(c) Universal indicator making bakery items. Identify the compound and
22. You are provided with magnesium ribbon and also explain the reason for above mentioned uses
sulphur powder. Explain with the help of activity that of the compound 'A'.
metal oxides are basic and oxides of non-metal are
Ans. Compound 'A' is sodium hydrogencarbonate
acidic in nature.
– NaHCO3.
Ans. Burn magnesium ribbon with the help of tongs to
form white ash. Dissolve the ash in hot water. Add (i) It is used in fire extinguisher because it produces
red litmus which turns blue, showing that MgO is a CO2 gas on reaction with acid.
basic oxide. H2SO4 + 2NaHCO3 ® Na2SO4 + 2H2O + 2CO2
2Mg(s) + O2(g) ¾® 2MgO(s) (ii) It is used as an antacid because it neutralises
MgO(s) + H2O(Hot) ¾® Mg(OH)2(aq)
excess acid (HCl) present in stomach.
Heat sulphur powder taken in an iron spatula and
pass the gas through water. Add blue litmus into it. HCl + NaHCO3 ® NaCl + H2O + CO2
It will turn red showing SO 2 is an acidic oxide. (iii) It is used in making bakery items because on
S + O2 ¾® SO2 ; SO2 + H2O ¾® H2SO3. reaction with acid it produces CO2 gas which
Long answer type questions (5 marks) makes bread, cakes etc., soft and spongy.
23. State reason for the following statements:
NaHCO3 + H+ ® H2O + CO2 ­ + Na-salt acid
(a) Tap water conducts electricity whereas distilled
25. What is chemical formula for Plaster of Paris? How
water does not.
(b) Dry hydrogen chloride gas does not turn blue is it prepared? State the common and the chemical
litmus red whereas dilute hydrochloric acid does. names for the compound formed when Plaster of
(c) During summer season, a milk man usually adds Paris is mixed with water.
a very small amount of baking soda to fresh
1
milk. Ans. Chemical formula of Plaster of Paris is CaSO4. H O.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

2 2
(d) For dilution of acid, acid is added into water and
not water into acid. Plaster of Paris is prepared by heating gypsum to a
(e) Ammonia is a base but does not contain temperature of 100°C. The following reaction takes
hydroxyl group.
place :
Ans. (a) Tap water contains ions which conduct
electricity, whereas distilled water does not 1 1
100°C
CaSO4.2H2O ¾¾¾ ® CaSO4· H O + 1 H2O
contain such ions. 2 2 2
(b) Acids produces ions only in aqueous solution
which is responsible to turn blue litmus red. Dry Gypsum Plaster of Paris Water
HCl gas has no ions in it. On mixing with water, it resets to a hard mass to
(c) Baking soda does not allow milk to change to form gypsum again, i.e., the reverse reaction takes
curd which makes milk sour. place.

51
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
Practical based question Ans. (1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
26. You have been provided with three test tubes. One
Assertion.
of them contain distilled water and other two
29. Assertion : Universal indicator gives green colour
contains an acidic solution and a basic solution
with distilled water.
respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper,
Reason : pH of distilled water is 7 and it is neutral
how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
and universal indicator gives green colour with
Ans. · A few drops of each of the 3 samples in the test neutral solution.
tubes are added separately to litmus paper. Ans. (1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
· The sample which turns red litmus paper blue and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
is basic. Assertion.
Case based question (4 marks)
· Now take blue litmus paper and add samples
Direction : Q.30 is a case based question with short
of remaining test tubes on it.
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
· The solution which turns blue litmus to red is sub-parts.
acidic. 30. Sodium chloride is used as one of the raw materials
in the production of baking soda. Baking soda is
· The sample which do not change the colour is
commonly used to make crispy pakoras, etc., in the
distilled water.
kitchen. It is also added for faster cooking. It is also
27. A knife, which is used to cut a fruit, was immediately used in the preparation of effervescent drinks and
dipped into water containing drops of blue litmus fruit salts.
solution. The colour of the solution changes to red, (a) For the preparation of cakes, baking powder
what is the nature of the fruit ? is used. If at home your mother uses baking soda
Ans. The fruit is acidic as it turns blue litmus solution to instead of baking powder, how will it affect the
red. taste of the cake and why?
(b) How is baking soda prepared in laboratory?
Direction (Q.28 and Q.29) : In the following Questions,
(c) What makes the cake soft and spongy?
the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
Ans. (a) Baking powder consists of sodium hydrogen-
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative
carbonate (baking soda) and tartaric acid. If only
from the following :
baking soda is used in making cake, then
(1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct sodium carbonate is formed on heating which
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the will give a bitter taste to cake.
Assertion.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(b) In laboratory, baking soda can be prepared by

(2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct passing excess of CO 2 gas through the

and the Reason is not the correct explanation saturated solution of sodium carbonate. As a
result, sodium hydrogen carbonate is formed.
of the Assertion.
It gets precipitated due to supersaturation. The
(3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. precipitate is separated, washed and dried
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. without heating.
Na2CO3 + CO2 + H2O ¾® 2NaHCO3 (ppt.)
28. Assertion : Bleaching powder liberate chlorine
(c) Sodium hydrogen carbonate gives carbon
when kept in atmosphere.
dioxide (CO2) gas which makes the cakes soft
Reason : CaOCl2 reacts with CO 2 present in and spongy.
atmosphere to form CaCO3 and chlorine gas.

52
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
CHEMISTRY METALS AND NON-METALS
Objective Type questions (1 mark) 6. Which of the following is purest form of carbon?

1. The lightest liquid metal is

(1) Diamond
(1) Hg (2) Ga
(3) Cs (4) Fr (2) Graphite

Ans. (3) Cesium melts at 28.44°C and has low density. (3) Fullerene

2. A metal M and a non metal X react together to form (4) Charcoal

an ionic compound, M2X. Which of the following
statements is correct regarding this reaction? Ans. (3) It has soccer ball like structure, does not have
edges, so impurities can not enter.
(1) M is oxidized.

(2) Each atom of M gains one electron. 7. Which of the following ore is concentrated by Froth
floatation process?
(3) Each atom of M gives away two electrons.

(4) Atom of X gains one electron. (1) ZnCO3

Ans. (1) M is oxidized. (2) ZnO

3. Cu2S + 2Cu2O ® 6Cu + SO2
(3) PbS
The above process is
(4) PbO
(1) auto-reduction
Ans. (3) Sulphide ores are concentrated.
(2) chemical reduction

(3) electrolytic reduction 8.

(4) None of these

Ans. (1) Cu2S acts as reducing agent.

4. Which of the following represent mercury (I) ion

correctly?

(1) Hg+ (2) Hg2+

(3) Hg22 + (4) Hg Which of the following two combinations are correct?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

Ans. (3) Hg22 + Metal Gas Evolved

(i) Copper Yes
5. Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of
(ii) Iron Yes
(1) an aqueous solution of sodium chloride. (iii) Magnesium No
(2) an aqueous solution of sodium hydroxide. (iv) Zinc Yes

(3) molten sodium chloride.

(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(4) molten sodium sulphate.
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iv)
Ans. (3) Sodium is obtained by the electrolysis of molten
sodium chloride. Ans. (4) (ii) and (iv)

53
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
Short answer type questions (2 marks) 14. Define the term alloy. Write the constituents of
bronze.
9. (a) Why do Aluminium sheets not corrode easily ?
Ans. Alloy is a homogeneous mixture of two or more
(b) Why is Copper Vessel corroded with a green
metals. One of them can be a non-metal also. Alloys
coating in rainy season ?
are made by melting two metals together and then
Ans. (a) Aluminium sheets are covered with an oxide cooling it. Bronze = Cu + Sn
layer which makes it passive.
15. State four general properties of ionic compounds.
(b) It is due to the formation of basic copper
Ans. (a) They are soluble in water.
Carbonate CuCO3. Cu(OH)2.
(b) They are hard but brittle solids.
10. Why is carbon not used for reducing aluminium
(c) They conduct electricity in molten state and in
oxide to obtain Al.
their aqueous solution.
Ans. It is because Al itself is a strong reducing agent, there
(d) They have high melting and boiling point.
fore it can not be reduced by carbon.
16. Why are food cans tin-plated instead of zinc plated
11. Why aluminium articles do not require polishing and
though zinc is cheaper than tin?
painting?
Ans. Tin is less reactive than zinc. It is less likely to dissolve
Ans. The aluminium metal is a reactive metal even though
in the liquid stored in the food cans. Tin reacts only
no polishing and painting is required because it
with powerful acids whereas zinc can easily react
reacts with oxygen to form inert layer of aluminium
even with tomatoes, so it is not safe to store food in
oxide. This inert layer protects the metal from
zinc-plated cans.
further corrosion.
17. (i) Name a metal for each case :
4Al(s) + 3O2 (g) ¾¾® 2Al2 O 3 (s)
Aluminium Oxygen Aluminium oxide (a) It does not react with cold as well as hot
(inert layer)
water but reacts with steam.
12. What are electrovalent or ionic compounds?
(b) It does not react with any physical state of
Ans. The compounds formed by the transfer of electrons water.
from a metal to a non-metal are known as
electrovalent or ionic compounds e.g. NaCl. (ii) When calcium metal is added to water the gas
evolved does not catch fire but the same gas
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

×× evolved on adding sodium metal to water

× × ×× –
Na + × Cl × [Na+] × Cl × or NaCl catches fire. Why is it so ?
×× ××
Ans. (i) (a) Aluminium
2,8,1 2,8,7
(b) Copper
13. X + YSO4 ® XSO4 + Y
(ii) In both cases, the gas evolved is H2. When
Y + XSO4 ® No Reaction
calcium reacts with water the heat evolved is not
Out of the two elements X and Y which is more sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire. On the other
reactive and why ? hand, sodium metal reacts with water violently

Ans. X is more reactive than Y because it is displacing Y and in this case a lot of heat is evolved which is

from its salt solution. sufficient for hydrogen to catch fire.

54
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
Short answer type questions (3 marks) (b) Name the reaction.

18. (a) You must have seen that aluminium foils are used (c) Write down its reaction.
for packing food items and silver foils are used
Ans. (a) The compound X is Fe2O3 (ferric oxide).
for decorating sweets. Name the property due
to which these metals are available in the form (b) The reaction is called thermite reaction.
of sheets.
Ignition
(c) Fe2 O3 (s) + 2Al(s) ¾¾¾¾ ®
(b) Name the metal that is most ductile. ferricoxide aluminium

(c) Suppose you have two elements - iron and

sulphur. Out of these two, which one is suitable 2Fe + Al2 O3 (s) + Heat
(molten iron) aluminium
for making a school bell and why? Name the oxide

property also.
The reduction of Fe2O3 by Al is highly exothermic
Ans. (a) The property of a metal by virtue of which it
and therefore the Fe formed will be in the molten
can be beaten into thin sheets is called
form. This reaction is also called Goldschmidt
malleability.
alumino thermic reaction.
(b) Gold
21. During extraction of metals, electrolytic refining is
(c) Iron is suitable for making a school bell because used to obtain pure metals.
it is a metal and sulphur is a non-metal. Metals
(a) Which material will be used as anode and
produce ringing sound when hit with another
cathode for refining of silver metal by this
object. This property is called sonority of metals.
process?
19. An element 'A' has two electrons in its valence shell
while element 'B' has seven electrons in its valence (b) Suggest a suitable electrolyte also.

shell. (c) In this electrolytic cell, where do we get pure

(a) What will be the formula of compound formed silver after passing electric current?
between A and B?
Ans. (a) Impure metal block taken as anode and pure
(b) What will be the nature of chemical bond metal strip is taken as cathode.
formed?
(b) AgNO3 solution is taken as electrolyte.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(c) Will this conduct electricity?

(c) During this reaction, we get pure metal on
Ans. (a) AB2 cathode.

(b) Ionic bond 22. (a) Show the formation of NaCl from sodium and
chlorine atoms by the transfer of electron(s).
(c) It will not conduct electricity in solid state but it
will conduct electricity when melted or dissolved (b) Why does sodium chloride has a high melting
in water. point?

20. Compound X and aluminium are used to join railway (c) Name the anode and the cathode used in
tracks. electrolytic refining of impure copper metal.

(a) Identify the compound X. (CBSE 2008)

55
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
Ans. (a) Formation of Sodium chloride. (b) NaCl has a high melting point because it consists
of oppositely charged Na+ and Cl– ions which
Atomic number of sodium (Na) = 11
are held together by strong electrostatic forces
\ Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 1. of attraction. Hence a large amount of heat is
required to cut off these interionic forces of
It has only one electron in the valence shell. attraction.
It loses this electron to acquire the stable
(c) Impure copper metal is used as Anode. A thin
electronic configuration 2, 8 (similar to that of plate of pure copper is used as cathode.
neon) and form sodium ion (Na+):
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
Na× ¾® Na+ + e–
23. (a) What is 'activity series of metals' ? Arrange the
Sodium atom Sodium ion metals Zn, Mg, Al, Cu and Fe in a decreasing
(2, 8, 1) (2, 8) order of reactivity.
Atomic number of chlorine (Cl) = 17 (b) What would you observe when you put

\ Its electronic configuration is 2, 8, 7. (i) some zinc pieces into blue copper sulphate
solution?
It has 7 electrons in the valence shell. It gains (ii) some copper pieces into green ferrous
one electron to acquire the stable electronic sulphate solution?
configuration 2, 8, 8 (similar to that of argon) (c) Name a metal which combines with hydrogen gas.
and form chloride ion (Cl ). –
Name the compound formed. (CBSE 2005)
Ans. (a) The arrangement of metals in order of their
Cl + e– ¾® [ Cl ]– decreasing reactivity with respect to each other
Chlorine atom Chloride ion is called activity series of metals.
(2, 8, 7) (2, 8, 8)
Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu
Thus, when a sodium atom and a chlorine atom (b) (i) If a zinc pieces are dipped in copper
approach each other, an electron is transferred from sulphate solution, taken in a beaker, the
sodium atom to chlorine atom. In other words, blue colour of copper sulphate solution
sodium loses one electron to form Na+ ion and starts fading and reddish brown particles of
copper are found to settle at the bottom of
chlorine gains that electron to form Cl– ion. As a
the beaker. This is because the following
result, both acquire the stable nearest noble gas
reaction takes place :
configuration. These oppositely charged ions are
Zn(s) + CuSO4(aq) ¾® ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
then held together by electrostatic forces of
Zinc Copper sulphate Zinc sulphate Copper
attraction forming the compound Na+Cl– or simply
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(Blue colour) (Colourless) (Reddish

written as NaCl. The transfer of electron may be
brown)
represented in one step as follows :
This reaction shows that zinc is more reactive than
copper.
Cl ¾® Na + [ Cl ] or NaCl
+ x –
Nax + (ii) Nothing will happen because copper is less
Sodium atom Chlorine atom Sodium chloride
(2, 8, 1) (2, 8, 7) reactive than iron and hence it cannot
displace iron from ferrous sulphate solution.
(c) Sodium and calcium.
+ –
Na + Cl Na Cl Heat
2Na (s) + H2 (g) ¾¾¾ ® 2NaH(s)
Sodium hydride
Sodium atom (Na) Chlorine atom (Cl) Sodium ion Chloride ion
Heat
+ –
(Na ) (Cl )
Ca(s) + H2(g) ¾¾¾ ® CaH 2 (s)
Sodium Chloride Calcium hydride

56
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
24. (i) Distinguish between ' roasting' and ' calcination'. As B is a sulphide ore, it is first subjected to roasting
Which of these two is used for sulphide ores and followed by reduction.
why?
Roasting
(ii) Write a chemical equation to illustrate the use 2MS + 3O2 ¾¾¾¾ ® 2MO + 2SO2
of aluminium for joining cracked railway lines.
Reduction
MO + C ¾¾¾¾¾ ® M + CO
(iii) Name the anode, the cathode and the
electrolyte used in the electrolytic refining of 26. Write about different chemical processes used for
impure copper. obtaining a metal from its oxides, for metals low in
Ans. (i) Roasting : It is the process in which sulphide the reactivity series, metals in the middle of reactivity
ores of the metals are converted into oxides by series and metals towards the top of the reactivity
heating them in the presence of excess air. For series.
example, zinc sulphide is converted into zinc
Ans. (i) For obtaining the metals that are low in the
oxide by roasting.
reactivity series, oxides of such metals can be
Heat
2ZnS(s) + 3O2(g) ¾¾¾¾ ® 2ZnO(s) + 2SO2(g) reduced to metals by simply heating them in the
Roasting
air.
Calcination : It is the process in which
carbonate ores of the metals are decomposed For example, HgS or cinnabar is the ore of
into oxides by heating them in the absence or mercury metal which on heating changes to
limited air. For example, zinc carbonate is HgO. This metal oxide (HgO) gets reduced to
decomposed into zinc oxide and carbon dioxide mercury metal (Hg) on further heating.
by calcination.
Heat
2HgS + 3O2 ¾¾¾¾®
(Roasting) 2HgO + 2SO2­
Heat
ZnCO3(s) ¾¾¾¾¾
® ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Calcination
(air)

Out of roasting and calcination, only roasting is Heat

2Hg
2HgO ¾¾¾® + O2 ­
used for sulphide ores. This is because it is easier Mercury Metal

to obtain metal from its oxide as compared to

its sulphide. (ii) For obtaining metals that are in the middle of
reactivity series, oxides of such metals can be
(ii) Fe2 O 3 (s) + 2Al(s) ¾®
Heat
reduced with coke (carbon) which acts as a
Iron ( III ) oxide Aluminium powder
reducing agent.
2Fe(l ) + Al 2O3 (s) + Heat
Iron metal Aluminium oxide
For example, iron(III) oxide can be reduced to
(iii) Anode – Impure copper iron, as follows :
Cathode – Strip of pure copper
2Fe2O3 + 3C ¾¾¾ ® 4Fe + 3CO2­
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

Heat

Electrolyte – Acidified copper sulphate solution (Coke) Metal

25. Two ores A and B were taken. On heating ore A (iii) For obtaining metals that are high up in the
gives CO2 whereas, ore B gives SO2. What steps reactivity series, their oxides are reduced to
will you take to convert them into metals? metals by electrolysis.
Ans. Since ore A gives CO 2 and ore B gives SO 2.
For example,
Therefore, ores are MCO3 and MS.
As A is a carbonate ore, it is first subjected to Electric
2Al2 O3 ¾¾¾¾ ® 4Al3+ + 6O2–
calcination followed by reduction. (Bauxite ore)

MCO3 ¾¾¾¾¾
Calcination
® MO + CO2 At cathode : 4Al3+ + 12e– ¾® 4Al
( Metal )

Reduction
MO + C ¾¾¾¾¾ ® M + CO At anode : 6O2– ¾® 3O2 + 12e–

57
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
27. (a) How do you classify elements into metals and (iv) 'D' is a non-metal and E is also a non-metal,
non-metals on the basis of their electronic so bond formed will be covalent.
configuration? Choose metal and non-metal out
D = 2, 8, 5 E = 2, 8, 7
of the following :
23
A, 19 24
9 B, 12 C,
31
D, 35
E xx
11 15 17
E x Dx E
x
(b) What type of bond will be formed if DE3 Covalent bond
E
(i) 'A' combines with 'B' ?
(ii) 'A' combines with 'E' ? 28. A student setup an electric circuit as shown in figure
(iii) 'C' combines with 'E' ? ahead. He placed the metal to be tested in the
(iv) 'D' combines with 'E' ? circuit between terminals A and B as shown.

