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UGC NET GEOGRAPHY JUNE 2023
1. Wirth is known for which concept?
(a) Primate City
(b) Rural Urban Continuum
(c) Central Place
(d) Conurbation
2. Cultural Eutrophication is caused by which of the following?
(a) Sediments brought by a tributory stream
(b) Nutrients brought by a tributory stream
(c) Nutrients added into the water bodies by anthropogenic factors
(d) Due to abundance of Plankton organisms
3. Which of the following scholars argued for humanistic geography?
(a) Soja
(b) Smith
(c) Yi-Fu-Tuan
(d) Schaefer
4. Which one of the following colours is not a part of the rainbow?
(a) Violet
(b) Grey
(c) Orange
(d) Red
5. The idea/concept of 'spatial margins of profitability' in context of industrial location
theories was propounded by
(a) A Losch
(b) Pred
(c) D.M. Smith
(d) Walter Isard
6. In which of the following countries of the world, the farming is severely restricted by
climate ?
(a) Mexico
(b) Spain
(c) Canada
(d) China
7. Which of the following is used to represent the geographical data on chorochromatic
maps?
(a) Colours
(b) Lines
(c) Points
(d) Pictures
8. Who wrote the essay entitled 'Trying to Solve the Monsoon Riddle' in relation to
mechanism of monsoon?
(a) Rama Sastry
(b) Menon
(c) Krishna
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(d) Parthasartahy
9. Who wrote the book Illustration of the Huttonian Theory of the Earth' ?
(a) James Hutton
(b) Bowman
(c) Vidal de la Blache
(d) John Playfair
10. Which one of the following was introduced by W. Arnold?
(a) Spatial processes of plant ecology in settlement dispersion study
(b) Monte Carlo technique to the evolution of settlement
(c) Utopian social and political thinking affect on settlement network
(d) Place name analysis in the settlement study
11. Organisms with 'r-selected' growth patterns tend to occupy which tropic level in their
ecosystems?
(a) Low trophic level
(b) High trophic level
(c) Middle trophic level
(d) Very high trophic level
12. Bay of Fundy is located along the coast of
(a) Australia
(b) Norway
(c) Chile
(d) Canada
13. The approach of Functional Organization of Space was propounded by which one of the
following schools of thought?
(a) British School
(b) French School
(c) German School
(d) American School
14. Which one of the following is located near Greenland?
(a) Telegraph Plateau
(b) Walvis ridge
(c) Puerto Rico deep
(d) Challenger rise
15. The most widely accepted scheme of cultural realms of the world was devised by
(a) Broek and Webb
(b) Spencer and Malthus
(c) Haggett and Chorley
(d) Jones and Gregory
16. Which one of the following nomadic tribes lives in northern Finland?
(a) Yukaghir
(b) Lapps
(c) Warlpiri
(d) Kirghiz
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17. Which one of the following is the most suitable for representation of growth of population
overtime?
(a) Multiple bar diagram
(b) Line graph
(c) Pie diagram
(d) Choropleth map
18. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in
(a) Odisha
(b) Assam
(c) West Bengal
(d) Meghalaya
19. Pediplains and Inselbergs are features of the old stage of which one of the following cycles
of erosion?
(a) Marine Cycle
(b) Eolian cycle
(c) Glacial cycle
(d) Karst cycle
20. The migrants of second wave of Indian Diaspora went to settle in which of the following
country?
