Midterm Questions

Chapter 1
1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four fundamental phases of the
SDLC?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Development
d) Implementation
e) Design

2. Who plays a key role in determining how an information system can support
business needs?
a) Software Developer
b) Database Administrator
c) Project Sponsor
d) Systems Analyst
e) IT Manager

3. Which of the following is a primary responsibility of a systems analyst?

a) Designing network architecture
b) Developing software code
c) Analyzing business requirements
d) Managing financial reports
e) Performing marketing analysis

4. Which phase of the SDLC defines how the system will operate in terms of
hardware, software, and network infrastructure?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Testing

5. Which type of value is difficult to measure but provides important benefits

to an organization?
a) Tangible
b) Economic
c) Strategic
d) Intangible
e) Technical

6. A system request typically includes all of the following EXCEPT:

a) Business requirements
b) Technical specifications
c) Business value
d) System capabilities
e) Special issues

7. Which of the following types of feasibility addresses whether the system

can be successfully designed and developed?
a) Economic feasibility
b) Organizational feasibility
c) Technical feasibility
d) Business feasibility
e) Process feasibility

8. Which of these is NOT a role typically associated with systems analysts?

a) Business Analyst
b) Infrastructure Analyst
c) Financial Analyst
d) Change Management Analyst
e) Project Manager

9. Which step in the design phase determines where data will be stored?
a) Architecture Design
b) Database and File Specifications
c) Design Strategy
d) Program Design
e) Implementation Plan
10. Which of the following statements about the SDLC is TRUE?
a) It focuses only on software coding.
b) Analysis phase includes deciding the database design.
c) Implementation phase is the shortest phase.
d) It provides a structured approach to IS development.
e) Planning is optional in SDLC.

11. Which of the following best describes the role of a Change Management
Analyst in the SDLC process?
a) Designs the system’s physical architecture
b) Ensures correct database design and file specifications
c) Focuses on user transition, training, and adaptation to new systems
d) Identifies business requirements and process workflows
e) Builds executable code from technical designs

12. During which SDLC phase would a feasibility analysis be formally

presented to an approval committee?
a) Planning
b) Analysis
c) Design
d) Implementation
e) Testing

13. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the Implementation

phase of SDLC?
a) It involves only testing and no actual development.
b) It is usually the cheapest and fastest phase.
c) It includes system construction, installation, and support plan creation.
d) It determines feasibility and business value.
e) It focuses only on system documentation.

14. In the SDLC, which of the following defines the overall approach to
developing the system, including internal vs. outsourced development?
a) Architecture Design
b) Database Design
c) Design Strategy
d) System Proposal
e) Implementation Blueprint

15. Which feasibility dimension examines the degree to which a new system
aligns with business strategies and user readiness?
a) Technical
b) Economic
c) Operational
d) Organizational
e) Strategic

16. What is the correct sequence of steps in the Planning phase of SDLC?
a) Work plan → Business case → Staffing → Requirements
b) Business justification → System request → Work plan
c) Project initiation → Project management
d) System request → Architecture design → Project schedule
e) Feasibility analysis → Database design → Work plan

17. Which of the following best describes the System Proposal document?
a) Describes the financial forecast of project costs and benefits
b) Outlines a comprehensive business strategy
c) Consolidates the requirements definition and analysis models
d) Acts as a final report at the end of system implementation
e) Contains only user interface designs

18. What is the primary purpose of the “Support Plan” in the SDLC
Implementation phase?
a) To train analysts in new methodologies
b) To guide development of user manuals
c) To define post-implementation review and maintenance process
d) To estimate the costs of hiring developers
e) To evaluate system feasibility

19. Which of the following is the most accurate statement about project
initiation?
a) It involves choosing between outsourcing and in-house development.
b) It ensures the implementation team has enough resources.
c) It occurs during the analysis phase of SDLC.
d) It defines the system’s business value and outlines justification.
e) It focuses on training end users.
20. Which of the following techniques is most useful during the Analysis phase
to determine "what the system must do"?
a) Work Breakdown Structure
b) Program Design
c) Requirements Gathering
d) Support Planning
e) Project Feasibility Report