Ans. (a) Elements which contain 1 to 3 electrons in their (a) Does the bulb glow? What does this indicate?
outermost shell are metals.
(b) Why are electric wires coated with rubber like
Elements containing 4 to 7 electrons in their
materials?
valence shell are non-metals.
Electronic configurations: Ans. (a) Yes, the bulb glows, this indicates that metals
are good conductor of electricity.
23
11
A (Z = 11) = 2, 8, 1
19 (b) Rubber like substance is a bad conductor of
9 B (Z = 9) = 2, 7
electricity.
24
12
C (Z = 12) = 2, 8, 2
31
15
D(Z = 15) = 2, 8, 5
Battery Bulb
35
17
E (Z =17) = 2, 8, 7
Hence A and C are metals whereas, B, D and E
are non - metals. Switch
Clips
(b) Type of bonds
B Insert sample
(i) 'A' is metal and 'B' is non-metal, so the bond A
to be tested
formed will be ionic.
A = 2, 8, 1 B = 2, 7 29. Nibita took Zn, Al , Cu, Fe, Mg, Na metals and put
each metal in cold water and the hot water. She also
X – reacted the metal with steam.
AX + B A+ B
Ionic Bond
(a) Name the metal which reacts with cold water.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(ii) 'A' is metal and 'E' is non-metal, so the bond

formed is ionic. (b) Which of the above metals react with steam?
A = 2, 8, 1 E = 2, 8, 7
(c) Name the metal which reacts with hot water.

AX + E A+ E
X –
(d) Arrange these metals in order of decreasing
Ionic Bond reactivity.
(iii) 'C' is metal and 'E' is non-metal, so the bond
Ans. (a) Sodium (Na)
formed is ionic.
C = 2, 8, 2 E = 2, 8, 7 (b) Aluminium (Al), Zinc (Zn), Iron (Fe)

(c) Magnesium (Mg)

E X –
CX
X
+ C+2 E
E Ionic Bond
2
(d) Na > Mg > Al > Zn > Fe > Cu

58
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
Practical based questions (1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
30. On adding zinc granules to freshly prepared ferrous
Assertion.
sulphate solution, what is observed?
(2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
Ans. It is observed that the solution turns from green to and the Reason is not the correct explanation
colourless and a black coating is formed. this is of the Assertion.
because zinc being more reactive than iron (3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
displaces it from FeSO 4 and forms colourless (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
solution of ZnSO4 along with a black coating of Fe. 33. Assertion : Nitrogen is a non-metal.
Reason : Nitrogen has 7 valence electrons.
Ans. (3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
34. Assertion : Copper does not reacts with dil.H2SO4.
Reason : Copper is more reactive than hydrogen.
FeSO4(aq)
Ans. (3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false. Cu is
Zinc less, reactive than H2.
Case based question (4 marks)
Direction : Q.35 is a case based question with short
FeSO 4( aq ) + Zn(s) ¾® ZnSO 4( aq ) + Fe( s ) sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
( Green ) ( Colourless ) ( Black ) sub-parts.
35. Metals react with non-metals by losing or gaining
31. Four different test tubes were filled with aluminium
electrons. They have a give-and-take relation
sulphate solution. Different metals were introduced
between them. Ionic compounds are usually solid
into these test tubes in following manner.
and hard in nature. They are generally soluble in
Test Metal water and insoluble in organic solvents like petrol,
Obervation
Tubes Introduced kerosene, etc. The melting and boiling points of
1 Zn No change electrovalent compounds are high. In order to
2 Fe No change change the physical state of the electrovalent
3 Cu No change compounds (from solid to liquid to gas), a high
4 Al No change temperature is needed to overcome the attractive
What can be inferred? forces.
(a) Show the formation of Na2O by the transfer of
Ans. It can be inferred that Al is more reactive than Zn, electrons between the combining atoms.
Fe and Cu. This is because when Zn, Fe, Cu are
(b) Why are ionic compounds usually hard?
introduced in aluminium sulphate solution, no
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(c) How is it that ionic compounds in the solid state

changes is observed as none of the metals displaced
do not conduct electricity but they do so when
aluminium from its solution.
in molten state?
32. A strip of copper was placed in a beaker containing
Ans. (a)
zinc sulphate solution. On observing the strip next
day, was there any colour change in the strip?

Ans. On the next day, the copper strip remain as it was (b) It is due to strong force of attraction between
because it cannot displace zinc from its solution. oppositely charged ions.
(c) In solid state, ions are not free to move whereas
Direction (Q.33 and Q.34) : In the following Questions,
in molten state ions are free to move,
the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
therefore, they conduct electricity in molten
the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative
state.
from the following :

59
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
CHEMISTRY CARBON AND ITS COMPOUNDS
Objective Type questions (1 mark) 6. Which of the following contains covalent bond?

1. –CHO represents the functional group (1) MgCl2 (2) CaF2

(3) Al2O3 (4) HCl
(1) esters (2) carboxylic acid
Ans. (4) HCl is formed by sharing of electrons.
(3) alcohols (4) aldehydes
7. Which of the following pairs of compounds of carbon
O will undergo combustion as well as addition reaction?
|| (1) CH4 and C2H6
Ans. (4) — C —H is aldehyde group.
(2) C2H6O and C3H8O
2. The next higher homologue of ethanol is - (3) C2H4O2 and C3H6O
(1) Methanol (4) C2H2 and C3H6

(2) Butanol Ans. (4) Unsaturated compounds shows addition reaction.

(3) Pentanol 8. Number of electrons shared between carbon

– carbon atoms in ethene is -
(4) Propanol
H H
Ans. (4) Propanol · ·
X
3. Ethanol on complete oxidation gives C ? C
(1) Carbon dioxide and water ·X X·
H H
(2) acetaldehyde
(1) 2 (2) 4
(3) acetone
(3) 6 (4) 8
(4) acetic acid
Ans. (2)
Alk. KMnO 4
Ans. (4) CH3 CH2 OH ¾¾¾¾¾ ® CH 3 COOH Short answer type questions (2 marks)
Ethanol Ethanoic acid
9. List two differences between saturated and
4. The ionic part of synthetic detergent is unsaturated hydrocarbons.
(CBSE Board term-II 2011)
(1) –OSO3– Na+ (2) –COO– Na+
Ans. S. Saturated Unsaturated
(3) –COO– H+ (4) –COO– CH3+ No. Hydrocarbons Hydrocarbons
(i) Hydrocarbons having Hydrocarbons having
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

Ans. (1) –OSO3–Na+ is present in detergent.

single bonds between one or more multiple
5. When 1.0 mol of compound Q is burnt in excess carbon atoms are bonds between carbon
oxygen, 2.0 mol of carbon dioxide and 2.0 mol of called saturated atoms are called
hydrocarbons. unsaturated
steam are produced. Which of the following is the
hydrocarbons.
formula of compound Q? (ii) Gives a clean flame They give yellow flame
on burning. with a lot of black
(1) C2H6 smoke on burning.
(2) C2H4O 10. (a) Write the name of the following compounds :
(3) C2H5OH (i) HCOOH, (ii) CH3COCH2CH3.
(b) Explain why carbon generally forms compounds
(4) C3H8O
by covalent bonds.
Ans. (2) C2H4O (CBSE Board term-II 2011)

60
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
Ans. (a) (i) Methanoic acid, (ii) Butan-2-one. Short answer type questions (3 marks)
(b) Carbon generally forms compounds by covalent
bonds because carbon can neither donate nor 14. A boy heated a mixture of fat and sodium hydroxide
accept four electrons for completing its octet. solution. He added this mixture to a solution of
So, it shares its four electrons with other atoms sodium chloride in water. A soft white solid substance
forming covalent bonds.
was produced.
11. Write the name and molecular formula of an organic
compound having its name suffixed with'–ol' and (a) Name the soft white solid.
having two carbon atoms in the molecule. With the
help of a balanced equation indicate what happens (b) What is the name of process carried out by boy?
when it is heated with excess of conc. H2SO4.
(c) Why did he add the mixture to the sodium
Ans. The organic compound is ethanol. Its molecular
chloride solution?
formula is C2H6O and structural formula is C2H5OH
or CH3CH2OH.
Ans. (a) Soap
Conc.H2 SO 4
CH3 CH2 OH ¾¾¾¾¾¾
at 443K Heat
® CH2 = CH2 + H2 O
Ethanol Ethene (b) Saponification
12. What is mean by denaturaed alcohol ? What is the
(c) The boy added the mixture of sodium chloride
need to denature alcohol?
solution to decrease the solubility of soap.
Ans. Denatured alcohol is ethyl alcohol which has been
made unfit for drinking purposes by adding 15. People use a variety of methods to wash clothes.
poisonous substances like methanol, pyridine,
Usually, after adding soap, they 'beat' the clothes on
copper sulphate, etc.
a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush
Ethanol is an important chemical. It is supplied at
concessional rates to industries. It is therefore, made or the mixture is agitated in a washing machine. Why
unfit for drinking purposes to prevent its misuse. is agitation necessary to get clean clothes?
13. Two carbon compounds A and B have the molecular
Ans. Soap lowers the surface tension of water. The long
formula C3H8 and C3H6 respectively. Which one of
the two is most likely to show addition reaction? chain non-ionic hydrocarbon group in soap sinks in
Justify your answer. Explain with the help of a the oil and grease droplets and thus loosens them
chemical equation, how an addition reaction is useful from the fibres of clothes along with dirt. However,
in vegetable ghee industry.
this loosening is insufficient to take out the tiny
Ans. The compound have the molecular formula C3H6
droplets of oil or grease along with dirt. Thus, the
will show addition reaction.
clothes are agitated by various methods, so that oil
Reason: In this compound one valency per carbon
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

atom remains unsatisfied. This can be satisfied if or grease droplets along with dirt are squeezed out.
this compound undergoes addition reaction so it
16. How will you distinguish between alcohol and
becomes a stable saturated compound. This
reaction is commonly used in hydrogenation of carboxylic acid experimentally?
vegetable oil by using nickel catalyst. This helps in
Ans. Take two test tubes A and B and place about 1 g of
converting unsaturated vegetable oils into saturated
fats (Which are more stable). sodium carbonate in them. Pour alcohol in test tube
H H A and carboxylic acid in test tube B. Shake the
R R
Ni Catalyst contents of the test tubes. The test tube in which a
C=C + H2 R—C—C—R
Heat
R R brisk effervescence takes place, with the liberation
R R of a colourless gas (CO2) is carboxylic acid. The test
Vegetable oil Vegetable ghee
(unsaturated) (saturated) tube in which no reaction takes place is alcohol.

61
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
17. Give an example each of (i) open chain (ii) branched (e) Ethanol reacts with ethanoic acid in presence
chain and (iii) ring compounds. of concentrated sulphuric acid to form a sweet
Ans. (i) Open chain compound (n-pentane) smelling ester, ethyl ethanoate.
H 2SO 4
CH3– CH2– CH2 – CH2 – CH3 C2 H5 OH + CH3 COOH CH3 COOC2 H 5 + H2 O
Ethanol Ehanoic acid Ethyl ethanoate

(ii) Branched chain compound (isobutane)

19. An organic compound 'A' is a constituent of wine
CH 3–CH–CH3 and beer and is also used as fuel in spirit lamp.
CH3 Compound 'A' on heating with alkaline potassium
(iii) Ring (cyclopentane) : permanganate gives another compound 'B' which
turns blue litmus to red. Compound 'A' and 'B'
CH2
combine in the presence of conc. H2SO4 to give a
CH2 CH2 sweet smelling compound 'C'. Identify compounds
'A', 'B' and 'C'. Also write the equations involved in
CH2 CH2
the reaction.
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
Ans. As compound 'A' is a constituent of wine and beer
18. What happens when and is used in spirit lamp, it is ethanol.
(a) ethanol burns in air.
Alk. KMnO 4
(b) ethanol reacts with sodium metal. CH3 CH2 OH +2[O] ¾¾¾¾¾Heat
® CH 3 COOH +H2O
A ( Ethanol ) B( Ethanoic Acid )
Turns blue litmus red
(c) ethanol is oxidised with chromic anhydride in
galcial ethanoic acid. Conc.H2 SO 4
A + B ¾¾¾¾¾ ¾
® C
(d) ethanol is heated with alkaline potassium
permanganate. CH3CH2OH + CH3COOH ¾¾¾¾¾
Conc.H2 SO 4
¾
®
(e) ethanol is heated with ethanoic acid in the
CH3 COOCH2 CH3 + H2O
presence of a few drops of concentrated C ( Ethyl Ethanoate )
( Ester )
sulphuric acid?
Ans. (a) Ethanol is highly inflammable liquid. It catches 20. (a) Give a chemical test to distinguish between
fire easily and starts burning. Ethanol burns saturated and unsaturated hydrocarbons.
readilly in air with a blue flame to form carbon (b) Name the products formed when ethane burns
dioxide and water vapour. in air. Write the balanced chemical equation for
Combustion
the reaction showing the types of energies
C2H5OH + 3O2 ¾¾¾¾¾ ® 2CO2 + 3H2O
( Burning ) liberated.
A lot of heat is produced during the combustion (c) Why is reaction between methane and chlorine
of ethanol. in the presence of sunlight considered a
(b) Ethanol reacts with sodium to produce sodium substitution reaction?
ethoxide and hydrogen gas. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

Ans. (a) Br2- water test : Br2- water is a brown coloured

2C2 H5 OH + 2Na ¾® 2C2 H5 ONa + H2
Ethanol Sodium ethoxide
liquid.
Unsaturated hydrocarbons give addition
(c) When ethanol is treated with chromic anhydride,
reaction with Br2, so the colour of Br2-water gets
then its partial oxidation takes place and ethanal
decolourised.
is formed.
Saturated hydrocarbons do not react with Br2-
CrO3 in
CH3 CH2 OH +[O]¾¾¾¾¾
CH3COOH
® CH3 CHO +H2O water, so the colour of Br2-water does not get
Ethanal
Ethanol
decolourised.
Chromic anhydride oxidises ethanol to ethanal. (b) On burning ethane in air, the products obtained
(d) Alkaline KMnO4 oxidises ethanol to ethanoic are carbon dioxide and water, along with heat
acid. and light.
Alk. KMnO 2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) ¾®
CH3 CH2 OH + 2[O]¾¾¾¾¾
4
® CH 3 COOH +H2O
Ethanol Ethanoic acid 4CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) + Heat + Light.