(a) Mauritius
(b) Fiji
(c) Thailand
(d) Canada
21. The term 'Demanufacturing' is associated with which one of the following?
(a) Post globalization
(b) Financial deficit
(c) Disassembly and recycling
(d) Small scale industry decline
22. The density of oceanic water is generally lowest in
(a) Equatorial region
(b) Sub-tropical region
(c) Temperate region
(d) Polar region
23. Identify the scholar who was the first to report and map the Chinese coal fields.
(a) Ritter
(b) Humboldt
(c) Ratzel
(d) Richthofen
24. Aurora Australis pertaining to ionosphere are related to which hemisphere/region?
(a) Northern Hemisphere
(b) Greenland
(c) Southern Hemisphere
(d) Canada
25. Largest number of tribal population (2011) in India is found in
(a) Nagaland
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(b) North America
(c) Asia Pacific
(d) Europe
ANSWERS
1 B 21 C 41 B 61 A 81 D
2 C 22 A 42 D 62 B 82 B
3 C 23 D 43 C 63 B 83 A
4 B 24 C 44 B 64 A 84 B
5 C 25 B 45 C 65 B 85 A
6 C 26 A 46 B 66 D 86 C
7 A 27 C 47 C 67 C 87 A
8 D 28 D 48 D 68 B 88 A
9 D 29 D 49 A 69 A 89 A
10 D 30 A 50 B 70 C 90 C
11 A 31 C 51 B 71 D 91 D
12 D 32 B 52 B 72 C 92 B
13 D 33 A 53 D 73 C 93 C
14 A 34 A 54 D 74 A 94 A
15 A 35 A 55 A 75 D 95 B
16 B 36 B 56 A 76 D 96 C
17 B 37 D 57 D 77 C 97 C
18 D 38 C 58 A 78 C 98 D
19 B 39 B 59 C 79 A 99 A
20 C 40 C 60 C 80 D 100 D
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Geography PYQ Question Paper Analysis and
Trend Pattern
(Based on PDF 2016 – JAN 2025)
1. Variety in Question Formats:
● Multiple Choice Question (MCQs): All questions are in the same format, with
four options given.
● Match Based Question (Match List): These questions are being asked in
large numbers. These consist of two lists (List I and List II), in which concepts,
scholars, places, theories, instruments, etc. have to be matched. This format is
common in various units like geographical thinking, geomorphology,
climatology, oceanography, economic geography, geography of India and
geographical techniques.
● Assertion And Reason (Assertion & Reason - A/R): The number of these
questions is also important. In these, an assertion (A) and a reason (R) are
given, and the examinee has to evaluate the relationship and truth between
them. These test conceptual understanding.
● Statement Based Question (Statement-based): In these, one or more
statements are given and it is asked which statement(s) is/are true or false.
These test both factual and ideological information. These often involve
questions giving 4-5 statements and choosing true/false combinations (e.g. A,
B are correct; C, D, E are wrong).
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● Chronological Sequence (Chronological Order): Questions that organize
events, scholars, theories, publications or processes in the order of their
occurrence are also asked, particularly in geographical thinking and
environmental geography.
● Ascendant/Descending Sequence (Ascending/Descending Order):
Questions that rank states/regions/countries based on a particular indicator
(e.g. population density, literacy, production, HDI) in data-based units such as
Population Geography, Economic Geography, Geography of India.
● Paragraph/Passage Based Question (Passage-based): A passage is given,
based on which 5 questions are asked. It tests comprehension and analytical
ability. (eg climate change, passages based on Malthus's theory were seen).
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● Diagram/Map Based Question (Diagram/Map-based): Questions are asked
based on a diagram (e.g. energy consumption pattern, temperature
distribution graph) or map (e.g. passes of India).
2. Balancing ideological versus factual questions:
● A good balance of both conceptual clarity and factual knowledge is seen in the
question papers.
● Geographical thinking requires a deep understanding of theories, models and
concepts in units such as geomorphology, climatology, oceanography,
population and settlement geography, economic geography.
● Whereas, in Geography of India, Resource Geography, Geographical
Techniques and Environmental Geography, factual information (like census
data, names of places, names of instruments, dates of treaties/conventions)
has more importance.
3. Difficulty Level:
● The overall level of questions appears to be moderate to difficult. Many
questions have multiple-statement format and matching questions, requiring
precise information and clear understanding of concepts. Assertion-reason
questions can be particularly challenging.
conclusion:
From the analysis of these question papers, it is clear that success in the UGC
NET Geography exam requires a comprehensive and deep understanding of all the
units of the syllabus. Merely memorizing facts is not enough, but it is also
important to understand concepts, compare different theories and develop
analytical skills. Special attention should be paid to practicing matching,
assertion-reason, and statement-based questions. In-depth study of previous
years' questions is definitely helpful in determining the right direction of
preparation.