Chapter 2
1. Which of the following is a primary output of the planning phase in the
SDLC?
a) System Request Document
b) Work Breakdown Structure
c) Use Case Diagram
d) Data Flow Diagram
e) Entity Relationship Diagram
2. What is the main purpose of Project Portfolio Management (PPM)?
a) Manage and hire developers
b) Determine system testing strategies
c) Select the right project to pursue
d) Calculate employee salaries
e) Schedule user interviews

3. Which of the following is NOT a methodology for SDLC implementation?

a) Agile Development
b) V-model
c) Waterfall Development
d) ERP Processing
e) Rapid Application Development

4. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Waterfall Methodology?

a) Involves continuous customer feedback
b) Uses short, iterative sprints
c) Requires complete design before coding
d) Ideal for unclear requirements
e) Only used for mobile apps

5. What is the main risk associated with scope creep?

a) Reduced system performance
b) Exceeding time and cost estimates
c) More user training required
d) Lack of stakeholder approval
e) High user resistance

6. In project management, what does the Work Plan primarily include?

a) Timeline estimates, task assignments, deliverables
b) Hiring plan for developers
c) Business feasibility details
d) Financial audits and compliance policies
e) Vendor selection criteria

7. The main objective of Rapid Application Development (RAD) is to:

a) Maximize data collection
b) Improve employee satisfaction
c) Speed up the software development process
d) Reduce number of stakeholders
e) Train users in agile techniques

8. Which of the following methodologies follows the concept of building

prototypes and then throwing them away before final development begins?
a) Waterfall
b) Parallel Development
c) Agile
d) Throwaway Prototyping
e) Spiral Development

9. What is the primary goal of feasibility analysis?

a) Train new users
b) Document test plans
c) Determine if the project should proceed
d) Identify project delays
e) Assess existing use cases

10. Which SDLC methodology is most suitable when user requirements are
unclear and continuously changing?
a) V-model
b) Agile
c) Waterfall
d) Parallel
e) Structured design

11. Which of the following best defines a Project Charter?

a) A tool for cost-benefit analysis
b) A list of user interface requirements
c) A document stating project goals, rules, and deliverables
d) A diagram showing data flow
e) A report analyzing timeboxing

12. A project methodology defines:

a) System architecture
b) Data dictionary
c) Sequence of SDLC activities and deliverables
d) User interface standards
e) Security compliance protocols

13. In project staffing, which of the following is TRUE?

a) Staffing plan includes only programmers.
b) Staffing levels remain constant throughout the project.
c) Hierarchical teams reduce complexity in large projects.
d) No need to plan resource scalability.
e) Staffing plans are optional in SDLC.

14. Motivation is best sustained in project teams through:

a) Only monetary incentives
b) Project deadline reminders
c) Intrinsic rewards like recognition and skill development
d) Strict supervision
e) Constant performance reviews

15. CASE tools are used to:

a) Write source code
b) Manage testing strategies
c) Automate parts of the system development process
d) Track employee hours
e) Analyze network traffic

16. Which methodology is most appropriate for projects requiring frequent

user involvement, unclear requirements, and early working software?
a) Parallel Development
b) System Prototyping
c) Waterfall
d) Agile
e) V-model

17. Which feasibility dimension evaluates whether a system will be embraced

by users and stakeholders post-deployment?
a) Technical
b) Strategic
c) Organizational
d) Operational
e) Functional

18. What is a key drawback of the Parallel Development methodology?

a) Involves too many stakeholders
b) Causes overlapping coding and testing phases
c) Integration can be complex across multiple sub-projects
d) Cannot handle large teams
e) Does not support documentation

19. Which methodology provides the highest visibility into progress due to
incremental and visual delivery milestones?
a) Agile
b) V-Model
c) Waterfall
d) Spiral
e) Throwaway Prototyping