62
 ® Chemistry
ALLEN
(c) Methane reacts with chlorine in the presence (i) Sodium hydroxide is added to ethanoic acid.
of sunlight to form chloromethane and hydrogen (ii) Solid sodium hydrogen carbonate is added
chloride. to ethanoic acid.
CH + Cl2
4 ¾¾¾¾
Sunlight
® (iii) Ethanol reacts with sodium.
Methane Chlorine

CH Cl + HCl Ans. (a) Two reasons for carbon forming a large number
3
Chloromethane Hydrogen Chloride
of compounds are :
With the excess of chlorine, all the four hydrogen
atoms of methane are replaced by chlorine · Tetravalency
atoms to form carbon tetrachloride (CCl4). This · Property of catenation.
reaction is considered as substitution reaction
Carbon attains noble gas configuraton by sharing
because hydrogen of methane is substituted by
its four electrons with other elements i.e. its forms
chlorine.
covalent compounds.
21. Give an example of each of the following.
(a) A carbon compound containing two double (i) Carbon compounds have low melting and
bonds. boiling points due to weak van der Waals' force
(b) A molecule in which central atom is linked to of attraction.
three other atoms. (ii) Carbon compounds do not conduct electricity
(c) A compound containing both ionic and covalent as they are non-polar and do not form ions in
bonds. molten state.
(d) An organic compund which is soluble in water.
(e) A carbon compound which burns with a sooty (b) (i) NaOH + CH 3 COOH ¾® CH3COONa + H2O
Sodium Acetic acid
flame. hydroxide Sodium Water
acetate
Ans. (a) Carbon dioxide (CO2)
O=C=O (ii) CH3 COOH + NaHCO3 ¾®
Ethanoic acid Sodium hydrogen
(b) Ammonia molecule (NH3) H—N—H carbonate

H
CH3COONa + H2O + CO2
(c) Ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) contains both ionic Sodium ethanoate Water Carbon dioxide
and covalent bonds.
+ (iii) 2Na + 2CH3 CH2 OH ¾®
H Sodium Ethanol

H—N—H Cl –

2CH3 CH2 ONa + H2

H Sodium ethoxide Hydrogen

(d) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) or ethanoic acid Direction (Q.23 and Q.24) : In the following Questions,
(CH3COOH) is soluble in water. the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

(e) Unsaturated compounds, e.g. ethene, ethyne, the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative
benzene etc., burn with a sooty flame. from the following :
22. (a) List two reasons for carbon forming a large
(1) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
number of compounds. Name the type of
bonding found in most of its compounds. Why and the Reason is the correct explanation of the
does carbon from compounds mainly by this kind Assertion.
of bonding: (2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
Give reason why the carbon compounds –
and the Reason is not the correct explanation
(i) Generally have low melting and boiling
of the Assertion.
points,
(ii) Do not conduct electricity in molten state? (3) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(b) Write the chemical equations to show what
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
happens when

63
CBSE : Class X ®
ALLEN
23. Assertion : Ethanoic acid reacts with ethyl alcohol All members of a homologous series share the same

in presence of conc H2SO4 to form ethyl ethanoate. general formula. For example, the general formula
for alkane is CnH2n+2 and alkene is CnH2n. The
Reason : Esters are used as a constituent of
members show a gradation in physical properties
perfumes.
as the molecular mass increases. The chemical
Ans. (2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
properties are similar.
and the Reason is not the correct explanation
(a) Give homologous series of alkanes with an
of the Assertion.
example.
24. Assertion : Soaps are bio-degradable but do not
(b) State two characteristics of a homologous series.
work well with hard water.
(c) Select the hydrocarbons which belong to the
Reason : Some detergents are not bio-degradable
same homologous series. Give the name of each
but work well with hard water.
series.
Ans. (2) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct
CH4, C2H2, C2H4, C2H6, C4H10, C3H4, C3H6
and the Reason is not the correct explanation
Ans. (a) Homologous series of alkanes: Methane, CH4;
of the Assertion.
Ethane, C2H6; Propane, C3H8; Butane, C4H10;
Case based question (4 marks)
Pentane, C5H12
Direction : Q.25 is a case based question with short
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these (b) (i) All the members of the homologous series
sub-parts. can be represented by the same general
25. The homologous series is a group of organic formula.
compounds having a similar structure and similar (ii) Any two adjacent homologues differ by 1
chemical properties in which the successive carbon atom and 2 hydrogen atoms in their
compounds differ by a –CH2 group. There are some molecular formulae.
characteristics of a homologous series such as each (c) Alkanes: CH4, C2H6, C4H10
member of the series differs from the preceeding
Alkenes: C2H4, C3H6
one by the addition of a –CH2 group and by 14
Alkynes: C2H2, C3H4
a.m.u. mass.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\2. Chemistry\4. Chemistry.p65

64
BIOLOGY
 ® Biology
ALLEN
BIOLOGY LIFE PROCESSES : NUTRITION
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) of the muscles of alimentary canal that moves the
1. Plants are autotrophic and synthesize their own food food forward in the alimentary canal.
by the process of photosynthesis using simpler 4. The first event in photosynthesis is
inorganic raw materials (CO2 and water) in presence (1) Formation of ATP
of light. The overall reaction is given below. (2) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll
(3) Splitting of water
6CO2 + 12H2O ¾¾¾¾ ® C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6O2.
Light
Chlorophyll (4) Reduction of CO2
Ans. Option (2)
5. The parts shown as A and B in the given diagram are

a
b

c The parts shown as A and B in the given diagram are

The biosynthetic phase of above reaction takes (1) A is epidermal cell, B is stomatal pore
place in which of the labelled parts of the (2) A is guard cell, B is stomatal pore
(3) A is epidermal cell, B is guard cell
chloroplast ?
(4) A is guard cells, B is epidermal cell
(1) a (2) b
Ans. Option (2)
(3) c (4) a, b and c 6. Photosynthesis is the process of preparing____ (i)
Ans. Option (2) ____ Combining __________ and water, using solar
a and c represent thylakoid and granum respectively energy by ____ (iii) ____.
where light reaction takes place and b represent (i) (ii) (iii)
stroma where dark reaction (biosynthetic phase) Organic Carbon
(1) Chlorophyll
takes place food dioxide
2. Full name of NADP is: (2)
Organic
Oxygen Water
(1) Nicotinamide dinucleotide phosphate food
(2) Nicotine adenine dinucleotide phosphate Organic Carbon
(3) Chlorophyll
food dioxide
(3) Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate
Organic
(4) None of the above (4) Chlorophyll Oxygen
food
Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (3)
3. The given figure shows the process of :
7. From the given figure mark the incorrect statement
regarding nutrition in Amoeba.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(1) Step I shows the phagocytic action by cilia.

(2) Step II shows the ingestion of food by
(1) Assimilation (2) Mastication
pseudopodia.
(3) Absorption (4) Peristalsis (3) Step III shows the food is encaptured into a bag
Ans. Option (4) called food vacuole.
The peristaltic movement also called as the (4) Step VI shows egestion of undigested food that
Peristalsis refers to the contraction and relaxation takes place at any point on the surface of body.
65
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. Option (1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
Cilia are not involved in phagocytic action of amoeba. (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
8. In an experiment to test the presence of starch in a 12. Assertion (A) : The large intestine is the longest
leaf, the plucked leaf is first boiled in water for few part of the alimentary canal.
minutes, because it Reason (R) : Tiger has a shorter small intestine than
(1) extracts starch to destarch the leaf herbivores.
(2) kills the cells and makes the leaf soft and more Ans. (4)
permeable to iodine solution Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
(3) converts glucose made in the leaf into starch Small intestine is the longest part of alimentary canal.
(4) dissolves chlorophyll Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
Ans. Option (2)
13. Name the glands present in the wall of the stomach
9. Starch is converted to maltose by action of
that release secretions for digestion of food. Write
(1) Amylase (2) Pepsin
three components of secretion that are released by
(3) Lipase (4) Trypsin
these glands.
Ans. Option (1)
Ans. Gastric glands found in the wall of the stomach that
Salivary amylase in mouth converts starch into
releases secretion for digestion of food.
maltose.
Three components of secretion released by these
10. Which of the below mentioned statements is false
glands are :
regarding emulsification ?
(i) Mucus (ii) Hydrochloric acid (iii) Pepsinogen
(1) It involves breaking of large sized fat globules into
14. Name the green dot like structures in some cells
small fat droplets.
observed by a student when a leaf peel was viewed
(2) It involves action of bile salts.
under a microscope. What is this green colour due
(3) It involves breaking down of fat molecules into
to ?
fatty acid & glycerol.
(4) None of these Ans. The green colour of the leaves of the plant is due
Ans. Option (3) to the presence of tiny green coloured organelles
Emulsification only involves breaking of large sized called chloroplasts which contain green pigment
fat globules into small fat droplets to increase the chlorophyll.
surface area on which the enzyme pancreatic lipase 15. How do autotrophs obtain CO2 and N2 to make their
can act to digest the fats into fatty acids & glycerol, food ?
and it do not involve digestion of fat. Ans. Green plants take carbon dioxide required for
Assertion & Reason type questions photosynthesis directly from atmospheric air through
stomata and nitrogen in the form of soluble nitrogen
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of compounds present in the soil.
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: 16. Name any two parasitic plants and two parasitic
animals.
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
Ans. Parasitic plants - Cuscuta and Yellow Rattle.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion

(A). Parasitic animals - Ticks and Tapeworms.
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason 17. Draw the diagram of an open stomatal pore of a
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). leaf and label on it chloroplast and guard cells.

(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.

(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

11. Assertion (A) : The opening and closing of the

stomatal pore is a function of the guard cells.
Reason (R) : Stomatal pores are the site for
exchange of gases by diffusion.
Ans. (2)

66
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Guard cells Ans. (i) Cloudy days : The rate of photosynthesis will
Ans. decrease because sunlight is necessary for
photosynthesis. On a cloudy day, there will be
less sunlight.
(ii) No rainfall in the area : The rate of photosynthesis
will decrease because water is one of the raw
material needed by plant for photosynthesis. If
Chloroplast there is no rainfall in an area, there will be less
water available to plant.
(iii) Good manuring in the area : The rate of
18. How do the guard cells regulate the process of photosynthesis will increase because plants need
opening and closing of stomatal pores ? minerals such as N, P, Fe, Mg etc., for building
Ans. Opening and closing of stomata occur due to the
their body and they take these minerals from
changes in the turgor pressure of the guard cells.
the soil. Magnesium is needed for formation of
When guard cells are turgid (i.e. filled with water),
chlorophyll required for photosynthesis. Good
stomatal pores are open, while in flaccid form the
stomatal pores are closed. manuring in the area will increase the quantity
19. Explain the significance of peristaltic movement that of these minerals in the soil thus, increasing
occur all along the gut during digestion. photosynthesis.
Ans. It is necessary to move the food in a regulated 23. Explain with the help of neat and well labelled
manner along the digestive tube so that it can be diagrams the different steps involved in the nutrition
processed properly in each part. The lining of in Amoeba.
alimentary canal has muscles that contract Ans. Amoeba is a unicellular organism that does not
rhythmically in order to push the food forward. This possess specialised organs for the process of
is known as peristaltic movement. nutrition. The mode of nutrition in Amoeba is
20. How is required pH maintained in the stomach and
holozoic and takes place with the help of
small intestine ?
pseudopodia (finger-like extensions). It engulfs the
Ans. Gastric glands present on the walls of the stomach
food when it comes in contact with its cell surface
release HCl. It creates an acidic medium in stomach
to facilitate the action of enzyme pepsin. by ingestion. Pseudopodia fuses over the food
Bile juice from liver makes the food alkaline in small particle to form a food vacuole.
intestine for pancreatic enzymes to act. Nucleus
Short answer type questions (3 marks) (a) Ingestion Pseudopodia
21. Why does the medium become acidic in mouth ? Food particle
What is the ill effect of this acidic medium ? How Food vacuole
can this be prevented ? (b) Digestion Food particle
Ans. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

degradation of sugar and food particles in the mouth

that may bring down pH in the mouth below 5.5. (c) Absorption
The ill effect of acidic medium is that tooth enamel
get corroded by the action of acids and tooth decay
occurs. (d) Assimilation
This can be prevented by cleaning the teeth with Amoeba grows
tooth paste which is basic in nature.
Undigested food
22. In each of the following situations what happens to the (e) Egestion
removed
rate of photosynthesis ?
(i) Cloudy days Digestion in Amoeba is intracellular (takes place
(ii) No rainfall in the area inside the cell) in nature. Inside the food vacuole
(iii) Good manuring in the area
67
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

complex food breaks into small soluble molecules (b) Bile is a dark green to yellowish brown fluid
secreted by liver and stored as well as
readily absorbed by the cytoplasm. This process is
concentrated in the gall bladder. Bile does not
called absorption. The absorbed food is further contain any digestive enzymes like other
assimilated by Amoeba to derive energy for secretions from gastrointestinal tract instead has
growth. The undigested food material is removed salts which emulsify fats and breaks it down into
small fat droplets that can easily be acted upon
by the cell membrane which ruptures suddenly at
by fat digesting enzymes.
any place and eliminates out the undigested food.
Therefore, bile is essential for digestion though it
This process of throwing out undigested food is does not contain any digestive enzyme.
called egestion. 27. (a) Draw the cross section of the leaf and label the
24. State the function of the following in the alimentary following parts :
canal :
(i) Upper epidermis
(i) Liver (ii) Gall bladder (iii) Villi
Ans. (i) The cells of liver secrete bile juice which help (ii) Chloroplast
in emulsification of fats. It also makes the acidic (iii) Air spaces
food coming from the stomach alkaline thus
facilitating the action of pancreatic enzymes. (iv) Guard cell
(ii) Gall bladder stores and concentrates the bile (b) Define photosynthesis.
juice produced by the liver.
(c) List three events which occur during this
(iii) The villi increases the intestinal absorptive surface
process.
area. This ensures that there is more space for
the food and its components to be absorbed. (d) Write the chemical equation involved in
25. Name three different glands associated with the photosynthesis.
digestive system in humans. Also name their
(e) How is unused energy stored in plants?
secretions.
Ans. Name of the (f) What is the site for photosynthesis?
Name of secretions
glands Ans. (a)
(i) Salivary glands Saliva contains enzyme
ptyalin
Upper
(ii) Liver Bile juice epidermis
(iii) Pancreas Pancreatic juice which
contains trypsin, lipase Chloroplast
and pancreatic amylase
Air spaces

Long answer type questions (5 marks)

Guard cell
26. (a) Draw a diagram of human alimentary canal and
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

label on it : oesophagus, gall bladder, liver and

pancreas.
(b) Photosynthesis : It is the synthesis of organic
(b) Explain the statement, 'bile does not contain any
enzyme but it is essential for digestion'. food from inorganic raw materials with the help
Ans. (a) The labelled diagram of human alimentary canal of light energy inside chlorophyll containing
is as follows : cells.

(c) Events :
(i) Absorption of light energy by chlorophyll and
Oesophagus
photolysis of water.
Liver
Gall
bladder
Pancreas (ii) Production of assimilatory power like ATP
and NADPH2.

68
 ® Biology
ALLEN
(iii) Reduction of CO2 to carbohydrates. (b). Which food component is digested in the
stomach?
(d) 6CO 2 + 12H 2O ¾¾¾¾¾¾ ®
chlorophyll
sunlight,enzymes (c). What are the roles of acid in our stomach? (Any
four)
C 6 H12O6 + 6H 2 O + 6O 2 ­ OR
glucos e
Write any two functions performed by our stomach?
(e) In the form of starch.
Ans. (a). Mucus layer
(f) Chloroplasts.
(b). Proteins
Case based question (4 marks)
(c). Roles of HCL are-
Direction : Q.28 is a case based question with short
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these i. HCl kills germs.
sub-parts. ii. HCl activates protein digestive enzymes.
28. Your stomach has a protective lining. This lining
iii. HCl provide acidic medium for the action of
protects your stomach from the strong stomach acid
enzymes.
that helps in digestion of food. When something
damages or weakens this protective lining, it iv. HCl softens the food.
becomes inflamed, causing gastritis. A type of OR
bacteria called Helicobacter pylori is the most
i. Temporary storage of food.
common bacterial cause of gastritis.
(a). What protects our stomach linings from our ii. Digestion of proteins.
stomach acid?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

69
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY RESPIRATION
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 4. Identify the labels (1, 2 and 3) in the given figure
1. Respiratory pigment is required in the body of those showing exchange of gases between alveoli and
organisms, which have blood capillaries. Select the correct option.
(1) very small sized body (2) very large sized body
(3) no blood (4) less developed heart
Ans. Option (2)
Diffusion pressure is not sufficient to transport gases
in organisms with large sized body having large no
of cells, so respiratory pigment is required to
transport gases
2. Which of the following diagrams shows the flow of 1 2 3
air in our body ? (1) CO2 O2 RBCs
(2) O2 CO2 RBCs
(3) RBCs O2 CO2
(4) CO2 RBCs O2
(1)
Ans. Option (1)
5. To demonstrate that seeds release CO2 during
respiration, the seeds should be
(1) Dried completely
(2) (2) Boiled to make them soft
(3) Kept moist for germination
(4) Soaked in KOH
Ans. Option (3)
6. Which one of the following processes is responsible
(3) for cramps in the muscles of sportsman?
(1) Non conversion of glucose to pyruvate
(2) Conversion of pyruvate to lactic acid due to
deficiency of oxygen
(4)
(3) Conversion of pyruvate to glucose in presence
of oxygen
Ans. Option (2)
(4) Conversion of pyruvate to ethanol
3. During inspiration, how does alveolar pressure Ans. Option (2)
compared to atmospheric pressure? 7. Mark the correct adaptation for gaseous exchange
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(1) Alveolar pressure is greater than atmospheric in terrestrial organisms from the following.
pressure. (1) Thick permeable membrane
(2) Abundant blood supply
(2) Alveolar pressure is less than atmospheric
(3) Dry respiratory surface
pressure.
(4) Less surface area
(3) Alveolar pressure is the same as atmospheric Ans. Option (2)
pressure. 8. Identify the incorrect match.
(1) Earthworm : Skin (2) Cockroach : Lungs
(4) Alveolar pressure is one of the few pressures
(3) Fishes : Gills (4) Birds : Lungs
wh ere the refe rence press ure is n ot
Ans. Option (2)
atmospheric.
In Cockroach respiration occurs with the help of
Ans. Option (2) trachea.