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Major Focus Areas (Recurring Themes):
● Geographical Contemplation: Various ideologies (determinism, possibilism,
positivism, humanism etc.), prominent geographers (especially Greek, Roman,
Arab, German, French, American) and their books/contributions.
● Earth-Shape Science: Erosion cycles (Davis, Penck), plate tectonics,
landforms created by various erosion factors.
● The Climate Science: Köppen's classification, atmospheric circulation,
monsoon, climate change and related agreements.
● Sea Science: Ocean currents, bottom relief, salinity and temperature.
● Environment Geography: Concepts of ecosystem, biodiversity, pollution,
disaster management, sustainable development.
● Population And Domicile Geography: Demographic transition model,
Malthus' theory, migration theory, urban structure model, central place
theory, data from Census of India (2011).
● Financial Geography: Agricultural and industrial location theories (von
Theunen, Weber), resource distribution (especially in India).
● Geographical Techniques: Cartography (scale, interpolation), Remote sensing
(sensors, platforms, data interpretation), GIS (data models), Statistical
methods (correlation, sampling, nearest neighbor analysis).
● India Of Geography: Physical departments (mountains, rivers, passes),
climate, soil, vegetation, population, agriculture, minerals.
Unit I: Geomorphology
● Question Type: Identification and interpretation of concepts,
Classification (Köppen), Matching theories/scholars/agreements, Matching
instruments, Sequential arrangement of processes/events, Assertion-
causation, Data interpretation.
● Broad Concepts:
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Geography Model Paper (UGC NET Pattern)
1. Match List I (Geographical Concept/Theory) with List II (Associated Scholar).
List I (Concept/Theory) List II (Scholar)
A. Heartland Theory I. D.M. Smith
B. Spatial Margins of Profitability II. H.J. Mackinder
C. Cultural Landscape III. W. Christaller
D. Central Place Theory IV. Carl O. Sauer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation:
● Heartland Theory: Propounded by Halford J. Mackinder, focusing on the
strategic importance of the Eurasian landmass.
● Spatial Margins of Profitability: Developed by D.M. Smith as an
extension/critique of classical location theories, considering areas where firms
can operate profitably.
● Cultural Landscape: A central concept in cultural geography, strongly associated
with Carl O. Sauer, emphasizing the human imprint on the natural environment.
● Central Place Theory: Formulated by Walter Christaller to explain the size,
number, and distribution of settlements based on the provision of goods and
services.
● These pairings represent fundamental concepts and their originators within
geographical thought.
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2. Assertion (A): The density of oceanic water generally decreases from polar regions
towards the equator.
Reason (R): Higher temperatures and potentially higher precipitation/freshwater
input near the equator reduce the density of surface water compared to colder, saltier
polar waters.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from
the options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
● Assertion (A): Ocean water density is primarily influenced by temperature and
salinity. Colder water is denser, and saltier water is denser. Polar waters are
generally colder and can be saltier (due to ice formation excluding salt), making
them denser than warmer equatorial waters.
● Reason (R): Equatorial regions experience higher solar insolation, leading to
warmer surface water (lower density). They also often receive significant rainfall
and river discharge, adding freshwater which further reduces salinity and
density.
● The factors mentioned in (R) directly cause the density pattern described in (A).
● Therefore, both statements are correct, and the reason explains the assertion.
3. Which of the following statements accurately describe characteristics or outcomes
of the Quantitative Revolution in Geography?
A. It emphasized the use of statistical methods and mathematical models.
B. It sought to make geography more scientific and objective.
C. It led to a complete rejection of regional geography approaches.
D. Key proponents included Schaefer, Haggett, Chorley, and Bunge.
E. It focused primarily on qualitative descriptions of unique places.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
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1. A, B, and D only
2. A, C, and E only
3. B, C, and D only
4. A, B, and E only
Answer: 1. A, B, and D only
Explanation:
● A (Correct): The core of the Quantitative Revolution was the adoption of
statistical techniques and mathematical modeling to analyze spatial patterns.