20. Which of the following best differentiates Project Management (PM) from
Project Portfolio Management (PPM)?
a) PM deals with people, PPM deals with tools
b) PM is about doing the right project, PPM is about doing it right
c) PM ensures deadlines are met, PPM selects which projects to do
d) PM is about the cost, PPM is about time
e) PM is for business, PPM is for IT

21. Timeboxing is a project management technique that:

a) Allows endless feature additions
b) Increases project scope
c) Sets a fixed deadline and adjusts functionality accordingly
d) Focuses only on testing
e) Ensures maximum user satisfaction

22. Which of the following is a risk of poor project coordination?

a) Enhanced data accuracy
b) Overestimated budgets
c) Communication breakdown and duplicated efforts
d) Improved software testing
e) Higher employee engagement

23. Which development methodology is best suited when high system

reliability and formal testing are key requirements?
a) Agile
b) System Prototyping
c) V-model
d) Iterative
e) Waterfall

24. What is a common advantage of Iterative Development?

a) Minimal stakeholder involvement
b) Only one prototype is developed
c) Early versions of the system are visible for feedback
d) Waterfall structure remains intact
e) Reduced testing efforts

25. A stakeholder analysis during organizational feasibility checks for:

a) Budget overflows
b) User interface readiness
c) Influence, support, and resistance of involved parties
d) Technical compatibility
e) Documentation completeness
Chapter 3
1. What is the purpose of requirements determination in system analysis?
a) Design the user interface
b) Identify what the system must do
c) Code the software
d) Install the network infrastructure
e) Test the new system

2. Which of the following is a type of functional requirement?

a) The system must respond within 2 seconds
b) The system must use a MySQL database
c) The system must allow users to retrieve order history
d) The system must comply with GDPR laws
e) The system must support Arabic language

3. A requirement that describes performance speed or system availability is

classified as:
a) Technical requirement
b) User requirement
c) Business requirement
d) Non-functional requirement
e) Data requirement

4. Which of the following techniques is MOST commonly used for

requirements elicitation?
a) Testing
b) Interviewing
c) Deployment
d) Cost Analysis
e) Version Control

5. Which of the following is a functional requirement in an information system?

a) The system must allow students to print transcripts
b) The system must be installed on Linux OS
c) The system must use cloud backup
d) The system must be accessed by managers only
e) The system should follow ISO 27001
6. Which of the following describes a performance-based non-functional
requirement?
a) The system should run on Windows and MacOS
b) The system must integrate with the ERP
c) The system must respond within 1 second for 95% of transactions
d) The system must have a dashboard
e) The system must use a PostgreSQL database

7. Which of the following elicitation techniques involves asking a group of

users and analysts to work together in a structured workshop?
a) Interview
b) Questionnaire
c) Observation
d) Joint Application Development (JAD)
e) Document Analysis

8. What is the main purpose of document analysis during requirements

determination?
a) Analyze project cost
b) Examine existing system workflows and forms
c) Observe system users
d) Conduct brainstorming sessions
e) Generate reports

9. Which of the following is an example of a security non-functional

requirement?
a) The system must encrypt all customer data during transmission
b) The system must allow order printing
c) The system must be available 24/7
d) The system must use HTML5 forms
e) The system should generate inventory reports

10. The most appropriate technique to gather quantitative data from many
users is:
a) Interview
b) Document analysis
c) Questionnaire
d) JAD
e) Observation
11. In observation technique, which behavior may reduce the accuracy of the
findings?
a) Employees may work faster under observation
b) Analyst may forget to take notes
c) Management may influence decisions
d) Systems may go offline
e) Interview questions are misinterpreted

12. A statement like "System should allow customers to view their bills for the
last 12 months" is an example of:
a) Performance requirement
b) Business requirement
c) Functional requirement
d) Technical requirement
e) Organizational goal

13. What is the main objective of activity-based costing in requirements

analysis?
a) Estimate system hardware needs
b) Identify most expensive business processes
c) Determine software licensing cost
d) Review employee behavior
e) Calculate project duration