70
 ® Biology
ALLEN
9. Glycolysis takes place in Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Mitochondria 13. Name the respiratory pigment in human beings.
(3) Nucleus (4) None of these Where is this pigment found ?
Ans. Option (1) Ans. The respiratory pigment in human being is
Glycolysis takes place in cytoplasm. haemoglobin. Haemoglobin is present in RBC's of
10. Match the columns and select the correct option. blood in humans.
Column-I Column-II 14. What is the principle of exchange of gases ? Name
Com mon the intermediate and the end products of glucose
(a) Larynx (p) passage for food breakdown in aerobic respiration.
and air Ans. Diffusion is the principle of exchange of gases.
(b) Trachea (q) A ir sacs The intermediate product of glucose breakdown in
aerobic respiration is pyruvate whereas the end
(c) Alveoli (r) V oice box
products are carbon dioxide and water.
(d) Pharynx (s) Wind pipe 15. During breathing cycle, what is the advantage of
(1) a–r, b–s, c–q, d–p residual volume of air in lungs ? Explain.
(2) a–r, b–s, c–p, d–q Ans. During breathing cycle, the advantage of residual
(3) a–s, b–r, c–q, d–p volume of air in lungs is that it provide sufficient time
(4) a–r, b–q, c–s, d–p for oxygen to be absorbed and for CO 2 to be
Ans. Option (1) released.
Assertion & Reason type questions 16. State the basic difference between the process of
respiration and photosynthesis.
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a
Ans. Photos ynthes is R es pira tion
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: It ta k es p la ce in It tak e s p la ce in
gre en cells of a ll living be ings
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and p lants
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion It occurs during It occurs throughout
(A). da y tim e only the life of an
orga nism
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
Ene rgy is store d in the Energy is re le a se d in
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
form of food the form of ATP
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. CO 2 and H 2O CO 2 a nd wa te r a re
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. both are used up relea se d
11. Assertion (A) : Pyruvate is a six-carbon molecule. Food a nd oxyge n a re Food and ox ygen
p roduce d a re use d up
Reason (R) : It is prepared in the cytoplasm as the
It is a n a nabolic It is a Ca ta bolic
first step to cellular respiration. p roce ss p roce ss
Ans. (4)
17. Why do fishes die when taken out of water ?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.

Ans. Fishes die when taken out of water because they
Pyruvate is 3 carbon molecule prepared in
are unable to take oxygen from air. They are
cytoplasm as the first step to cellular respiration.
specialised to take oxygen dissolved in water through
12. Assertion (A) : In human beings, the respiratory their gills.
pigment is haemoglobin. 18. The breathing cycle is rhythmic whereas exchange
Reason (R) : It is a type of protein which has of gases is a continuous process. Comment upon
high-affinity for carbon dioxide than oxygen. this statement.
Ans. (3) Ans. The breathing cycle is rhythmic as it consists of
Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. regular inhaling and exhaling of air. The exchange
Haemoglobin is made up of protein and ferrous ion of gases is continuous because the lungs always
and has higher affinity for oxygen. contain a residual volume of air so that the
absorption of oxygen and release of carbon dioxide
keep on going.
71
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

19. Leaves of a healthy potted plant were coated with Ans. (i) Nasal hair : These are fine hair present in the
vaseline. Will this plant remain healthy for long ? inner lining of the nasal passage. These hair
Give reasons for your answer. help in filtering the air passing through nostrils
Ans. This plant will not remain healthy for a long time so that germ free and dust free air could reach
because the vaseline will block the stomata due to this : in lungs.

(i) It will not get oxygen for respiration. (ii) Diaphragm : It is a muscular partition between
the thoracic and abdominal region in our body.
(ii) It will not get carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.
Movement of diaphragm helps in the breathing
(iii) Upward movement of water and minerals would process.
be hampered due to lack of transpiration.
(iii) Alveoli : These are balloon-like structures which
20. The apparatus shown below is setup for a respiration increases the surface area for gaseous
experiment. exchange in lungs.
KOH absorb Test tube
carbon dioxide
Capillary tube (iv) Nasal cavity - Makes the air entering the nose
warm, moist & dust free.
Indicator 23. Identify the parts correctly matched with description
Germinating fluid
seeds given below.
What inference can be drawn from this experiment? (i) Small pores present in woody stems for gaseous
exchange.
Ans. The germinating seeds take up oxygen and produce
carbon dioxide. The latter is absorbed by the KOH, (ii) Gas exchange surface in humans.
so vacuum is created in the test tube, causing the (iii) Respiratory surface of earthworm
indicator fluid to move towards the test tube. (iv) Primary organ of respiration in humans.
21. In the test tube A and B shown below, yeast was (v) Cartilaginous flap that covers glottis.
kept in sugar solution. Which products of respiration (vi) Muscles that change the thoracic volume.
would you expect in test tubes A and B ?
Ans. (i) Lenticels (ii) Alveoli
(iii) Skin (iv) Lungs
(v) Epiglottis
Oil film (vi) Intercostal muscles and diaphragm
Sugar solution
24. During respiration in an organism A, one molecule
of glucose produces 2 ATP molecules whereas in
Yeast respiration of another organism B, one molecule
A B of glucose produces 38 ATP molecules.

Ans. Test tube A : The product formed in A will be (i) Which organism is undergoing aerobic
respiration?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

ethanol, carbon dioxide and energy. Oil prevents

oxygen to enter the solution. So yeast undergoes (ii) Which organism is undergoing anaerobic
anaerobic respiration. respiration ?

Test tube B : In the presence of oxygen, yeast (iii) Which type of organism A or B can convert
shows aerobic respiration due to which carbon glucose into alcohol ?
dioxide, water and energy are produced. (iv) Name one organism which behaves like A.

Short answer type questions (3 marks) (v) Name one organism which behaves like B.

22. State the role of the following in human respiratory Ans. (i) Organism B (ii) Organism A
system. (iii) Organism A (iv) Yeast
(i) Nasal hair (ii) Diaphragm (v) Human being
(iii) Alveoli (iv) Nasal cavity
72
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Long answer type questions (5 marks) are completely broken down to CO2 and H2O along
25. Draw a diagram of respiratory system and label the with the evolution of large amount of energy.
following. Glycolysis Kreb' s cycle
Glucose ¾¾¾¾¾
Cytoplasm
® Pyruvic acid ¾¾¾¾¾¾
Mitochondria
®
(i) Part through which air is taken in. CO2 + H2O + Energy
(ii) Part which forms a common passage for both (ii) Anaerobic respiration: Breakdown of respiratory
food and air. substrates in absence of oxygen is termed as
(iii) Part which carries the air into the lungs. anaerobic respiration. It involves incomplete
OR breakdown of respiratory substrates in which the end
(i) Part where air is filtered by fine hairs and products, such as ethanol or lactic acid are formed
mucus. and small amount of energy is released. It involves
(ii) Part which terminates in balloon-like structure. glycolysis, during which glucose is degraded into
(iii) Part which separates chest cavity from pyruvate. Further breakdown of pyruvic acid in
abdominal cavity. absence of oxygen result in the production of
OR ethanol or lactic acid. Anaerobic oxidation of glucose
(i) Organ that is surrounded by cartilaginous rings. in yeast form ethanol and CO2 and in muscle cells
(ii) Structure where exchange of gases takes place. of humans, glucose is anaerobically metabolised into
(iii) Voice box. lactic acid.
Ans. e
nc
Nasal cavity b se 2 Lactic acid
a
In o f O + Energy
Glycolysis (muscle cells)
Nostrils Glucose Pyruvic
Pharynx (in cytoplasm, no acid In
Epiglottis O2 is required) ab
Larynx of sen
Trachea Glottis O ce Ethanol + CO2
C-Shaped 2

Bronchus cartilagenous + Energy

rings (yeast)
(b) Difference between aerobic and anaerobic
respiration are as follows : (any two)
Bronchioles
Aerobic Anaerobic
Right lung Left lung
respiration respiration
(i) Aerobic respiration Anaerobic
occurs in presence of respiration occurs
oxygen. in absence of
26. (a) What are two different ways in which glucose is oxygen.
oxidised to provide energy in various organisms? (ii) Glucose is completely Glucose is
(b) Write any two differences between the two ways broken down to incompletely
of oxidation of glucose in organisms. release the end oxidised to
Ans. (a) Oxidation of food (glucose) within cell may be of products in the form release the end
two types depending upon the availability of of carbon dioxide products in the
atmospheric oxygen : aerobic respiration and and water. form of ethanol or
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

anaerobic respiration. lactic acid.

(i) Aerobic respiration: The oxidative breakdown of (iii) Energy is released in Energy is released
respiratory substrates with the help of atmospheric larger amount (38 in lesser amount
O2 is known as aerobic respiration. ATP). (2 ATP).
During this process, the respiratory substrate (iv) It takes place in It takes place in
(glucose) is completely broken down into carbon cytoplasm and cytoplasm.
dioxide and water by the process of oxidation and mitochondria. Mitochondria is
not involved.
large amount of energy (38 ATP) is produced.
Aerobic respiration includes glycolysis which is
common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
The pyruvic acid (pyruvate) molecules formed during
glycolysis are carried to the mitochondria where they

73
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Case based question (4 marks) OR

Direction : Q.27 is a case based question with short What is the role of intercostal muscles during
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these inhalation and exhalation?
sub-parts. Ans. (a).Alveoli
27. Human Respiratory System is a network of organs
(b). The walls of trachea has incomplete cartilaginous
and tissues that help us to breathe. The primary
rings which prevent the trachea from collapsing
function of this system is to introduce oxygen into
even if there is not much air in it.
the body and expel carbon dioxide from the body.
The parts of the respiratory system include the nose, (c). Diaphragm is the muscular structure present just
larynx, pharynx, trachea or the windpipe, bronchi, below the lungs.
lungs, alveoli and the muscles that support the Functions of diaphragm are-
breathing. i. Separates chest cavity and abdominal cavity.
(a). What is the site of gaseous exchange in lungs? ii. Helps in breathing.
(b). Why trachea is supported by the rings of cartilage? OR
(c). Which muscular structure is present below lungs? The contraction and relexation of intercostal muscle
Write its functions? leads to inspiration and expiration respectively.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

74
 ® Biology
ALLEN
BIOLOGY TRANSPORTATION
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) Ans. Option (2)
1. Match the following column-A with column-B
4. Transpiration takes place through
Column A Column B
(A) (i) Vein (1) all parts of the plant

(2) leaves

(B) (ii) Erythrocytes

(3) stem

(4) all aerial parts of the plant

Ans. Option (4)

(C) (iii) Artery 5. Given figure demonstrates the translocation of

organic solutes.

(D) (iv) Leucocytes

(1) A®(iii) B®(iv) C®(ii) D®(i)

(2) A®(iii) B®(ii) C®(i) D®(iv)
(3) A®(iii) B®(iv) C®(i) D®(ii)
(4) A®(iv) B®(ii) C®(iii) D®(i)
Ans. Option (2)
2. Name the blood cells whose reduction in number
can cause clotting disorder & lead to blood loss.
(1) Erythrocytes Which out of the following statements is incorrect
regarding this?
(2) Leucocytes
(3) Neutrophils (1) A continuous high osmotic concentration is
(4) Thrombocytes maintained in region P; which loads a sieve tube
Ans. Option (4) element by passively transporting solute
3. In the diagram given below, which type of blood is molecules into it.
present in 1, 4 and 5.
(2) R shows the movement of water into sieve tube
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

elements from nearby xylem vessels by osmosis.

(3) Translocation of organic solutes takes place from

region P with high osmotic pressure to region
Q with low osmotic pressure.

(4) In region Q, material is either consumed or is

converted into insoluble storage forms resulting
in decreased osmotic pressure.
(1) 1. Deoxygenated, 4. Oxygenated, 5. Oxygenated
(2) 1. Deoxygenated, 4. Deoxygenated, 5. Oxygenated Ans. Option (1)
(3) 1. Deoxygenated, 4. Oxygenated, 5. Deoxygenated
Loading of sugar from companion cell to sieve tube
(4) 1. Oxygenated, 4. Oxygenated, 5. Deoxygenated
occurs actively.

75
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

6. The diagram given below shows 10. Which of the following is not a component of phloem ?
(1) Tracheids (2) Companion cell
gill
capillaries (3) Sieve tube (4) Fibres
Assertion & Reason type questions
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a
gill statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
circulation reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
aorta
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
ventricle reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
atrium (A).
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
systemic
circulation systemic (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
capillaries (3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
11. Assertion (A) : Human heart is four-chambered..

(1) Single circulation (2) Double circulation Reason (R) : Vena cava is the only artery that
(3) Pulmonary circulation (4) Systemic circulation carries deoxygenated blood to the heart.
Ans. Option (1) Ans. (3)
7. Match the column Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Column-I Column-II Vena cava is the larg est vein that carries
(A) Single circulation (p) 120 mm Hg deoxygenated blood to the heart.
(B) Double circulation (q) Fish 12. Assertion (A) : Phloem helps in translocation of
Systolic blood food from the leaves to other parts of plant.
(C) (r) 80 mm Hg
pressure Reason (R) : Phloem provides mechanical support
Diastolic blood
(D) (s) Mammals to plant.
pressure
Ans. (3)
(1) A-(s), B-(q), C-(p), D-(r)
(2) A-(q), B-(s), C-(r), D-(p) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(3) A-(s), B-(q), C-(r), D-(p) Phloem mainly contains living cells (fibres are the
(4) A-(q), B-(s), C-(p), D-(r) only dead cells in the phloem). It does not provide
Ans. Option (4) mechanical support.
8. Which of the following has no muscular walls? Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
(1) Artery (2) Arteriole
13. Name a tissue which (i) transport soluble products
(3) Capillary (4) Vein
of photosynthesis in plants, (ii) transport water and
Ans. Option (3) minerals in a plant. Which component of phloem
Capillaries are the smallest blood vessels in the body.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

help in loading of food into the sieve tube ?

They are made up of single layer of flat squamous
Ans. (i) Phloem
epithelial cells. They help to transport essential
nutrients and oxygen to tissues in the body. (ii) Xylem
9. Water moves up against gravity and even for a tree Companion cell he help in loading of food into the
of 20m height, the tip receives water within two sieve tube.
ho urs. The most important physiological
14. Name the component of phloem that transport food
phenomenon which is responsible for the upward
from leaves to other parts of plants. In which form
movement of water in tall trees is
the food is transported by this component of phloem?
(1) Cohesive forces
(2) Active transport Ans. Sieve tube is the component of phloem that
(3) Transpiration pull transport food from leaves to other parts of plants.
(4) Root pressure The food is transported in the form of sucrose by
Ans. Option (3) this component of phloem.

76
 ® Biology
ALLEN
15. What will happen to a plant if its xylem is removed? Ans. (i) Xylem : Transport water and minerals in plants.
Ans. Xylem is the main water conducting tissue of plant. (ii) Pulmonary artery : Transport deoxygenated
If it is removed then water and minerals absorbed blood from heart to lungs.
by plant roots will not be able to reach different plant
(iii) Pulmonary veins : Transport oxygenated blood
parts and plant will ultimately die.
from lungs to heart.
16. What prevents backflow of blood inside the heart
during contraction ? In which chamber of heart is (iv) Phloem : Transport food in plants.
oxygenated and deoxygenated blood found ?
22. From where do roots obtain water and minerals ?
Ans. Valves in heart prevent backflow of blood inside the
heart during contraction. OR
Oxygenated blood : It is found in left auricle and left How are water and minerals absorbed by the plant?
ventricle.
Ans. Roots obtain water and minerals from the soil which
Deoxygenated blood : It is found in right auricle and
is the nearest and richest source of raw materials
right ventricle.
such as water, nitrogen, phosphorus and other
17. Why do veins have thin walls as compared to
minerals. The roots cells are in contact with soil and
arteries? Name the artery that carries deoxygenated
actively take up ions, creating a concentration
blood from heart towards lungs.
difference between the soil and roots. To eliminate
Ans. Veins do not have thick walls because the blood
this difference water containing minerals moves into
flowing through them is not under pressure.
the root from the soil.
Pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from
heart towards lungs. 23. For observing transpiration in plants, a student
18. Which mechanism plays an important role in prepared the setup and placed it in a cool and
transportation of water in plants ? shady area. What will his observations be ? If we want
(i) During day time to observe transpiration process in plants, what are
(ii) At night the basic requirements ?
Ans. (i) Transpirational pull. Ans. Transpiration rate will be slower due to decreased
(ii) Root pressure temperature and reduced intensity of light.
19. During one cycle, how many times does blood go
to the heart of fish and why ? A green potted plant which is well watered,
Ans. Blood goes to the heart of fish only one time during transparent plastic bag and bright light with high
one cycle. This happens because fish has two- temperature.
chambered heart, the blood is pumped to the gills Short answer type questions (3 marks)
for oxygenation from where it is passed directly to 24. (a) What is lymph ?
the rest of the body.
(b) How is composition of lymph different from
20. Explain why do multicellular organisms need a
blood plasma ?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

transportation system for carrying food and oxygen?