● B (Correct): A major goal was to move geography towards a more rigorous,
scientific discipline, emphasizing objectivity and law-seeking over idiographic
description.
● C (Incorrect): While it challenged the dominance of traditional regional
geography, it didn't lead to its complete rejection; regional studies adapted and
continued.
● D (Correct): Fred K. Schaefer's critique of exceptionalism laid groundwork, while
Peter Haggett, Richard Chorley, and William Bunge were key figures in applying
quantitative methods.
● E (Incorrect): The focus shifted away from qualitative descriptions towards
identifying general spatial laws and patterns.
4. According to Von Thünen's model of agricultural land use, which activity would
typically be located closest to the central market, assuming an isotropic plain?
1. Livestock ranching
2. Grain farming (three-field system)
3. Firewood and timber production
4. Market gardening and dairy farming
Answer: 4. Market gardening and dairy farming
Explanation:
● Von Thünen's model arranges agricultural activities in concentric rings around a
central market based on land rent, transport costs, and product perishability.
● Market gardening and dairy farming: These produce perishable and bulky
goods (like milk, fruits, vegetables) that are expensive to transport over long
distances and need quick access to the market. They can command high prices,
justifying the high land rent near the city.
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● Firewood and timber: Bulky and costly to transport, located in the second ring.
● Grain farming: Less perishable and less expensive to transport per unit weight
than dairy/vegetables, located further out.
● Livestock ranching: Requires extensive land and is least perishable, located
furthest from the market where land rent is lowest.
5. Assertion (A): The 'Heartland' theory suggests that control over Eastern Europe is
vital for commanding the global landmass.
Reason (R): Mackinder viewed the Eurasian landmass, particularly its inaccessible
'Pivot Area' or 'Heartland', as the key geographical base for world domination due to
its resource potential and protection from sea power.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
● Assertion (A): Mackinder's famous dictum states: "Who rules East Europe
commands the Heartland; Who rules the Heartland commands the World-Island;
Who rules the World-Island commands the World." This highlights the strategic
importance of Eastern Europe as the gateway to the Heartland.
● Reason (R): The core idea of the theory is the strategic significance of the vast,
resource-rich Eurasian interior (Heartland), which was largely immune to attack
by sea power, making it a potential base for a dominant land power.
● The strategic importance of the Heartland, as explained in (R), is the foundation
for why controlling its gateway (Eastern Europe), as stated in (A), is considered
crucial.
● Therefore, both statements are correct and (R) provides the underlying rationale
for (A).
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6. Which of the following are considered key elements influencing spatial interaction
according to Edward Ullman?
A. Complementarity
B. Transferability
C. Intervening Opportunity
D. Agglomeration Economies
E. Deglomeration Effects
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, B, and C only
2. A, C, and D only
3. B, D, and E only
4. A, B, and E only
Answer: 1. A, B, and C only
Explanation:
● Edward Ullman identified three essential bases for spatial interaction:
● A. Complementarity: A supply in one place must match a demand in another.
● B. Transferability: The ease and cost with which a good or person can be moved
between places. Interaction only occurs if the cost of movement is not prohibitive.
● C. Intervening Opportunity: The presence of a closer, alternative source of
supply or demand reduces interaction between more distant places.
● D & E (Incorrect): Agglomeration and deglomeration economies relate more to
industrial location factors (Weber, Hoover) rather than Ullman's primary
conditions for spatial interaction itself.
7. The 'Doctrine of Uniformitarianism', fundamental to understanding geological
processes, is most famously associated with which scholar?
1. W. M. Davis
2. James Hutton
3. Charles Lyell
4. G. K. Gilbert
Answer: 2. James Hutton (often popularized/expanded by Charles Lyell)
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Explanation:
● James Hutton (Correct): In his "Theory of the Earth" (1788/1795), Hutton
proposed that the geological processes shaping the Earth today are the same as
those that operated in the past ("the present is the key to the past"). This is the
essence of uniformitarianism.