14. In root cause analysis, analysts focus primarily on:

a) Improving solution design
b) Tracking project schedules
c) Identifying the core issue behind a problem
d) Selecting user interfaces
e) Writing code snippets

15. The result of combining elicited information and analysis strategies is

called:
a) System Feasibility Plan
b) Software Manual
c) Requirements Definition Statement
d) Business Value Proposal
e) Risk Matrix
16. Which requirement analysis strategy involves studying how other
companies perform a similar business process?
a) Root Cause Analysis
b) Informal Benchmarking
c) Outcome Analysis
d) Activity Elimination
e) Activity-Based Costing

17. Which strategy is most appropriate when improving process efficiency

without major system redesign?
a) Business Process Reengineering (BPR)
b) Activity Elimination
c) Business Process Improvement (BPI)
d) Business Process Automation (BPA)
e) Strategic Costing

18. Which of the following is TRUE about structured interviews?

a) They are suitable for exploratory questions
b) Questions are spontaneous and open-ended
c) They are not useful for business analysts
d) They use pre-written, specific questions
e) They require no preparation

19. What is the main difference between structured and unstructured

interviews?
a) Structured focuses only on technical staff
b) Structured uses predefined questions, unstructured allows flexibility
c) Structured is only for JAD sessions
d) Unstructured cannot be documented
e) Unstructured is always faster

20. Which requirement analysis strategy encourages eliminating steps in a

process and evaluating the impact?
a) Activity-Based Costing
b) Activity Elimination
c) Outcome Analysis
d) Informal Benchmarking
e) Root Cause Analysis
21. What is the biggest benefit of conducting JAD sessions compared to
individual interviews?
a) They cost less than email surveys
b) They provide faster documentation
c) They facilitate consensus building across stakeholders
d) They are conducted without a facilitator
e) They generate software prototypes automatically

22. What is a challenge in applying observation technique for requirement

gathering?
a) Users may underperform
b) Users may alter behavior when being watched
c) Analysts forget to ask enough questions
d) It collects only qualitative data
e) It cannot be used in hybrid systems

23. Root Cause Analysis differs from Problem Analysis by focusing first on:
a) Proposed solutions
b) Workarounds
c) Symptoms
d) Problems and underlying causes
e) Business benefits

24. Which nonfunctional requirement ensures that only authorized users can
access specific system functions?
a) Performance
b) Cultural
c) Legal
d) Security
e) Operational

25. Which of the following requirement strategies seeks to redefine system

outcomes and values from a customer perspective?
a) Duration Analysis
b) Informal Benchmarking
c) Outcome Analysis
d) Activity Elimination
e) JAD
Chapter 4
1. What is the main purpose of a Use Case?
a) Analyze database relationships
b) Understand user interactions with the system
c) Define system architecture
d) Document project costs
e) Schedule system implementation

2. Which of the following best describes an actor in a use case diagram?

a) A system function
b) A user role that interacts with the system
c) A process that stores data
d) A background technical process
e) A database relationship

3. What symbol represents a use case in a diagram?

a) Rectangle
b) Diamond
c) Ellipse/Oval
d) Parallelogram
e) Circle
4. What does an include relationship in use case modeling represent?
a) Optional actions
b) Inherited user roles
c) A common function reused in multiple use cases
d) A condition for using the system
e) A form of user access control

5. Which of the following is TRUE about a use case diagram?

a) Shows how data is stored in files
b) Describes user-system interactions
c) Focuses on server architecture
d) Represents only functional requirements
e) Defines testing strategies

6. In use case modeling, the actor can be:

a) Only internal system components
b) Only database systems
c) Any entity interacting with the system, human or external system
d) Only customers
e) Any user within the organization only

7. Which statement is TRUE about a generalization relationship in use case

diagrams?
a) Shows multiple users performing the same task
b) Indicates conditional performance of use cases
c) Models inheritance among actors or use cases
d) Is used for technical requirements
e) Is part of class diagrams only