(c) List two functions of lymphatic system.
Ans. In multicellular organisms, there are specialised
tissues for uptake of food and oxygen. As food and Ans. (a) Lymph is a transparent fluid. It contains plasma
oxygen are taken up at one place in the body of and white blood cells which escape into
intercellular spaces.
the organism while all parts of the body need them,
so a transportation system is needed to transport (b) Lymph is colourless and contains less protein
these substances to distant parts of the body. than plasma.
21. Name the material transported by the following (c) Functions :
(i) Xylem (i) Carry digested fat/absorption of fat.
(ii) Pulmonary artery
(ii) It has lymphocytes which fight against
(iii) Pulmonary veins
infection.
(iv) Phloem
77
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

25. Plants absorb water from the soil. Explain how does (b) Give reasons for the following :
the water reach the tree top ? (i) The muscular walls of ventricles are thicker than
Ans. Xylem of roots, stems and leaves are interconnected the walls of atria.
to form a continuous column. Roots takeup minerals
actively, water moves in and as a result creating (ii) Arteries have thick elastic walls.
pressure which pushes the water up. The main force (ii) Aorta
responsible for upward movement of water is Ans. (a)
transpiration pull generated in the leaves which pulls (iv) Pulmonary
the water column filled in the xylem tracheids and Artery

vessels. (iii) Left

Atrium
During day period cohesion force (attractive force
between water molecules) and transpiration pull
helps in the upward movement of sap from roots
to leaves.
26. (i) Transportation of food in plants requires living
tissues and energy. Justify this statement.
(i) Right
(ii) Name the components of food that are ventricle
transported by the living tissues. (b) (i) As ventricles have to pump blood to various
Ans. (i) Food is transported by sieve tubes (phloem) at organs so the walls of the ventricles are thicker
the expense of ATP. As phloem is largely than atria.
composed of living cells thus, it shows that food (ii) Arteries have thick elastic walls because the
transport requires living tissues and energy. blood emerges from the heart under high
(ii) Components of food that are transported by the pressure.
living tissues are 29. (a) State two advantages of transpiration to the
(a) Sucrose. plant body.

(b) Amino acids. (b) (i) List in tabular form, two ways in which
27. What are the differences between arteries, veins 't rans piration is diff erent from
and capillaries ? 'translocation.'
OR (ii) Why do plants have a slow transport system?
List in tabular form, three differences between Ans. (a) Two advantages of transpiration are :
arteries, veins and capillaries.
(i) Helps in absorption and upward movement of
Ans. The differences between arteries, veins and
water and minerals from roots to the leaves.
capillaries are :
Arteries Veins Capillaries (ii) Temperature regulation.
They are thick- They are thin- They have walls that (b)(i) S. Transpiration Translocation
walled walled and have are only one cell
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

No.
valves. thick.
Carry blood from Carry blood from Allow exchange of (i) Plays role in It is a transport of
the heart to other different organs to material between the transport of soluble products of
organs of the body. the heart. blood and water and photosynthesis.
surrounding cells. minerals.
Situated very deep Situated Situated in the (ii) Occurs through Occurs through
into the skin. superficially in the terminals of artery or
xylem by simple phloem in the form
skin. veins
physical forces. of sucrose by
Long answer type questions (5 marks) utilising energy.
28. (a) Draw a diagram of cross-section of the human
(ii) Because plants have a large proportion of dead
heart and label the following parts :
cells in many tissues, they have low energy
(i) Right ventricle (ii) Aorta needs. So they use a slow transport system.
(iii) Left atrium (iv) Pulmonary artery,

78
 ® Biology
ALLEN
30. (a) Draw a schematic representation of transport Case based question (4 marks)
and exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide Direction : Q.31 is a case based question with short
during transportation of blood in human beings sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
and label on it : sub-parts.
31. Double circulation is a type of circulating system in
pulmonary artery, venacava, aorta lung
which the blood passes through the heart twice
capillaries, pulmonary veins from lungs.
before completing a full circuit of the body. Blood
(b) What is the advantage of separate channels in is pumped from the heart to the lungs and returns
mammals and birds for oxygenated and to the heart before being distributed to other organs
deoxygenated blood ? and tissues of the body.
Ans. (a) The schematic representation of transport and (a). Mention the name of valve present between left
exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide is as auricle and left ventricle.
follows: (b). What is the natural pacemaker of the heart called?
Where does it is located?
Pulmonary artery
to lungs Lung Pulmonary vein (c). What is the advantage of having four chambered
capillaries from lungs heart?
OR
Vena cava Aorta to body Explain the working of heart with the help of a
from body
flowchart.
Deoxygenated Oxygenated
blood blood Ans. (a).Tricuspid valve is present between left auricle and
left ventricle.
(b) In mammals and birds there are two seperate (b). Natural pacemaker of heart is called Sino Atrial
channels for circulation of oxygenated and node. It is located in the upper right corner of right
deoxygenated blood because this prevents any atrium.
mixing of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood (c). Four chambered heart ensures complete separation
ensuring maximum supply of oxygen to all body of oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, which is
parts. This allows optimum oxidation of glucose useful for high energy needs.
to release energy required by these animal OR
groups to maintain their body temperature
Superior vena cava
making them homeothermic. inferior vena cava
right
atrium
Tricuspid
valve
right
ventricle
Pulmonary
valve
Pulmonary
artery

left Mitral/Bicuspid left Pulmonary lungs

Aortic ventricle Valve atrium vein
valve
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

rest
aorta of
body

79
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY EXCRETION
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 5. Which of the following functions as kidneys ?
1. In which of the following maximum reabsorption
occurs
(1) PCT (2) DCT
(3) Henle's loop (4) Collecting duct
Ans. Option (1)
PCT contains brush bordered cuboidal epithelium
that increases surface area of absorption.
2. Which of the following are ureotelic?
(1) Aquatic insects
(2) Bony fishes
(3) Mammals and cartilagenous fishes (1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
(4) Terrestrial amphibians Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (3) 6. Osmoregulation is control over the
3. Figure below shows Human urinary system with (1) Removal of nitrogen from the body
structures labelled A – D. Select the option which (2) Concentration of salt and water in the body
correct ly ident ifies th em and gives their
(3) Removal of carbon dioxide from the body
characteristics and/or functions.
(4) Both (1) and (3)
Ans. Option (2)
B
7. Excretion is carried out by nephridia in
C
(1) Cockroach (2) Amoeba
D (3) Earthworm (4) Human
Ans. Option (3)
Nephridia is the excretory organ in earthworm.
Malphigian tubules is the excretory organ in
cockroach.
(1) B ® Pelvis ® Broad, funnel-shaped space inner
to hilum, directly connected to the loop of Henle. Amoeba excrete through its body surface.
(2) C ® Medulla ® The inner zone of kidney and Human excretory organ is kidney.
contains complete nephrons. 8. Accessory or additional excretory organ of our body
(3) D ® Cortex ® The outer part of kidney and is
does not contain any part of nephrons. (1) Lungs (2) Liver
(4) A ® Ureter ® Tube like structure connecting (3) Skin (4) All of these
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

kidney to urinary bladder. Ans. Option (4)

Ans. Option (4) 9. How do plants get rid of stored solid wastes by
A ® Ureter ® Tube like structure connecting kidney (1) Shedding of leaves
to urinary bladder. (2) Peeling of bark
4. In lower animals like amoeba, excretion is mainly (3) Falling of fruits
by
(4) All of these
(1) Imbibition
Ans. Option (4)
(2) Diffusion
10. Micturition refers to
(3) Surface tension
(1) Discharge of urine (2) Discharge of urea
(4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Discharge of ammonia (4) None of these
Ans. Option (2)
Ans. Option (1)
80
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Assertion & Reason type questions Ans. It is because the remaining filtrate is reabsorbed in
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a the kidney tubules. ADH helps in concentration of
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of urine under water stress condition.
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
16. Major amount of water is selectively reabsorbed by
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion the tubular part of nephron in humans. What are
(A). the factors on which the amount of water reabsorbed
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason depends ?
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). Ans. It depends on the amount of
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. (i) Excess water present in the body.
11. Assertion (A) : Ureters are the tubes which carry
(ii) Dissolved waste to be excreted from the body.
urine from kidneys to the bladder..
Reason (R) : Urine is stored in the urethra.. 17. (i) What are the main toxic wastes that kidney
filters from the blood ?
Ans. (3)
Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. (ii) Name any two substances which are selectively
reabsorbed from the tubules of a nephron.
Urine is stored in urinary bladder.
12. Assertion (A) : The Bowman's capsule and the Ans. (i) Urea and uric acid are the main toxic wastes
nephric tubule together make a nephron. that kidney filters from the blood.
Reason (R) : The function of tubule is to allow only (ii) Glucose and amino acids.
the selective reabsorption of substances like glucose,
amino acids, urea, salts and water into the blood 18. What is the basic unit of the kidney called ? Why is
it called so?
capillaries.
Ans. (3) Ans. The basic unit of kidney is known as nephron.
Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. Nephron is called basic unit of kidney because each
Nephric tubule helps in selective reabsorption as well nephron filters the blood and remove the poisonous
as tubular secretion. nitrogenous waste like urea and uric acid from it.
These harmful products gets filtered and useful
Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
products are reabsorbed by tubular part of nephron.
13. What is the main function of kidneys in humans? Thus, harmful waste is excreted out as urine from
In which region of kidney malpighian body or renal the body.
corpuscles are found ?
19. What is excretion? How do unicellular organisms
Ans. Kidneys excrete water and dissolved metabolic remove their wastes?
wastes e.g., urea and other dissolved solids like uric
Ans. The biological process which involves the removal
acid, creatinine and inorganic salts.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

of harmful metabolic wastes from the body is called

In the outer (cortex) part of kidney. excretion.
14. What is osmoregulation? Name two hormones that
Unicellular organisms remove their waste by simple
helps in osmoregulation.
diffusion.
Ans. Osmoregulation is the maintenance of optimum
20. What is the function of the following.
concentration of water and salts in the body fluids.
(i) Renal artery
ADH and aldosterone are the two hormones that
helps in osmoregulation. (ii) Renal vein
Ans. (i) Renal artery : It brings the impure blood
15. The volume of glomerular filtrate produced is
containing wastes substances into the kidney.
180L, but the volume of urine excreted is just
(ii) Renal vein : It carries away the pure blood
1-2L. Give suitable reason for this statement. What
devoid of wastes from the kidney.
is the function of ADH ?

81
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Short answer type questions (3 marks) Ans. (a)

21. List any four strategies used by the plants for
excretion.
(i) Right (i) Left
Ans. Strategies used by plants for excretion are : kidney kidney
(iii) Ureter
(i) They can get rid of excess water and oxygen
through stomata.
(ii) Many plant waste products are stored in cellular
(ii) Urinary
vacuoles. (iv) Urethra bladder
(iii) Waste products may be stored in leaves that fall
off. (i) Kidney
(iv) Waste products are stored as resin and gums,
(ii) Urinary bladder
especially in old xylem.
22. Mention the pathway of urine starting from the (iii) Ureter
organ of its formation. Name four substances which
are reabsorbed from the initial filtrate in the tubular (iv) Urethra
part of the nephron. (b) The procedure used for cleaning the blood of
Ans. The pathway of Urine starting from organ of its
person by separating the nitrogenous waste
formation is
substance (urea) from it is called haemodialysis. The
Kidney ® Ureters ® Urinary bladder ® Urethra
® Outside. dialysing solution contains water, glucose and salts
The four substances reabsorbed from initial filtrate in similar concentrations to those in normal blood.
are- It does not have urea.
(i) Amino acid (ii) glucose (iii) salts (iv) major amount
of water. 25. (i) Name the waste products of metabolism and for
23. What is the role of following in excretion in various each waste product, state which organ removes
organisms ? it from the blood.
(i) Leaves
(ii) Why is the removal of faeces from the alimentary
(ii) Glomerulus
canal not considered to be excretion ?
(ii) Ureter
Ans. (i) Leaves : Plants can accumulate some of their Ans. (i) The waste products of metabolism and their
waste in leaves. These leaves fall off and the excretory organs are as follows :
plant gets rid of the waste.
(ii) Glomerulus : Filters the blood passing through Metabolic Waste Products Excretory
it. Organs
(ii) Ureter : Transports urine from kidney to Carbon dioxide and water Lungs
urinary bladder.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

Urea and other nitrogenous Kidneys

Long answer type questions (5 marks)
substances and water
24. (a) Draw a diagram of human excretory system and Poisons, such as alcohol Liver
label following :
Urea, salts and water Skin
(i) part in which urine is produced.
(ii) part which stores the urine. (ii) Excretion is the removal of metabolic or
(iii) parts which connects (i) and (ii). nitrogenous waste products which are formed
by chemical reactions occurring in the cells. The
(iv) part from which urine is passed out.
removal of faeces (defecation) from the body is
(b) Define haemodialysis. Also write the
the removal of undigested or indigestible
composition of dialysing fluid.
substances from the alimentary canal through

82
 ® Biology
ALLEN
the anus. Since faecal matter is not produced Case based question (4 marks)
by metabolism, removal of faeces cannot be Direction : Q.27 is a case based question with short
considered as excretion. sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
sub-parts.
26. (i) Draw a diagram of an excretory unit of a human
27. Our body needs to remove the wastes that build up
kidney and label the following. from cell activities and from digestion. If these wastes
Bowman's capsule, Glomerulus, Collecting duct, are not removed, then our cells can stop working
afferent arteriole. and we get very sick. The organs of our excretory
(ii) Write the important function of the structural system help to release wastes from our body. The
and functional unit of kidney. excretory system consists of a pair of kidney, a pair
of ureters, a urinary bladder and a urethra. Each
(iii) Write any one function of Artificial Kidney.
kidney is made up of nearly one millions complex
Ans. (i) afferent arteriole tubular structures called nephrons. The formation
Glomerulus of urine involves various processes that take place
Bowman's capsule in the different parts of nephron.
(a). Write two functions of kidney?
(b). What do you mean by artificial kidney?
(c). Write all parts of nephrons? What is the main
excretory product in humans?
OR
What are the steps involved in formation of urine
and what do you mean by Micturition?
Ans. (a).Functions of kidney- (i). Excretion (ii).
Collecting Osmoregulation
duct (b). Artificial kidney is a machine that is used to filter
the blood of a person whose both kidneys are
damaged.
(c). There are four parts of nephrons- Bowman capsule,
proximal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle, Distal
convoluted tubules
Main excretory product in human is Urea.
(ii) Function of nephron is filtration, reabsorption OR
and secretion. Steps involved in urine formation are- Ultrafiltration,
(iii) Function of artificial kidney is that it helps to Reabsorption and Tubular secretion.
remove harmful wastes, extra salts and water Micturition is the process of passing out urine.
from the blood of a patient whose kidneys are
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

not working properly.

83
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY CONTROL AND COORDINATION

Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 6. Unconditioned reflex are
1. Which part of brain related to smell sensation? (1) Learned reflexes (2) Inborn
(1) Spinal cord (2) Olfactory lobe (3) Inherited (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Cerebellum (4) Pons
Ans. Option (4)
Ans. Option (2)
2. What is the correct direction of flow of electrical 7. The growth of tendril in pea plants is due to
impulses? (1) Effect of light
(2) Effect of gravity
(1) (3) Rapid cell divisions in tendrillar cells that are away
from the support
(2) (4) Rapid cell division in tendrillar cells in contact
with the support
Ans. Option (3)
(3)
8. Opening of petals of a flower during day time &
closing at night is an example of
(4)
(1) Phototropism (2) Chemotropism
Ans. Option (3) (3) Seismonasty (4) Photonasty
3. Which one of the following pair include only Ans. Option (4)
endocrine glands ?
9. When growing plants detect light coming from one
(1) Thymus and testes
side then
(2) Adrenal and ovary
(3) Parathyroid and adrenal (1) Auxin diffuses in that part of the plant which is
(4) Pancreas and parathyroid towards the sun.
Ans. Option (3) (2) Auxin distributes uniformly in every part of the
4. Which of the following statement are true ? plant.
(a) Growth hormone regulates growth and (3) Auxin collects on the shady side of the plant.
development of body.
(4) None of these
(b) Adrenaline prepare the body to deal with
emergency situation. Ans. Option (3)
(c) Oestrogen causes development of secondary 10. Match phytohormones in Column - I with their
sexual characters in males. respective functions in Column - II and select the
(d) Thyroxine regulate basal metabolic rate of the correct option from the codes given below.
body.
Column-I Column-II
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(1) Only a is true (2) a and c are true

Closing of stomata during
(3) a, b and c are true (4) a, b and d are true (a) Cytokinins (i)
stress conditions
Ans. Option (4)
(b) Gibberellins (ii) Elongation of stem
5. How do the cranial nerves and the spinal nerves
differ ?
(c) Ethylene (iii) Ripening of fruits
(1) Cranial nerves arise from brain while spinal nerves (d) Abscisic acid (iv) Cell division
arise from spinal cord.
(1) a-(iv), b-(i), c-(iii), d-(ii)
(2) Spinal nerves arise from brain while cranial
nerves arise from spinal cord. (2) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
(3) Cranial nerves are mixed type only while spinal (3) a-(iv), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(i)
nerve may be sensory, motor or mixed . (4) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(i)
(4) None of these
Ans. Option (3)
Ans. Option (1)

84
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Assertion & Reason type questions Ans. The two components of peripheral nervous system
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a are:
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(i) Somatic nervous system.
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(ii) Autonomic nervous system.
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 31 pairs
(A). of spinal nerves in humans.
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason 16. What are 'nastic' and 'tropic' movements? Give one
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
example of each.
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Ans. Nastic movements are non-directional movements
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
11. Assertion (A) : Thyroxine regulates basal metabolic that occur due to turgor changes. These are induced
rate. by external stimuli such as light, temperature,
Reason (R) : Deficiency of Iodine leads to goitre. touch, etc. For example, if we touch the leaves of

Ans. (2) Mimosa pudica we find that its leaves immediately

Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason fold up and droop. This occurs due to turgor changes
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). in cells of the plant. Tropic or curvature movements
Thyroxine released by thyroid gland control the are directional movements that occur in response
metabolism of carbohydrates, fats and protein in the to external stimuli such as light, force of gravity, etc.
body. This stimuli causes differential growth in specific
12. Assertion (A) : Plants lack the nervous system, but plant part via action of phytohormones. For
they do coordinate. example, roots of a plant grow downward in the soil
Reason (R) : It is so because of hormones. in the direction of gravity showing positive
Ans. (1) geotropism.
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is 17. (a) What is a reflex action?
the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Give example of involuntary action.
Plants lack the nervous system, but coordinate via
Ans. (a) A reflex action is a quick involuntary action in
the hormones.
response to an external or internal stimulus,
Very short answer type questions (2 mark) generally without involvement of the brain.
13. Name two systems which provide control and co-
(b) Involuntary action : Beating of heart,
ordination in animal.Mention the part of the body
breathing.
where gustatory and olfactory receptors are located.
Ans. Nervous system and endocrine system.Tongue 18. (i) Name the part of the brain, which controls.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

contains gustatory receptors and nose contains (a) voluntary actions.

olfactory receptors.
(b) involuntary actions.
14. A young green plant receives sunlight from one
direction only. What will happen to its shoot and (ii) What is the significance of the peripheral
roots? Give one example of Chemotropism. nervous system ?
Ans. The shoot of the plant bends towards the light Ans. (i) (a) Voluntary actions are controlled by cerebrum.
whereas roots bend away from the light.The growth
of pollen tube towards ovule is an example of (b) Involuntary actions are controlled by medulla.
chemotropism. (ii) Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) helps in
15. Name the two components of peripheral nervous facilitating the communication between the
system. How many cranial and spinal nerves are Central Nervous System (CNS) and other parts
present in humans ? of the body.