● Charles Lyell: Popularized and refined Hutton's ideas in his "Principles of
Geology," making uniformitarianism widely accepted. While crucial, Hutton
originated the core concept.
● W. M. Davis: Known for the "Geographical Cycle" or cycle of erosion, which
builds upon uniformitarian principles but is a distinct model.
● G. K. Gilbert: Made significant contributions to geomorphology, particularly
fluvial processes and laccolith formation, applying uniformitarian ideas.
8. Match List I (Type of Climate - Köppen Symbol) with List II (Characteristic
Vegetation/Region).
List I (Climate Type) List II (Characteristic/Region)
A. Af I. Mediterranean Scrub (Chaparral)
B. Csa II. Tropical Rainforest
C. Dfc III. Tundra
D. ET IV. Boreal Forest (Taiga)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
Answer: 1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Explanation:
● Af (Tropical Rainforest Climate): Characterized by high temperatures and
rainfall year-round, supporting dense Tropical Rainforest vegetation.
● Csa (Mediterranean Climate - Hot Summer): Characterized by hot, dry
summers and mild, wet winters, supporting drought-resistant scrub vegetation
like Chaparral (Mediterranean Scrub).
● Dfc (Subarctic Climate - Cool Summer): Characterized by long, cold winters
and short, cool summers, supporting vast coniferous forests known as Boreal
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Forest or Taiga.
● ET (Tundra Climate): Characterized by extremely cold conditions with
temperatures below freezing for most of the year, supporting low-growing Tundra
vegetation (mosses, lichens, dwarf shrubs).
● These pairings match Köppen climate types with their typical associated
vegetation biomes.
9. Assertion (A): Urban Heat Islands (UHIs) are characterized by significantly higher
temperatures in urban areas compared to their surrounding rural areas, especially at
night.
Reason (R): Urban surfaces (concrete, asphalt) absorb more solar radiation and
release heat slowly, combined with reduced vegetation cover and waste heat from
human activities, contributing to elevated urban temperatures.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
4. (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Answer: 1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Explanation:
● Assertion (A): The Urban Heat Island effect is a well-documented phenomenon
where cities are warmer than adjacent rural areas, with the temperature
difference often being most pronounced during calm nights after sunset.
● Reason (R): This statement correctly identifies the primary causes: lower albedo
and higher thermal capacity of urban materials leading to greater heat absorption
and retention; reduced evapotranspiration due to less vegetation; and
anthropogenic heat release from buildings, vehicles, and industry.
● The factors listed in (R) are the direct physical mechanisms that cause the
temperature difference described in (A).
● Therefore, both statements are correct and (R) explains (A).
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10. Which of the following geographical features are typically formed by glacial
erosion?
A. Drumlins
B. Cirques (Corries)
C. Eskers
D. Arêtes
E. Moraines
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. A, C, and E only
2. B and D only
3. A, B, and D only
4. C, D, and E only
Answer: 2. B and D only
Explanation:
● A. Drumlins (Incorrect): Streamlined hills formed by glacial deposition beneath
the ice sheet.
● B. Cirques (Corries) (Correct): Bowl-shaped depressions carved by glacial
erosion at the head of a valley glacier.
● C. Eskers (Incorrect): Ridges of sand and gravel formed by meltwater streams
flowing within, under, or upon glaciers (deposition).
● D. Arêtes (Correct): Sharp, knife-edged ridges formed by glacial erosion as two
adjacent cirques erode back-to-back.
● E. Moraines (Incorrect): Accumulations of glacial till (unsorted debris) deposited
by glaciers (e.g., lateral, medial, terminal moraines).
11. Which stage of the Demographic Transition Model is characterized by low birth
rates and low death rates, leading to a stable or slowly growing population?
1. Stage 1 (High Stationary)
2. Stage 2 (Early Expanding)
3. Stage 3 (Late Expanding)
4. Stage 4 (Low Stationary)
Answer: 4. Stage 4 (Low Stationary)
Explanation:
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