8. The primary actor in a use case is the one who:

a) Initiates the use case and receives direct benefit
b) Maintains system logs
c) Observes internal processes
d) Performs system testing
e) Monitors process exceptions
9. What is the outcome of a fully dressed use case?
a) Technical documentation
b) User interface mockups
c) Detailed textual description of all flows, preconditions, and exceptions
d) Network design specifications
e) Entity Relationship Diagrams

10. Which of the following best describes an extend relationship in a use

case?
a) A sub-case that is mandatory
b) Reusable functionality used by other cases
c) An optional or conditional behavior triggered under certain conditions
d) Parent-child actor relationships
e) Indicates system response time

11. Which section of a use case includes descriptions like “System checks
stock availability”?
a) Preconditions
b) Trigger
c) Main Flow / Normal Flow
d) Alternate Flow
e) Summary

12. In a use case scenario, what is a trigger?

a) Output format
b) User role
c) Condition that initiates the use case
d) Result of a system query
e) Server response rate

13. The main difference between a brief use case and a fully dressed use case
is:
a) Visual elements
b) Types of actors involved
c) Level of detail and formal documentation
d) Project phase of usage
e) Types of relationships shown
14. The use case titled “Manage Customer Account” includes other use cases
like “Update Profile” and “Change Password”. What type of relationship is
this?
a) Extend
b) Generalization
c) Aggregation
d) Include
e) Inheritance

15. Use cases help in identifying:

a) Database tables
b) User interface design
c) System interactions and functional requirements
d) System architecture
e) Project feasibility

16. Which of the following would MOST LIKELY be modeled using an extend
relationship?
a) Generate monthly report → Login
b) Register customer → Validate Email (optional)
c) Add product → Create supplier record
d) Authenticate user → Manage orders
e) Send invoice → Create product

17. When multiple use cases share the same sub-function, it is best to model it
using:
a) Generalization
b) Extend
c) Data Flow
d) Include
e) Entity Relationship

18. What is the primary benefit of modeling use cases early in the SDLC?
a) Define database normalization rules
b) Capture detailed technical designs
c) Identify major system interactions and scope early
d) Create complete architectural diagrams
e) Prepare source code prototypes
19. A Precondition in a use case is:
a) A trigger event
b) Something that must be true before the use case starts
c) The system’s output
d) An alternate path
e) The ending condition

20. What is the main reason for using use case generalization between actors?
a) Show multiple use case paths
b) Avoid drawing too many actors in one diagram
c) Represent inheritance/shared behavior between user roles
d) Demonstrate implementation strategy
e) Replace triggers with system logs

21. The “Log in” use case appears in multiple diagrams and is triggered by
many actors. Which modeling technique optimizes this?
a) Duplication
b) Generalization
c) Include Relationship
d) Alternative Flow
e) Exception Handling

22. A fully dressed use case provides all EXCEPT:

a) Preconditions and postconditions
b) Description of system response
c) Actor descriptions
d) Database architecture diagrams
e) Alternate flows

23. The use case modeling technique that best supports modularity and
reusability of requirements is:
a) Generalization
b) Extend
c) Include
d) Entity Linking
e) Decomposition
24. A primary actor initiates the use case. What is a secondary actor’s role?
a) Reviews use case documentation
b) Triggers alternate flow
c) Supports the system during the use case execution
d) Owns the system requirement
e) Defines use case diagrams

25. In use case modeling, the first step is usually to:

a) Design database schema
b) Create interaction diagrams
c) Identify actors and their goals
d) Define testing procedures
e) Choose system architecture
Chapter 5
1. What does a Data Flow Diagram (DFD) primarily represent?
a) Database relationships
b) Project management flow
c) System processes and flow of data
d) Employee organization structure
e) Network configuration

2. What shape is used to represent a Process in a DFD?

a) Circle or Rounded Rectangle
b) Triangle
c) Square
d) Ellipse
e) Hexagon

3. Which DFD component represents data at rest (e.g., files, databases)?

a) Process
b) Data Flow
c) Data Store
d) External Entity
e) Relationship

4. What is the role of External Entities in a DFD?

a) Store system data
b) Initiate or receive data from the system
c) Perform internal computations
d) Manage code execution
e) Design system architecture