85
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

19. "Brain and spinal cord are two vital organs of our Ans. Hormones should be secreted in precise quantities.
body'. How is our body designed to protect them? The timing and amount of hormone released are
OR regulated by feedback mechanism. For example if
the sugar level in blood rises, they are detected by
Our brain is known as the most delicate organ. How
the cells of the pancreas which respond by
is it protected by our body? Explain.
producing more insulin. As the blood sugar level falls,
Ans. The brain in human beings is known to be the most insulin secretion is reduced.
delicate organ due to which it is placed inside a bony
box known as cranium. It is contained in a fluid - 23. (a) What is the function of mid brain ?
filled balloon for shock absorption. Spinal cord is (b) Name the three different parts of hind brain and
located within the vertebral column. The backbone given one function of each.
protects it from any injury.
Ans. (a) Mid brain is a small portion of the brain that
20. Trace the sequence of events, which occur in our
serves as a relay centre for sensory information
body when a bright light is focussed on eyes.
from the eyes and ears to the cerebrum. It also
Ans. When a bright light is focussed on eye, receptor cell controls the reflex movements of the ears and
receives the message and passes on to sensory eyes muscles. It provides a passage for the
neuron, then it goes to brain, which reverts, back different neurons going in and coming out of the
the message by motor neuron causing the pupil cerebrum.
contraction of the people.
(b) Hind brain : It has three parts
Receptor ® Sensory neuron ® Brain ® Motor
neuron ® Eye ® Eye muscle contracts. (i) Pons

Short answer type questions (3 marks) (ii) Medulla oblongata

21. Draw a neat diagram of human brain and label on (iii) Cerebellum
it the following parts:
Functions:
(i) Mid brain
(ii) Pituitary gland (i) Pons has centre for regulating the breathing
rhythm.
(iii) Cerebellum
(iv) Cerebrum (ii) Medulla controls involuntary functions like
OR blood pressure, salivation, vomiting etc.
(i) Draw a well-labelled diagram of human brain. (iii) Cerebellum is responsible for
(ii) Which is the main thinking part of brain ?
Ans. (i) Labelled diagram of Human brain (a) Precision or co-ordination of voluntary
Cerebrum actions.

(b) Maintaining the posture and balance of the

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

body.

24. Why do tendrils coil around hard rough objects?

Mid-brain

Ans. The growth movement of tendril in response to

stimulus of touch is called thigmotropism. Tendrils
Pituitary gland of bottle gourd and sweet pea plants coil around
Cerebellum hard objects. When they come in the contact of the
support their growth at the side which comes in
(ii) Fore- brain (cerebrum)
contact is retarded, while it remains normal or
22. Explain the feedback mechanism to regulate the
increased on the other side due to which tendril coils
action of the hormones with the help of one suitable
around the support.
example.

86
 ® Biology
ALLEN
25. (a) An old man is advised by his doctor to take less OR
sugar in his diet. Name the disease from which Aim : To demonstrate that roots show hydrotropism.
the man is suffering. Mention the hormone due Method
to imbalance of which he is suffering from this Place germinating seeds in moist saw dust contained
disease.Which endocrine gland secretes this in a sieve.
hormone? Observation
(b) (i) Name the endocrine gland which secretes (i) The radicles pass down and come out of the
growth hormone. sieve pores under the influence of gravity.
(ii) What will be the effect of the following on (ii) After some growth, radicles move back and
a person. enter the saw dust again.
(a) Deficiency of growth hormone. Conclusion

(b) Excess secretion of growth hormone. (i) This shows that roots show both hydrotropic
response and geotropic response.
Ans. (a) The man is suffering from Diabetes mellitus.
(ii) The hydrotropic response of root are stronger
Hormone is Insulin. Pancreas secrete insulin.
than geotropic response.
(b) (i) The endocrine gland which secretes growth
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
hormone is pituitary gland.
28. What is 'phototropism? How does it occur in plants?
(a) Deficiency of growth hormone causes
Describe an activity to demonstrate phototropism.
dwarfism.
Ans. Phototropism is the directional movement of the
(b) Excess secretion of growth hormone causes plant part in response to light stimulus. If the plant
gigantism. part moves towards light, it is called positive
26. (i) Name the hormones secreted by thyroid gland phototropism. Alternatively, if the plant part moves
and state its function. away from light, it is called negative phototropism.
(ii) Why is it important for us to have iodised salt in For example, (i) Stem or shoot of a growing plant
our diet? moves towards light and thus shows positive
phototropism. (ii) Roots of a plant move away from
(iii) Name the disease caused due to deficiency of
iodine and mention its main symptom. light thus show negative phototropism.
Mechanism of phototropism.
Ans. (i) The hormone secreted by thyroid gland is
thyroxine. It regulates carbohydrate, protein and When growing plants detect light, a hormone called
fat metabolism in the body so as to provide the auxin, synthesized at shoot tip, helps the cells to
best balance for growth. It also secretes grow longer.
calcitonin which regulates blood calcium levels. When light is coming from one side of the plant,
(ii) Iodised salt contain iodine and iodine is necessary auxin diffuses towards the shady side of the shoot.
for the thyroid gland to make thyroxine This concentration of auxin stimulates the cells to
hormone. grow longer on the side of the shoot which is away
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(iii) The disease caused due to deficiency of iodine from light. Thus, the plant appears to bend towards
is Goitre. Its main symptom is swollen neck. light.
27. Design an experiment to demonstrate hydrotropism.
Ans. Hydrotropism can be demonst rated with
More auxin
germinating seedlings, which are allowed to grow Light collects on Light
Auxin this shady side
on ground. The soil around the roots is separated (away from light)
distributed
by a polythene partition. The left side is kept moist uniformly
Stem
and the right side dry. (or Shoot)
The radicle at first grow in a downward direction
(A) (B)
and after sometime the roots bend towards the moist
soil. This is due to movement of the germinating
roots towards water.
87
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Spinal cord Message to

(CNS) brain

Sensory neuron
Light
Stem bends Motor
This side towards light neuron
grows Receptors = Heat/Pain
This side grow Relay neuron
faster Receptors in skin
slowly Effector = Muscle in arm

(C)
Activity to demonstrate phototropism :
Phototropism can be demonstrated by the following 30. (a) Write the names and one function each of any
activity. Take two potted plants and place one plant three growth hormones in plants.
in the open so that it receives the sunlight coming (b) In the absence of muscle cells, how do plants
from above. On the other hand, place the other show movement?
plant in a room near the window in such a way that
Ans. (a) Three growth hormones in plants are
it receives sunlight from one side, i.e., through the
window. After some days, observe both the plants. (i) Auxin : It is synthesised in the young tip of
You will notice that the first plant (A) (which was kept roots and shoots. It promotes elongation
in the open) has grown up straight towards light. and division of cells and root formation.
However, the second plant (B) (which was kept in (ii) Gibberellin : They helps in growth of the
the room and receiving light from one side) has stem.
grown by bending towards the light. Thus, we can
(iii) Cytokinin : They promote cell division and
conclude from this experiment that the stem of plant
delay leaf ageing.
responds to light by showing growth movement
towards light (positive phototropism). (b) The ability of a plant to detect change and
respond to that change is termed as the
Sun
sensitivity of the plant. Though plants have no
Sun
Light Plant
ht nervous system and no muscle tissue, they use
Plant
bends Lig
grows towards
Window
electrical and chemical means to convey the
light
up straight
towards
information from one cell to another cell. The
light Room leaves of the sensitive plant (Mimosa pudica)
folds up in response to touch. These leaf
29. With the help of labelled diagram explain the general
movements are independent of growth whereas,
scheme to illustrate how response to a stimuli takes
the directional movement of the shoot of a
place.
germinating seedling breaking through the soil
Ans. All the information from the environment is detected is growth dependent.
by the receptors (sense organ) present in the body.
Case based question (4 marks)
The stimulus received by the receptor is passed on
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

in the form of electrical signals to dendrites of a Direction : Q.31 is a case based question with short
neuron and then to cyton of the neuron. The impulse sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
then travels along the axon of the neuron. sub-parts.
On reaching the axonal end, it causes the nerve
31. If you have diabetes, your body isn't able to properly
endings to release a chemical, which diffuses across process and use glucose from the food you eat.
a synapse and stimulates the dendrites of adjacent
There are different types of diabetes, each with
neuron, then to their cell body to be carried along
different causes, but they all share the common
the axon. In this way, the electrical signal reaches
problem of having too much glucose in your
the brain or spinal cord.
bloodstream. Treatments include medications. Some
The response from brain (or spinal cord) is similarly types of diabetes can be prevented by adopting a
passed on to the effector via motor neuron, that healthy lifestyle.
undergoes the desired response.
88
 ® Biology
ALLEN
(a). Which hormone is responsible for this disease? (b). Malfunctioning of pancreas is responsible for
(b). Malfunctioning of which gland is responsible for diabetes.
diabetes? (c). Trypsin is the protein digesting enzyme secreted by
(c). Name the protein digesting enzyme secreted by pancreas.
pancreas.
OR OR
(d). Name the other hormone released from pancreas Glucagon is the hormone released from pancreas
that is just opposite to insulin in action. Also the that is opposite to hormone insulin in it action.
mention the location of pancreas. Pancreas is located behind the stomach, in the loop
Ans. (a). Hormone responsible for this disease is insulin. of duodenum.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

89
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY HOW DO ORGANISMS REPRODUCE

Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 6. An organism that reproduces asexually will have
1. In Rhizopus, tubular thread-like structures bearing offspring that have
sporangia at their tips are called- (1) the same genetic information as both of its
(1) Filaments (2) Hyphae parents.
(3) Rhizoids (4) Roots
(2) the same genes as its parent.
Ans. Option (2)
(3) different genes from its parent.
2. What is the disc like structure that helps the embryo
to attach itself to the wall of uterus? (4) different genetic information from either of its
(1) Placenta (2) Amniotic fluid parents.
(3) Vas deferens (4) Cervix Ans. Option (2)
Ans. Option (1) 7. Double fertilization involves
3. Which process is illustrated in the diagram below?
(1) Fertilization of the egg by two male gametes
(2) Fertilization of two eggs in the same embryosac
by two male gametes brought by one pollen tube
(3) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by
two male gametes brought by different pollen
tubes
(1) nuclear fusion (2) sexual reproduction
(4) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by
(3) Multiple fission (4) asexual reproduction
two male gametes brought by the same pollen
Ans. Option (4)
tube
In the above diagram binary fission is shown in
Ans. Option (4)
paramecium which is a type of asexual reproduction.
4. What is the significance of variation in reproduction? 8. Which part of the flower forms the fruit ?
(1) Only for continuity of species. (1) Whole flower
(2) Variation is important for better survival of (2) Only stamens and carpel
species over time.
(3) Only ovary
(3) For preserving parental characters.
(4) Only carpel
(4) All of the above
Ans. Option (2) Ans. Option (3)
5. Read the given statements (i-iv) with one or two Ovary is basal swollen part of female reproductive
blanks and select the option that correctly fills any structure in flower which ripen into fruit after
two of the statements. fertilization.
(i) In grafting, a cutting having buds from one plant 9. In correct chronological order, the three phases of
called the _______ is kept over the stem with roots the human ovarian cycle are
of another plant called the ______.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(1) menstrual , ovulation , luteal

(ii) Unorganised mass of the cells in the tissue culture
is called __________. (2) follicular , luteal , secretory
(iii) The shoot forming part of embryo is called (3) menstrual , proliferative , secretory
___________ while the root forming part of embryo (4) follicular , ovulation , luteal
is called_____. Ans. Option (4)
(iv) The process of fusion of male gamete with female
10. Which of the following is birth control measure?
gamete to form a zygote is called ________.
(1) (i) Scion, Stock; (iv) Pollination (1) IUCD
(2) (ii) Callus; (iii) Plumule, Radicle (2) Vasectomy
(3) (ii) Explant; (iii) Radicle, Plumule (3) Tubectomy
(4) (i) Stock, Scion; (ii) Reproduction (4) All of these
Ans. Option (2)
Ans. Option (4)

90
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Assertion & Reason type questions 14. Name the hormone secretion which is responsible
for changes in appearance in girls and boys when
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a
they approach 10-12 years and 13-14 years of age
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as: respectively.
Ans. Estrogen and testosterone respectively.
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
15. Define sexual reproduction . List an advantage of
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction
(A).
Ans. Sexual reproduction is the method of reproduction
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason involving formation and fusion of gametes from both
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). the parents, i.e. ovum (female) and sperm (male).
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false. Sexual reproduction produces more variations as
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true. compared to asexual reproduction and variations
11. Assertion (A) : DNA copying is necessary during finally lead to evolution.
reproduction. 16. List two functions of ovary in female reproductive
system and two function of testis in male reproductive
Re ason (R) : DNA copying leads to the system
transmission of characters from parents to offspring. Ans. Ovary in females is responsible for the production
Ans. (1) of female gamete (ova) and also produces
hormones, i.e. oestrogen and progesterone. Testis
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and produces male gamete (sperm) and also produces
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion hormone testosterone.
(A). 17. How can pregnancy be prevented surgically? What
DNA copying is necessary during reproduction is gestation period?
because it leads to the transmission of characters Ans. When vas deferens in males are blocked surgically
from parents to offsprings and brings about it is called vasectomy this prevents sperm transfer.
variations. When fallopian tubes are blocked it is called
tubectomy and hence egg will not be able to meet
12. Assertion (A) : Individuals produced by asexual the sperm there by preventing pregnancy.
reproduction are known as clones. Fetal development period from the time of
Reason (R) : Genetically identical offsprings are conception until birth is called gestation period.
referred as clones. 18. What will happen when :
(a) A mature Spirogyra fi lament attains
Ans. (1) considerable length?
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and (b) Planaria gets cut into two pieces?
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion Ans. (a) When a mature Spirogyra filament attains
(A). considerable length it breaks up into smaller
New individual produced after asexual reproduction pieces (fragments). These fragments grow into
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

are always genetically identical or clone to each new individuals.

other and their parents. (b) If Planaria gets cut into two pieces, both pieces
grow into separate individuals by a process called
regeneration.
Very short answer type questions (2 mark) 19. (a) Give reason : Regeneration is not the same as
13. Mention the common mode of reproduction found Reproduction.
in (i) Amoeba (ii) Planaria. (iii) Rhizophus (iv) Spirogyra (b) State the mode of asexual reproduction in
Plasmodium
Ans. (i) Amoeba — Binary fission.
Ans. (a) Regeneration is the ability of an organism to
(ii) Planaria — Regeneration. from its lost body part and most organisms would
(iii) Rhizopus — Spore formation. not normally depend on being cut up to be able
to reproduce.
(iv) Spirogyra — Fragmentation.
(b) Plasmodium reproduce through multiple fission.

91
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

20. (a) What is vegetative propagation? 23. Name the organ where sperms are produced and
(b) Write any two advantages of practising this name the hormone produced by it. Why do sperms
method. have a tail but ovum does not have it?
Ans. (a) The formation of a new individual from any
Ans. Sperms are produced in the testes. The testes
vegetative part of the plant body is known as
secrete a hormone called testosterone. Sperms
vegetative propagation.
have a long tail that helps them to move towards
(b) Advant ages of practis ing vegetative
the female germ cells. Ovum is larger is size and
propagation.
contains the reserve food material.
(i) It allows quicker and easy propagation.
24. In a bisexual flower inspite of the young stamens
(ii) Better qualities of the plants can be
being removed artificially, the flower produces fruit.
maintained and the quality can even be
Give reasons.
enhanced as in seedless oranges.

21. How does the process of budding differ from the (a) Name the parts of the flower which ripens to
process of spore formation? form fruit and seed?

Ans. In budding an outgrowth develops on the mature (b) In the following diagram label A and B.

organism's body, which attains full maturity and then

A
detaches. While in spore formation, spores are
B
formed within special structures called sporangia
that disperse through air and water and can form
Ans. A bisexual flower has both stamen and carpel. When
the entire plant under favourable conditions.
young stamens are removed then also it can undergo
Short answer type questions (3 marks) cross pollination and subsequent fertilization. The
22. In what respect is the human male gamete different ovary enlarges considerable and becomes the fruit.
from the female gamete ? What is the importance (a) Ovary ripens to form fruit and ovule develops
of this difference?
into seed.
Ans. Differences between human male and female
(b) A = Plumule
gamete are :
B = Radicle

Male Gamete Female Gamete 25. (i) Trace the path of sperms from where they are
produced in human body to the exterior.
It is also called sperm. It is also called ovum.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(ii) Write the functions of secretions of prostate

It is larger in size, gland and seminal vesicle in humans.
It is smaller in size
rounded non-motile
motile gamete with Ans. (i) The formation of sperms takes place in testes
gamete with a good
scanty amount of food
amount of reserve which are delivered through the vas deferens
reserve.
food.
which is united with urethra from where sperms
are released out of the body through penis.

The difference helps the ovum or female gamete (ii) The secretions of prostate gland and seminal

to get loaded with cytoplasmic content and tail of vesicles allow the sperms to be in a fluid medium
which makes their transport easier and also
sperm allows it to swim freely up to the ovum.
provides them with nutrition.

92
 ® Biology
ALLEN
26. Differentiate between : Ans. (a) Some plants like banana, seedless grapes, rose,
which cannot produce viable seeds, can be
(a) Asexual and sexual reproduction.
easily grown by vegetative propagation. To get
(b) Plumule and Radicle. genetically identical copies and to maintain and
preserve a stock of selected varieties, vegetative
(c) Pollination and Fertilisation.
Ans. propagation is the only means. It is an easier
less expens ive and rapid method of
Asexual Sexual propagation.
(a)
Reproduction Reproduction
(b) Anther and ovule both have germ cells.
(i) New individual is New individual is
produced from a produced from (c) Wind and water.
single parent two parents 28. In the diagram of human male reproductive system
(ii) It does not involve It involves the given below :
the union of union of gametes
gametes
(iii) The young ones The young ones
are genetically are not genetically
identical to the identical to the
D
parents parents

(b) Plumule Radicle

A
(i) Plumule is future Radicle is future B
shoot root C X
(ii) It grows towards It grows towards (a) Label parts A and B.
the sun the ground in soil
(b) Name the hormone produced by organ ‘X’.
or water
What is the role of this hormone in the human
(c) Pollination Fertilisation
male?
(i) It is the transfer of It is the fusion of
pollen grains from male and female (c) Mention the name of substances that are
anther to the gametes transported by tubes.
stigma of a flower (i) C (ii) D
Ans. (a) A — Seminal vesicle
(ii) It is a physical It is a physio-
process chemical B — Prostate gland
(biological) (b) X (Testes) secrete hormone testosterone which
process
brings about changes in appearance seen in
(iii) It occurs only in It occurs in plants
seed plants and animals of boys at the time of puberty.
various types (c) (i) Tube C- vas deferens- It transport sperms.
(iv) It carries the male It actually brings
(ii) Tube D - urethra - transports the urine and
gamete to the about fusion of
female sex organs gametes semen.
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
(v) It precedes Fertilisation occurs
29. (a) Draw a neat diagram of the reproductive
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

fertilisation only after

pollination system of a human female and label on it the
when the pollen following :
grain has (i) reproductive part that produces the female
germinated
hormone.
and male gametes
reach the ovule (ii) site of fertilisation.
(iii) organ where growth and development of
27. (a) Why is vegetative propagation practised for the embryo takes place.
growing some types of plants? (b) How does the growing embryo meet with its
nutritional requirements?
(b) Name the different parts of a flower that has
germ cells. (c) What happens if the ovum is not fertilized?
(c) List any two agents of pollination. (d) Why do female take oral contraceptive pills?

93
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Ans. (a) (i) Ovary (ii) Fallopian tube (iii) Uterus (ii) People should be literate to understand the
Fallopian tube importance of girl child.
Uterus
(c) In animals In flowers
Ovary (i) Testes — Anther
(ii) Ovary — Ovary
(iii) Eggs — Ovule
(iv) Sperms — Two male gametes released
from pollen grain
31. (a) Draw a diagram illustrating fertilisation in a
(b) The embryo gets nutrition, oxygen, water, etc. flowering plant and label on it : Pollen grain,
from the mother’s blood with the help of Male germ cell, Female germ cell, Stigma.
placenta through a cord called umbilical cord. (b) Describe the process of fertilisation in plants.
In placenta, villi grow into the surrounding Pollen grain
Ans. (a)
uterine tissue from which embryo absorb Stigma
nutrients. Villi provides a large surface area for Male germ cell
exchange of materials between embryo and
mother.
(c) The lining of the uterus becomes thick and
Female germ
spongy so as to receive the fertilised egg in the
cell
normal situation. If fertilisation does not take
place then the unfertilised egg lasts for about
(b) Process of Fertilisation : After the pollen grains
one day. As the uterine lining breaks, the blood
are deposited on the stigma, the pollen grains
vessels also rupture. So the blood alongwith the
absorb water and sugar from the surface of
mucous comes out through the vagina. This
stigma and swell up. The pollen grains produce
period of d ischarge of bloo d is called
a fine tube called pollen tube. Eventually it
menstruation. This happens roughly every
travels down the whole length of the style into
month and lasts for about 3-5 days.
ovary.
(d) Human female take oral contraceptive pills to
The pollen tube carrying the two male gametes
avoid pregnancy.
enters the ovule and embryo sac through the
30. (a) Which device prevents implantation by irritating
micropyle and its tip dissolves. The two male
the lining of uterus?
gametes are liberated inside the embryo sac.
(b) What could be the possible reason for declining One male gamete fuses with the egg to form
female to male sex ratio in our country. Suggest
zygote which grows into an embryo and finally
two measures to achieve 1:1 ratio.
into a new plant. The other male gamete fuses
(c) Name those parts of a flower which serve the
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

with the secondary nucleus (two polar nuclei) to

same function as the following do in animals.
form th e en dosperm which provides
(i) Testis (ii) Ovary (iii) Eggs (iv) Sperms nourishment to the growing embryo. The fusion
Ans. (a) Copper-T prevents implantation by irritating the of the male gamete with the female gamete is
lining of uterus. called syngamy. Thus it is known as double
(b) Because of reckless female foeticides, child sex fertilisation.
ratio is declining at an alarming rate in our Syngamy
One male gamete + Egg cell ¾¾¾¾ ® Zygote.
country.
Second male gamete + Two polar nuclei
Measures to achieve 1:1 ratio Triple fusion
¾¾¾¾¾ ® Triploid nucleus (Primary Endosperm
m
(i) Prenatal sex determination has been Nucleus)
prohibited by law. It should be followed Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization.
strictly.

94
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Case based question (4 marks) Ans. (a). Testes are situated outside the body wall (or
Direction : Q.32 is a case based question with short abdominal cavity) within a pouch called the scrotum.
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these The scrotum helps in maintaining the low
sub-parts. temperature of the testes. It is generally 2-2.5°C
lower than the normal body temperature, which is
32. The male reproductive system consists of portions
required for sperm production.
which produce the germ-cells and other portions
that deliver the germ-cells to the site of fertilization. (b). Testosterone
Testes are located outside the abdominal cavity in (c). Semen is the mixture of sperms and secretions from
scrotum. It also has a role of secretion of male sex seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper gland.
hormone which brings changes in appearance seen
in boys at the time of puberty. Vas deferens unites Ovum Sperm
Spherical in shape; Long with tail and head
with a tube coming from urinary bladder. Urethra
Bigger in size Smaller in size
is a common passage for sperms and urine. Prostate
immobile Mobile
gland and seminal vesicles add their secretions so Has more food stored Less food stored
that sperms are now in fluid. No acrosome Has acrosome
(a). Why testes are located outside the abdominal cavity?
OR
(b). Name the sex hormone associated with male?
(d). Two functions of Testis are
(c). What is semen? Write any two differences between
i. Formation of sperms.
ovum and sperm?
ii. Releases male sex hormone Testosterone.
OR
Paired glands found in male reproductive system
(d). Write any two functions of Testis? Name the paired
are Seminal vesicles and Cowper glands.
glands found in male reproductive system?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

95
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY HEREDITY
Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 8. Who rediscovered the Mendel’s theory of heredity ?
1. A gene is said to be dominant if (1) Hugo de Vries
(1) it expresses it's effect only in homozygous state (2) Tschermak
(2) it expresses it's effect only in heterozygous (3) Correns
condition (4) All of the above
(3) it expresses it's effect both in homozygous and Ans. Option (4)
heterozygous condition 9. Genotype means
(4) it never expresses it's effect in any condition. (1) genetic composition of the individual
Ans. Option (3) (2) genetic composition of the cell
2. "When two pairs of traits are combined in a hybrid, (3) genetic composition of plastids
segregation of one pair of characters is independent
(4) genetic composition of an organ
of the other pair of characters".
Ans. Option (1)
The statement explains which of the following laws/
10. In a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous
principles of Mendel?
individuals, percentage of pure homozygous
(1) Principle of paired factors
individuals obtained in F1 generation is
(2) Principle of dominance
(1) 25% (2) 50% (3) 75% (4) 100%
(3) Law of segregation
Ans. Option (2)
(4) Law of independent assortment
Assertion & Reason type questions
Ans. Option (4)
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a
3. Gregor Mendel was born in
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
(1) Austria (2) Russia
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(3) Czechoslovakia (4) United Kingdom
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
Ans. Option (1)
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
4. Which one of the following traits of garden pea
(A).
studied by Mendel was a recessive feature ?
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason
(1) Green seed colour (2) Green pod colour
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(3) Round seed shape (4) Axial flower position
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
Ans. Option (1)
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
5. Which one of the following is the genotypic ratio of
11. Assertion (A) : A child which has inherited X
monohybrid cross?
(1) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 2 : 1 chromosome from father will develop into a girl
(3) 9 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 2 : 1 : 2 : 4 : 2 child.
Ans. Option (2) Reason (R) : Girl child inherits X chromosome from
6. In a plant, red fruit (R) is dominant over yellow fruit father and Y chromosome from mother..
(r) and tallness (T) is dominant over shortness (t). If a Ans. (3)
Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

plant with RRTt genotype is crossed with a plant

that is rrtt then Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of
(1) 50% will be tall with red fruit these 23 pairs, 22 pairs are Autosomes and only
(2) 75% will be tall with red fruit one pair is the 'Sex Chromosome', which actively
(3) All the offspring will be tall with red fruit takes part in the process of sex determination. Both
(4) 25% will be tall with red fruit males and females carry t wo sets of sex
Ans. Option (1) chromosome.
7. The sex of a child is determined by the All children will inherit an X chromosome from their
(1) sex chromosome inherited from the father mother, despite whether they are a boy or girl. Thus,
(2) sex chromosome inherited from the mother the sex of the children will be determined by the
(3) blood group of the father type of chromosome inherited from their father. A
(4) none of these child who inherits Y chromosome will be a boy and
Ans. Option (1) who inherits X chromosome will be a girl.

96
 ® Biology
ALLEN
12. Assertion (A) : Pea plant is considered ideal for Ans.
Dominant trait Recessive trait
hybridisation experiments.
(i) The trait which (i) The trait which
Reason (R) : Pea is self-pollinating plant with short appears in the remains hidden
life cycle and bears visible contrasting traits. F1 progeny is or which does not
Ans. (1) dominant. appear in the
Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and F1 progeny is the
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion recessive trait.
(ii) It appears in (ii) It appears in
(A).
more numbers. less number.
Pea plants were chosen for Mendel's experiments
75% of the plants were with round seeds.
because they are easy to grow, have a short life
17. What constitutes the link between one generation
period, and produce larger number of bisexual
flowers. and the next?
Ans. The hereditary information is transferred from
Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
parents to offspring through the gametes. So,
13. Define alleles. Give an example where sex is
gametes constitute the link between one generation
determined by environmental factors.
and the next and pass on the paternal and maternal
Ans. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are
characters to the offspring.
known as alleles, i.e., they are different forms of
18. "The sex of the children is determined by what they
the same gene.
inherit from their father and not from the mother."
In snail, sex is determined by environmental factors
Justify.
(temperature).
Ans. The children inherit similar chromosomes (22 + X)
14. How many pairs of contrasting characters were
from the mother but the sex of the children will
chosen by Mendel for his experiments on garden
pea? Which of the following traits are recessive in depend on the chromosome they inherit from the
pea plant? father. If a child inherits (22 + X) chromosomes from
Dwarfness, violet flower, wrinkled seed. the father that will be a girl but when a child inherits
(22 + Y) chromosomes from the father that will be
Ans. 7 pairs of contrasting characters where chosen by
Mendel for his experiments on garden pea. a boy. Therefore, the sex of a child is determined

Dwarfness and wrinkled seeds are the recessive by the inheritance of X or Y chromosome from the
characters. father.
15. A pair of cont rast ing characters behaves 19. Guinea pig having black colour when crossed with
independently of each other. Which law of Mendel guinea pig having same colour produced 100
doe s th is statement support? Which sex offsprings out of which 75 were black and 25 were
chromosomes are found in male and female human white. Now find out.
beings?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(a) What is the possible genotype of the guinea pigs?

Ans. The statement supports the law of independent (b) Which trait is dominant and which trait is
assortment, which refers to the ability of different
recessive?
characters to assort themselves independently of the
(c) What is this cross called as and what is the ratio
others during formation of gametes, e.g. seed colour
is independent of seed coat. of F2 progeny obtained from this cross?
Ans. (a) The possible genotype of the guinea pig is Bb.
Males have one X and one Y-chromosome, whereas
females have two X-chromosomes. (b) Black colour is dominant and white colour is

16. List two differences in tabular form between recessive.

dominan t trait and re cessive trait s. What (c) This cross is called monohybrid cross.
percentage/proportion of the plants in the F2 Phenotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 3 : 1
generation/progeny were round, in Mendel's cross Genotypic ratio of F2 progeny is 1 : 2 : 1
between round and wrinkled pea plants.
97
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

Short answer type questions (3 marks) 22. If a pure tall pea plant is crossed with a pure dwarf
20. (a) Name the plant used by Mendel to carry out his plant, then in the first generation only tall plants
experiments. appear.
(b) Study the following cross and answer the (a) What happens to the traits of the dwarf plant?
questions that follow : (b) In the second generation, the dwarf trait
Parents Green and × Yellow and reappears. Why?
Ans. (a) According to law of dominance, ‘‘when a pair
Round seed Wrinkled seed
of contrasting characters are present together,
F1 Generation All Green and only one is able to express itself in the F 1
Round seeds generation while others remain suppressed’’.
F2 Generation Green and Green and Dwarf trait is recessive trait which is unable to
Round (9) Wrinkled (3) express itself in the hybrid (First generation).
(b) Both the characteristics (tall and dwarf) were
Yellow and Yellow and
inherited from the parents to F1 progeny. In F1
Round (3) Wrinkled (1) progeny only tallness character was expressed.
(i) List the dominant and recessive characters. However, the second generation progeny (F2
(ii) Are the characters linked or independent? progeny) expressed both characters in a
Ans. (a) Garden Pea (Pisum sativum). particular ratio i.e. 3 : 1 (3 tall and 1 dwarf) due
to law of segregation.
(b) (i) Dominant characters are Green and Round
Law of segregation : Allele or genes remain
seeds. Recessive characters are yellow and
together and segregate at the time of gamete
wrinkled seeds.
formation. This means that the alleles do not mix
(ii) The characters are independent. in the hybrids [Non-mixing of alleles].
21. A pea plant with blue colour flower denoted by BB This is also known as the Law of purity of
is cross-bred with a pea plant with white flower gametes.
denoted by ww. 23. Why did Mendel choose pea plant for his
(a) What is the expected colour of the flower in experiments?
their F1 progeny? Ans. Pisum sativum was a unique plant selected by
(b) What will be the percentage of plants bearing Mendel for his experimentations which had
white flower in F2 generation, when the flower following importance :
of F1 plants were selfed? Property Advantages of properties.
a. Short life cycle Results of experiments were
(c) State the expected ratio of the genotype BB obtained in less time.
and Bw in the F2 progeny. b. Could be grown More experiments can be done
throughout year in a year.
Ans. Parents BB ww
Blue White c. Choice of cross or Mendel could conduct
x
self fertilization experiment as per his desire.
d. 7 pairs of allelic Large number of choice for
Gametes B w characters experiments.
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

e. Large number of Good number of data for

offspring statistical analysis.
Bw blue Long answer type questions (5 marks)
F1 generation Bw × Bw 24. The genotype of green stemmed tomato plants is
Selfing denoted as GG and that of purple stemmed tomato
plants is denoted as gg. When these two are crossed
F2 generation B w with each other :
BB Bw (a) What colour of stem would you expect in the
B
Blue Blue F1 progeny?
w Bw ww
Blue White (b) Give the percentage of purple stemmed plants
if F1 plants are self pollinated.
(a) Blue
(c) In what ratio would you find the genotypes GG
(b) 25% and gg in the progeny?
(c) BB : Bw = 1 : 2 Draw flow chart in support of your answer.
98
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Case based question (4 marks)
Ans. (a) Green stemmed Purple stemmed
tomato plant tomato plant Direction : Q.26 is a case based question with short
(GG) (gg) sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
¯ ¯
sub-parts.
G (gamete) g (gamete)
26. Mendel was educated in a monastery and went on
Gg to study science and mathematics at the University
(Green stemmed tomato plant) of Vienna. Failure in the examinations for a teaching

In F1 generation, all the plants would be green certificate did not suppress his zeal for scientific
stemmed. quest. He went back to his monastery and started
(b) If F1 plants are self pollinated growing peas. Many others had studied the
inheritance of traits in peas and other organisms
Gg
earlier, but Mendel blended his knowledge of
science and mathematics and was the first one to
G g
keep count of individuals exhibiting a particular trait

GG Gg in each generation. This helped him to arrive at the

G
Gg Green stemmed Green stemmed laws of inheritance.
g Gg gg (a). What is the scientific name of the plant used by
Green stemmed Purple stemmed Mendel?
(b). How many characteristics were studied by Mendel?
25% purple stemmed plants
Give any two examples.
(c) We would find the genotypes GG and gg in
(c). Write the genotypic and phenotypic ratio of
1 : 1 ratio.
monohybrid cross?
25. How is the sex of an offspring determined in the
OR
zygote in human beings? Explain with suitable
diagram showing the cross between male and (d). State the Law of Dominance and Law of
female gametes. segregation.