5. A Context Diagram shows:

a) Database tables
b) All detailed internal processes
c) Only the system boundaries and external interactions
d) DFD Level 2 relationships
e) Programming logic

6. What does a solid arrow represent in a DFD?

a) Control flow
b) Database link
c) Data flow
d) User command
e) Hardware interface

7. Which of the following is TRUE about a Level-0 DFD?

a) Shows only external entities
b) Contains only one process
c) Breaks down major processes into subprocesses
d) Represents program code
e) It does not include data stores

8. What is the term used when data flows and components are consistent
across DFD levels?
a) Normalization
b) Decomposition
c) Mapping
d) Balancing
e) Synchronization

9. Which DFD level provides the most detailed decomposition of system

functions?
a) Context
b) Level-0
c) Level-1
d) Level-2
e) ERD

10. In a DFD, which of the following elements must always connect to a

process?
a) External Entity
b) Data Store
c) Data Flow
d) Control Flow
e) Decision Box

11. What is a DFD fragment used for?

a) Display hardware configuration
b) Show alternate flow in use case
c) Represent part of a use case or process
d) Store relationship tables
e) Draw ER diagrams

12. What number is typically used to represent the single process in a context
diagram?
a) 1
b) 100
c) 0
d) 10
e) A1

13. Which of the following is a correct naming convention for a DFD process?
a) "Customer"
b) "Update Order Status"
c) "File Storage"
d) "Order Data"
e) "Purchase Record"

14. In DFDs, a data store must be connected to:

a) Another data store
b) A process
c) An external entity
d) Another data flow
e) None of the above

15. What kind of error occurs if a DFD element violates modeling rules like
missing inputs/outputs?
a) Conceptual error
b) Logical error
c) Syntax error
d) Strategic error
e) Data error

16. Which of the following is an example of an alternate data flow scenario?

a) All user data goes directly to archive
b) Only valid payments go to 'Update Balance' and invalid ones to 'Generate Alert'
c) All flows merge into a single process
d) All data stores send info to one entity
e) Each process has only one path

17. When decomposing a DFD Level-0 into Level-1, which principle must be
preserved?
a) Syntax
b) Numbering
c) Balancing
d) Data Storage
e) Triggers

18. Which of the following is TRUE regarding DFD numbering hierarchy?

a) Level-0 uses 0.1, 0.2…
b) Level-1 uses dotted numbering like 1.1, 1.2
c) Context diagram uses 1
d) Level-2 starts at 0
e) All levels use alphabetical naming

19. The phrase “Perform Payment Validation” would most likely appear in
which DFD element?
a) Data Store
b) Data Flow
c) External Entity
d) Process
e) Trigger Event

20. What is a key difference between data flow and control flow in DFDs?
a) Control flow is shown using solid arrows
b) Control flow does not involve data movement
c) Data flow involves system behavior
d) Data flow determines user privileges
e) Control flow contains only triggers

21. A DFD shows an external entity sending data to a data store directly. This
is:
a) Valid modeling
b) Called data loop
c) Syntax error – entities must interact via a process
d) Balancing error
e) Generalization

22. A DFD that models the entire business system and only one process is
called:
a) Level-1 DFD
b) Top-level ERD
c) Context Diagram
d) Level-2 Process Diagram
e) Generalization Flow

23. Which DFD element can be shared across multiple diagrams while
maintaining balancing?
a) Processes
b) Data Flows
c) External Entities and Data Stores
d) Use Cases
e) Control Structures

24. What does a postcondition in process modeling refer to?

a) Trigger that activates a data store
b) The result/output after the process completes
c) Flowchart rule
d) Exception handler
e) Feedback mechanism
25. The main purpose of creating multiple levels in a DFD hierarchy is to:
a) Reduce diagrams
b) Model database relationships
c) Provide clarity through step-by-step functional decomposition
d) Design user interfaces
e) Test system errors