Ans. During gamete formation the male produce two Ans. (a). Pisum sativum.
types of gametes i.e. one having X chromosome (b). Seven pairs of contrasting traits are studied by
and other having Y chromosome while both gametes Mendel.
produced by females are alike i.e. each having X
Two examples are- i. Color of seed (yellow and
chromosome.
green) ii. Height of plant (tall and dwarf).
When X chromosome of male fuses to X
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

(c). Phenotypic ratio of monohybrid cross- 3:1

chromosome of female, girl child is born.
Genotypic ratio of monohybrid cross- 1:2:1
When Y chromosome of male fuses to X
chromosome of female, boy child is born. OR

(d). Law of Dominance: - "When parents with pure,

®

Male O O
Female +
44 + XY 44 + XX contrasting traits are crossed together, both the

22 + X 22 + Y 22 + X 22 + X
alleles are inherited in F1 generation but only one
of them expresses it is dominant.

44 + XX 44 + XX 44 + XY 44 + XY Law of segregation: Alleles always remain

O
+ children children together in a pair but separates only at the time of
®

gamete formation or meiosis

99
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

BIOLOGY OUR ENVIRONMENT

Multiple choice type questions (1 mark) 6. Select the option that correctly identifies A, B and
1. Which of the following belongs to the category of C in the given table
primary consumers ? Trophic
(1) Eagle & snake Organism Food chain
level
(2) Grasshopper & Cattle
Lion A Grazing
(3) Snake & frog
(4) Water beetle & fish Primary
Earthworm B
Ans. Option (2) consumer
2. Given diagram is a food web of Terrestrial
ecosystem. The arrows represent energy flow and Frog C Grazing
the letters represent different species. A B C
B Top Secondary
(1) Detritus
carnivore consumer
A D E Top Primary
(2) Detritus
carnivore consumer
C Secondary
(3) Grazing Producer
In which species would a toxic pollutant that consumer
accumulates in animals probably reach the highest (4) Scavanger Grazing Producer
concentration Ans. Option (1)
(1) Species A (2) Species B
7. In the given food chain, suppose the amount of
(3) Species C (4) Species E energy at fourth trophic level is 5 kJ, what will be
Ans. Option (4) the energy available at the producer level ?
3. The ozone layer protects both plant and animal life
Grass ® Grasshopper ® Frog ® Snake ® Hawk
on Earth by absorbing the harmful ultraviolet
radiation of the sun. Depletion of ozone is mainly (1) 5 kJ (2) 50 kJ (3) 500 kJ (4) 5000 kJ
due to Ans. Option (4)
(1) Methane (2) Carbon dioxide 8. Who coined the term ecosystem ?
(3) Chlorofluorocarbons (4) Nitrogen
(1) Tansley (2) Odum
Ans. Option (3)
(3) Warming (4) Darwin
4. The thickness of ozone is measured in
(1) cm (2) m Ans. Option (1)
(3) mm (4) dobson unit 9. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the
Ans. Option (4) food chain in increasing amount at each higher
5. The given figure shows four food chains with human trophic level is known as
at the top. Which two of these chains supply (1) Eutrophication (2) Pollution
maximum amount of energy to the human?
(3) Biomagnification (4) Accumulation
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

Sun Ans. Option (3)

10. Global warming can be controlled by
(1) Reducing reforestation, increasing the use of
Rice Maize fossil fuel
Grass Waterweed
(2) Increasing deforestation, slowing down the
Q R
P
growth of human population
S
Cows Fish (3) Increasing deforestation, reducing efficiency of
energy usage
Human
(1) P and Q (2) P and S (4) Reducing deforestation, cutting down use of fossil
(3) Q and R (4) Q and S fuel
Ans. Option (2) Ans. Option (4)

100
 ® Biology
ALLEN
Assertion & Reason type questions 15. Define food web. Name the natural cleansing agent
Direction (Q.11 & 12) : In the following questions, a in an ecosystem.
statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of
Ans. Food web is a network of interconnected food chains
reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
which provides a number of feeding connections
(1) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and
amongst different organisms of a biotic community.
reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion
(A). Decomposers and scavengers are the natural
(2) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason cleansing agent in an ecosystem.
(R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
16. Define biological magnification. Why are plastics
(3) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
non-biodegradable substances ?
(4) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
11. Assertion (A) : Flow of energy in a food chain is Ans. The accumulation of chemicals (non-biodegradable
unidirectional. substances) in the bodies of the organisms that
Reason (R) : Energy captured by autotrophs does belong to the top most trophic level in a food chain
not revert back to the solar input and it passes to is called biological magnification.
the herbivores. Plastics are non-biodegradable substance because
Ans. (1) they cannot be broken down by the action of
Both assertion and reason are true and reason is enzymes, bacteria or decomposers.
the correct explanation of assertion.
17. What do you mean by environment. Which one of
The flow of energy through different steps in the
food chain is unidirectional. This means that energy the following is always at the third trophic level in a
captured by autotrophs does not revert back to the food chain ? Carnivores, herbivores, producers,
solar input and it passes to the herbivores. decomposers.
12. Assertion (A) : Ozone is formed in upper Ans. 'Environment' can be defined as the physical and
atmosphere by O2 in presence of UV radiations. biological world where we live. It includes both biotic
Reason (R) : Ozone depletion will lead to UV rays and abiotic components.
reaching earth which may cause skin cancer.
In a food chain, the third trophic level is always
Ans. (2)
occupied by carnivores that feed on herbivores.
Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
Plants (producers or autotrophs) occupy the first
the correct explanation of assertion.
trophic level, herbivores constitute the second
Very short answer type questions (2 mark)
trophic level and large carnivores occupy the fourth
13. Why are green plants called producers? Rearrange
trophic level.
the given members of food chain in the correct
trophic level: frog, grass, snake , insect. 18. Mention the amount of solar energy captured by the
Ans. Green plants are called producers because they can green plants out of the total energy that reaches
synthesise organic food from inorganic raw materials on the Earth from the Sun and mention the
by trapping the solar energy in the process of
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

percentage of energy, which is transferred from one

photosynthesis. This food is used by green plants as trophic level to next higher one. What are the types
well as all other organisms called consumers. of food chain in a terresterial ecosystem ?
The correct order of the given members of food
Ans. The green plants in a terrestrial ecosystem captures
chain is
about 1% of the energy of sunlight falling on their
Grass ® Insect ® Frog ® Snake
leaves and convert it into food. An average of 10%
14. Which compounds are responsible for the depletion
energy is made available for the next level of
of ozone layer? What are the harmful effects of
consumers, i.e. transferred from one trophic level
ozone depletion on human health?
to next higher one. There are two type of food chain
Ans. Substances like chlorofluorocarbons, hydrocarbon,
(i) grazing food chain (ii) detritus food chain
NO2, chlorine, etc. are responsible for the depletion
of ozone layer. Depletion of ozone layer increases
the chances of skin cancer and cataract in human.
101
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

19. Observe the food chain Ans. (i) Banners and signboards can be used in residential
Plant (1000 kJ) ® Goat ® Lion colonies in order to educate people about the
ill effects of improper waste disposal.
(a) If autotrophs occupying the first trophic level are
called producers what are herbivores called as? (ii) Street plays can be organised highlighting this
issue.
(b) How much energy does the lion get in the above
food chain? Short answer type questions (3 marks)
Ans. (a) Herbivores occupying the second trophic level 24. Why is Government of India imposing a ban on the
are called primary consumers. use of polythene bags? Suggest two alternatives to
these bags and explain how this ban is likely to
(b) Plant ¾¾® Goat ¾¾® Lion
improve the environment.
(1000 kJ) (100 kJ) (10 kJ)
Ans. Government of India is imposing a ban on the use
The lion gets 10 kJ energy in the above food chain.
of polythene bags because they cannot be degraded
20. With the help of an example show that ‘reuse’ naturally by the action of microorganisms. Because
strategy is better than ‘recycling’. of their non-biodegradability, they stay in the soil for
Ans. The plastic cans can be reused instead of recycling a long time and continue to poison it with toxic
them. Reusing any waste does not require energy byproducts that keep leaching from them.
and no pollution is produced. While a lot of energy Also, they do not allow water to seep in, as they are
is required to melt the plastic cans and make some waterproof. These polyt hene bags, when
other usable items from them. Many harmful gases accidentally eaten by stray animals can harm them
are also released during recycling a plastic waste. and can even lead to their death.
21. List two reasons to show that the existence of Jute and cloth bags can be used in place of polythene
decomposers is essential in an ecosystem. bags.
Ans. Role of decomposers : The decomposers are If polythene bags are banned, use of cloth and jute
microorganisms like bacteria and fungi which help bag will increase which have following advantages
in the breakdown of organic matter or biomass of
(i) They are environment friendly as they are
dead plants and animals into simple inorganic raw
biodegradable.
materials such as CO2, H2O and nutrients. Their
(ii) They are renewable and can be easily recycled.
existence is thus essential in an ecosystem because:
(iii) They have more strength than polythene bags
(i) They help in the natural replenishment of soil.
because they are thick and can be used again
(ii) They help in keeping the environment clean.
and again.
22. Explain an agricultural practice that has a harmful
Thus, using jute and cloth bags will help to reduce
effect on ecosystem.
pollution.
Ans. Agriculture is the process of cultivation of plants and
25. We do not clean ponds or lakes but an aquarium
other life forms for the production of food and fibre
needs to be cleaned. Why?
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

etc. Increased use of pesticides and other insect or

Ans. A pond or lake is a natural ecosystem. They are self-
disease repellents in soils and standing crops is a
sustaining and complete. In them, all the necessary
harmful practice that adversely affects the
components of the food chain are available.
environment and its components. These chemicals
mixed with soil and water are absorbed by growing If any organism dies, there are microbes like
plants and through food chain reach all the trophic bacteria and fungi to decompose their bodies into
levels causing various diseases in them. simpler substances. An aquarium, on the contrary
23. We often observe domestic waste decomposing in is an artificial and incomplete ecosystem. It may not
the lanes of residential colonies. Suggest ways to have all the abiotic and biotic components in it. If a
make people realise that the improper disposal of fish dies in an aquarium in the absence of
waste is harmful to the environment. decomposers, it will lie there as a rotten body
polluting the water of aquarium. Thus, an aquarium
needs regular cleaning.
102
 ® Biology
ALLEN
26. The flow of energy in an ecosystem is unidirectional. Effects of biodegradable substances on our
Justify. environment :
Ans. The green plants of an ecosystem receive the (i) They can be easily decomposed, hence they do
energy from sun and change it into chemical form. not create pollution.
This energy is transferred from plants to herbivores (ii) The degradation of agricultural waste helps in
and then to the next trophic level. reducing the use of fertilisers in place of
Sun Plants Cow Tiger manures.
(source (Producers) (Herbivore) (Carnivore) Effects of non-biodegradable substances on our
of energy) 1000 cal 100 cal 10 cal
10,000 cal environment :
Since energy available decreases at every trophic (i) Depletion of ozone layer.
level, very little of it is available at higher trophic (ii) Pollution created by non-biodegradable
levels. There is a loss of energy at every step of its substances cause different diseases among the
transfer. Hence, it cannot flow in the reverse
living organisms.
direction and is called unidirectional flow.
27. What is meant by food chain? “The number of 29. Sugges t su itab le mechanis m(s) for waste
trophic levels in a food chain is limited”. Give reason management in fertilizer factory.
to justify this statement. Ans. Suitable mechanism for waste management are :
Ans. Food chain is a simple representation of energy flow Effluents and harmful gases are the main waste
in nature. which are produced in a fertilizer factory. Suitable
For example : A rat eats grains, a snake eats a mechanism for waste management are :
rat, which in turn, is eaten by an eagle.
(i) For control of gaseous pollutants combustion
In a food chain, the number of trophic levels are
limited to 4–5. This is because according to 10% equipments are used which can be oxidised.
law of energy transfer only 10% of energy passes Th e po llutants are exposed to a high
from one trophic level to next. Thus the amount of temperature in the process.
energy decreases with successive trophic levels. Air pollutants such as certain gases, vapours and
After five trophic levels, existence of organisms inflammable compounds are controlled through
would become impossible with such negligible
the use of adsorption equipments. Adsorption
amount of energy.
is a surface phenomenon that needs the
Long answer type questions (5 marks)
presence of a large solid surface area. Toxic and
28. Distinguish between biodegradable and non-
biodegradable substances. List two effects of each odoriferous compounds are efficiently removed
of them in our environment. by this process.
Ans. (ii) Three options available for controlling the
Biodegradable Non-biodegradable effluents are :
Pollutants Pollutants (a) Control can take place at the point of
1. They are biological They are commonly man- generation within the factory.
in origin. made. (b) Waste water can be pre-treated for
2. These wastes are They are not degraded
node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

discharge to municipal treatment systems.

degraded by micro- by micro-organisms.
(c) Waste water can be treated completely at
organisms.
3. They do not They pile up and the factory and either reused or discharged.
accumulate in accumulate in nature. 30. Name the wastes which are generated in your house
nature. daily. Give the measures you should take for their
4. The biodegradable The soluble non- disposal.
wastes do not show degradable wastes enter
Ans. Waste Materials generated daily in homes are :
biomagnification. food chains and undergo
biomagnification. (i) Vegetable and fruit peels, stale food, food
5. Examples : Examples : Plastic, leftovers, used tea leaves, etc.
Garbage, kitchen polythene, glass, metallic (ii) Milk pouches, polythene bags, empty cartons,
wastes, sewage. cans, chemicals, etc. plastic and metallic cans.
etc.
(iii) Waste newspapers, paper bags, paper

103
CBSE : Class X ALLEN
®

envelopes, packing paper, empty bottles, cotton

cloth pieces, etc.

(iv) Dust and other sweepings.

Measures for Disposal of Wastes :

(i) Separation into different categories as-

bio degradable an d no n-bio degradable,
recyclable and non-recyclable wastes.

(ii) Recyclable wastes i.e. waste paper, cloth,

polythene or plastic bags, cartons, bottles, cans, (a). Define ozone depletion.
etc. can be given to rag pickers for recycling. (b). In which country, ozone hole has appeared? In what
layer of atmosphere ozone layer is found?
(iii) Preparation of compost or vermicompost from (c). What two steps can be taken to limit the damage
kitchen wastes for kitchen garden. to the ozone layer?
OR
(iv) The household garbage and other wastes can (d). What are the effects of ozone depletion on human
also be given to waste collectors for disposal. health?
Ans. (a). Ozone depletion: - The thinning of ozone layer
Case based question (4 marks) by air pollutants is called as ozone depletion.
(b). Ozone hole was first discovered over Antarctica in
Direction : Q.31 is a case based question with short
1985.
sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these
Ozone is found in Stratosphere.
sub-parts. (c). Steps to be taken:
i. Reduces the use of CFC in refrigerators, air
31. The amount of ozone in the atmosphere has begun
conditioners.
to drop sharply from 1980s. This decrease has
ii. Avoid using CFCs in aerosols, sprays.
been linked to synthetic chemicals. In 1987, the OR
United Nations Environment programme (UNEP) (d). Effects of ozone layer depletion on human health
succeeded in forging an agreement to harmful are-
chemical production at 1986 levels. i. UV radiations cause Skin cancer.
ii. These rays cause damage to eyes and causes
cataract.
These cause damage to immune system.

node05\B0BC-BD\CBSE\CBSE_Compendium\Science\3. Biology\6.Biology.p65

104